#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages ยท Page 682 of 407
for free abelian that's true yeah
should i bother with proving that cosets of a subgroup partition the group or just take it as a fact
prove it
do it do it now
its not much
ur saying abelian and ab=e?
bruh
ok i see what you said
what
anything AND abelian
But I was wondering what about not abelian
any relation and abelian implies there will be finite subgroups
Can you give me an explicit example
too many coujter examples
yeah
D_infty
No cus the generator s has order 2
thats my point
What is the original questionโฆ?
$$\langle a, b \mid R\rangle$$
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what lol
order of a and b are infinite
Question: can there be finite non-trivial subgroups
Subgroup of what?
.
If you kill the order of a or b, yes that makes this trivial, but what if you don't.
Of <a,b>?
over the free group its trivial to show but I think they're talking about infinite abelian groups
good thing I'm not joining in then
Subgroups of whatโฆ?
What is R?
is it enough to show it on G \leq G 
Any relations that preserve the infinite order of a and b
literally what are you talking about
are you mental bruv
For example, $$\langle a, b \mid ab\rangle$$
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this preserves the infinite order of a and b
are there any finite non-trivial subgroups
"is it enough to show it on G to prove it for G"
durr hurr uehhhh uuehrherrr
i um uhhhi uhhh ummm
I feel like there can't be in general
If Your question is for any R, there existsโฆ then no
Your example is a counterexample right?
how
Itโs isomorphic to Z
a = b^-1
<a,b:ab=e> is isomorphic to Z
o
its just <a>
Claim:
Forall R that preserves the infinite order of a and b, <a, b | R> has no non-trivial subgroups
example ๐
ima draw this, ty
Yes
and the set of all cosets is every element of G times H
e is contained in <ab>
so their union will have every element of G times 1 so just G
mr wew lads hurr durr me now 
me now that ive proven a simple thing
Can anyone quickly check a proof?
very short proof
mainly used this fact from my notes which I can take for granted
*disjoint union
@delicate orchid im sorry to disappoint but for an automorphism f, f(x^G) = x^G does not imply f is an inner automorphism
D:
I asked to be sure
For groups where this holds true, it's called the Grossman property
is there anything important about cosets that are equal
we went over two ways to show that that is the case in class so just wondering
Two cosets are equal iff they have non-empty intersection
yeah im asking about the usefulness of this
you want to show the cosets partition G
if the cosets did not partition, we would have problems
I'm going to poopy my pants... how is this so?
The given example in there is good
(just note alpha and beta are switched)
Let $G = \tn{Sym }\bZ$ (symmetric group of $\bZ$).\
Let $H = \tn{Sym}_f\bZ$ be the permutations with finite support (permute a finite number of elements).\
Let $\beta\in G$, with $\beta(n) = n + 1$ for $n\in\bZ$.\
Let $\sigma_\beta\in\tn{Aut }G$, with $\sigma_\beta(\alpha) = \beta\alpha\beta^{-1}$ for $\alpha\in G$\
Claim:
$$(\forall\alpha\in H)(\beta\alpha\beta^{-1}\in H)$$
but $\sigma_\beta\not\in\tn{Inn } H$.
written badly but hope its ok 
wrote that wrong
G just has to be a permutation group
Symmetric group of Z
Let $G = \tn{Sym }\bZ$ (symmetric group of $\bZ$).\
Let $H = \tn{Sym}_f\bZ \trianglelefteq G$ be the permutations with finite support (permute a finite number of elements).\
Let $\beta\in G$, with $\beta(n) = n + 1$ for $n\in\bZ$.\
Let $\sigma_\beta\in\tn{Aut }G$, with $\sigma_\beta(\alpha) = \beta\alpha\beta^{-1}$ for $\alpha\in G$\
Claim:
$$(\forall\alpha\in H)(\beta\alpha\beta^{-1}\in H)$$
and for each $\alpha$, the permutations $\alpha, \beta\alpha\beta^{-1}$ are conjugate in $H$,\
but $\sigma_\beta\not\in\tn{Inn } H$.
Does anyone have any advice about finding subrepresentations by hand (not using character theory), is there any way to approach this, or do I just make guesses of what I think could potentially be one?
first thing I try and do is look for subspaces that are invariant under the representation
that implies the representation is a direct sum of some representation over that space and a kernel space by Maschke's (unless you're working over some wacky field)
2.5.10, Algebraic NT notes
'Moreover, if f1, f2, ..., fn are the n distinct K-emeddings of K(a), then ...'
The necessary and sufficient conditions for ^ to happen are...
K(a) splits the minimal polynomial of a
or
K(a) : K is normal
And a condition of separability?
Right? (Haven't got to this bit in Galois but want to know ๐)
I think itโs that itโs separable???
Oh, only separable?
Or maybe normal as wellโฆ
I know having n-distinct embedding into k-bar is equivalent to separable
Ok, so K-embeddings in these notes
mean L -> C
So I think just separable
But if it was L -> L instead
Idk, you might want normal too
then I think we need normal
I just am thinking that like
a can only go to one of its conjugates
And that determines the entire automorpjism
So youโre bounded by the number of conjugates
Also these are number fields so separable is automatic lmao
It must be normal then
I think you always have n in the closure
So you said embeddings into C?
But if you instead consider L -> L is also what I'm interested in ig
an open source textbook and reference work on algebraic geometry
If you glance through thi
Lemma 9.2.10 and 9.2.11 is what you want
I think
Ah thanks !
I am bad at field theory
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I'm guessing K-hom, F -> Fbar
Itโs the maps K -> F-bar fixing F

Can we say how many maps we lose from inseparability?
I feel like it's precisely the number of repeats in the minimal polynomial
I'm not sure if something like this makes a difference\$(x-\alpha)^2(x-\beta)^5$ vs $(x-\alpha)^3(x-\beta)^4$
๐ค
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yeah
oh i remember
seperable extensions are those which elements are representable as linear combinations
Great Icosiheptapeton
form elementary divisors how can i show two given finite abelian groups are isomorphic?
can you please tell me what are other conditions we need to show they are isomorphic?
u can show they have same invariant factors and free rank, but if you only know the elementary divisors, I don't think there's much you can do
so one thing is clear that if they don't have same E.D then they never going to be iso?
^
yes
why is Lagrange's theorem useful
when you could just use the counting formula

How do you find subrepresentations without using character theory?
Hey guys, for this proof my argument was by contradiction. Initially I supposed that there was such an alpha, which in turn meant that there was a polynomial f in K_0 such that alpha was a root of it, and f is also monic. This meant that since alpha is not in K_0, then we must have that f is irreducible of degree at least 2 in K_0, which is a contradiction as K_0 is and algebraic closure of K and thus algebraically closed; meaning that all polynomials must split entirely into linear factors. Is my argument faulty?
Can someone help me understand slices? I am trying to understand these class notes -
@chilly ocean
Anyone available for just a quick feedback?
I think itโs correct
Ok perfect, thanks
just to clarify, a semigroup is a set with one binary operation which is associative. but there is no guarantee of an identity or inverse element?
and so to prove that a set with that operation is a semigroup i just have to show that the operation is associative?
yes and perhaps show that function is indeed a binary operation
it must be closed under the operation too
cool thanks
I'm on the verge of crying in the club once more chat
I hate finite fields so much it's unreal 
L
I might have to admit defeat on my funny representations of C_p over F_p excursion
like does anyone have any idea how diagonalizability works for matricies over finite fields?
cause every matrix I try and work with seems to be diagonalizable 
$\begin{pmatrix}1&1\0&1\end{pmatrix}$?
Troposphere
am I diagonalizing things wrong?
P^{-1}AP should be diagonal for some invertible matrix P.
the characteristic polynomial (1-x)^2-1 = x^2+2x definitely has non-repeated roots (except for char 2) so you should be able to diagonalize it?
No, the characteristic polynomial is (x-1)^2 + 0ยท1 =(x-1)^2.
oh yeah lol
god my brain is so frazzled I've been at this for 4 hours
can I just ask a series of stupidly easy and probably obvious yes or no questions
Sure, though I have to go in about 5-10 minutes.
firstly, are elementary row/column operations expressible through conjugation by another matrix
like adding one row to another
No, row operations is multiplying an elementary matrix from the right left only.
that definitely matches with what I found
and over char 0 it's obvious because the character of the representation isn't preserved so the matricies cannot be conjugates of each other
(In principle diagonalization can be described as doing some row operations, and then also doing the same operations as column operations -- but I don't know a way to make that picture actually helpful, intuitively)
oh yeah that's what I've been trying to do
and what I did, before I realised that I can't do it via conjugation
which broke everything
oh I know why I thought that it's because over C you can do a change of basis to diagonalize it
Well, P^{-1}AP is a conjugation all right. And since P is invertible, it can be factored into elementary matrices. I just don't know a way to figure out those elementary operations one by one with diagonalization as the goal.
Change of basis to diagonalize still works over other fields.
If (and only if) you can find a basis consisting entirely of eigenvectors, that will diagonalize the matrix.
What you can't do over arbitrary fields is hope to get an orthogonal basis change, because F^n in positive characteristic doesn't have a well-behaved inner product to normalize the eigenvectors by.
yeah the lack of an inner product is... annoying
anyway thanks for your help tropo
yw
Can someone verify my work for this homework problem? Seems more simplistic than my other problems but worth a lot of credit so just wanted to make sure I wasn't missing something obvious, thanks
looks good to me
god bless ๐๐๐
One thing to note here is that
If you just adjust this proof accordingly, you can assume that b^n = 0
For any n
This is a useful thing to know sometimes
yeah this is a special case of a more general theorem
Okay, so let's say I have two extension fields: $\Q(\sqrt{2},\sqrt{3})$ and $\Q(\sqrt{2}+\sqrt{3})$, how would I show that these two are the same?
dackid
I do know that the first extension field is the smallest subfield containing those roots, so we have one inclusion, but what about the other?
There is a hint about looking at the inverse of rt(2)+rt(3), which is in the first field, but I am not entirely too sure how that helps.
You can use minimality in the other direction I believe, too
Theres 2 ways I've heard of
In fact I feel you've proven the harder inclusion lol
The naive way is to create a system of equations
That first inclusion luckily follows from a lemma we have done
Basically i just mean both are extensions containing both square roots and their sum, conclude by mininality
Yes
Okay, so what about the other direction makes it trivial?
So let me get this straight
You have shown
Q(rt2 + rt3) subset of Q(rt2, rt3)
Or the other one
Other way
Q(rt2,rt3) is a subset of Q(rt2+rt3)
How does that lemma show it tho
The latter contains rt 2 and rt 3 with a tiny bit of work
actually yeah, good point. Gotta put a little extra bit of work to show Q(rt2+rt3) actually contains rt 2 and rt3
So not quite there yet
Anyways, what makes the other direction trivial?
you can show rt2+rt3 is in Q(rt2, rt3)?
If a field contains sqrt(2) and sqrt(3) then it contains their sum
closure under addition
right, so the challenge is the other direction
So the first general method of showing this (if you are told it is true):
$$\sqrt[n]a, \sqrt[m]b \in K(a + b)$$
if $n, m$ aren't too big is to consider powers of $(a+b)$. This generates a system of linear equations with variables you need to eliminate
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If you call x = a^{1/n}, y = a^{1/m}
Then the a+b is a 'constant'
x, y are unknowns you need to find
the powers of x and y are unknowns you need to eliminate
Isn't this trivial since 2 and 3 are already in Q?
We already know the field contains Q
Sorry, sqrt(2) and sqrt(3), typo
So you end up with 5+2rt(6)
So where does the multiplicative inverse of rt(2)+rt(3) come in?
in this method it doesn't.
Let k = a+b
Let x = rt2
Let y = rt3
k = x + y
k^2 = 5 + 2xy
Oh ignore me
no nvm im not. 2 equations 2 unknowns, proceed.
Oh, we can show rt(2) and rt(3) are in this field. Since we are in a field, the element rt(2)+rt(3) has an inverse: Namely rt(3)-rt(2). So subtracting both of these and dividing by 1/2 gives rt(2), and adding both of them together and dividing by 1/2 gives rt(3)
whoa whoa
Z is a PID so Noetherian 
So since we have shown the field contains both elements, we can apply the lemma
not sure it works out so nicely in other examples ๐ค
There is one small kink, say you had $\Q(\sqrt{a}+\sqrt{b})$, then [ \frac{1}{2} ((\sqrt{a}+\sqrt{b})+(a^2-b^2)(\sqrt{a}+\sqrt{b})^{-1})] will give one of the roots
dackid
And then subtracting instead of adding will give the other one
looks ok for sqrts I guess ๐
And that's all I need for the moment
you probably meant a - b
but not entirely obvious
Ye I did. My bad
If you wanna look ahead the 'Primitive Element Theorem' generalises this idea
$$K(a + cb) = K(a, b)$$
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It tells you precisely when this occurs for algebraic a, b
Out of curiosity, what would be a situation where this fails? Apart from when c is equal to 0
Another way ig is that also Q(sqrt(2) + sqrt(3)) is a deg 4 Q- extension by considering its min poly
Oh actually I didn't. I just wrote (rt(a)+rt(b))^-1 instead of the rationalized form
The min poly is going to come from the next part, so I am trying to avoid that (since it wants us to use info from this and that [Q(rt(2),rt(3)]=4
Sure, just considering the inverse is faster too
Yea, this inverse trick got me there fast. In the end, I just needed to show that the lemma holds in both directions, and that I didn't quite understand right off the bat.
Oh rip I thought they were talking about abelian groups
the problem is about abelian groups 
I believe its this statement but im not 100%
Let $L:K$ be an extension. Let $a, b\in L$ algebraic and separable.
$$(\forall a', b')\quad c\neq-\frac{a - a'}{b - b'}\implies K(a + cb) = K(a, b)$$
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where a', b' are conjugates of a, b (not equal to them), respectively
conjugate meaning root conjugate
The roots of an irreducible polynomial are considered to be 'conjugates' of each other
You probably know what algebraic means. For now, you can consider stuff in Q, R, C separable ๐ค
tG isnt even a group in general if G isnt abelian
Z is noetherian, submodules of finitely generated modules over a Noetherian ring are finitely generated
That an incredible proof lol
Thanks for the help ryc and shuri. Much appreciated
Yes.
Does it??
this is just <ab,b>
Iโm pretty sure thatโs the entire thing
yeah it is oops
You need to do something more clever
the correct way to reason about this is by covering spaces, find a countable cover of the rose on 2 elements
hatcher has good pics
<ab,b> is too large -- it contains b, which the subgroup defined by Leaf doesn't.
(ab)^{-1} (abb)
Oh, bah, you're right.
here are some subgroups of F2
(10) and (11) in particular are infinite generator free groups
love these diagrams
Okay yeah b^nab^-n is the one I was thinking of
Very pretty
Okay, I need help. I somehow need to show that $\sqrt{3-\sqrt{-2}}\in \Q(\sqrt{3+\sqrt{-2}})$.
dackid
Well, I need to show that field is a splitting field, but this condition needs to happen in order for that to work
I think try figuring out the minimal polynomial
essentially 'guess' a quartic
That would be my appreciation ach at least
Yea, I know the min poly
Nevermind I got it!
The issue is not that it is the minimal poly, the issue is making sure that element is in the field.
I actually need to show $\sqrt{2-\sqrt{-5}}$ is in $\Q(\sqrt{2+\sqrt{5}})$ and I can do this by showing the inverse of $\sqrt{2-\sqrt{-5}}$ is in the field.
dackid
And I was having trouble seeing how to do it, but I just got to be a bit smarter with how I simplify things since $(\sqrt{2-\sqrt{-5}})(\sqrt{2+\sqrt{-5}})=3$.
dackid
Quick question, why is Z/nZ not a subring of Z for n โฅ 2?
Ig it has sth to do with the definition or I'm just tripping 
is it because, say for Z/3Z, 2 x 2 = 4 is not in Z/3Z?
It would be, unless you require the rings to have unity.
Wait hold on
Z/nZ
They don't even have the same operations 
You're adding mod n in Z/nZ
It's not the operation inherited from Z
right, so 2 + 2 = 4 is also not in Z/3Z 
Correct
True, but you need to change the operation for that
At that point it seizes to be a "substructure" of Z in a sense
Got you โ 2 + 2 = 4 and not 1 ๐

Probably slightly more pedantic but Z/nZ is also not a subset of Z, strictly speaking. Z/nZ consists of equivalence classes of integers, not integers themselves.
um, also more obviously, subrings are additive subgroups, so... it may not even be embedded in Z. lol.
why not 
{0, 1, 2} is not a subset?

0 is representative of the equivalence class of integers that are congruent to 0 mod 3
okayyyyy- so 0 is not really an integer per se
In this context, yes. To not cause confusion some textbooks write equivalence classes with an overline
Like a bar above 0 to denote the equivalence class of integers that are congruent to 0 mod n, or so on.
Daaaamn, that really changes my outlook on Z/nZ by a hell lot. Ty for warning me before hand 
You can also consider Z/nZ as a structure that lives apart from the integer (so that you can call its elements things that please you better instead of equivalence class) that inherits a โless detailedโ form of its operations
Though I guess this is better for groups than rings
Also, can you hint me to proving:
A finite division ring is necessarily a field.
Since cyclic groups are sometimes better to think about without reference to Z
I think this is a rather hard problem if Iโm not mistaken
The easier one is showing that a finite commutative integral domain is a field
Lemme check
Yeah I just showed that any finite integral domain is a field
commutative wasn't necessary, finite was sufficient
Commutative is necessary
Otherwise you just show itโs a division ring
And wedderburn finishes it off
But wedderburn is not trivial to show
Hmm, apparently this is Wedderburn's little theorem: the main theorem proves the result for finite domains, the little theorem proves it for division rings.
Yeah the wiki proof seems complicated
Huh okay
Or maybe I got confused, nevermind
Right
Hmm. That thing's exactly where I need to be (ใ๏ฝฅ_๏ฝฅ)ใโณโโณ
Unfortunately, I need to go through the whole thing to reach there smh
Why do you need to be able to prove wedderburn?
our batch's already done with Field Theory and they're half way into the Galois Theory
It's not like I need to be able to prove it, but at the bare minimum.. I should be able to understand it..
Anyways, I'm starting with like Ring Theory ... hopefully can cover some stuff before I'm totally overwhelmed 
Oh I mean Iโm sure you should be able to understand it yeah
Itโs seems like the background material isnโt too intense
Itโs just a bit long
tysm

the feeling of being left out
the feeling of having midsem up your ass
end sem in weeks,
in 3 days-
my modsem just ended
Lmao gl
Umm,
If R is a subring of a field F that contains the identity of F then R is an integral domain.
say 'a' is a zero divisior, that is, there exists b such that ab = 0
1(ab) = 0 = (ab)1
1 is a zero divisor in R, which
which is :pain:
hence, R must be an integral domain?
So yeah this works
Well no
This doesnโt work
This doesnโt show that 1 is a zero divisor
Since ab=0
bruh, ryt
All you have to do is suppose there is a b such that ab=0, then a^-1 * ab = a^-1 * 0 => b=0
So a is not a zero divisor when invertible
umm, fields are integral domains right?
And you show this by what I said earlier
I'm very concerned atm
What is a field norm?
I'm following Dummit n Foote, it keeps giving me facts first and proofs later on smh
A field norm is an application N: F -> R such that N(ab) = N(a)N(b) and N(0)=0 iirc lemme check my definitions again I always mix it up with vector space norms
is reading on Vector spaces compulsory to follow up with field theory?
I've came across the term bases several times, so I kinda feel like if I'm gonna read on splitting fields n extensions, vector spaces would be the prerequisite
Yeah no this is so wrong lol
An integral domain norm N takes R -> \bN with N(0) = 0
You definitely ought to be familiar with vector spaces yes
I mean
Surely youโve had a linear algebra course before field theory ๐ค
If you donโt know what a basis is thatโs a problem Iโd say yeah
I mean, yes I do understand what basis is, on a very beginner level but understanding something like this.
What is it you donโt understand
reposting from getting-help due to no response. how do I find the generator(s) of GF(2^m)? for example, let's take GF(2^3) with irreducible polynomial 1011. I know that it its order is 8. I know that I can generate all the elements by exponentiating the generator 0 to 7 times, e.g. f^0 = 1st element ... f^7 = last element. however, what is the general approach of determining the generator to use? also, does it make sense to talk about order of each element (polynomial) in GF(2^m)?
Is GF(2^m) the Galois group of the field with 2^m elements over ๐ฝ_2?
yes
Then it is cyclic of order m, generated by the frobenius automorphism x โฆ xยฒ
x โฆ xยฒ is an element of the Galois group
so, how do I find the generator(s) of GF(2^m)?
That generates the whole group
You can prove that this automorphism has order m
And since the Galois group has order m as well, this must generate the entire group
so is it x or x^2?
as I said, I do not speak mathemateese
alright. thanks
Oh a generator of Gal(F_2^n/F_2)โฆ I thought you meant generator of (F_2^n)*๐
Yeah Gal(F_p^n/F_p)=<ฯ:xโ>x^p> and Any m|n we have a galois correspondence Inv(ฯ^m)=F_p^m
Can someone please give me a simple definition of Derived series of a group, i am confused in definition available on Google. Thankyou
you just keep applying the commuter to the group to get new terms in the series
The dรฉrivรฉe series is just an iteration of taking commutator subgroups
Derived*
So the factors of the series gives you a measure of how your group fails to be abelian
like, say $G = S_4$
then $G_1 = [S_4, S_4] = A_4$, $G_2 = [A_4, A_4] = C_2 \times C_2$, $G_3 = [C_2 \times C_2, C_2 \times C_2] = {e}$
Wew Lads Tbh (200 ๐) โ
so the derived series is $S_4, A_4, C_2 \times C_2, {e}$
Wew Lads Tbh (200 ๐) โ
this is a good way to think about why we'd care about the derived series, for example the derived series of all abelian groups immediately terminate at the identity group after 1 step (although in general the series does not have to terminate at the identity group)
Thankyou ,now this is very much clear to me by this example.
So basically this is a tool to verify the given group is abelian ( can we say this)?
a group is abelian if and only if it's commuter is trivial yeah
To be absolutely precise a derived series tells us whether a group is solvable or not
Ie it terminates iff the group is solvable
The case where it terminates after one step tells us the group is abelian
I thought terminates at {e} iff solvable?
S_5's derived series terminates at A_5 an S_5 is not solvable, so yeah
oh so quintics do have a formula ig
there's a specific way you can go from a derived series to the nice funny field extension pretty easily but I cannot remember it
Looks like something related to Galois tower
which quintic has corresponding galois A5
reverse galois problem 
is it not easy to write down ๐
I can barely compute galois groups from polynomials let alone the other way around 
I have likely a silly claim with a likely silly proof for the claim. Suppose $R$ is a non-unital ring of real-valued functions (the details are probably not so important, but correct me if I am wrong). Suppose I have a generic element $\sum_{i=1}^nf_i\otimes g_i$ in the tensor product $R\otimes_RR$ such that $\sum_{i=1}^nf_ig_i$ is a zero function, namely $\sum_{i=1}^nf_i(x)g_i(x)$ is identically zero on the domain $D$.
Is it correct if I claim the tensor $\sum_{i=1}^nf_i\otimes g_i$ is
then zero in the tensor product?
My (silly) reasoning goes as follows, since $\mathbb R\otimes_\mathbb R\mathbb R=\mathbb R$, then $\sum_{i=1}^nf_i(x)\otimes_\mathbb R g_i(x)$ is identically zero on $D$. We can actually view (this is where my doubt lies in) $\sum_{i=1}^nf_i\otimes g_i$ as a function on $D$ with target $\mathbb R\otimes_\mathbb R\mathbb R$: $x\mapsto \sum_{i=1}^nf_i(x)\otimes_\mathbb R g_i(x)$ hence the claim follows. Is there anything wrong with my reasoning here?
ฯฯฮบ
Thatโs what I meant yeah
I donโt consider it terminates if it gets into a loop
But fair your terminology makes more sense
I mean, you can keep computing more terms of the series even if it reaches {e}, it just loops back to {e}
Same goes for every perfect group
Yeah thatโs fair
I'm proving (1 implies 2)
and I need help understanding the meaning of (2)
What is a maximal element under inclusion?
Isn't that just zorn?
what is $Cl^0(V,Q)$? Is it the subset of clifford algebra on which the grading automorphism evaluates to 0?
The proof uses AOC
It's just a maximal element when looking at the partial ordering of inclusion. That is, it's a submodule in the set such that no other submodule in that set contains it
Yea I just mean 1 implies 2 is a direct application of zorn
Iteribus
I see
So if some submodule is not a maximal element
then there necessarily exists a larger submodule containing it?
Yes
Great, I can see a proof by AOC now
wait you can't evaluate to 0
evaluates to 1?
Thanks!
Np
I don't understand the part in yellow, because the definition of a Noetherian ring says that it is not possible to have an infinite ascending chain of ideals
No
Wellโฆ yes
But these are separate chains
For each n, there exists a chain of length > n
Oh okay wait, so "arbitrarily long" means that we can find a chain C_n of length >n for every n
Gotcha, my bad. Thanks!
Right
People didnโt realize this was a thing for a while I think
And Nagata constructed an example of a Noetherian ring with infinite Krull dimension
Even in Z we have (p^n) subsetneq (p^{n-1}) subsetneq (p^{n-2}) subsetneq ... of arbitrary length.
Thatโs weird wording, youโd expect โarbitraryโ to include any ordinal
are all non trivial irreducible subrepresentations isomorphic to the trivial, standard or sign representations? I can't think of a easy counter example
What is the standard representation
Also of which group lol
Cause I can give you a degree 2 irreducible of D_3 acting on a triangle and a degree 3 irreducible of A_4 acting on a tetrahedron
ah ok
ahh cheers
in that case definitely not, the number of conjugacy classes in S_n is the number of paritions of n as Todd said and they're in a 1 to 1 correspondence with the number of irreducibles - so for n > 3 there are more than 3 different irreducible representations
Hello. I am not sure if this is the right channel to ask but... how can a quintic equation have only 3 solutions? why aren't there 5 solutions?
A quintic polynomial has exactly 5 roots, but some of them might not be real roots
also some roots can have multiplicity > 1
I see. The reason I am asking is because I'm working with one equation like this that I'm solving numerically in Python via newton and it only gives me back 3 roots
are the other 2 roots complex?
They probably are tbh but my code doesn't give me 5 roots, only 3, so I probably have to tweak it until something happens and I get all 5.
this isnt what #groups-rings-fields is about btw
If two of the remaining roots are complex, then you won't get them. Similarly, if the multiplicity of a root is 3, or two roots have multiplicity 2 each and the rest 1, then also you won't get more roots. Consider expressions like (x-1)ยณ(x-2)(x-3) or (x-1)ยฒ(x-2)ยฒ(x-3).
Also, as others have mentioned, Abstract Algebra is different. You can head over to #prealg-and-algebra, #precalculus or #computing-software depending on what you intend to ask.
not exactly alg but i got nowhere to ask and im doing alg hw so - what does $\mathbb{R}^\times$ usually mean
ฮผโ
I don't exactly know why the codomain would be R star, but that usually denotes the set of invertible elements in a ring
yeah i dunno ยฏ_(ใ)_/ยฏ
The multiplicative group R^x I assume here but then there's a typo lol
maybe author meant $x$...?
no that should be the set of invertible real numbers
$\langle \bR, + \rangle \mapsto \langle \bR^{\times}, + \rangle$
Wew Lads Tbh (200 ๐) โ
dunno how this is a group homomorphism though
classmate thinks it's ordered pairs of reals
but then if it was it'd just be \R \times \R and not this buffoonery
yeah (R^x, +) isn't even a group, the most likely thing is they meant to write f(x)f(y)
You should.probably just ask your prof
yeah I even initally wrote \times as the group operator out of habit
Additive functions f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y) from R to R^x can't even exist
Since we must have f(0)=0
not a group with this definition right?
not under + no

it might be the old "hahaha lets use + to denote any abelian group operation" in which case I'm jumping off of a bridge
this isnt even my prof's fault for once, it's textbook lol
i had to prove this for my last homework 
and contains id
yeah i just mean it's the most obvious thing, ive been getting weird hw's
with the two conditions it automatically contains id
its the kernel of det, which is a homomorphism 
loch is shiny and blue now 
the operation of two groups doesnt matter in an isomorphism right
like one group can have addition and the other can have fucking concatenation or some shit idk
what i mean is there can be an iso between those right?
there can be, yes

the free group is usually constructed via concatenation
but on e.g. 1 generator its just Z
Unless Iโm being stupid, shouldnโt it be all the products of the eigenspaces generated by the diagonal entries of the matrices? That is, the weight space of the subgroup of G generated by one element is just the eigenspace of that element, and the group itself is an infinite product of such subgroups. You can then say that the corresponding sub-representations are all products of eigenspaces.
I thought a weight space is some eigenspace of the corresponding Lie algebra?
An eigenspace of a Lie algebra is a weight space, but you can have weight spaces that arenโt obviously eigenspaces of Lie algebras. A weight space of an algebra is just the space generated by the one dimensional representations of the algebra over its corresponding field.
That doesnโt require your algebra to be Lie, although it may be true that you can create a Lie algebra with an identical weight space given a weight space. Iโm not sure.
How does your book define it?
I'm using whatever Brocker tom Dieck is using as it goes along and it hasn't been defined in the general case yet
my prof never defined it rigorously
can someone look over one of my proofs?
Better to just post it and ask, rather than asking to ask
looks good!
topology in abstract-alg 
no worries boss lol, you might be able to get a quicker answer in #point-set-topology
guys
what is a group presentation?
im kinda confused on how to approach this problem
,, \langle a \mid a^n\rangle
Have you seen this before?
Yes, but this is known as a 'group presentation'
i put C_3 = <a,a^3 =1>
Alright.
Similarly all groups can be presented in such a way.
You list the generators
Then you list the relations they follow.
would this be a correct
(look up group presentation for a better explanation than mine - im just trying to give an idea)
with the usual operation
now.........
I'm just thinking to myself here
if it is right
take your time bro
My approach would be to identify generators of this
(a, e), (e, b)
As you have implicitly done sounds like a good approach
Their order is indeed 3
and ab = ba is necessary
So the question is if you have left out anything else (I feel you haven't for now)
What would be convincing is if you construct an isomorphism between the two
To show a morphism in general, if you decide where the generators map, it will fix everything else
So I would go about showing an isomorphism between that group you have written down and $C_3\times C_3$
Decide where the generators map to, then show the homomorphism property holds.
You haven't named S
so I'm not sure
Hmmmm what you've written doesn't sound complete to me
okay what parts of my attempt is good then
how do you prove relations
Let $G = \langle a, b \mid a^3, b^3, aba^{-1}b^{-1}\rangle$\
Let $H = C_3\times C_3 = {(c, d):c,d\in C_3}$\
Let $f:G\to H$ with $f(a) = (a, e)$, $f(b) = (e, b)$
This would be my start
And you show this is a well defined homomorphism on all members of G
and show bijective
(I feel like I could have written this explanation better but
)
(this is for any n, m, and you note the abelian relation in G makes this well defined)
so H would be my group representation right
do i just do this by showing bijective?
one more question, when it says find a group presentation what exactly am i supposed to do? I kinda just guessed to do mine
like how do i know if its a valid group presentation
show homomorphism
show bijection
By constructing an isomorphism explicitly
If you want to prove it beyond a doubt
Perhaps if you look up presentations of common groups, though
you will get some intuition for it
Your guess wasn't just any old guess
You listed the order relations. And the commutativity relation --- both are necessary in that direct product
The question then is a matter of convincing yourself you haven't left anything out
which is why we create a homomorphism
then make sure that is isomorphic?
and how do i know which homomorphism to make?
You created your presentation in such a way that the isomorphism you want is obvious
map the obvious generators to each other
(there really isn't much choice of homomorphism that has a hope of working you could try here)
You can read this explanation
@hidden haven can I have an opinion ๐ #advanced-lounge
#advanced-lounge message
just a 'its possible or impossible' would be plenty ๐
I didn't quite get it, you are considering doing a project in cat theory and you want to know if that would be possible for you?
Ye it should be good
That differs
But I think you are at a point where it is reasonable to learn cat theory
And you should learn cat theory as soon as possible, it is very worth it
๐ thanks. Will speak with my tutor then
Just read those two picturesโฆ
I can send them again if you canโt find that channelโฆ
ฯ here is your f, C_3 I denote it Z/3Z
Subgroups of commutators might be at beginning sections of their text book, since he is reading presentation , he must have learned subgroups of commutators already.
I highly suspect this lives in #real-complex-analysis
I haven't seen horseshoes in algebra yet
This is complex analysis yeah
Hello
I was wondering if a Dihedral Group $D_n$ is actually a union of the rotational symmetry group and the mirror reflection group?
$D_n = R_n$ U $M_n$
Pencil
By mirror reflection group do you mean the group of just the identity and the reflection or the set of all symmetries with a reflection in them?
Identity+reflection
Then no itโs not the union, itโs the semi direct product of the two
It is the union of the latter, theyโre the cosets of the group of all rotations
No worries
I learned about the dual numbers...
maybe a month ago
and I find them very cool ๐
For you all who have never heard of the duals, a dual number z is an ordered pair of real numbers (x, y) where ฮตยฒ = 0 and ฮต =/ 0. A dual number is usually denoted in the form a+bฮต
Wyatt The Baguette
Woah R[x]/x^2
So a field has no proper ideals. Can we still mod something out?
e no 0
trivial ideal
Si
a very powerful property is it's property of automatic differientiation
Wyatt The Baguette
For example,
f(x)=x^2
(x+e)ยฒ
xยฒ+2ex+eยฒ
now, we know that eยฒ = 0
so, xยฒ + 2ex
now, we divide the terms with e by e to get the derivative
2x
so, when we plug a dual number into a real function, we get that function plus it's derivative (times whatever e is multiplied by)
Dividing by a zero divisor ๐คจ
This is definitely true and is cool
But you canโt have a zero divisor be a unit
Pop quiz prove that a zero divisor canโt be a unit
I just meant that that the term with e is the derivative when e isn't there
yeah definitely
1/epsilon = 1/epsilon + 0/epsilon = 1/epsilon + epsilon
canceling out 1/epsilon we get
epsilon = 0
which is false
1/ for multiplicative inverse 
i shall be better
Also not sure about that proof
a^-1 + 0a = a^-1+a?
no
Thatโs what you wrote
what
lemme do it in latex
$a^{-1} = 1 a^{-1} = (1+0) a^{-1} = a^{-1} + 0 a^{-1} = a^{-1} + a\$
(cancellation) $\to 0 = a$ which is a contradiction
all functions are alison
I still do not agree with $0a^-1 = a$
Wew Lads Tbh (200 ๐) โ
epic latex fail
lemme do mine
$aa = 0 \to a = 0a^{-1}$
all functions are alison
Why does a^2 have to be 0
oh
It could be any element of the ring times a equal to 0
my head was stuck in dual numbers
i can just slightly modify it then
$a^{-1} = 1 a^{-1} = (1+0) a^{-1} = a^{-1} + 0 a^{-1} = a^{-1} + b$ for $b \neq 0\$
(cancellation) $\to 0 = b$ which is a contradiction
all functions are alison
$ab = 0$ with a and b non zero
Assume there exists a $c$ such that $ac = 1 \Rightarrow ac+ab = 1 \Rightarrow a(c+b) = 1 \Rightarrow c+b = c \Rightarrow b = 0$ contradiction
Wew Lads Tbh (200 ๐) โ
you additively cancel a^-1
Ah never mind I see it now
e is a 0 divisor indeed
Had to look all the way from one side of my monitor to the other thatโs craszzzyyy
please dont do hacks
what hast thou donest here
me no get
f(x+e) = xx + 2ex
i follow to here
what next
huh?
this is the last step
f(x+e) = xยฒ + 2xe
xยฒ is function, 2x is derivative, so yopu get function and derivative with one calcluation
define ef'(x) to be
f(x+e) - f(x)
is this what ur saying or did i misread
ye
You donโt need to actually take the inverse
this definition alone doesnt convince me
wikipedia beats both of us
we dont?
Iโm going to cry
by e inverse you mean 1/e
okay
so
Itโs a 2 dim vector space over R, if youโve got a pure real part plus a pure e part you can be sure theyโre not linearly dependent
Allowing you to clearly separate fโ(x) from f(x)
you can't divide by e, but can you divide by a dual number where a =/ 0
0 + ef'(x) := f(x+e) - f(x)
Another cool thought Iโve had is that you can kind of separate the nth derivatives by taking f(x+e) with e^n = 0
is it this?
YurrrrrR
and you can take arbitrary derivatives in a formal power series ring 
formal derivative lets go
True but I donโt CARE
I just do not CARE
wew you have hurt me
I mean sure you can take those derivatives... but you canโt do it with the f(x+e) swaggg
Yeah itโs not a clean separation anymore
it's just f(x + e)
Instead of R[X]/(X^n) we probably will have to take R[X_1, ... X_n]/(X_1^2, X_2^3 ..., X_n^(n+1))
e^a when a > 1 is 0
I am tryna think of some cool properties
for $R[[X]], f(a + X) = \sum_{n\geq 0} X^n D^n (f(a))$
ye this one is cool
e^(a+b(varepsilon)) = e^a + e^a * b(varepsilon)
which means that e^(a+(varepsilon)) = e^a + e^a * varepsilon, which defends the fact that d/dx e^x = e^x
yep
there is also a matrix representation
$(a + b\eps)^n = a^n + a^{n-1} b \eps$
all functions are alison
n
so
$\sqrt{\eps} = (0 + \eps)^{\frac{1}{2}} = 0^{\frac{1}{2}} + 0^{-\frac{1}{2}} \eps$ is undefined
all functions are alison
u missed the binom
all functions are alison
this doesn't apply to epsilon by itself
yeah
e^n = e or 0 (for positive integers)
*vareps
\eps is what i use for varepsilon
when what do you use for epsilon
Yeah this is what I was getting at
$f(x+\eps) = \sum_{n \geq 0}^k \eps^n D^n f(x)$
all functions are alison
yeah
I was thinking about not being able to wretch them out via linear independence
Although maybe you can... lemme think....
you get a formal power series ring
What are maximal ideals in C[x,y] , any hint?
It's related to the Nullstellensatz
Maximal ideals of C[x,y] are the ideals (x-a, y-b) for complex numbers a and b
This will also help ,but if you can guide me how to reach to this conclusion?
To be honest I don't remember the proof
you do not need the nullstellensatz, you can use the fact that C[x, y] = C[x][y] and C[x] is a PID
then classify all maximal ideals in R[y] for a PID R
you use something like contraction of maximal ideal is maximal
and gauss lemma
(you maybe saw this done for Z[x] once, the proof should be similar)
(nullstellensatz works too though)
I have come accross this word alot of times , so it will be better to check this out
Thankyou
the nullstellensatz is a lot more powerful
weak nullstellensatz my beloved
it classifies all maximal ideals in C[x_1, ..., x_n]
(or any algebraically closed field)
Yes somewhere it is mentioned that it is like a bridge between algebra and algebric geometey ( dont know i am right)
yes
I can't even pronounce it correctly
it is german 
it's german if that helps
"theorem of the roots"
I thought it's "zero place theorem/statement"
Looks like related to zeros of multivariale functions ๐
I trust your translation more than mine though, loch 
welcome to alg geo
well, nullstelle is zero/root (of a polynomial)
literally "place of zero"
you can probably make some connection to places (also called stellen in german) if you want
mine is pretty ok, dont worry about it
Is there some quick intuition for why Char 0/Char 0 extension => separable
or wishful thinking ๐
something something every irreducible over char 0 is separable something something so every field extension of char 0 is seperable
Because fโ doesnโt equal 0
f irreducible, (f,fโ) divides f, (f,fโ) has to be 1, f and fโ are coprime, so f and fโ doesnโt have common root in the splitting field of f, so f is separable
(nx^(n-1) doesnโt equal 0 since characteristics is 0)
What's the analogue of semidirect products for rings? Like what can you do, if anything, to present, say, Z[x]/(p(x)g(x)) nicely where those two polynomials are not coprime and chinese remainder theorem doesn't hold?
Is that the best you can do? Just leave it like that?
In any ring is it true that a non unit must have a prime factor
no, take Z/6Z and the element 3. The only ways to write 3 as a product (up to ordering) are 3 = 3*1, 3 = 3*3, and 3 = 3 * 5. But 3 is a zero divisor and 1,5 are units, so none of them are primes
In general the idea of "prime factors" doesn't work very well outside of PIDs. Sometimes factoring into irreducible elements makes sense, but there's a lot of rings where factoring just isn't sensible
In the ring Q[t^2, t^3] the elements t^2 and t^3 are both irreducible, which is like a generalization of prime elements, but t^6 has two irreducible factorizations, as t^2 * t^2 * t^2 or t^3 * t^3
I'm thinking about what these P_\alpha are
and I feel like they're principal ideals generated by a prime element
Not in general, no
or I can just claim any x in UP_alpha is in a prime ideal
So if S = R \ (union of P_ฮฑ), what can you say about the relationship between S and a single P_ฮฒ?
nvm there's a proposition saying xR can be embedded in a prime ideal P such that S\hat P = empty
ty
yep!
+1 curious
Cross product of a group and a ring sounds like an analogue
But I never really used it, only saw it sometime when reading about second homological groups or something
Thanks, that was enlightening
So I'm thinking about the other case --- if char = p
Then I reckon f is inseparable only when (f, f') = f. This happens only if f' = 0
And f has to be of the form
$$\sum^n_{k = 0}a_ix^{kp}$$

makes sense