#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 716 of 407
"Better" question
For any commutative ring [afaik] we have the partial ordering of "x divides y" which means what you think, aka (R, |)
yes
alright
comm ring is enough
Preordering because 2 unequal things can divide each other
Imagine your category not being preadditive or having a 0
So cringe
I bet @delicate orchid likes non preadditive categories
Oh my god they were associates
Word salad
Preadditive = homsets are abelian groups such that composition is bilinear
And 0 object = object that is both initial and terminal
How are these functions
How are these individuals
This is true in e.g. R-Mod
I’ve seen it for modules yeah but I’ve forgor why they’re groups
Well for modules the inverse is obvious
It's just the inverse al
And composition is bilinear
A general category in which this is true is just called preadditive or an Ab-category
For example the category of CW-Spectra with addition given by the pinch map 
I just can’t remember why composition is even well defined
Cuz you define an internal operation
See this
What
If it’s like Hom(M, M) or Hom(M, R) then yeah
That’s just the dual space
I can see that working
Composition doesn't have to be internal
Like
If f,g:A->B and h:B->D then
h(f+g)= hf + hg
Where hf, hg are in Hom(A,D) and so is h(f+g)
Right so the operation in the homset isn’t composition
No
It's a separate addition operation
Which distributes over composition whenever defined
Then what did you mean by this 
This
Because calling this composition really fuckin confused me
, even if it is composition I read it more akin to scalar multiplication (in the case of working in cat of R modules)
I think I’ve only seen this as scalar multiplication which is the problem
Hom_{R}(M, N) as an R-module
So the only “composition” I’ve seen is multiplication by elements of R
But this just seems like a more general version
Is there another way to phrase algebraic completeness using homomorphism properties
We always mean composition of morphisms
If scalar multiplication is defined e.g. as in R mod
Then composition is usually bilinear w.r.t it too
Yeah, exactly
Like (af) o g = a(f o g)
So when I hear “composition” I don’t assume you’re talking about, as far as I knew, had to be scalars
What do you mean
Hence my confusion
It’s cleared up now though 
Anyways preadditive categories are nice
Even moreso when they have a 0 object and all finite biproducts
Now I’m going to try and reverse engineer why the fuck my com-alg lecture specified that they had to be scalars
Idk what you're referring to
Uh idk if you guys are done I don't wnna interrupt but
How can I show if a morphism is well-defined?
Show that if x = y then f(x) = f(y)
So like injectivity but backwards?
Yeah basically
like, is there something beyond roots of polynomials that make algebraicly complete fields important
Uh, all the properties that follow from algebraic completeness?
Why does it need to be phrased in terms of homomorphisms to be important
fair enough
representation theory is much nicer over algebraically closed fields because you have guaranteed existence of every eigenvalue
Polynomials winning again
Feeling like a solvable lie algebra today
Might have to apply Cartan's criterion to be sure
Given a ring R and (say, left) R-modules M and N, does Hom_R(M,N) have any more structure than “abelian group” in general?
In general, no
However, if R is commutative or if one of M or N is an (R, R)-bimodule then you get an R-module structure on the Hom set
If L and R are a left and right ideal respectively of a ring A, then LR is a two-sided ideal. OTOH, any right ideal containing L should contain LA, being the right ideal generated by L and also a two-sided ideal. Hence LR = LA.
Have I made a mistake somewhere here? (I'm guessing it would be that LR is a two-sided ideal.) The conclusion sounds wrong.
(Note: for X, Y subgroups of A, XY := subgroup generated by {xy|x in X, y in Y} = {Σ_{i=1}^n x_i y_i | n >= 0, x_i in X, y_i in Y}.)
LR need not contain L?
You also always have a Z(R)-module structure
Let R be a ring, I the set of isomorphism types of simple left R-modules, M a left R-module, and for each i in I, M_i the sum of all simple submodules of M of isomorphism type i.
Is it true that M_i for i in I are “linearly independent” i.e. their sum is their internal direct sum?
By semisimple module properties, a sum of simple submodules is a direct sum of some of those submodules.
So given m_i in M_i for i=1,…,n s.t. Σ m_i = 0, we can decompose m_i into a sum in such a direct sum and end up with the goal
if L_{11},…,L_{1i_1}, … ,L_{n1},…,L_{ni_n} are simple submodules with L_{i1j1}, L_{i2j2} isomorphic iff i1 = i2, and the sums L_{i1} + … + L_{i j_i} are internal direct sums, then the whole sum L_{11} + … + L_{nj_n} is a direct sum.
you can show that M_i and sum of M_j for j != i intersect trivially. if it were non-trivial then find a simple sub module of the intersection. it should be in the class of i as well as not in i
Why would that be?
I don't know how to prove a simple submodule of M_i must have type i.
oh lemme think, i don't remember the details very well
ideally one would prove the equivalence conditions for being semi-simple
(1) it's a sum of simples
(2) it's a direct sum of simples
(3) complement property holds
(4) every short exact sequence splits
oh 3 and 4 are the same
oh oops, yea
so this is like the "existence of basis" somewhere you would need to use AoC
Yes there was so much Zorn's Lemma in this equivalence.
similarly you can prove the "uniqueness of basis" with similar ideas
so if you write a semi-simple module as a direct sum in two ways, then for a given isomorphism class of simples, both sides have the same cardinality of number of copies of it
so yea, pretty much this, but since there could be many isomorphism classes of simples, it says the uniqueness of "dimension" for each
there was a direct proof using WOP
but as far as i rememeber the idea was pretty much same as the "replacement" for usual vectorspaces
In finite case this is the uniqueness of tower thing
I will take it for granted for infinite for now
i think we should be able to prove that using these two
if M is a sum of simples, then we know it's a direct sum of a subset of them
Sure.
Take a wrong simple module in M_i; write some complement of it in M_i as a direct sum.
now if N is any other simple submod, then by complement property M = N o+ something else
by uniquness N would appear in the earlier decomposition
i think this works 
So that gets us to M_i, M_j disjoint.
yea, they only intersect at 0 >.<
But the same trick works finitely many times.
i think this would make sense now
the simple submod in the intersection would has type i as well as type j for some j != i
this is bad, so the intersection was trivial to begin with
semi-simples are nice
Hmmm
Maybe I should look for the infinite-case proof after all.
Or maybe restrict to a special case of presence/absence?
Actually I can get away with finite case
oh really? 
Later after all.
This started with me trying to understand why the M_i for a semisimple ring are simple.
Since a semisimple ring is a finite direct sum of simple submodules, it's enough.
Actually wait
so one definition of a semisimple ring was that all modules over it are semi simple
Did I even need this direct sum stuff
It was enough to show M_i had no characteristic submodules
which I did
idk what a characteristic submodule is 🙈
I learnt it when trying to decode a one-line hint that was all I found to prove this
ah
Characteristic left ideals are precisely two-sided ideals. Thus two-sided ideals are sums of isotypic components. Conversely, isotypic components being characteristic are two-sided ideals.
It means preserved by all endomorphisms
I'm assuming.
ok i want to run some of my solutions for some d&f through you guys
i'm just gonna post a bunch of solutions and then you guys can chip in if anything seems wrong, if anyone's around
let X be {(aK, bH)} where a can be any in G but b must be in K, so this corresponds to |G: K| |K: H|
and let Y be {cH} where c can be any in G, so this corresponds to |G: H|
so consider the map f: X -> Y, where f(aK, bH) = abH
then if f is a bijection, we have the desired result
first, surjectivity:
any element g of G is in some coset of K, so g is in some aK, ie. g = ak
any element k of K is in some coset of H, so k is in some bH, ie. k = bh
so any element g of G is some abh where a is in G, b is in K and h is in H, so f is surely surjective
now injectivity: show abH = cdH iff aK = cK and bH = dH
abH = cdH iff:
(c^-1)a(bH) = (dH)
but bH and dH are in K
so (c^-1)aK = K
so aK = cK as required
now what? i actually realised my original proof doesn't cover this enough, this sucks
no wait i'm dumb
any element g of G is some abh where a is in G, b is in K and h is in H. suppose there are two different ways to write g. then:
if abh1 = cdh2:
(c^-1)a bh1 = cdh2, but bh1 and dh2 are in K so (c^-1)a is in K, so aK = cK
then:
(d^-1)(c^-1)ab = h2(h1^-1)
no clue
jesus i hate this
next
if there is h in H such that h is not in N:
consider the subgroup in G/N generated by hN. let the order of hN be x. then x must divide the order of G/N, as <hN> is a subgroup of G/N. but x must also divide the order of <h>, which in turn divides the order of H.
so x is a common factor between the order of G/N and the order of H. so if |G: N| and H are coprime, x is 1.
i think that one's fine
second one looks fine. another way to do it would be to use second iso theorem,
HN/N = H/(H n N)
the left is a subgroup of G/N. Thus the size of H/(H n N) divides both |H| and |G/N| which means it's 1 and so H n N = H
.
the first one has a little problem i think
the map f you define, f(aK, bH) = abH isn't really well defined
a better strategy would be to define a map f : G/H --> G/K and show that this is surjective and each fiber f^-1(gK) is in bijection with K/H
give it a try, and let me know if you get it 
I think I'm being silly, but why is the intersection of ideals zero?
methinks maybe the author has already assumed the ideals are simple? In which case the intersection is an ideal in I_i and I_j, so by simplicity it must be zero
Hmm that is strange
i think they're trying to say L is direct sum of ideals if it's direct sum as vector spaces
so we're given the intersections are 0
That was my first thought too, but the wording is a little strange
This is to guarantee elements of L are written as a unique sum, right?
Every galois field extension comes with associated automorphisms. In particular if we consider an algebraically closed field as a galois extension of some other field (like C with R) can we further extend this field to a sort of “super algebraically closed field” by requiring that every polynomial equation involving the automorphisms of the galois group admit solutions?
So with the example of C over R we might require that z * conj(z) = -1 have a solution
I’m imagining you can’t but curious to know why
If you wanted every equation to have a solution youre going to run into a problem with something like z * conj(z) = i
If you take the complex conjugate of both sides you get conj(z) * z = -i so now your “field” is no longer commutative
It's not even clear what conj(z) ought to mean in your extension. Who's to say that complex conjugation extends uniquely to your new extension field?
Both fair points, thanks
Actually if it might not be commutative you might want to make conj an antiautomorphism, in which case you get z*conj(z) = -i, i.e. everything collapses. 
I suppose one could still speak about whether a field extension L/K is "super-algebraically closed" with respect to whichever K-automorphisms L happens to have. However, Buncho's argument essentially shows this is not possible unless the group of K-automorphisms is torsion free.
(And it doesn't help to drop the requirement of fields to be commutative, because we could make the same argument for the sum of z and its conjugate(s) as for the product).
is it true that: if $(R, +, \cdot), (S, +, \cdot)$ are rings and $\phi\colon (R, +) \to (S, +)$ is a group homomorphism, then it is also a ring homomorphism? i think it must be, but i don't really see what structure there is to take advantage of apart from the distributive law
capitalsigma
hmm
if you're working with rings with unity, you usually ask that a ring homomorphism takes 1 to 1. so you can send everything to 0 for a counterexample
but you probably only care about whether or not f(rs) = f(r)f(s)
yeah, f(rs) = f(r)f(s) is what i'm hoping to show, i hadn't thought about whether the rings have 1
it's not true, f: (x, y) -> (x, x + y) from Z^2 to itself is a group homomorphism, and f(1, 0)f(0, 1) = (1, 1)(0, 1) = (0, 1) is not equal to f((1, 0)(0, 1)) = f(0, 0) = (0, 0)
@severe cedar
hmm, i guess i am misunderstanding what i have to show for this question, then. thanks!
Since $\langle g \rangle \preceq G$, then the possible values of $k = 0,1,2$. That is, possible $|g| = 1,5,25$ by Lagrange. If $|g| = 1$, then g is identity and obviously is in H.
KN
If $|g| = 5$, then call $K = \langle g \rangle = {e, g, g^2, g^3, g^4}$.
KN
Im not sure where to go now. Maybe if assume g not in H and get a contradiction?
oh I think I got it
The order of g in G is 5^k
Therefore the order of gH in G/H divides this 5^k
It also divides [G:H]=4
So order of gH in G/H must be 1
Unless I'm missing something obvious, but shouldn't the quotient in theses maps be the other way around
A is a commutative ring with unit and q is an ideal of A
and d should be a unit
could someone help me see that L = Z(L) + [L, L]? I've shown that L is completely reducible since ad L is isomorphic to L/Z(L) = L / Rad L, which is semisimple.
I did this, I think yours is a lot faster..
I see, although I don’t how you obtained g=e in the end, a counterexample could be when G=Z/25Z direct sum Z/4Z, H=Z/25Z, g=(1,0) ,or (5,0),clearly doesn’t equal e=(0,0)
Are those quotient groups?
Yeah
we'll learn that next week, but yeah I dont think g = e should be there
thanks for pointing that out. I thought I proved that k != 1 or 2, so k = 1 and that means g= e
I see, you just made a logical error
When g doesn’t belong to H, contradiction
So it contradicts g not being contained in H, doesn’t contradict g not being e
We know thanks to Abel and Galois that there's no quintic formula, more precisely, no quintic formula with finitely many nested radicals. What about an infinite quintic formula? One that's infinitely long or one that has infinitely many nested radicals?
https://m.youtube.com/watch?reload=9&v=BSHv9Elk1MU
This gives a proof that there is no continuous function on the coefficients which solves the quintic
Feel free to skip to 10:28 to see how to develop Vladimir Arnold's amazingly beautiful argument for the non-existence of a general algebraic formula for solving quintic equations! This result, known as the Abel-Ruffini theorem, is usually proved by Galois theory, which is hard and not very intuitive. But this approach uses little more than some ...
I actually watched that yesterday and that's where I got my question from lol
Oh lol
Yeah so I think an infinite nesting of radicals, if uniformly convergent, would be continuous, so that should be the answer
If I recall correctly, the statement that's proven in the video is something along the lines of "there do not exist continuous functions f_1,...,f_5: ℂ⁵ → ℂ, such that for a list of coefficients c = (c_0, ..., c_4), the elements f_i(c) are precisely the roots of the quintic with c as its coefficients"
45 minutes long
it's honestly worth the time
You know how you can have "2 answers" to an infinite fraction? this way you can kinda have a quadratic formula without roots ig? I thought that maybe a similar argument could be made for a general quintic, but this time with infinite radicals
I don’t think the LHS can be understood in a way to be well defined here, one can‘t define it as the limit of "finite versions" of the fraction as they largely include 1/0.
This is evidenced by x^2-x+1 having no real roots.
This is not the statement, it's almost immediately true. The one in the video is about multivalued functions, and I was trying to mimic that using multiple functions but that makes the statement weaker
I'm not sure how to talk about continuity for multivalued functions, maybe as functions into a quotient of ℂ⁵
Quotienting by the action of S_5
Define a distance between (a1,a2,a3,a4,a5) and (b1,b2,b3,b4,b5) as the minimum of sum_i |ai-b_sigma(i))| for sigma ranging over S_5?
I'm not sure if it is -- I just find metric spaces more concrete to think of.
Understandable
Intuitively I would expect the function that takes the coefficients of a quintic to its multiset of roots to be continuous under this metric.
Yeah fair, I'm thinking the same about the one I mentioned
I went through the proof again and figured out that we need one more condition on the multivalued function to make the proof work
If the multifunction is F: C → C with n values, then we can construct the following topological space Z: Its elements are pairs (x, y) where y is an image of x. Give this the subspace topology from the product topology. If the fundamental group of Z is abelian then we cannot build a continuous function involving only standard arithmetic functions and F that solve the degree n polynomial
I think the Z I have constructed is the Riemann surface associated to a multivalued function? I am not sure idk much about Riemann surfaces
The condition makes sense because the proof proceeds by looking at paths given by commutators of permutations of roots
And by saying that the fundamental group is abelian we are saying exactly that those act trivially on F(a function in the coefficients) but non trivially on the roots
You forgot ruffini, rude
I apologize 😢 btw was Ruffini's proof actually valid? I heard that it was incomplete or something
Wiki says he completed his proof in 1813
looks like a cool proof, sadly I still need like a year or so to understand it, I don't have enough algebraic topology knowledge (not enough algebra and not enough topology knowledge actually lol)
dw I didn't really write a proof, just the general condition that makes the proof in the video work
Your question was still more general, so it doesn't really answer it
hmm I see, thanks for the effort anyways
Does (a+b,a) mean the standard inner product in euclidian space or the killing form K(a+b,a)
the book defined both the killing form and inner product to have the notation (.,.) so im confused
humphreys? 
yeah :(
do you know how to solve my problem 👀
haven't gotten to root systems yet lol
Here $\alpha$ should be acting on $V := V(1) \times V(2)$ and then its action on an element of V should yield another element of $V$. But here $V(\alpha)(v_1) \in V(2)$ and not in $V$. Are they viewing $V(2)$ as a subspace of $V$ and if so should the action of $\alpha$ on $(v_1,v_2)$ technically be $(0,V(\alpha)(v_1))$?
ΣAC
ah the answer was yes I should have just read on
Yes there's some theorem about this
which I think has come up in this server before 🤔
Continuity of roots
if you take f(x)=1/(1-x) and iterate f(f(f(...))), it doesn't converge to anything because f(f(f(x)))=x. It's somewhat similar to defining x=1-1+1-1+1-1+... = 1-x and getting x=1/2. If your original function had not been periodic it's possible there would be a way for it to have 2 attracting fixed points and possibly prove that without too much effort with the banach contraction theorem or something from analysis
yeah right this doesn't work, but look at this
sure, that's what I'm trying to tell you, different functions can have attracting fixed points under iteration and the one you picked happened to not
I see
How would i prove the converse of if gcd(m, n) = 1, $C_{mn} = C_{m} \times C_{n}$
Rishi
In general, to get the Riemann surface of a multivalued function, you need to pair each x up not only with a value of the function at x, but with an entire germ (or an entire Taylor series or whatever). Otherwise what you get might not even be a manifold.
Consider for example e^sqrt(z) as a multi-valued function. Its value at z=-pi² is -1 in both branches, but there's nevertheless two distinct points on the Riemann surface corresponding to it.
(And even that description doesn't fully give justice to all the subtleties, because you do want a single point corresponding to f(0)=1).
Hmm I see, that's cool. Clerk has been telling me to read this one book on Riemann surfaces for some time, I should get to it at some point
Or even just (z-1)sqrt(z), to show that we can have the same phenomenon without a transcendental function in play.
In that case, we can identify the Riemann surface with the variety { (z,t,y) in C³ | t²=z, y=(z-1)t }, but if we try to project away the t coordinate as irrelevant, we get a spurious self-intersection.
Which book did Clerk recommend? I've also been planning to read some stuff about Riemann surfaces
Otto Forster, Lectures on Riemann surfaces
I read a little bit and it seemed quite good, and clerk is a big fanboy
Oh even a german one, very good 
Maybe it'd make more sense to read it in english anyway tho
Deutsche Sprache, beste Sprache
Indeed
The assumption that the fundamental group must be abelian sounds like it makes sense in the context of making the proof work -- and radicals satisfy it, so we do get the Abel-Ruffini theorem as a corollary. But if we're contemplating making use of more base functions than radicals, then it doesn't feel like a particularly generous condition. For example, sqrt(z³-z) doesn't satisfy it (despite being a composition of functions that do); its Riemann surface is homeomorphic to a torus minus one point.
Yeah it can probably be weakened, I didn't want to spend any more time on this today 
holy SHIT i always thought it relied on expressing the formula via roots and polynomials, that's insane
how did i go through ten years of mathematics with this misunderstanding
Well that's what abel-ruffini proves
Well via repeated roots
And all other field operations
This is what it means to be an element of a radical extension
Am I misunderstanding what your misunderstanding was
Is the understanding of the category of k-linear reps of a given group G as just the cat of functors from the delooping BG (i.e. the corresponding groupoid w one object) into Vect_k (and more general things besides) often a useful pov? I find it pretty and I guess you can use it to motivate certain constructions (like taking a functor Vect_k -> Vect_k (say a Schur functor?) to produce new reps of the group) but i'm not sure if it's more useful in itself
Eh maybe the way to create new constructions gives a cool perspective
"See star" algebra
banned
At least that message was more on topic
one day I wanna be just like Wew Lads Tbh
If G is a subgroup of $S_n$ and G contains an odd permutation, prove that
G contains a normal subgroup of index 2.
Could I get help with this
Rishi
I think I'm supposed to use the alternating group
I would consider the index of An in G but I don't know how I would show that An is normal in G
If $G$ contains an odd permutation it cannot be the alternating group. the alternating group only contains even permutations
riley
No as in a way of showing the index is 2
So like there's two cosets 1 with the evens and 1 with the odds
but idk if that approach works or if it does how to do it
Like with $G:G \cap A_{n}$
Rishi
try looking at the sign homomorphism on G
I see
I think I got it
thanks
Yep I just finished writing it out
this actually makes so much sense ty again
not a math question per se but
Im considering taking a grad class on algebraic number theory next semester
and Ive taken galois theory and commutative algebra
but ive never taken an undergrad number theory class
i pretty much dont know any number theory beyond like
the euclidean algorithm for gcd
is taking this class a good idea
I think you'll be fine. I feel like half the stuff covered in elementary number theory courses can be learned from a group theory course, which I'd imagine you've seen if you've done Galois stuff
I'm so sorry you feel that way
You will most likely not need anything learned in an elementary number theory class
There's really barely if any crossover
I don't think the most we did was use CRT for rings when doing ramification
Hi, I'm thinking the same as you. I found helpful the preliminary reading for the course of Algebraic Number Theory from Oxford. Supposedly it includes all that you need to see the course. It can be obtained from here for free in Course Materials
Am i missing something or is it not really needed for A to be faithfully projective? Every algebra over a field is faithful and projective right?
Oh, and k is a field here
Ig this is just one way to argue that innit
Wakt nvm
I misread
Hmm
This is a weird argument
my condolences
What’s the difference between Zn and nZ
i've never seen the first notation before. where did you see it? the second one typically means "integers modulo n"
Z is a left n module 
Oh ok.
That cuz Z is commutative
answer the question
So nZ=Zn
where did u see this notation
I bet it's really written as $n\bZ$ and $\bZ_n$
Merosity
maybe
@chilly ocean
I belive I was looking at tensor products but I can’t remember.
DarQ
does this work?
You seem to have done the sum, not the union?
And if it were about sums it's be false for infinite dim spaces in particular
DarQ
i think the entire proof is not correct
why is that?
suppose there exists a subspace for which all of its vectors can be found in another subspace
we can then delete that subspace coz it contributes nothing
we can continue this process until at least one vector is left
what is v_i?
v_i is a vector in B
each subspace W_i has a vector v_i that's in B which is not in its span
because otherwise B is a basis for W_i
suppose $W={W_1, W_2,\dots, W_n}$ is a finite set of proper subspaces of $V$. and let $\bold{B}$ be a basis for $W_1+W_2+\dots+W_n$
we can assume that for each subspace $W_i$ in $W$ there is a vector $w_i$ that doesn't exist in any other subspace sine otherwise we can safely delete that subspace and this process ends because the set is finite.
we can also assume that $\bold{B}$ isn't a basis for any subspace $W_i$ in $W$ because that would mean $W_1\cup W_2\cup\dots\cup W_n=W_i\neq V$ since all subspaces in $W$ are subsubpsaces of $W_i$, that means for all subspaces $W_i$ in $W$ there is a vector $v_i$ in $\bold{B}$ that's not in the span of $W_i$
since $F$ is infinite, the vectors $w_i+v_i, w_i+2v_i,\dots, w_i+(n+1)v_i$ are all unique and if two of those vectors are in a single subspace then both $w_i$ and $v_i$ are in that subspace which is impossible and since there are more vectors then subspaces at least on of those vectors isn't in $W_1\cup W_2\cup\dots\cup W_n$
hmmmm
here is the proof with the typos corrected
DarQ
isn't that infinite characteristic?
or characteristic 0, yea
no, that's not what you should focus on lol
if the order is infinite
wait, I might be misreading

i think it's implied to say "If the order of 1 is infinite"
Finite fields have prime characteristic. Infinite fields can have characteristic 0 or prime characteristic.
oh true
nice
second paragraph can be shortened to "since every W_i is proper, for every W_i there exists an element v_i in V not in W_i"
wait
that doesn't guarantee v isn't in any other subspace in W tho
DarQ
for all subspaces, there exists a vector in B that's not in span of W_i
do you mean span of all W_i, or an individual W_i?
individual W_i
i don't get what this is saying
you chose v to not be in W_i
i mean span of W_i is just W_i, right
yes
right, so don't you only need this?
the second paragraph implies "each subspace has a vector that's unique to it"
as in
you can't find it in any other subspace in W
since W_i is proper, there exists vectors in V that aren't in W_i ofc
this should've been "but w_i is still in W_i" ig
well, I was going with your definition
i meant the v_i you were referring to in third paragraph lol
which exercise lol
this one
lmao
I cannot find my hint
found it
doesn't that only work for finite dimentional vector spaces?
all vector spaces are finite dimensional
and I can't answer that properly because I cannot FIND MY HINT
YOU'VE HIDDEN IT FROM ME
imagine wot
finite-dimensional vector spaces 🤤
(please not infinite dimensional vector spaces)
every day that passes I become more of an unironic finitist
Suppose ${W_1, \ldots , W_n}$ is a finite set of proper subspaces of $V$. If $W_i \subseteq \bigcup_{j\neq i}W_j$, we may remove $W_i$ without affecting the union; this procedure guarantees the existence of a $W_i$ with a $W_i \ni w \notin \text{any }W_{j \neq i}$. \
Choose an element $V \ni v \notin W_i$, and $n + 1$ distinct $\lambda_j \in \mathbb{F}$. Then $v + \lambda_1w_i$ and $v + \lambda_2w_i$ cannot both go into a $W_{j \neq i}$. Hence by pigeonhole principle there must exist a $v + \lambda_jw_i \notin W_1 \cup \ldots \cup W_n$
_gmz
sorry for latex spam
you don't need n + 1 distinct, because handshakes are n(n - 1)/2, but it's the same idea
(just summarized what DarQ said, don't mind me)
that's basically what you said DarQ 
yeah, but they made it prettyyyy
#real-complex-analysis ig lol
Im not sure why 1.3 is needed. Can’t we just use some point r such that f(r) /= r snd a single fixed point, a?
?
Are you saying this is the wrong place?
i am. what you posted is not really algebra, but basic analysis
algebra doesn't study distances afaik
Oh, sure then. It’s just buildup of motivation for introducing groups but I can post it there too
Yeah this is from a nice book I found that approaches abstract algebra as how the need for it arose
what is the book? interesting
So it starts with concrete geometry and gets abstract
I guess Euclidean geometry to symmetry or smth?
Anyone know what Spec(C[x, 1/x]) looks like?
that's algebraic topology, i think?
no
wait, I'm in the wrong channel
it's not lol
lol
I was trying to write down some prime ideals and I'm like ??? Uhhh is there a better way of understanding this?
Go to alg-geo
Ah okay
it's the open subset of Spec(C[x]) where you've removed the point 0
i.e. you've removed the ideal (x)
algebraic geometry, which can work in this channel
wait isn't C[x, 1/x] just C(x) lol
no
where does the equality fail
got it
@prisma thunder in general if you have a ring R and you invert a set of elements S = {r1, ..., rn} -- call that ring R_S -- Spec(R_S) is homeomorphic to an open subset of Spec(R)
namely, the one where you've removed all of the prime ideals which contain one of r1, ..., rn
as a special case, if each of the ideals (r1), ..., (rn) is maximal, then Spec(R_S) is just Spec(R) but you've removed the points corresponding to those n maximal ideals
Ah, so that's why you said removed at the point 0, i.e., removed the ideal (x)
That makes sense now
great!
Anyone knows if there's an errata for "Algebraic K-theory by Hyman Bass"
google not showing anything
Maybe @scarlet estuary ?
i know nothing about that book unfortunately
Rip
guys can someone explain wut these weird bracket thingies mean
is this like a common notation or smth
the same notation is used ehre too:
for context these appear on pages 6 and 8 of this papr
at first glance it just seems like weird notation for the ideal generated by those elements
do u get why in the first pic the relation u^4=u^2 would hold then
why isn't it just u^2=1
the image of x_1 in R doesn't even satisfy this
i feel like i am missing smth
oh wait x_1^2=0
right
Has anyone seen this notation before? the confusion is in (4)
P is a maximal ideal
and b is an element of a dedekind ring
reading this book is fustrating
Im guessing that p divides b?
so px=b for some x or maybe this translates to b in p?
p is a maximal ideal
guys wut is the def of the orbit of an element in a ring
i've seen it used in group theory for group actions and stuff but ima not too sure wut it means in the context of ring theor
This book 's notation is all over the place. Denoting x with the ideal (x)
if the action is not free then there is a point p and a nontrivial group element g such that p.g = p. then the first condition can't be true because for any neighbourhood N of p you can pick q1 = q2 = p, gamma = g, and you have g.q1 = q and g <> 1
oh that makes sense
made me realize i was thinking of the wrong definition for free action
thank you for the help
Is there some neat way to show that $PGL_2(K)$ acts triply transitive on $P^1(K)$? Without coordinate bashing and case distinctions?
AoiKunie
Are there some videos online that explain how to solve polynomial equations using special functions etc.?
Quintics can't be solved by radicals but that doesn't mean they can't be solved
Or book/article but I'd prefer a video in this case
Did you also see that video on the insolubility of the quintic without galois theory 
Oh, do they solve them there?
Nope
They give a different proof that also talks about continuous functions rather than just algebraic
Continuous functions + radicals
And you can generalize radicals to some well behaved multivalued functions
@hidden haven link?
What I said there is not entirely correct, scroll down for more discussion on it, but the result in the video is not as general as the one I stated
Huh. I'm pretty sure there should a formula for quintics in terms of elliptic integrals though 
I remember someone mentioning it to me once
I'm just looking for solutions to those kinds of problems in an analytic way
Curious
I found something that I wanted
Interesting
What exactly is an orthogonal representation of a group on an inner product space?
Id define an orthogonal representation as a homomorphism from G -> O(n, F), so it’s probably just a generalisation of this to a general inner product space
It should be the second one. Orthogonal matrices preserve inner products so applying \rho(g^-1) to both arguments preserves the value and yields the expression on the right
The second one is also just true by the definition of an orthogonal transformtion
And the fact that rho is a hom
Hiii guys
Why if $A\in GL(2, R)$ with $\vert A\vert$ is finite then $\det(A)=\pm 1$ ?
What do you mean by |A|?
Order ?
Potato
take the determinant of both sides of A^(order) = I
use the fact that you're working in R
how do u show s(R) = 4, where R is the following ring
the s function is defined as follows, and s(R) is a shorthand for s(R,R)
Find a polynomial of degree 3 satisfying this and show it's not.true for any polynomials of degree <3?
You could probably argue quite explicitly
Maybe there's asmarter way idk
help
Im not too sure if this is abstract algebra
since your ring R is characteristic 2 you have x^3=x^4 so you know p(x)=x^3=x^4 works. To show this m=4 is minimal you can use the fact that because p(x) maps all elements of R, then p(x) must map x to x^m, but deg(p) < m so you can't do it.
I might retract that answer tbh lol
Still confused about this TBH
Given this
I think there is a similar result for subgroups of a group of infinite index from which this follows.
does it make sense to talk about an irreducible representation in a different field than the groups field?
What is the group's field?
Typically a group does not come associated with a specific field.
maybe I phrased that awkwardly. I was asking someone why if SO(2) is isomorphic to U(1) that the former has a 2d irred rep but the latter doesn't, and my impression was that it had to do with the implied field in both cases.
Last part seems....sus
the first part is sus
p(x)=x^3=x^4 doesn't actually imply for any element x in R that we have p(x)=x^4 lol
How can SO2 have a 2d irrep when it is abelian
I guess if you're considering it over the reals then it is true
And it is indeed true that representation theory over different fields are different
yeah, my confusions comes from people telling me slightly different things... so does the phrasing in my first question make sense, or how would you rephrase it?
Well the group itself doesn't have a field
But the representation is a vector space over some field so it makes sense to ask about that
I see. Do you know any resources which discuss this (not like book length)
concerning (b)
is there a clever way of proving the existence of a multiplicative inverse?
I think since x^3-2 and cx^2+bx+a are relatively prime so you can do the euclidean algorithm to get polynomials f, g such that f(x)(cx^2+bx+a) + g(x)(x^3-2) = 1

wait

suppose you found f and g
how do they relate to the multiplicative inverse?
oh when you plug in alpha the second term goes away since alpha^3-2=0, leaving f(alpha) as the inverse
oh
coudl u explain a bit more? I don't really follow your logic here
wut do u mean that "p(x)=x^3=x^4" works?
and how does the ring R having chracteristic 2 help u with the rest of the proof
ima just having a ibt of hard time linking up the details in your expalnaiotn
my next comment was me retracting my anwer haha, it doesn't work
the characteristic 2 bit was just to say x^3=x^4
❤️
?
<3 looks like a heart
oh i thought u were talking about smth else lol
k thats fine thx for hleping anyways
It's probably helpful that (ax^3+bx^2+cx+d)^4 = (a+b+c)x^3+d
I think p(X) = (x+1)X^2+xX should work
Note that (ax^3+bx^2+cx+d)^2 = (a+b)x^3+cx^2+d
@prisma shuttle
Since ideals in Dedekind domains have a unique prime ideal decomposition, is there a notion of a generalized Dedekind zeta function whose norm on the ideal class group of such a Dedekind domain is compatible with the original Dedekind zeta function?
I found something called an ideal norm but I’m not sure if this is the direction I should take.
Is there always an isomorphism between two groups of the same cardinality?
Z_4 and Z_2 x Z_2
remeber an isomorphism is a MUCH MUCH stronnger condition
\phi(ab)\phi(a)\phi(b)
and \phi has to be bijective
same cardinality is a consequence of isomorphism
but the otehr way around doesn't always hold
I am having some trouble understanding this
First, what is meant by a cubic ring over another ring (e.g $Z_p$), is it a ring that is also a $Z_p$ algebra, and isomorphic to $Z_p^3$ as a module?
AoiKunie
I guess given a cubic ring, it's maximal if it cannot be embedded into a strictly larger cubic ring. IE, there is no non-isomorphic ring-monomorphism to another ring {as the image would have to be a subring and therefore it's not maximal}
You just repeated what the text said in a more convoluted way, but that's not what aoikunie was confused about
Not sure what a "Ring over a ring is" unless it's just an extension
I know how to show this, but it’s not very intuitive, can anyone provide a solution?
ab(ba)^-1=aba^-1b^-1=abab=(ab)^2=1
This should be obvious but I cant' see it, how do you show that $a \cup 1 = 1$ in a Heyting algebra?
Dudu
I'm using this definition of a heyting algebra
I literally started abstract algebra today. I was given the exercise to come up with the cayley tables for a group of order 4. I was told that I would find 4 tables but 3 of them would be identical and so there would be only 2 unique cayley tables. Would someone please point out which 3 of these are identical and explain how?
might help to look down the diagonal, the 4th table all elements square to the identity, the first 3 tables you have only one element that squares to the identity, while the other two elements square to the same element in the group. If you relabel these, they're functionally the same
since this is your first day, I doubt you've learned what a homomorphism is yet, but they will make it more clear how to relabel
i've learned abt homomorphisms in linear algebra.. would you mind pointing out how it comes into play in identifying identical cayley tables?
i see the distinguishing factor now. but is this the only one or there are other ways to distinguish functionally identical cayley tables?
is there any difference between a quaternion algebra and a division algebra. I need to understand the ramification of division algebras but whenever I look online all I can find are references to quaternion algebras
A quaternion Algebra is a specific type of division Algebra
Actually
I'm not sure it always has to be division
But it's always a CSA
Yea no it doesn't have to be a division Algebra. It's either a division Algebra or 2x2 matrices
But not all division Algebra are quaternion Algebras
if they're functionally the same you can find an isomorphism between them, which is a bijective homomorphism, so for starters you can start learning about some properties of homomorphisms and isomorphisms which is probably what you'll be learning about soon enough in your course anyways
thanks!
yup yw
If I have two modules of the path algebra of a quiver Q, and the representations of Q that correspond to these two modules are the same then are the two modules necessarily isomorphic?
Yes, the correspondence you mention is an equivalence of categories between the category of reps of Q and the category of modules of the path algebra of Q
This is an interesting question actually.
Are there any efficient algorithms to determine if two Cayley tables on {1,…,n} determine isomorphic groups (given that they determine groups)?
There's “try all n! bijections”, which is O(n^2 n!) I think
which is not exactly efficient 
Since every group can be represented alternatively as a Cayley graph, and now this ends up being related to the graph isomorphism problem. A lot of analogue problems are in the same complexity class that was created for this problem (GI), apparently including digraphs
So I'm not familiar with the stuff but there's definitely literature on improved algorithms out there related to GI
I don't know if this is a good answer for you though, even though usually the Cayley table is the "legend" for creating a graph I'm not sure if it can be directly related to a corresponding matrix representing the Cayley graph
Probably tho lol idk
Wouldn't the Cayley graph depend on a choice of generators?
Oh that's cool I didn't know about that
Like they can give you two nonisomorphic digraphs?
If there are a different number of generators they ought to, right?
Was there any way that you could see that easily? I had to look up an example lol
very cool tho
Isn't the degree of each vertex equal to the number of generators?
ah ok that makes sense
Or is this some other Cayley graph
wow turns out that if we restrict our view to Cayley graphs of a given group with the property I naively assumed +relating isomorphic Cayley graphs of the same group via automorphisms you get some cool properties https://d31kydh6n6r5j5.cloudfront.net/uploads/sites/66/2019/04/michel_slides.pdf
completely unrelated to your thing sorry 😓
What is the property you assumed?
that isomorphic Cayley graphs means isomorphic groups
and vice versa
which we now know is broken in both directions
wait no its not true
the forward direction is actually true
which means what I mentioned earlier could actually help you, but even though it never gives false positives it has lots of false negatives
which is unfortunate lol
Hmm
You take a graph
with a vertex labelled as 1
and recover the group?
Makes sense
wait what
Yes nvm that might only work for some kind of acyclic graph or something
How do you define whether a labelled directed graph is a Cayley graph without referring to a group?
I guess it encodes it explicitly via the generators on the labels branching out from 1, so if there are |G| distinct vertices and everything follows the rules of a group then you're set?
also btw my "wait what" was me thinking you were saying something snarky/making fun of me cause I'm really bad at reading tone through text 💀 sorry
don't be thrown into doubt bc of me
That was because I didn't elaborate, I was just musing out loud.
Also I don't think it's as straightforward as I thought it was then
So actually nvm
You can't check if it follows the group rules unless you can actually recover the group operation so you can check
which is what I'm not sure how to do now.
you can write every element as products of powers of the generators and just keep looping around the graph can't you
Right, it would work for that graph.
But how would you define the product of two arbitrary elements of an arbitrary Cayley graph?
looks like a composition of graph automorphisms works
👀 I don't understand.
Ah, view element as graph automorphism sending 1 to element?
I'm not sure that's uniquely defined though
If there are multiple path to the element
yeah I haven't seen the proof but the wiki source to Sabidussi's theorem links to this https://www.ams.org/journals/proc/1958-009-05/S0002-9939-1958-0097068-7/
To what now
ah truee
I see the problem now
you don't know where the identity lives
so you can't just find the generators straight away
No, that's not it.
If it is a Cayley graph of some group
Every vertex is “equivalent”
(technically, for every v1,v2 there is an automorphism that sends v1 to v2, so picking v2 is equivalent to picking v1 then applying that automorphism)
So you can pick any vertex and call it 1
The problem is defining the multiplication of two elements (i.e. vertices)
yeah ok
found something also showing you can't just always look at the automorphism group either, but sometimes that works and those are called graphical representations of a group or GGR
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1098115/when-is-the-automorphism-group-of-the-cayley-graph-of-g-just-g
"If G is nilpotent and not abelian, then almost all Cayley graphs for G are GGRs (Babai and me). I proved (using some nontrivial group theory) that if G is a p-group with no homomorphism on the the wreath product of Zp by Z, and C is a connection set that is not fixed by any non-identity automorphism of G, then X(G,C) is a GRR. So in this one case we do have a characterization of the connection sets that result in GRRs."
holy crap this dude is a rockstar
I have no clue what they did but sounds cool, and they proved that you can recover the group as the automorphism group of the graph when it's nilpotent and nonabelian
or maybe they mean almost all in an actual sense of measure 0 lol fuck that
either way yeah I guess we can provide a very restricted answer to your original question now, that if you construct Cayley graphs G' and H' from your tables G and H, then Aut(G') iso Aut(H') sometimes when you are lucky but it's mostly cringe :(
that's not even taking efficiency into account
this all sounds terrible xD
I think this has probably wandered very far away from being relevant to that question.
You could probably compute a bunch of stuff from the multiplication table and use that they have to be preserved to narrow down the search.
Like orders of elements or conjugacy classes
yeah I wonder if you could wrangle presentations out of the tables via looking for power properties like you find in group presentations
But I have no clue what the efficiency becomes or what would be fastest or what else you could do.
is there an elegant proof that $I+J=(1)$ then $IJ= I \cap J$?
Lizard
I,J are ideals
The way I know is to pick i in I, j in J st I j = 1, then write any k in the intersection as ik + kj.
IDK
Pretty sure you prove CRT using this
If you mean that kind of isomorphism theorem
OK
By something similar to Lattice Isomorphism Theorem, I + J = R iff π(J) = R/I, where π : R -> R/I is the quotient map.
I think image under π preserves product of ideals
it's a hom so yes
Oh that doesn't quite help; nvm
are quotients of vector spaces a thing a thing?
yes, you can quotient by subspaces
should I think of them the same way I think about group quotients?
their additive structure is the exact same as the quotient group structure coming from the additive structures of your vector space and its subspace
then you define multiplication in the obvious way
they're super boring though cause all vs of the same dimension are iso to each other
do not sully me, buster
quotient MODULES are where it gets good
so the entirety of finite-dimensional linear algebra is boring, by that reasoning
agreed
LOL
i disagree
lmfao

Just stop assuming Zorn's Lemma so they become interesting then. 😌
I study representations of finite groups of course I don't actually think that 
I just feel like quotients of them are a bit shallower than quotients of other structures
often times vector spaces don't show up naked though, they have some kind of interpretation which they carry along with them, which makes them more than just their dimension
for example, let V be a 2D vector space with basis {x,y}. elements of V are of the form ax + by, i.e. homogeneous linear polynomials. we can carry this interpretation through other vector space operations
the spaces Sym^2(V) and V + F (F is the ground field) are both 3-dimensional and hence abstractly isomorphic. however, you shouldn't think of them as being "the same" because where they differ is the interpretation
Sym^2(V) has a basis {x^2, xy, y^2} and so elements look like ax^2 + bxy + cy^2, i.e. homogeneous quadratic polynomials
and V + F has basis {x, y, 1} and elements look like ax + by + c, i.e. non-homogeneous linear polynomials
so despite being abstractly isomorphic, they really don't represent the same thing at all, and the abstract isomorphism between them doesn't really tell you much about them
in response to this
they better not show up naked! 
Good answer though
naked vector spaces 
horny
many of us are

Least horny math enjoyer
lmaoo
watch mathematician naming something Horn then say an object is horny if and only if blah blah
are there any interesting properties of Aut(C)
what's C
if by C you mean the complex numbers, do you mean as a Riemann surface or as a field (or as something else)?
if this were complex analysis, "Aut(C)" would be super duper nice: {az + b : a \neq 0}
Basically like, pick any two transcendental complex numbers and there’s an automorphism which takes one to the other
true but either way they are asking about properties of a group
Not that I know of. Maybe you can topologize it in some nice way?
I'm not sure where htis goes 🤔
generic help channel, or go ask somewhere else where you should put it. not here
sorry
"what is the automorphism group of this manifold" is a purely geometric question, just asked in algebraic terms
I've heard it's profinite and that all of the finite subgroups are order 1 or 2
but otherwise I don't know much abt it
Dumb basic question
But the generators of (Z/Zn)* are the numbers coprime to n right?
nvm it's the primative roots
The elements of that group are all numbers coprime to n
Yea
What does a semisimple algebra mean
For context the book claims that if K is a field with characteristic 0, G a finite group, then the group algebra K[G] is semisimple
And moreover if $\rho_i:G\to GL(W_i)$ are the irreducible representations of a finite group $G$ then $\rho_i$ extends to a homomorphism $\widetilde{\rho_i}:\bC[G]\to\text{End}\bC(W_i)$, and then the map $\bC[G]\to\prod_i\text{End}\bC(W_i)$ defined by the $\widetilde{\rho_i}$ is an isomorphism, but the proof just says ``this is a general property of semisimple algebra"
Whoever
It just references to Lang but Lang just has a whole section dedicated to semisimple stuff
And another reference is to Bourbaki Algebra chapter 8 which isn't translated
in this context i believe semisimple means is a direct sum of irreducibles
mmmm
the definition i know says that it has trivial radical
as in 0 is the only element that acts as 0 in all irreducible reprs of A
yea for the group algebra id assume
And thus not an algebra for any quotient ring
and the group algebra is semisimple because its repr is the same as a repr of the group G
its rly shuld give more reasoning beyond like
"lmao its semisimple"
the semisimple definition implies the algebra is iso to a product of matrices that each correspond to an irreducible
Yeah this is not easy to prove. You show the surjectivity of this map using Jacobson density and the injectivity using the fact that the kernel of this map into the product is the intersection of the kernels of the coordinate functions, and that intersection also happens to be the Jacobson radical, which you then show is 0
if $A,B,C$ are groups where $B \cong C$ do we have $A \times B \cong A \times C$?
sean
Yeah
they gave the solution below
is there anything you want to clarify?
hm?
oh the thing in grey is my response
i haven’t finished the proof bc i don’t know where to proceed
from here
i can’t seem to find a subgroup
that does not contain R^n/2
that also satisfies the three conditions
yeah it's whether i'm on the right path or do i need to completely rethink my solution?
no, condition two is that hk = kh
H does not necessarily have to commute with itself
likewise for K
idea is to wlog assume T ∈ K, and conclude what other elements must belong to K (the ones that don't commute with T)
using this, you should be able to find n where (i) H is forced to be trivial (ii) K must not be a subgroup, or else closure of K forces H to be trivial
(i'm using T because R_(n/2) might not exist)
What do you mean?
for two elements in H, say h₁ h₂ ∈ H, it is not true that h₁h₂ = h₂h₁
or K
basically they don't have to be abelian subgroups, because this would imply G is as well
and D_(n > 2) is clearly not abelian
I've asked because by groups commuting people usually mean HK = KH
And not commuting for each individual member
Which is stronger
just wondering if it is necessary for R to have 1 for the converse to hold
Here, if a,b are allowed to arbitrary (not a regular sequence for now), how 0 -> R -> R \oplus R is exact? like if a,b both are ZD then we may have cases when R-> R\oplus R is not injective?
Where is here? Did you post an image that isn't loading for me?
I assume R → R ⊕ R is an inclusion as one of the factors, r ↦ (r, 0)
That will always be injective
oh the image loaded
Yeah what you're saying seems right
alright
(t - c)
ah
Anton.
Well F8 has a multiplicative group of order 7 so any element besides 1 will generate it
anyone knows good sources for learning about witt rings?
Time for some absolutely insane shit
Let (S,+,<) be a commutative monoid with a partial order such that
-
- is idempotent
- x ≤ x + y and y ≤ x +y
- Every subposet of S has a supremal element
- The identity is the minimal element
By a weaker form of Zorn's Lemma, there necessarily exists a maximal element M, of this commutative monoid.
Does there necessarily always exist a homomorphism from this complete-poset-monoid structure to the power set with inclusion and unions of some set X that maps the maximal element to X, and the identity to the empty set?
homomorphism aka
x < y => f(x) < f(y)
f(x +y) = f(x) + f(y)
I mean, maybe to P(R)
Is there a name for the area of algebra that studies the structures created by:
Getting a matrix M[R],
Calculating the characteristic polynomial p(x) of M,
Quotient R[x]/<p(x)>
prolly presentation theory
hm okay
was thinking that you could study graphs using this method
like
get the characteristic polynomial of some graph
then study the ring formed by quotienting by that polynomial
would be something kind of like algebraic geometry
it would probably not be algebraic geometry
is it not just linear algebra?
like, given any polynomial, there is a matrix with that as its char poly
I do not remember ever taking quotients in my linear algebra class
R[x]/p(x) is in some sense the "universal" vector space with an M action
not in a technical sense
don't worry, i don't know what universal means in a technical sense anyway
(good thing)
I mean like
what i'm saying is that this isnt really special to matrices
since you're really just studying quotients of R[x]
But you can say that about so much stuff
like
in algebraic geometry (for example).
You take polynomials such as x^2 + y^2 - 1 and quotient R[x,y] to discover stuff
I actually don't know any algebraic geometry at all, but i think this is the gist
True, does that cause a significant difference?
I guess this idea came up because I was reading about algebraic graph theory on wikipedia and saw that a "common" thing to do is find polynomials that somehow correspond to the graph and then you can do things with those I suppose.
and characteristic polynomial of the adjacency matrix of a graph is one of these things
i thought that once before too
i think there are things to say
but not much
also you want ot consider over Q
not over R
R has only one field extension
and Q has a lot
basically matrices over R are not as interesitng as matricse over Q
because more matrices over R are conjugate to each other
You forgot about R/R :^)
This sounds like a complete lattice.
OTOH, I think there is a duality theorem (Priestly? Stone?) that distributive lattices can always be embedded into a “set-theoretic operations” lattice as you have mentioned. This is clearly necessary.
Distributive lattices need not be complete, but also (I'm pretty sure) complete lattices need not be distributive (consider lattices of submodules/normal subgroups), so this is not necessarily possible.
OTOH, if you just want a homomorphism, that's easy to do at least trivially: map everything to the empty set.
Oh your definition of homomorphism says x<y => f(x)<f(y), implying injectivity (in a lattice).
Is this the same as a complete lattice though? 🤔
Isn't that Boolean lattices
Can be realized as fields of sets
No, it's true more generally for distributive lattices
Assuming by field of sets you mean closed under finite unions and intersections.
If it has to be closed under complements then you're probably right. But that's not a necessary lattice operation.
I know I'm right about Boolean lattices
But didn't know it was more general than that
I think it gets arbitrarily general once you allow topological spaces in the sense of pointless topology 
Maximal element isn't the same as maximum
There could be multiple maximal elements
Yeah, I think by homomorphism he meant embedding
hm. good point
If a ring is a domain when the zero ideal is prime
and a quotient ring is a division ring when the divisor is a prime ideal
and the quotient of any ring by it's zero ideal is isomorphic to itself
that means every domain is a division ring. WTF is wrong here
oh. "and a quotient ring is a division ring when the divisor is a prime ideal" is wrong
only if it's maximal
What does 'the quotient ring is a division ring when the divisor is a prime ideal' mean. If you mean quotienting by a prime ideal, this is false, it's a domain, not a division ring
Oh okay you figured it out
How would I go about getting a subgroup that has index 4 in the free group on 3 elements?
do you happen to know some covering space stuff? There's a theorem that says that the degree of a covering equals the index of the subgroup corresponding to the covering. For your problem in particular, you could take the wedge of 3 circles (which has fundamental group=free group on 3 elements) and a degree 4 cover $p: \tilde{X}\to X$. Then, $p_*(\pi_1(\tilde{X}))$ is an index 4 subgroup of $\pi_1(X)$
Joseph
how do you get a subgroup of index for in Z?
this is definitely overkill. It's far easier to generate a normal subgroup of the free group that you quotient by to get a group of order 4. Ie you just want to find relations on three elements to get a group of order 4, so either Z/4Z or K_4

that fucking name wtf