#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 717 of 407
overkill is fun
as a rule of thumb always do these problems with topology
its more elegent and intuitive 🙂
(by ggt bais coming in lol)
can someone help me understand this proof
for context R = Z_2[x]/(x^3+x^4)
i understand how they get the first equation
but then after that i don't understand how they get from that equation to the other equations
i'm having some difficulty with working with the dihedral group (trying to investigate a specific equation in D4 and then generalizing into Dn). is there an isomorphic group that might be more straightforward?
Well it’s hard to know because dihedral group means anything isomorphic to that group
Here’s the two ways to describe it I know
1: group of symmetries of a regular n-gon
2: group described by the presentation <r,f| f^2 = e, r^n = e, frfr = e>
For multiplicative cyclic groups
say I have some number n = pqr for primes p, q, r
how can I quickly find a generator for (Z/Zn)*
there is no good way right?
In aluffi the hilberts nullstellensatz is presented as "If k is an algebraically closed field, then all the maximal ideals of the polynomial ring k[x1, x2 .... xn] in n variables are of the form (x1 - c1, x2 -c2, x3 -c3 ... xn - cn). However, when they prove the theorem they prove "If k is a field and F is a field extensions of k, and F is a finite-type k-algebra,then F is an algebraic extension of k".
I don't see exactly how these are the same.
if m is a maximal ideal in your polynomial ring k[x_i], you should look at the field k[x_i] / m and apply your theorem as well as algebraic closure
you will find that the natural map k -> k[x_i] / m is an isomorphism. take c_i to be the inverse image of x_i mod m. then x_i - c_i is in m for each i, by which m = (x_1 - c_1, ..., x_n - c_n) since this ideal is maximal
If you just want a generator take n-1. If you want to find all of them then idk lol!!
But unless I’m having a massive brain fart (Z/nZ)^x is not cyclic in general
it is not
but they wanted "a generator" so I'm assuming they're talking about one of the cyclic cases
or they are simply unaware
the more I think about it the odder the question becomes actually
Yeah exactly
we basically require all of the primes to be identical or one of them to be 2 and the other pair to be equal in order for it to be cyclic
so that's a good check lol
How important are all the explicit cone and cylinder constructions in homalg really
Am I going to need this later
I know that there's a definition of chain homotopy using the cylinder
They are important
@inland otter @tribal moss Thanks mates!
I've used the cone a few times for some of the proofs about lifting to projective resolutions but I haven't used the cylinder except for like one exercise
IDT that's true if it's maximal two-sided since non-division rings with no nontrivial two-sided ideals exist.
But if it's maximal as a left ideal or as a right ideal (and still a two-sided ideal), I think this is true.
Ah cool cuz I don't wanna spend too long on this stuff
Just a bunch of LES chasing
so Tor functors are what makes M⊗N -> M' ⊗N -> M''⊗N ->0 into LES but how do I actually calculate Tor_i of M, N. I saw some constructions using free resolution but I didn't understand it
I think you are confusing Ext and Tor. Ext is for Hom and Tor is for tensor products
Where are you reading about this? Typically one would calculate using resolutions. Understanding resolutions is a prerequisite to understanding ext/tor
yeah, the only two things I really remember are mapping cylinders let us replace morphisms with monomorphisms while keeping the induced map in cohomology, and mapping cones of quasi-isomorphisms are exact
I meant Tor* sry
Aluffi
Is it true that maximal totally real subfields of cyclotomic fields are galois extensions of Q?
I genuinely have no idea and I can't find stuff online
Cyclotomic fields are abelian, and all subfields of abelian fields are galois
Yes this is the standard computation. You need to understand resolutions before you can understand higher tor/ext
I have understood it but what does it mean to "throw M away and tensor the free by by N obtaining complex M*xN?"
like how's the second complex is even exact?
like if we throw away M
Discard the M on the right
ignore
And tensor the rest of the complex with N
it's not!
This gives you a new complex
Which, as you realized, is no longer exact
So we can take homology of it and get something interestinf
If it were exact, then homology would be zero
Sry i said left here but i meanr right
okay
maybe think it like this. you have the category of modules. after that you saw how you could construct the category of chain complexes. so one thing you can do is try to understand a module using slightly easier modules (eg. free modules).
there is a way to embed Mod_R into the Ch_R, just send a module M to the complex ... 0 -> 0 -> M -> 0 -> 0 ...
but there are other complexes which mimic this complex. one such is the complex you get when you take a free resolution and throw away M. it's a complex and at each index it's homology matches with that of ... 0 -> 0 -> M -> 0 -> 0 ...
okay maybe this made things a little more complicated 😓
lol i realize idk how to explain this stuff
.<
Kraft Macaroni
yes, you're correct about the degree
you could either: find its galois conjugate, which you know must be the other root of the min poly, and then multiply the linear factors together
like (x - a)(x - b) where a = your element and b = its galois conjugate
or, since you know it's quadratic, just look for a quadratic relation
square it
and then look for a linear relationship between a^2, a, and 1
Vector space is closed under addition and multiplication. But isn't this trivial if we already "defined" as $+: V \times V \to V$ and $\cdot: \mathbf{F} \times V \to V$?
yea you would usually use the word closed when talking about subspaces
a subspace of a vectorspace V is a subset W which is closed under addition and scalar multiplication
since you already have a meaning of + when talking about addition of two elements of W, it makes sense to ask if the result again lies in W
else like you said, if you define + : V x V --> V, then closed-ness is already built-in
Ah I see. Thank you!
the first sentence is an error, right?
set of polynomials in ring R shouldn't be equivalent to functions from N to R, as polynomials have finite support.
Yeah seems so
It’s only about the size
Well, that’s how I would interpret it to give them the benefit of the doubt
Wait is that even true?
No
Lmfao
I wouldn't care if it didn't change the size also
but I believe the distinction makes it countable
that said, still not finite so the proof stands
does artin cover dual vector spaces?
and where do you first get introduced to this topic?
Linear Algebra section of Abstract Algebra
Chapter 11 of Dummit and Foote covers them.
Artin doesn’t cover a lot, but it’s really short, so you gotta expect that
First place I really needed dual spaces was functional analysis
And ig some duality stuff for (co)homology with field coefficients
And lefschetz fpt
its defined to you
it's not defined as such
it's stated to be as such
also, what does "each block with lambda=0" mean?
yea
and k_i^block only concerns blocks with lambda=0?
yes
how about when lambda=/=0?
how do we get the size of those blocks?
oh
ok, for that you just set T to T-\lambda I
yes
makes sense
ok, hmm
but how would we add the numbers k_i^blocks if we don't know how man blocks there are and their size beforehand?
jcf
(
)
we're going the other way.
you know abstractly you can decompose the matrix into blocks. now since we're interested in blocks with eigenvalue lambda, we look at T - lambda * I. This converts all those blocks into nilpotent matrices.
so from the information of k1, k2, ... could we figure out the sizes of those blocks?
since the blocks whose eigenvalue was not lambda stay invertible, they're not gonna contribute to the value of k_i. with the explicit description of each block you can see that k_d - k_{d-1} is the number of blocks with size at least d. this means that number of blocks with size d is exactly 2k_d - k_{d+1} - k_{d-1}
if $\alpha$ is transcendental then why the evaluation map $$ k(x) \to k(\alpha)$$ is not onto
Lizard
k is a field
it is surjective
of course k[x] --> k(alpha) isn't. it's surjective if and only if alpha is algebraic.
oh i don't think its a typo
if alpha is algebraic, then you can't even define the map k(t) --> k(alpha)
because if alpha satisfies the polynomial f(t) then where does 1/f(t) go?
yep

Lmao look at page count 
wait my copy only has ~1000 pages
Lmao dw I fused DF, Einsbud, and Hartshorne
💀
good luck on the grind
What exactly is a fundamental representation?
never fear, I am here
do you know about weights of representations
Nope
I did see mentions of it in a lot of places, but, no clue.
ok this might get a bit dicey cause I'm not too comfortable with them 
Go ahead anyway, my guy.
basically a weight is a homomorphism from an algebra to a field, kinda like a linear character of a group if you know about them
yeah it's just a 1 dim rep of the algebra
ahhh I can't remember how it goes
basically
we can formulate a "weight of a representation" using a "weight space" by some means
So, fundamental would mean lowest weight?
and a fundamental representation is one such that it's "highest weight" (which is what you think it is, it's the weight such that all other weights are lower than it) is it's fundemental weight, which I think of as kinda being a "unit vector" of this weight space
Oh, lol
this explanation is bad but it's the best I can do 
now I retreat back into the comfy world of finite groups 😌
Wait, what's a fundamental weight?
they're some weights that form a basis of a subalgebra of the algebra we're taking a representation of, I think
why are you asking about this btw
just curious
The professor just threw the term in the notes and never really explained.

Yeah, I'm doing a master's in mathematical physics.
is left multiplication by $[a] \in \mathbb{Z}_n^{\times}$ an automorphism? i think it's not even a homomorphism, right?
Left multiplications are not a homomorphism
I cannot imagine why you'd need to know about weights for representations of groups
capitalsigma
The professor never really explained what fundamental representations are; he just gave examples.
the whole point of them is they generalise eigenvalues and eigenspaces for algebras - tbh if it's just thrown in there without explanation and doesn't appear elsewhere in the notes I'd just ignore it and learn from past papers lol
yeah that sounds like physics
(
)
ok, i don't know wtf this question is asking then: prove that for any $[a] \in \mathbb{Z}n^\times$, multiplication by $[a]$ defines an automorphism $\alpha{[a]} \colon \mathbb{Z}_n \to \mathbb{Z}n$, given by $\alpha{[a]}([k]) = [ak]$
There are no past papers; it's the first time the course has been offered at the institute.
capitalsigma
is this just an incorrect question?
What's $\mathbb{Z}^{\times}_n$?
SK2099
the group of units of Z/nZ
the multiplicative group mod n
good, cause it's bad
LOL
lol
But, yeah, left and right multiplications shift the identity
oh, i see, the groups are different, it's asking if multiplication by a unit is a homomorphism in the additive group
yeah, cool, thanks!
np
nope >.<
Okay, let's do one more.
it can probably mean many things depending on the context
reps of lie algebras
oh nope, me no know lie stuff
Where does equation (22) come from?
good lord
I have to google what the spin groups are everytime bro 
That fancy I is a unit quaternion.
Unit quaternions.
Spin(3) at least.
wait that actually makes sense
how terrifying
what's the sigma with the squiggle
The sigma with the squiggle takes you from the quaternions to 2 by 2 complex matrices.
so if you're rotating on the x-y plane the unit quaternion for that rotation is k and its corresponding matrix is
[i 0]
[0 -i]```
multiply that by alpha/2 and exponentiate to get
[exp(alpha/2 i) 0]
[0 exp(-alpha/2 i)]
matrix exp isn't painful with diagonal matrices :3
.<
The signs don't match
they don't?
SK2099
This is confusing me. Does it really matter whether you write the j as a superscipt and the i as a subscript?
I am guessing not
In that case it only implies that a tranposition induces a horizontal mismatch on the indices right?
the indexing scheme is related to tensor notation. You can ignore for now
ooh okay I see thanks

oooh
that makes so much sense
so k_i^block was just to demonstrate how k_i changes as i increases
(also, please don't hesitate to ping me in case you wanted to reply to me :))
wait i have a quesiotn then
cuz its for the proof of this top equation
can't u just say its equal to 0 because when u plug in 0 and 1 in the first equation x^{m+1}+x^{2m}+x^{2m+1}+x^{4m} evaluate to 0 in Z_2
why do u have to plug in these monomials and stuff
unless ima interpreting wut they mean by mod (x^3+x^4) wrong
You mean, why can't we say the polynomial is zero because it evaluates to 0 for everything we plug in?
yea
like \equvi 0\pmod{x^3+x^4}
because there's a difference between a polynomial and a polynomial function
ohhhh
wait then like
do u get the m\geq 2 case
i don't get how they simplify eveything to x^3
polynomial functions are a quotient of all polynomials
they are using the relation x^3 + x^4 = 0
To be precise, they are quotient by ideal (x^p-x) where p is the characteristic of the field
rewrite this as x^4 = -x^3, or just x^4 = x^3 since 1 = -1 in Z_2
so you can replace all x^4 with x^3
but now multiply both sides by x
x^5 = x^4
and x^4 = x^3,
basically, a^p = a for all a in characteristic p is why it doesn't work
so x^5 = x^3
now multiply both sides by x again
basically, in this quotient, you have x^3 = x^4 = x^5 = x^6 = ...
so all higher powers of x can just be replaced by x^3
Can I ask what you're reading that cares so much about this specific ring
I love char 2......
Literally the worst characreristic
agreed
say (0) is a prime ideal in integral domains and no one bats and eye
say 0 is a prime in integral domains and every1 loses there minds...
🃏
pages 8 and 9
so i know how to prove that a linear map is injective, but what is the general process i could for a map which is not? for example, something like T(X)=XAX^(-1)AX, where X and A are square matrices (and A is given). let's say 2x2s for simplicity.
well... for matrices maybe i could just look at the determinant. but what about for various other groups like the dihedral or symmetric group
Well, if by linear you mean a group homomorpjism, you just check to see if the kernel is nontrivial
Sometimes you can try to solve some equations or look at what’s going on and get a good idea as to what might be sent to 0 which is nonzero to begin with
i can use a nontrivial kernel for a map that isn't a homomorphism?
it's for a project that i'm working on. i need to know how to show that a map like T(X)=XAX^(-1)AX is or is not injective on a group.
fair enough
If the map isn’t playing nice with the algebraic structure, then you can’t bring the power of algebra to bear on the problem
So this basically just turns into “hope you figure something clever out”
ill do my best lol
So, stupid thing I noticed
If we have a ring, K, which has a characteristic k > 0, then every element in the additive group of K has order k if K is an integral domain
is this useful in any way
it's one half of showing that every field with char = p > 0 has a copy of F_p in it I guess
and cyclic groups are nice in general
I wanted to prove that every ring with a cancellative property (aka, 0 singleton is a prime ideal) is a commutative ring (just a step), and came across that
I wanted to avoid class equations
Maybe a dumb question, suppose I have two CSAs $A,B$ and an element $a\otimes 1$ which is known to be a unit. I wanna show that its inverse must be $a^{-1}\otimes 1$, but a priori $a$ is not a unit itself
ShiN
what do
wtf is a csa
what
no
central simple
i.e. its center is the base field and it has no nontrivial two-sided ideals
C* ALGEBRAS ARE ALSO NOT COMMUTATIVE
systemic discrimination of noncommutative algebras
for a ring R, define s(R) be the minimal degree for which a vanishing polynomial exists (aka a polynomial that evaluate to 0 for all inputs from R)
i asked a question earlier about Lemma 8 in this paper here
and i understand how lemma 8 shows that s(R) <= 4 (it shows a vanishing polynomial of degree 4 for R)
but idk how to show that s(R) = 4 (as in the remark that is left to verify by the reader)
does anyone understand how to show s(R) = 4
and note that brackets in the def of R denote the generated ideal, so its Z_2[x]/(x^3+x^4)
Is it possible for a Lie algebra to be simple over one field but not another?
Yes, sl(2, C) is simple but sl(2, F_2) is not
Those are two different Lie algebras
sl(2,C) is simple over both R and C, and sl(2,F_2) only exists over F_2.
find an element in R which doesn't satisfy a polynomial of degree 3 or lesser. ||what about x in R?||
could u elaborate a bit more
ima kinda confused
wdym "doesn't satisfy a polynomial"?
we would like to show that s(R) = 4, so there should be at least one element in R which doesn't have a vanishing polynomial of degree 3 or smaller
oh so u mean like find an element which doesn't vanish for any polynomial of deg less than 4?
yep!
why would x satisfy that?
because going modulo x^4+x^3 won't do anything to a polynomial with degree < 4
How does one show
$$\mathbb{F}{p^n} \subset \mathbb{F}{p^m} \iff n \mid m?$$
lewis
I actually only need to prove =>
bc I already have <=
I just don’t see a way to prove “=>”, I’ve tried pretty much everything I had on mind
nvm, I think I can see it:
$\mathbb{F}{p^m}$ is just some field extension of $\mathbb{F}{p^n}$, so consider the degree $[\mathbb{F}{p^m} : \mathbb{F}{p^n} = k$ for some $k \geq 1$. This means that $\ mathbb{F}{p^m}$ is a $k$-dimensional vector space over $\ mathbb{F}{p^n}$ and therefore isomorphic to $(mathbb{F}_{p^n})^k$, which shows that $p^m = p^{kn} \implies m = kn \implies n \mid m$.
F_(p^m) is a vector space over F_(p^n)
lewis
yeah
welp, latex on phone is not the best
What is the initial object in R-alg?
I solved it it was stupid
C(1\otimes B)= A \otimes 1 and centralisers are closed under inverses
Weibel proves that a projective R-module is a direct summand of a free module, but he says that this is iff but doesn't prove the other direction. Is it immediate?
It shouldn't be more than a few lines, you need to use the fact that free modules are projective along with the composition P -> F -> P
Can someone give an intuitive definition of Cayley’s Theorem
Btw he says that there being an incluson i from P to F and a projection p:F to P such that pi=1_P implies that P is a direct summand. Is there a way to see this without using e.g. the splitting lemma?
And yea that was easy walter
The converse
hmm, i'm not sure about an easier way to see that a retract implies being a summand besides the splitting lemma since the proof of that essentially does everything by hand
True ig
I think Cayley's theorem is best understood in terms of group actions, do you have experience with actions?
Eh actually it's easy.
Clearly ker p and Im i intersect trivially, and you get the direct sum decomposition by considering ip of an element
Yes
Ok great, so every group acts on its underlying set via left-multiplication (just the group operation). Recall that the data of an action on a set is nothing more than a group homomorphism from G to the symmetric group on that set; in this case, we have a homomorphism G -> Sym(G) (the symmetric group on the underlying set of G).
We want to show that this map is injective to see that G is a subgroup of Sym(G), so we need to compute the kernel of this homomorphism. An element g is in the kernel if it acts trivially on the group, so lets suppose g acts trivially on the group. In particular, g * e = e, which implies that g = e. Thus, the kernel of the homomorphism is trivial, hence we can identify G with a subgroup of Sym(G).
is there a nice way to write $\gamma_5$, the 5th root of unity, using radicals?
Kraft Macaroni
So, Sym(G) acts on Obj(G’ (copy of G)) which produces an action g(s). Alternatively subgroup (G) only correlates part of the permutations on an obj (G’). So with the former we set G an action on the left side (left action) with an object G’ (which is really G) and a right action which is the byproduct of g(s) that can be denoted as g x s such that G correlates ALL permutations on G’..? Alternatively, having all permutations means that we have all symmetries.
I'm not sure what you mean by the right action. We won't be able to recover all of the bijections from G' to itself (or even all of the symmetries of G') because the homomorphism from G to Sym(G') isn't usually surjective, only injective. This is because the action of G on itself determines some of the bijections from G to itself, but not all of them.
We can only show that the homomorphism is injective
I see thanks
can someone explain how to go from the second line to the third line in this series of steps
i don't understand why x^3Q^3(x) = x^3Q(1)
For the same reason as I gave for the other thing. All powers of x higher than x^3 are just equal to x^3 in this ring. Maybe jt would help to write out Q(x) = a + bx + cx^2 + …
Then x^3 Q(x) = x^3(a + bx + cx^2 + …) = ax^3 + bx^4 + cx^5 + …
Now replace the higher powers of x with x^3 and factor out x^3 again
@prisma shuttle
Also why do you care about this ring so much? Youve been asking about it for days lol
oh i get it now
its for this paper ima reading
i don't really care about the ring lollll
its just an example ima trying to understand 🙂
thx for all the help
I think you need to just write tbinfs out more
Instead of staring at “x^3 Q(x) = x^3 Q(1)” for days wondering what it is
Just expand both sides
And it becomes clear
k thx for the advice
yea idk wut i was doing ahhh
inability to expand ig
Not sure where to ask this but is there an easy to obtain the dual curve of an algebraic curve in P^2(C)?
I’m asking because I’m trying to exercise applying Kippenhahn’s theorem to compute the numerical range of a matrix but I’m having some trouble getting the dual curve of det(uH_A+vK_A+wI)=0
And this is in a simple example with a Jordan block (the homogeneous polynomial above become 8w^3 -4wu^2-4wv^2=0)
Hmm there’s a way around that calculation but I’d still like to know
this should help
I'm trying to decide whether the set of continuous functions with compact support C(X)={f:X->R} on a manifold X is a ring with or without unity through pointwise addition/multiplication. I think there couldn't be a unit I_R because it would have to have compact support and to be a multiplicative identity suppI_R should contain the support of every other function C(X) which seems difficult for a compactly supported function
what is the support of the constant 1 function?
Hmmm maybe this depends on whether the manifold itself is compact
that's true. how so?
Well if the manifold is compact then maybe being a compactly support function is a cheap property that is easily satisfied.
But if the manifold is not compact. Maybe I could assume such an identify I_R exists. Then maybe in the complement of supp I_R there exists some compact subset such that a bump function exists with such support and that would be a contradiction to such a unity existing since the pointwise product would be zero since they have distinct supports
that's a nice argument
sounds alright to me
if X is compact then every function is compactly supported, so you're in luck
I wanna show that if P is a projective chain complex each of its components is projective. I wanna do this without using the fact that a projective complex is split-exact. My thought was to lift to corresponding diagram to a diagram of chain complexes and use the lifting property there, but i'm having trouble with getting the proper diagrame to commute
So say we are looking at P_0
Then for some objects B and C I have an epi from B to C and a map from P_0 to C which I wanna lift to B
I feel like maybe you could do this by looking at complexes concentrated in a single degree
The natural thing would be to consider complexes concentrated at degree 0
And basically isolate a specific part of your complex
But idk, I forgot how I did this
But the problem is I think extending the maps into chain maps is impossible if you try and do that
Extending your.maps.to chain maps
What about this
Consider the map P• -> P_n which is 0 everywhere except at the n-th where it’s id
Consider a surjection F -> P_n of a free module, all this happening in degree n
Won’t this let you split off P_n into F and get that P_n is a summand of F?
By lifting this chain map
Is this a chain map tho?
This square doesn't commute
Or a cokernel
Like image of P_n-1 -> P_n
Before the P_n that’s the target
But that makes it hard to work with the free complex
Yea
Yeah I forgot how to do this lmao
That again gives the problem of extending to a chain map
Yeah I mean
When you have a complex of free modules it becomes easy thoigh
Because it’s easy to define maps
You just work with generators explicitly and stuff
Me and a friend solved this by using the fact it's split exact and showing that the boundaries are projective
But I was wondering if there was a nice way without that
Let me see how I did it
let $K$ be a ring, $K^+$ it's abelian additive group, $K^{\times}$ it's multiplicative monoid.
Well, there exists an injection
$\ f: Set(K) \hookrightarrow End(K^{+}) \ im(f) = K^{\times} \$
Besides this being just currying, does this have any use
I assume $(K^{+},f)$ completely characterizes K.
Currying can also be used to characterize a semigroup G by noting that there exists an injection $\k : Set(G) \hookrightarrow Set(End(Set(G)))\$
Mizalign
idk if I'd call it a use but yes it can sometimes be clarifying to think of rings as Abelian groups with this action by endomorphisms
the same thing happens for modules where you think of these as Abelian groups with ring action like this
it works fine for left/right modules
since left or right scaling is an endomorphism of the "vector" Abelian group
and right or left multiplication is an endomorphism of the scalar ring
you just have to make a choice and stick with it consistently
like if you define R->End(M) as a left action then R^op->End(M) will be a right action
but you could also define it the other way around
as long as you keep the choice consistent it's fine
yeah
Well, actually
given the route I took in defining it, it doesn't matter
f is specified, which can be either left or right scaling, or both
Say for abelian groups
for modules you have to make a choice unless R is commutative
yeah then this is the distinction between left and right group action
then the function's L_x and R_x are not thesame
but still injective, and still characterize the group
they are seperate injections from the set of elements to the set of endomorphisms, with equal images
if they are the same injections, it's commutative
Thus, in the case of modules, yes left and right multiplication/scaling are different, but they are both injections which characterize the module i guess
Theoretically
For some set $S$, letting the set of injections from sets A to B be denoted Mono(A,B) by convention
$\$ Let $K = Mono(S,End(S)) \$
Can every element of $K$ can be considered as a semigroup when paired with $S$?
Mizalign
How many field embeddings are there $\text{Emb}_\mathbb{Q}(\mathbb{R},\mathbb{C})$. For some context I understand the notion of a totally real fields. I want to understand something a bit weaker i.e. if $\mathbb{Q}\subset \mathbb{K}$ is a finite field extension (it being Galois is not important for now) and $\mathbb{R}_K := \mathbb{R} \cap K$ is it always true that $\text{Emb}\mathbb{Q}(\mathbb{R}K, \mathbb{R}) = \text{Emb}\mathbb{Q}(\mathbb{R}_K,\mathbb{C})$?
Kraft Macaroni
det
Actually maybe I phrased this completely wrong
this is not too hard to show, by set theory number of such maps is at most |C^R| = 2^(|N| * |R|) = 2^|R| = 2^c
so you just need to find at least 2^c maps
What I want in the end really is that for any $\sigma\in \text{Gal}(K/\mathbb{Q})$ we have that $\sigma(\mathbb{R}_K) \subset \mathbb{R}$
Kraft Macaroni
But i think I was overcomplicating things in trying to find an answer
pick a transcendence basis for R, say B and define the map f(b) = +-b, since C is algebraically closed, this map would extend to all of R. now we can choose the +- anyway we like and so if you show |B| = c, you're done.
take K to be the splitting field of x^3-2. which is K = Q(cbrt(2), omega) and then K_R = Q(Cbrt(2)).
pick sigma in the galois group which sends cbrt(2) to cbrt(2) * omega so sigma(K_R) won't be entirely real.

How about if we restrict out view to $\mathcal{O}_K^\times \cap \mathbb{R}$?
Kraft Macaroni
i don't think that changes anything
cbrt(2) - 1 is a unit
one of its conjugates is cbrt(2) * omega - 1
which isn't real
wait det idt this actually works
because if u look in the example the coefficients can actually be "polynomials" themselves
here's the example to refer to
so couldn't the coefficients sort of "increase" the deg
s(R) is the minimum degree of a monic vanishing polynomial where the coefs of the polynomial are in R
so for that example: xP + (1+x)P^2+P^4 that would be deg 4, and the coefs x, 1+x, and 1 are all in R
and so to prove s(R) = 4 we have to somehow show that there can't be such a polynomial with deg < 4
ah, i see. the single polynomial should kill every P in R
exactly
we should just work it out then. if a polynomial with degree at most 3 kill everything, then in particular it kills 0, 1, x and 1+x. if it kills 0, the constant term is 0
so assume the polynomial looks like aP + bP^2 + cP^3
this should be 0 when when plug P = 1, x, 1+x
so we have
a+b+c = 0
ax+bx^2+cx^3 = 0
a(1+x) + b(1+x^2) + c(1+x+x^2+x^3) = 0
this means c(x+x^2) = 0 and only way this happens is when c is divisible by x^2, but as the polynomial we want should be monic this forces c = 0
so the equations simplify to a+b = 0 and ax+bx^2 = 0
so a = b and b(x+x^2) = 0
by the same logic b = 0
so s(R) >= 4
Is it true that if $K \subset L \subset M$ then $\text{Gal}(L/K) \subset \text{Gal}(M/K)$?
Kraft Macaroni
I think you'll find it's the other way around
Give me a moment to think about this
No, sorry. My mistake.
The idea is that if f is an automorphism of L:K then you can extend it to an automorphism of M:K, right?
If you can prove this, you should be done. Of course this is not a true subset but rather an isomorphic subgroup
So Let's say f is in Gal(L/K)
Since M has an L-basis (we know this since they are fields), we can certainly just define the lift of f as follows
So, let M have an L-basis V
We can assume that 1 is part of this basis
then we simply define f', the lift of f, as f'(x1) = f(x), and f'(v) = v otherwise, where v is some other basis element
Does that work as an automorphism?
It ought to, right?
I'd think so
one sec
the fact that it's an isomorphic subgroup actually complicates things quite a bit
I think we should be able to handle it
Yeah ok so the idea is that we send f to f' as described above
But first yeah, we just need to check that it works
if we want to gain any useful information about the actual field automorphisms
which I need to compute the field trace
i don't think it's true.
consider the quaternion group Q8. you know that there is a galois extension M/K with galois group G isomorphic to Q8.
Now take H = Z(G) the center of G, so H has order 2. define L to be the fixed field M^H. since H is normal L/K is galois and its galois group is isomorphic to G/H = (Z/2)^2 but this isn't isomorphic to a subgroup of Q8.
(you could also force K = Q as the inverse galois problem is true for solvable groups)
in general all you can say is that there is a surjection from Gal(M/K) --> Gal(L/K) given by restriction
Great counterexample
as det correctly pointed out, this isn't true in general; all you can say is that there is a surjection Gal(M/K) --> Gal(L/K), and this is assuming that everything is Galois. M/K being galois does not imply that L/K is galois, so you need to make two separate assupmtions.
However, if M/K is galois, then M/L is automatically galois, and you do have a subgroup relationship there: Gal(M/L) is a subgroup of Gal(M/K). it's a normal subgroup if and only if L/K is galois, in which case the quotient Gal(M/K)/Gal(M/L) is Gal(L/K)
does this argument work
@north sand since they helped me yesterday with a similar problem
Yep looks good. I just feel one should justify why inverse image of maximal would be maximal as that really needs the map to be surjective. But if you've proved it before then all cool
can this be generalized
yeah that was one of the exercises I did before
For two rings A and B, If C is a maximal ideal of A, then C x B is a maximal ideal of A x B
actually no
Yea, that's true I think
A x B/C x B = A/C x B/B = a field
Not only that every maximal ideal of A x B looks either like C x B or A x D
(where C is maximal of A and D is maximal of B)
bruh what
the first half
I get if A/B is a division ring then B must be a maximal ideal but
the first equality
oh should have parenthesised it properly. (A x B)/(C x B)
that's a quotient rule I haven't seen
I assume that holds for any algebraic quotient
Yea it does. It's a simple consequence of the usual iso theorems
If I, J are ideals of A and B respectively then we have the maps A x B --> A --> A/I and similarly a map A x B --> B --> B/J
oh, yeah
This induces the map A x B --> A/I x B/J
Easy to see surjective and that kernel is I x J
alright, cool

wait, the image of a ring homomorphism need not always be ideal so when can we actually apply first iso
First iso just says that a surjective map R --> S factors through the quotient and induces the iso R/ker = S
Oh yea :p
my book doesn't really say much about the iso theorems for rings
just states the first one
they're basically the same as the isomorphism theorems for groups
just replace "group" with "ring" and "normal subgroup" with "ideal"
and things like that
In weibel prop 2.3.10, he wishes to prove the contravariant hom functor Hom(-,R(I)) is exact, but he just proves it turns monos into epis. Is this sufficient? Because I think I saw an example where a monofunctor is not exact. Is he just sweeping stuff under the rug and there is more left to check?
Also, he requires the functor to be additive, but I don't see where additivity is being used here
A,B are abelian ofc
Is it because we exact functors are additive? Is an adjoint to an additive functor necessarily additive?
(I know this kinda toes the line between #groups-rings-fields and #category-theory )
I'm not sure why he didn't just draw out the full diagram
I don’t see what you mean
@chilly radish
You already know Hom(-,A) is always left exact
All you need to do is show surjecticity on the right
Oh right oop
And that’s what he did

I keep forgetting that lmao
Anyways adjoints are additive right
Between additive cags
Cats
I don’t know
That might be extra data
Or maybe it comes for free if both functors are additive
I wanna show that they're additive
You mean both cats?
If one is additige i'k almost certain the other has to be
No if the functors are additive
I mean you’re asking if the equation in the adjoint is also linear right?
I’m saying I’m not sure, but maybe if F and G are additive then it comes for free maybe
Wdym by linear
An adjoint is expressing
I'm asking if L is additive, is its right adjoint also additive
Hurb
Or do you get that for free
I thought you’re asking if the equation
Hom(LA,B) = Hom(A,RB)
Yeye
Your question seems more likely to be true imo
Extra assumptions never hurt nobody
Lmfao
Apparently adjoint functors are automatically additive?
The proof is simple too
Oooo and the equality of homs is also additive
I think
That's crazy
Loke not really but still lol
Ye I was saying if they're additive (and they are), hom.preserves finite biproducts and everything is natural so u should get that it distributes
If I know a free module decomposes as a direct sum, can I necessarily take homogeneous generators?
like a basis
yea right? I can just take a basis and decompose each element into its homogeneous components and then those should be linearly indpeendent as well
just wanna make sure i'm not missing anything
once we remove all the zeroes
what's a lie algebra class like?
I know it's a pretty vague question but ive been given the option to take two third year classes, and i know for one ill be taking rings and modules, but im not sure what to take for the other since most of the classes have a good few prerequesites but lie algebras is one of the only ones that doesnt really have any and sounds interesting
Lie algebras are vector spaces with a bracket
i guess my question is more in the direction of what "flavor" does the class have if you know what i mean
i know what i mean but im not sure how to communicate it lol
So it'll be pretty standard for an algebra class I think. Matrices can sometimes be emphasized a lot I guess
the reason im thinking of taking it too is because it's only given once every 2 years
so i wont have the option to take it next year
The flavor is suffering
but you should take it neverhteless
There's kernels and stuff. Nilpotency. Sequences of ideals
these are the options just in case, specifically the ones that have 2,2 on the earlier columns
(other classes are second semester)
Kind of like in group theory
so it's kind of like linear algebra with a ring theory flavor?
probably works towards the classification of semisimple lie algebras?
yeah that's the last part
That's how the introductory courses typically go
pretty cool class tbh
mine was titled "lie theory" and we first did lie group, lie algebra connection which is kinda galois theory vibes
I read this about Lie algebras
and the classification introduces lots of nice tools
You wouldn't find that in a Lie algebras course
you can always learn a bit more 🙂
the lie algebras is the fun part for an algebra brain
you would find that in a course that deals with the relationships between Lie algebras and Lie groups, which would typically be titled Lie theory
or Lie groups
ah i think that's a grad course
they have a lie groups class im pretty sure
to be fair i originally wouldve wanted to take rational quadratic forms but it seems like they removed it from the list
i think its also a pretty useful class from a utalitarian pov
but i cant comment too much on that
useful is good
utilitarian
You can see a bit how it looks like here
Just look at Humphreys' book if you want a quick introduction
in the other available classes is there one youd prioritize over lie algebras (making assumptions on my preferences?)
oof chains of ideals
did you take rep theory yet?
nope but it's available on the second semester
and i plan to take it then if im allowed to
thats another class i would say is both very useful and also fun
yeah and it's also given once every two years so im definitely prioritizing it
You should take the Diff manifolds course if you haven't already
thing is in the prereqs they say analysis 3 and 4 + diff geometry
which are all classes im going to take this year
so idk if it's wise
quadratic forms wouldve been a nice class 
Spaces of non positive curvatures and groups sounds like it would definitely be fun
that's for Lie groups, no
yeah 
though probably not too useful
same kind of deal
Lie algebras should be more algebraic
take alg top too
I mentioned it regardless of the Lie algebras course
they should take it because it's an important course to take
second semester and id be taking topology at the same time so probably not, ill keep it for the following year i think
my plan for second sem is algebraic number theory, algebraic curves and rep theory
algebraic nt brain moment
I agree then
DON'T take this if you: A. have not taken manifolds (you will suffer) or B. It does not have a manifolds prereq (It will be a shitty class)
lol it's a grad course anyways im not touching that shit
grad courses are not that scary
Damn thats a lot of options you have there
maybe but ill stick to third year courses for now
alrighty then
grad courses are nice from what i've seen so far
way more interactive because of the size and just more chill
It depends on the courses
fair enough
you should take more seminars, less classes
what's the difference?
seminars are great as well
not sure we have those
i had so much fun in my algtop one
idk if that's right for someone at narwhal's point
probably gonna do another one about riemann surfaces
seminars are usually more open and the examination is a talk
ye well, at grad level
I'm just wondering if Lie algebras are useful for something that doesn't relate to differential topology/geometry
i see, yeah i imagine that's more at grad level
they are i think
i feel like at some point you dont benefit too much from just classes (you can read a book yourself) and seminars are closer to what you do as a mathematician
I mean the original motivation was PDE's
one of my profs does something with them that isn't really that
but that didn't seem to go too well
don't ask me what tho 
that's fair
can someone give me a sanity check on this. I think the result is correct but I think my reasoning is sus
alright well thanks for the recommendations i think ill be taking lie algebras in the end yeah
oh yeah sorry i drowned your question
lol it's all good
this is obviously true under mild assumptions on the ring (Since e.g. if R is a PID all submodules are free so you can take union of bases), but i'm not sure if it's always true
Wait I do think I don't need this
yea wait ok
yea ok
nvm
I think this is not even ture in general
I'm trying to solve exercise 46 chapter 5 in marcus' Number Fields
specifically part a
Kraft Macaroni
So far I have that $u = \overline{u}\times\zeta_p^k$ for some $k$ where $\overline{u}$ is the complex conjugate of $u$. But why does $\overline{u}$ need to be real. Surely there is something I'm missing.
Kraft Macaroni
I mean, if u isnt real then its complex conjugate surely isnt real
Like, if u = a + bi then its conjugate is a - bi, which is only real if b = 0, i.e. if u is real to begin with
Given a double complex $L^{\bullet, \bullet}: \cdots \to L^{-2, \bullet} \to L^{-1, \bullet} \to L^{0, \bullet} \to 0$ is $H^{i}(L^{\bullet, \bullet})$ the complex $\cdots \to H^i(L^{-2, \bullet}) \to H^i(L^{-1, \bullet}) \to H^i(L^{0, \bullet}) \to 0$ with zero maps as differentials?
walter
sorry for weird indexing, I'm trying to show that additive functors preserve the cohomology of cartan-eilenberg resolutions but I'm not entirely sure what that actually means
@woeful flint do you know dirichlet’s unit theorem?
Also sorrt walter I also dont know what that means
all good, i lowkey interrupted anyway
ah yeah, i'll crosspost if this doesn't get a response in a few hours
this belongs to #advanced-number-theory
Is there a way to prove that if every element of a ring has finite multiplicative order, then it's necessarily commutative
so for D4 (the dihedral group), is there no commutator of two elements that results in r1 or r3?
every element.
zero still has an order, specifically 1
Uh do you mean every element is nilpotent then
never heard of that term
yes
Maybe I can induce contradiction by assuming there exists elements xy such that
xy - yx ≠ 0
and assuming it's an element z
with some minimum n such that z^n = 1
and using infinite descent
how are you defining the order of an element?
$Ord^{\times}(x) = min({ n \in \mathbb{N}^* : x^n = 1}) \$
$Ord^{+}(x) = min({ n \in \mathbb{N}^* : \sum_{i=1}^{n}{x} = 1})$
oh
in which case your ring is the trivial ring
so then your question doesn't make any sense
Mizalign
yeah, every nonzero
a) so are you talking about additive order or multiplicative order?
b) i'm assuming you mean = 0 isntead of = 1 in the second definition
c) why not just write nx lol
mutliplicative
nx pains me because I get tired of having to specify it's a z module algebra
... every ring is a Z-module
someone literally made me use a different notation so "n isn't in the ring"
e x a c t l y
point me to them and i'll call them dumb
alright
but yeah
Let $K$ be a ring such that
$\forall x \in K^{\times}(\exists n \in \mathbb{N}^* : x^n = 1) $
Then $xy = yx$ for all $x,y$ in $K$
i'm gonna try aproof by contradiction
Mizalign
it's a theorem by Jacobson i thought
wikipedia:
"Nathan Jacobson later discovered yet another condition which guarantees commutativity of a ring: if for every element r of R there exists an integer n > 1 such that r^n = r, then R is commutative.[1] More general conditions which guarantee commutativity of a ring are also known.[2]"
maybe I'll try using ring radicals
actually different radical
there's the paper
where it was proven first
I don't think you're going to be able to prove this with a simple proof by contradiction
"algebraic algebras"
What’s the impact of a group being solvable but not split solvable
For example let $\mathfrak{g}$ be the set of matrices of the form [X=\begin{pmatrix}0&\theta&x\-\theta&0&y\0&0&0 \end{pmatrix},\theta,x,y\in\bR.] Then $\mathfrak{g}$ is solvable, but not split solvable.
engineersanonymous
@oblique river I remember you mentioning something along the line like if the nth power map on a group is a homomorphism for 3 consecutive n's then the group is abelian. Can you show me like the proof of this result or any results along this line?
@smoky cypress no proof, but here’s some stuff about this property
I think I was able to do this the first week I learned the group axioms, so it probably isn’t extremely hard
Oh ok thx
What is the correspondence between the degree $[L:K]$ of a field extension $\mathbb{Q}\subset K \subset L$ where $K$ is a subfield and the index $[G:K^\dagger]$ where $K^\dagger$ is the subgroup of $G$ fixing $K$?
Kraft Macaroni
It feels like its something that should be part of the galois correspondence no?
$[L\colon K] = |\mathrm{Gal}(L \colon K)|$, provided that the extension $K : \mathbb Q$ is normal.
Boytjie
I forget the proof of this.
In my experience, this is stated as part of the Galois correspondence
Ah whoops, typo, 1 sec
No wait in fact I did get that right, had to double-check though
No I did make a typo, I meant that L : Q is normal
like say if the degree of L over K is n then the index of the galois group over the fixed field is n
o shit yeh
Oh right I see
Fortunately I don't need to prove this cuz im working in finite fields
sorry cyclotomic
not finite
Well if I'm not mistaken, $K^\dagger = \mathrm{Gal}(L \colon K)$ right
Boytjie
I acc don't know but that sounds right
Because every element of Gal(L:K) already fixes Q, so it must be a subgroup of G
So I think you can translate this into something specific
But like, in my head, the reason this doesn't talk about the index of K^\dagger in G is because the galois correspondence reverses order
yeah that's exactly my problem
I've actually found a way to side step computing this index
i.e. I dont need it to show what I needed to show
Ok sick
but it's still interesting for general culture
