#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 715 of 407
might try doing this with just tietze transforms lol
anyway just double check the map x -> b y -> ab is an iso for me
wanna make sure my hunch is right
ok the tietze transforms give me that those two elements generate D_2n
so I think it's an iso
what are tietze transforms
stuff you can do a presentation that preserves the underlying group
we don't need to worry about even or odd cases btw
we have ((ab)b)^(n/2) = a^(n/2) for the even case
which is the only element that makes the baby jesus cry
you're mapping generators to generators
I don't see why you think we need to prove it's a homomorphism
we can just assume that
we can? 
as we're mapping into the group generated by f(x) and f(y)
im rusty okay
Hi rusty im Timo
tietze transforms actually make this so much easier fuck it I'm just gonna write them down
<a, b | a^n = b^2 = 1, bab = a^-1>
introduce a generator c = ab
<a, b, c | c = ab, a^n = b^2 = 1, bab = a^-1>
substitute to get the relators in terms of b and c, noting that c and b have order two
<a, b, c | a^-1 = bc^{-1}, (cb^-1)^n = b^2 = 1, bc = bc^-1>
removing the generator a as it's clearly generated by the other two generators
<b, c | (cb)^n = b^2 = 1, cbc = b^-1>
hopefully this makes it clear
(formally we'd have to use something called the substitution test to extend the map a -> ab, b -> b into a group homomorphism but I don't care to do so as the relators are clearly the same)
very clearly order as neither x or y are numbers

now that I've written all that out
lets find the 1 liner on maths stack exchange
If you wanted to prove that some H is a subgroup of G, would it suffice to find a homomorphism from G to H?
just check the subgroup properties
circling back a moment, mapping generators to generators guarantees a homo?
Yes, that works, but would it also work to find a homomorphism?
a hom is determined by where it sends generators
Is it just the same thing with extra steps since you have to show that the identity gets mapped to the identity and stuff?
I'm thinking you'd need an injective homo from H to G
but ofc you can have maps that send generators to generators that aren't homs
So an isomorphism?
the fact that we were mapping directly into the generators (by definition of the group we're mapping into) allows it to be so
oh also we need a homomorphism so
if it's not a homomorphism then lol? what are we doing? why am I here? Lets just make it a homomorphism
Ah, not surjective
if we wanna be pedantic, this can't be right cause for all groups G, H there's a homomorphism from G to H that sends everything to the identity
I presume they meant a surjective homomorphism
Going the other direction, from H to G, seems to have the same problem. So I suppose it seems like it probably wouldn't be a useful tool after all
How about a surjective, but not injective, homomorphism from G to H?
what's wrong with this?
What if you said your homomorphism was phi(h) = e for all h in H?
I wouldn't cause it's not injective
well a group is its own subgroup, seems fine to me
Even if we didn't know that H was a group yet?
well you should probably check something is a group before you start checking if it's a subgroup of something else
I suppose you could still go through with making an injective map between sets which obeys the f(xy)=f(x)f(y) property for their binary operations without knowing if anything is a group
got curious and googled a thing https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/14588/does-the-order-lattice-of-subgroups-and-lattice-of-factor-groups-uniquely-det
i think this is saying even with quite strong details we can't get the group from the subgroups?
that's very surprising
idek if i understood what they're saying properly
seems pretty cut and dry lol
ok
their counter example is so.... bruh 
yeah it's not incredible for intuition ngl
wonder what was wrong with my proof 

moldi really just woke up and chose violence
Well I am about to go to sleep 
The problem is you didn't study extension theory
zero regrets
Don't come crying to me when suddenly you need to know about H^n(G,M)
oh I will, and you'll jump on the very VERY rare opportunity to explain it
mfw I need to know about the n-th cohomology of G with M coefficients 
reviewing some basic group theory and I have a stupid question
I buy this for the set of cosets G/G_p for the isotropy subgroup at p, but does lagrange's theorem still apply even when the subgroup isn't normal?
i've always seen lagrange's theorem stated with no assumptions on the group or the subgroup other than finiteness
(and a proper interpretation for infinite groups in terms of fancy stuff)
I thought the proof of lagrange implicitly assumes you have a well defined equivalence relation so the cosets are disjoint, which assumes then that the subgroup is normal
I guess in this case it's irrelevant since we still have an equivalence relation
normality only comes in when you try to prove that the obvious operations on the coset space are well-defined group operations
makes sense, thanks!
Yea the coset relation is always an equivalence relation regardless of normality
whats a good teext to suppleement dummit and foote?
there's nothing missing from d&f, but that's exactly its problem
Well "missing" doesn't just have to.be content
But if you're not satisfied with d&f maybe it'd just be best to study from another book?
I wanna know some other good recommendations for the graduate level. to aid dummit and foote, if they dont explain something well enough or
Is z a complex nu...oh, it is. I remember something that was like this, but my head is somewhere else in terms of work.
@chilly radish do you know anything about prime factorization in hurwitz quaternions?
Also is there any analogous notion of "number rings" for finite dimensional skew-fields over Q?
can anyone help me with this?
i've tried 430
my current thought process was have $|S_6|=6!$ then subtract all the non-derangements
sean
so i got $6!-1-\binom{6}{4}-2\binom{6}{3}-6\binom{6}{2}-24\binom{6}{1}=430$
sean
No sorry, haven't really seen these.
As for the second thing, for division algebras over most of the theory of Vector spaces carries over pretty untouched so I presume you could talk about something like this, but the problem I see is idk if you could embed it into some 'algebraic closure'. I personally haven't seen something like this. It doesn't help that the brauer group of Q doesn't really have a nice structure (The less algebraically closed your field is generally the nastier the brauer group will be, since taking algebraic extensions kills division algebras as you probably know)
The number of derangements on 5 elements is not 24, nor is the number of derangements on 4 elements 6
Am I being stupid or are the projective spécial linear group and projective linear group the same over C?
(Or over any algebraically closed field for that matter)
yeah they are
Good to know
What section are you on?
I want someone to verify this. I want to show that $C[0,1]$ is not Noetherian. For this, let $$A_n = { f \in C[0,1]| f(x)=0;\forall x\in [0, 1/n) }.$$
These $A_n$ are clearly form an ascending ideals. Now to show proper inclusion, we can use cutoff functions and that gives us an ascending ideals that do not stabilize. It this correct?
বগলের চুল
Generating functions equivalent to R[[x]] for any ring R.Are examples of using generating functions where R is ring of functions?
On a side note is there a structure where elements look similar to power series a0+a1x+a2x2+… but instead of x being an indeterminate x is a function f that you repeat compositions so you can rewrite as a0+f(a1)+f(f(a2))+…
So you can write as sum_0^infty f^n(a_n)?
I think this is true but im not sure what cut off functions are supposed to be.
How can i show that S_4 has no transitive subgroup of order 6?
using Galois theory
doesn't orbit stabilizer already rule that out?
the subgroup will transitively act on {1, 2, 3, 4} so will have size divisible by 4
What det said is true and elementary, but here is my significantly more convoluted solution using galois theory
Once my computer stops crapping itself
Who needs orbit stabilizer when you have field theory 
Ok here goes:
- ||Show that every subgroup of S_4 can be realised as the galois group of a normal extension of a char 0 field e.g. an extension E/F where F is finite over Q||
- ||Suppose Gal(E/F) is a subgroup of S_4 that is transitive. Let f be the quartic polynomial such that E is its splitting field (Such an f indeed exists, why?), then f is irreducible iff Gal(E/F) is transitive (Why?)||
- ||f is irreducible, so there is a degree 4 subextension of E/F (Why?), but this means that 4 divides [E:F] = |Gal(E/F)|, so it can't be of order 6||
Of course, this is just a convoluted reproof of orbit stabiliser using galois theory tools
idk if there's an easier way
thank you all
Can someone help me find an exact definition of exactness in a general abelian category. Weibel defines exactness of $A\xrightarrow{f} B\xrightarrow{g}C$ as $\operatorname{ker}g = \operatorname{Im}f$, but i'm not sure what exactly this means. Do they have to be canonically isomorphic, if so, how is the canonical map obtained? Does he mean that they are equal as maps, or rather, as maps they both factor through each other?
\\
In general there are many choices for the image and kernel objects (Although of course they are all isomorphic via a unique isomorphism), but i'm not sure how to parse this to prove e.g. exercise 1.2.4.
\\
Before this he talks about how every map $f:B\to C$ has an epi-mono factorisation $B\to \operatorname{Im}f\to C$. I just wanna make sure i'm getting this part right, the maps here are given because $f:B\to C$ is a map that is $0$ composed with the cokernel map by definition, therefore it factors through the kernel of the cokernel (which is by definition the image). Here still the choice of the object Im f is not exactly canonical tho.
ShiN
both factor through each other uniquely, i.e. they both satisfy the universal property, or in other words, ker g satisfies the universal property of the kernel of coker f
I wanna do this formally one time, but generally, would everything work the same if I thought of kernels and cokernels as in a concrete category, and carried out the arguments element-wise? Like, how can I guarantee that I can always abstract away element arguments for morphism-based ones
since generally proving exactness seems really tedious in a general abelian category
After looking more, I think equality here is like I said, which is the same as being equal as subobjects, i.e. the corresponding monos factor through eachother via an isomorphism (given any choice of kernels)
So a bit of abuse of notation ig
I think an equivalent notion is that g o f = 0 and coker f o ker g = 0
Ah nvm I think I'm saying the same thing you said, for some choice of isomorphism the kernel and image coincide, although the condition on morphisms can be checked regardless of which choice you make
I reckon you will need ker g to be universal wrt this property no still no? I don't think g o f = 0 guarantees this
I was thinking g o f = 0 implies a unique factorization of im f through ker g and the second condition guarantees a unique factorization of ker g through im f
I guess that's what I would take to imply equality
Ah yes I think you're right
So g o f = 0 but f factors as
Im f o e where e is epi (Where this factorisation is as before because coker f o f = 0 so by universality of Im f we have f = Im f o e with e an epi), so
g o Im f o e =0 but e epi implies g o im f =0, so by universality im f factors through ker g right.
The only thing here is thar weibel states there is such an epi-mono factorisation for f, but I can't seem to prove e:A -> Im f is epi
He states it in passing but it seems like a nontrivial fact
Seems good to me, though just considering piecewise linear function ought to work
Ok i've been staring at this for 15 mins and i'm not sure how to prove it
f factors uniquely as f = Im f o e, then e is an epimorphism
Feels like it's the wrong direction but I know it's not
oops sorry i went to eat sandwich
so there's two things here, that e is an epi and that im f factors through ker g
That one i'm not concerned about
Like i've proven that given that e is an epi
Which should always hold regardless of any exactness
right
Do you know how to prove this
that e is an epi?
Ye
yeah, so let f: A -> B, we have f factors as A -> K -> B where K is the source of im f. Let e denote the map A -> K
Now consider the image of e, so we have the factorization A -> L -> K -> B where L is the source of im e
then L -> K -> B is a mono through which f factors, hence by universal property of im f, it must be the case that im e is an iso
since L -> B is mono and f factors through it, K -> B factors uniquely through L -> B
that unique factorization yields an inverse to L -> K
i think is how it goes
Hmmm
right because universal property of image is that im f is initial with respect to monos through which f factors
yeah basically
Ok so im e is an iso
so if im e is an iso, then 0 = coker(im e) = coker e implies e is an epi
Why does the last equality hold
oh yeah, because cokernels are epis and in abelian category every epi is the cokernel of its kernel
so i guess you'd write coker e = coker(ker(coker e)) = coker(im e)
Right yea
Alright cool
That's pretty nontrivial for smth remarked in passing
Oof
Like it's just a diagram chase but still
lmao yeah all these things tend to become kinda non-trivial when everything is universal properties
i don't think i would've thought to look at im e if i hadn't seen the proof before
some might argue that proving things like epi mono factorization is overkill because elements make everything so much more intuitive
but i find it kinda fun
other people were like "can't you just use freyd-mitchell embedding and work with elements anyway"
how about you freyd-mitchell embed deez nuts in your mouth
I mean I prefer working with elements
But I appreciate the sentiment
I also think it's good to do at least once
i just wanted to make a deez nuts joke
Lmao
I also proved before that the kernels of the components of a chain map form a kernel
Which is nice
Just boils down to finding the chain maps
mfw appeal to opposite category
Whatever, freyd mitchell to the rescue
I know that for a number field $\mathbb{Q} \subset K$ of signature $(r_1,r_2)$ we have that $r_1 + 2r_2$ is equal to the degree of the extension. I'm trying to wrap my head around the extension $\mathbb{Q} \subset \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2})$. To me it seems that there are two real embeddings the identity and the one interchaging $\sqrt(2) \mapsto -\sqrt(2)$ but aren't these complex embeddings too? This would give us that $r_1 = r_2 = 2$ but this is a contradiction.
Kraft Macaroni
Amorous aka Lucifer
We define a real embedding to be one contained in R and a complex embedding to be one contained in C but not contained in R
At least in this context, that's how I've always seen it just to avoid what you're saying
ah ok cheers
Also if $f\in\text{Emb}_\mathbb{Q}(\mathbb{R},\mathbb{C})$ and $f(\mathbb{R}) \subset{R}$ then $f$ is the identity?
Kraft Macaroni
I'm tryinng to disprove this but I cant find a counterexample
You may not be able to disprove this
Remember that every real number can be realized as the limit of a sequence of rational numbers
Wait actually idk if this is true, I switched to topology mode mb
If it's true that these embeddings are continuous wrt the usual norms on R and C it would imply the result no?
Yeah
So we just need to show that these are bounded since both R and C are banach
then they're continuous and hence the result
Idk anything about Banach spaces but you sound confident so I agree
hahaah I might be chatting shit lol
You are taking an embedding as a Q vector space?
Then you can take a basis of R over Q and get a non identity embedding by exchanging some basis elements
Oh right, because any map is gonna be order preserving
Yep
all banach spaces are C vector-spaces so R isnt one
banana space
I actually find it that people in the Banach space theory usually prefer to talk about real Banach spaces, and only then translate to the complex case
For example, there are theorems about separating convex sets using linear functionals, which for complex case we need to introduce functional Re(f) instead for every complex linear functional f
you find wrong.
nice argument
Anyway, what I was going to say. For working with C*-algebras and such, I can see why people would rather work with Banach spaces over C, but clearly both approaches have their merits
thats probably fair, just for the things I do which is indeed operator theory
you never hear R lol
do you mean normal subgroups or smth else?
oh, yeah, sry
normal subroups are the ones whose quotients are groups, seems pretty special to me
Normal subgroups of a group G are precisely the kernels of homomorphisms out of G, which also means they often occur (though ultimately this is equivalent to the above via first iso)
I see
quotient groups are two sections away tho, so ig I'll wait to get to that 
i don't think you should wait
should I dig in straight away?


What’re you reading from @warm wyvern
Just wondering, I hear artin is one of the best ones to learn algebra
Wish you a lot of fun, i learned group theory last summer by reading through a few chapters of d&f and it was a ton of fun 👌
thanks 
Define the obvious group structure on the quotient G/H for some subgroup H. Check what is a necessary and sufficient condition for this action to be well-defined on representatives and hence give a group structure
bam you have normal subgroups
they fall out of the definition basically

there's another perspective which is pretty useful to keep in mind. instead of thinking of normal subgroups as anything "special" think of them as just another type of "sub-structure"
If you're doing set theory, then one such is a subset and other one is called an equivalence relation. One way to define an equivalence relation on X is by starting with a function f : X --> Y and saying a ~ b in X if and only if f(a) = f(b).
The first isomorphism says that all equivalence relations arise in this fashion, one can take Y to be the quotient X/~. The second isomorphism theorem says an elementary statement about how these two types of structures interact with each other and the third isomorphism theorem says something when you have two things you can quotient with, one being finer than the other.
There's also a correspondence theorem for both these sub-structures.
You can transport these theorems to other algebraic structures, like groups, rings, modules, ...
The equivalent notion of "subset" for groups is nothing but a subgroup. This is when the inclusion map H --> G becomes a map of groups.
You get normal subgroups when you try to quotient by an equivalence relation G --> G/~ and if you want this to be a map of groups, then a little work shows that one is forced define a ~ b iff aN = bN for some normal subgroup N.
For the case of ring theory, you have subrings and ideals and all the above theorems generalize nicely. For sets and rings, the second structure is not really a special case of the first one, it came out of a different construction entirely.
i'll sleep now, good night 
cosubstructure 
to what extend does commalg generalise ideas from galois theory? my prof mentioned that integrality and integral ring extensions generalise algebraic field extensions, but he also said there are "many" other examples of this kind of thing and I was wondering what those are
am asking because I'm planning on taking commalg next year without galois
If $G,H$ are finitely generated abelian groups, then the existence of a monomorphism $f : G \rightarrow H$ and a epimorphism $g : G \rightarrow H$ implies that $G$ and $H$ are isomorphic?
certainly the free parts of G and H are isomorphic, i'm not sure about the torsion off the top of my head
certainly f and g both send torsion elements to torsion elements, hence the torsion subgroups of G and H have the same order
as for whether they are isomorphic
well I guess the generators for the torsion subgroups are sent to elements with the same torsion since f is a monomorphism, which implies that the torsion subgroups are isomorphic?
so yes, methinks
why there's no gcd? since t⁵|t⁵ and t⁵|t⁶ and for any other r, r|t⁵?
i guess t^5 does not divide t^6 in R because t is not in R
i see
That's weird
What does that even mean
Because for example t^3 is a divisor of both in R
I don't get what they mean by there is no gcd
gcd is a common divisor such that any common divisor divides the gcd.
t^3 is not a gcd because t^2 is also a common divisor but t^2 doesn't divide t^3.
What are the best books for learning Cluster Algebras? Also what prerequisites are necessary?
I find this really hard to understand but interesting, is there any other way to make this more simple?
I've been stuck on the following problem, any ideas? $f \in S = \mathbb{R}[x,y]$ is a 1234 polynomial if we can write $f(x,y)=g(x^{12},y^{34})$ for some $g$ in $S,$ and we define $T(f)$ as the corresponding $g.$ If $f, g, h$ are 1234 polynomials and $f=rg+sh$ for some $r, s \in S,$ prove $T(f)=uT(g)+vT(h)$ for some $u, v \in S.$
aadfg
is R a general comm ring? or the reals? I think it makes a difference
There's a book by Fomin, Williams, and Zelevinsky that I've heard good things about
As for prereqs, I'm not too sure. I imagine some familiarity with quiver representation theory would be helpful, but someone could maybe get by knowing Lie algebra representations?
I haven't actually learned cluster algebras myself so it's hard to say, but that's what I'd guess based on what little I've seen
Seems like there are also a number of lecture notes available online
bring back weed polynomial 😔 ✊
The reals
People didn't treat the problem seriously. It's basically the same now but hopefully that no longer happens.
what're representatives?

that does sound special, now that I know what it means 
elements of G/H are certain subsets of G. a representative of an element of G/H is an element of that set
what shin meant (and what is an elaboration of what i wrote) is the following: the elements of G/H are of the form gH for g in G. the "obvious group structure" is (gH)(g'H) = (gg')H. now check precisely what it means for this to be well-defined in terms of H
you will see that what i wrote falls out of it
that means gH=Hg for all g which implies H is normal

(also, please don't hesitate to ping me when you reply)
Perhaps I'm being dense, but in this exercise, what stops me from taking k a field of characteristic p - let's say Fp for definiteness - and n=p; doesn't (1,...,1) in (F_p)^p generate a proper, non-trivial A-submodule of M?
[Essentially I've just chosen this since the action of S_n just becomes trivial]
If the characteristic is zero there's an easy proof though
It looks the same way to me
Sure yeah
for people that went through artin, I'm assuming the starred exercises are hard?
also, if I feel like I understood a chapter's content quite well, can I just do the miscellaneous problems and move on?
the section problems don't seem particularly challenging 
depends, drilling through some problems can help make it really stick, and won't hurt you. And you can try to generalize on the questions or use them as a spingboard to ask more interesting questions
but you don't need to do all the problems either, just gotta figure out what balance works best for you
where's this from?
If I'm proving that there's infinite extensions with an Abelian Galois group, G, then it suffices to show that any abelian group has an extension (which is a pretty straightforward proof) and then just use G^n right?
I think each composite group of G^n would correspond to a different subfield right?
or am I too tired to think straight
When you say "there's infinite extensions", do you mean that there are infinitely many different (field) extensions (of Q?) that all have abelian Galois groups, or that there is one extension of infinite degree whose Galois group is abelian?
infinitely many different field extensions of Q with the same galois group isomorphic to G
For every abelian G, or just for one G that you can choose?
any abelian G
I definitely second what merosity said, especially when it comes to finding the right balance: I’ve been on both ends of the spectrum, doing all it no exercises and neither work. Unless you really like the book you’ll lose motivation with the first, and it won’t help you learn much better (I don’t remember half the exercises I did in d&f), and if you do none you’ll feel like you understood but let misconceptions settle in which will make later sections a lot harder
(except trivial*)
When you say "any abelian G", do you mean for every abelian G, or for some abelian G that you get to choose?
basically fix any possible abelian group G, with the one exception of the trivial group. I'm proving there's infinitely many distinct extensions of Q such that the Galois group is isomorphic to G
so for every
When you say "any possible ablelian group G", do you mean that you get to choose which group it is, or that you need a constuction that works for every abelian group G?
yea still for every, sorry if it was frustrating if i was wording that ambiguously 🤣
Okay thanks. Then I've got nothing :-)
ah okay. I'mma keep thinking about the G^n thing
like,,, it really obviously seems like it should work but
it seems trivial
cause one of our books is D&F. the first part of the problem was already proven in D&F (corollary 28 of 14.5 which proves that there's a field extension for any abelian G), and then the second part is this question and that's it
it seems suspiciously easy
ig it's right
weird problem ¯_(ツ)_/¯
just a general question, are all cyclic Galois extensions of Q cyclotomic?
i can't seem to word it well enough for Google to give me anything
Q[sqrt(2)] ?
tangentially related, you might be interested in the kronecker-weber theorem
mmm yea Ig that does mean I need to word it more carefully if this is even worthwhile
How is this meant to make sense - $\phi_1(g),\phi_2(g)$ aren't even in the same group, let alone words in $X_1 \cup X_2$.
I assume what's meant is if $w$ is a word in $X_1$ and $v$ a word in $X_2$, then $wv^{-1}$ is a relation if there exists $g \in G_0$ such that the image of $w$ in $G_1$ is $\phi_1(g)$ and the image of $v$ in $G_2$ is $\phi_2(g)$?
potato
Yeah, that must be the idea. Perhaps it would be clearer to say that the pushout is a quotient of G1 × G2 by the normal closure of (phi1(x), phi2(x)^-1).
Or should it be the free product? (That's what I seem to see online I suppose).
But thanks. I decided to take this idea and it does work to give you a pushout
Oh yes, free product, sorry.
No worries, thanks
I'm too used to thinking about abelian groups, apparently.
So am I :/
I guess another way to get around the notation be just to take the canonical presentations (as in X1 = G1 etc)
I reckon that may be what they intended given how the notes continue
Ah, yes they said let them be the canonical presentations - I can't read (though notation doesn't emphasise this ig)
so im struggling to do this one using hensels lemma can someone help me to begin with this?
hi, I'm confused about the part I circled in red. From what I understand a-1 does not need to exist as rings don't necessarily have multiplicative inverses, and this R is clearly not a division ring(1/f(X) is not well-defined). So how can we justify something like this?
I could be missing something trivial, but this is really confusing
alpha is a non zero constant, you're allowed to divide by it
by the argument written before your red box
or are you confused about how a constant could be an element of U, a set of functions?
it doesn't need to, U is an ideal
a(1/a) is in U because a is in U and U is an ideal
(a meaning alpha, of course)
OMgggggg I forgot M is the ring of all continuous functions
sorry
I understand now
thank you thank you

$\mathbb{Z}_5\oplus\mathbb{Z}_5$ is a field no?
Bilboswaggins
nope, (1, 0) doesn't have a multiplicative inverse.
It's not even a ring 
why not?
For rings, you take direct product rather than direct sum. I mean you can define the ring operation on the direct sum too but the direct sum notation probably shouldn't be used
Direct sum usually means coproduct/biproduct, and coproduct of rings is tensor product instead
Tldr better to use \times instead of \oplus for rings
I have no idea what this sentence means lol
but thanks
Finite direct sums or rings are the same as finite products, so it's really only a relevant distinction once you generalize to more advanced properties.
Direct sums of abelian groups do have that property so there it is fine
How do you define direct sums of rings?
Ah no, you right, direct sums don't usually even come with a multiplication.
is this what you meant here?
So it's not that it doesn't work, it's just unusual terminology.
Some authors will speak of the direct sum $R\oplus S$ of two rings when they mean the direct product $R \times S$, but this should be avoided since $R \times S$ does not receive natural ring homomorphisms from $R$ and $S$
from wikipedia
Moldilocks1337 ✓
Basically direct sum implies the existence of maps R → R + S and S → R + S, and these don't necessarily exist for rings so not good to use this notation (they do exist for abelian groups)
It's not even a proper coproduct for non-unitary rings (where plausible-looking injections do exist).
very sad
what does natural homomorphism mean here?
It's category theory talk, but you can think of it as a homomorphism which doesn't depend on the rings R and S, but is given by the same "formula" for all rings
If you are really curious you can look up natural transformations but they can be very confusing in the beginning and the above intuition for them works for almost all cases
the intuition being this?
wouldnt something like phi(r)=(r,0) or phi(s)=(0,s) work?
Yes.
That doesn't work because it doesn't carry identity to identity
Hold on does Herstein define ring homomorphisms to have this property in the first place?
Interesting
Then the issue is this lmao
As I was pointing out, even if the ring homomorphisms are not required to preserve 1, the direct sum still doesn't have the universal property of a coproduct.
You do have natural homorphisms but those need to be "universal"
Which is another category theory thing


Rings are better than Rngs >.<
Lol just do what the book says I was just trying to be annoying with that one message
I have never encountered a rng in the wild I think
How do those even occur
Please don't say direct sum of rings
is every Rng a subrng of a ring?
Hmm, ideals are subrngs.
Yes, there's a universal way to embed a rng in ring.
Neat
But rings arise as endomorphisms of abelian groups or abelian groups with extra structure, but where do rngs come from
If the rng happens to have an identity, that still doesn't map to 1 under the undersal embedding.
Freyd adjoint functor theorem should work
very nice
Because product of rings coincides with their product as rngs
Surely there's a simpler construction 🙈
I'm trying to understand an old paper and I've come across a seemingly easy algebra problem. P is the symmetric group S5 with 120 elements, and G is the group of the trefoil knot in the picture, that is, it is presented as <a,x|axa=xax>. The author claims that there are two non-trivial presentations (presumably homomorphisms) of G in P that map x to a 5-cycle and gives them. However, I don't see how to get that result without doing a lot of very tedious calculations. Does anyone have any tips?
Sorry to cut the convo but any idea how in Hamermesh he's going from the first to the second line in both equations? Looks simple and I had some ideas related to symmetry, antisymmetry n dummy indices but it's wrong and I don't see it
It wouldn't be universal if it always preserved 1, because the inclusion of {0,3} into Z/6Z doesn't preserve 1, so it wouldn't factor through an embedding that does preserve 1.
internet says look at Z + eR where we define e to be an idempotent.
terrible pic hahah i'll try to get a better one
(n + er)(m + es) = nm + e(ns + mr + rs)
lol you thought I cared 
Is coproduct of noncommutative rings also tensor algebra?
idts
Sad
No, it's more akin to a free product of groups.
(which is to say, horribly complicated)
Why is free product of groups horribly complicated?
Because there are a lot of elements?
In the same way that free groups are.
The only time I had free groups introduced were in a coding section of algebra 2 and algebraic topology
I havent seen them in other contexts
What are some ways in which they are horribly complicated?
Answering questions about subgroups maybe?
Free groups are being used whenever you describe a group using generators and relations
Pushouts of groups keep me up at night 
Yeah but they are without the relations
IIRC, every finite group is a (sub?)quotient of the free group on 2 generators, so they have all the complexity.
I mean that the free groups without relations are used whenever you have a group defined by generators and relations
Generators and relations is the same as saying quotient of free group on those generators by the normal subgroup generated by those relations
I know the definition of a pushout group but I dont know where they are used
I have a book called examples of groups
and it talked about the construction
Van Kampen theorem is the first that comes to mind
That's the only one I know yeah
That does use a pushout diagram lol
It was why people defined free products in the first place
But thats only example I know
Groupoid one is better anyway 🙃
I have a question that is off-topic. Does anyone have any cool animal/dinosaur/math posters?
2 questions got buried in this conversation 
I realized that since (xa)x(xa)⁻¹=axa(xa)⁻¹=a, we know that a is also a 5-cycle and so there are only 24 options to check. I suppose that may be it? still a lot of calculations but doable by hand
I am confused again. For x=(12345), there exist more values of a than the given two that make axa=xax, e.g. a=(24153), so it seems I have misunderstood what is meant by "up to inner automorphisms of P" or perhaps "non-trivial representations". Does anyone have any thoughts on this?
your a'=(24153) and their a=(13542) are related by conjugation by x
and x conjugated by x is still x
so the pairs (x,a) and (x,a') are related by conjugation by x
so those are the same representation up to a inner automorphism
ah right, thank you! and the only way to get this result is still via just a lot of calculations?
idk I would have to think about it to know if there is a smart way lol
right, sorry. I suppose these kinds of papers really do get away with skipping over a lot of details huh
definitely a humbling reading experience
what conditions are necessary for a ring to have zero divisors but no nontrivial idempotent elements? I tried making a few examples but didn't get anywhere
I just sort of expected that since it's easy to take a ring with idempotents and make zero divisors that the converse would be equally easy but seems not the case
How about the dual numbers?
any local ring with zero divisors should work too
i'll have to think about necessary conditions though, that sounds much harder
cool thanks that sounds like a good example
The minimal example would be Z[x]/<2, x²> -- that is, the dual numbers over F_2 -- with just 4 elements.
Um, and also Z/4Z :-)
nice I'll think about this more
haha I think I just barely missed these nice examples you gave, I looked at the ring with j^2=1 and knew it had zero divisors and then thought about the Z/pqZ cases and that was a bust too and came here haha
In fact, the integers modulo p^n for n>=2.
my original thinking was sort of tarnished cause I was thinking I could create a circle of implications that 'has idempotent => has nilpotent => has zero divisors => has idempotent"
i'm wondering if maybe local ring with zero divisors DOES characterize them
but idk how to prove this
or at least, i don't have a counter-example off the top of my head
I would imagine not because local rings are a strong version of decomposability as a direct product
right, yeah it's a strong condition
Existence of non trivial idempotents is equivalent to existence of a decomposition as a direct product
Yeah and if you look at Jacobson he calls a module M decomposable if End(M) is a direct product and strongly indecomposable if End(M) is local
And these coincide for nice modules, I think for finite length
semi related, End(M) is local iff M is simple, right?
So it's a close approximation still
For finite length yeah by what I said above
Wait
Ah yes
or am i thinking division ring?
Not by what I said above but I think that's a result in Jacobson? Let me think
Yeah division ring lol
Schur's lemma
oops, right
:(
but yeah, methinks I should be able to find an example of such a ring that isn't local
Z[x]/<x²> isn't local, is it?
Right, (x, 2) and (x,3) are maximal and not the same
Z[x] saves the day once again
Not even a PID smh smh
at least it's a ufd
It's not even Dedekind
dimension 2 is okie
Same problem but with 4 and 20 instead, and it's from my abstract algebra study. I changed the numbers because people weren't treating it seriously.
Artin book club
if I want to create a group out of a set, can I just impose a cyclic structure on it to achieve that goal?
what does "impose a cyclic structure on it" mean
if the set is uncountably infinite, you're not going to be able to make it a cyclic group
yeah true
if your set is in bijection with a known group, you can use that bijection to transfer over the group structure
something something, the unique group structure making your bijection an isomorphism
it's an analogy to this
ah
you'd basically be doing this
lemme draw something
alright
if your set is {paper, magnet, corndog, garlic} you can assign to it (one of a few possible) group structures by identifying it with the cyclic group of order 4 as such
"identifying it with..." is the same as picking a bijection with {paper, magnet, corndog, garlic} and {0, 1, 2, 3}
i see what you mean now
and I see what you meant with the bijection thing
the one in my picture is
paper -> 0
magnet -> 1
corndog -> 2
garlic -> 3
if you have a set and you specifically want a cyclic group structure, then you can pick a bijection with a cyclic group and do this kind of thing
(unless the set is uncountable, in which case you're not going to get a cyclic group structure)
hmm could I also get a different group structure from a finite set?
what do you mean?
for example a symmetric group structure (the one which describes permutations)
let me write formally what i'm talking about. let's say you have a set $S$, a group $G$, and a bijection $f\colon S \to G$. for $s_1, s_2 \in S$ i define $$s_1 \cdot s_2 := f^{-1}(f(s_1) \cdot f(s_2)).$$ then this gives a group structure on $S$ (in fancy terms, it's the unique one making $f$ an isomorphism)
TTerra
hmm yeah this makes sense
btw is this what free groups are? are they more general? or are they entirely different things?
free groups are a different thing
free groups are a way of building a (much larger) group out of a given set
what you're doing here is making a given set into a group
sure
as long as the arrow represents multiplication by "onion" or smth since groups require a binary operation
from there you can extrapolate how multiplication works for other elements of your set and verify that it satisfies the groups axioms

your group would behave the same way as a cyclic group ofc
the problem is, since you're the one imposing a structure similar to a cyclic group on this collection of objects you won't really gain much insight about these objects
and I'm under the impression that's why we study groups in the first place
you might as well just study the group whose structure you're imposing on your set
yeah true, that's a cool insight
@glossy widget maybe relevant to your original question
thanks for the link
(summary: it is equivalent to the axiom of choice)

everything is
So I'm looking at the Lorentz group and I see a section on the Surfaces of transivity. Could someone help me understand what this represents?
tensor spaces themselves can be considered as subsets of formal products or quotients so yea i guess
Ok i'm back - I'm a bit confused about the construction of the symmetric power here; the other constructions I've seen seem to define S^n V as the image, not the cokernel, of this map. What am I overlooking?
potato
also, this nlab page references stacks project where they give a construction equivalent to what I originally wrote, which is weird
@south patrol here's what wikipedia has to say https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Symmetric_algebra#Relationship_with_symmetric_tensors
In mathematics, the symmetric algebra S(V) (also denoted Sym(V)) on a vector space V over a field K is a commutative algebra over K that contains V, and is, in some sense, minimal for this property. Here, "minimal" means that S(V) satisfies the following universal property: for every linear map f from V to a commutative algebra A, there is a uni...
Yeah that seems to agree with it being the image of p_A (in nlab notation)
Odd, might ask about it on nlab if it could be a mistake
ive noticed some inconsistencies within nlab before too
Oh sure
(also in what I wrote above I forget to say take the subspace generated by those sets)
"abelian" means "for all a, b in G, ab = ba", so "non-abelian" means "there exist a, b in G such that ab != ba"
not "for all a, b in G, ab != ba"
it's perfectly fine to have some elements that commute with eachother (such as any element and its inverse)
it's only when we can find some that don't commute that the group is non-abelian
A lot of nonabelian groups do have abelian subgroups
In fact if you have a nontrivial subgroup you have an abelian subgroup or are yourself abelian (namely a cyclic subgroup)
Either an element generates a cyclic subgroup or it generates the group in which case it is abelian
Lmao @walter weibel proves snake lemma in abelian categories by defining the smallest abelian subcategory containing all relevant objects and using freyd-mitchell
Based
I wonder if he expects us to prove 5-lemma like this or in an element-free way
Not sure I understand the construction here, idg what he means by thinking of f as a chain complex, as in, the complex Im(f)?
Also what the obvious way is for thinking of C, B[-1] as double complexes. I'm assuming just setting the 0th row to be C and then all the other rows 0?
,rotate
Actually idg what he means by using the sign trick either. The sign trick is used to identify double complexes with complexes in Ch(Ch(A))
So what's the double complex here to begin with
The general idea for abelian category diagram chases is to use subobjects
Instead of elements
More generally you consider subquotients
And you can do a lot of set theoretic stuff with these. For example you can intersect 2 subobjects by taking their pullback
So if you want to prove the snake lemma for abelian categories, then you can start by looking at the filtration induced on each object in the diagrams by the kernels and images of all involved maps
Ravi vakil has a cool post about this on 3b1b's blog where he does this filtration stuff by drawing Venn diagrams and it works really nicely
Oh nice ig we're both reading through weibel then shin
I found these things proofs awkward as he's unclear if we can assume we can just work w elements but when I checked solutions online everyone did use elements
I just meant because weibel proves snake lemma using freyd-mitchell, does he expect us to do thr diagram chase in an element-free way or use elements
If I recall, Aluffi does something similar to what Moldi mentions, but I found it pretty instructive. If you construct an appropriate pullback using the top row and a pushout using the bottom row, you can view the right-most kernel as a cokernel and the left-most cokernel as a kernel, which is how you construct maps from a kernel to a cokernel (since the universal properties usually suggest the other direction)
I believe the four/five lemma have similar proofs, I remember doing them for an exercise
mostly chains nearer the start but mentions cochains too not long after
I love when my rows are short exact sequences
I haven't learned double complexes yet, but if I understand the construction correctly, the idea is to look at two rows, where the top row is B[-1] and the bottom row is C. The differential in the top row is just the differential of B with the sign change while the differential in the bottom row becomes a combination of the chain map and the differential in C
To make it into a complex, you just take direct sum of the two rows
I'll think about this a bit more because I need to learn total complexes eventually so if the mapping cone is a baby case then that's good for me :)
Shin I remember finding that q weird, iirc when i googled it people thought it might have mistakes
I'll need to look at what I did to remember why though lol
Are you looking at 127 or 128
128
So you're saying taking the 2 rows and letting all the other rows to give a double complex?
I don't understand tho how this is a double complex formed 'from f'
the vertical maps are induced by f, no?
or wait, maybe i'm not thinking of it correctly
i'm trying to reconcile viewing the mapping cone as a direct sum of B[-1] and C with a weird differential and the perspective of double complexes
ok yeah after looking at the text myself, I don't think i understand what he's doing
weird indexing stuff gets in the way, but this is the picture I have
but realistically I missed some sign changes to the f
Is this computation even possible?
of course it's possible

you can always take the tensor product of two rings (implicitly, here, over Z), and generally of two R-modules over R
Z_n \otimes Z_m is naturally isomorphic to Z_gcd(n, m)
Ok
Ok, so how would I take the tensor product of it? I’m currently in precalc but learning abstract algebra for fun.
are you asking for the definition of the tensor product?
Sure I guess. Don’t know much about them.
i won't rewrite it here, but ill suggest you find it in an abstract algebra textbook
I forgot how the proof of this went and I think I've managed to re-do it but I just wanted to check that the map ||1 (x) a -> a+(d) where d = gcd(n, m)|| is the right morphism for the job
this exercise must have a typo, right? the only map between these complexes is the zero map, and the zero map will always induce zero in the derived category
lol
this is correct
fwiw, Exercise 6.9 was showing that a non-zero morphism in the derived category could still induce the zero map in cohomology
You need to use that $A/I \otimes_A B = B/I$ (if $A$ is a ring, $B$ is a $A$-algebra and $I$ is an ideal of $A$) and that $n\mathbb{Z}+m\mathbb{Z}=\mathrm{gcd}(n,m)\mathbb{Z}$
Adrien
nice
( it's essentially the same than using your morphism)
I just manually reasoned that every element in that tensor product had to be of the form 1 (x) m and d(a (x) b) = 0 seperately
yeah, i just assumed you brushed some stuff under the rug when you only define it on 1 \otimes a
yur
You can even get away with only defining it for 1 otimes 1.
nvm, my mistake was thinking that the functor from chain complexes to the derived category was full
derived categories are making me become the joker
(b) relates to a proper subgroup, right?
not necessarily
it doesn't say that H is a proper subgroup
for example, let n = |G|. then G has exactly one subgroup of order n, namely itself, and therefore that subgroup is normal
(which is true -- any group is a normal subgroup of itself)
||So true||
OH
I basically just skipped that "of order r" part lel
thanks for the clarification :D
I feel like the quantification in the question is almost ambiguous tbf (although ig then you'd add a comma if it truly meant there were just one subgroup?)
If you truly meant there were just one subgroup, then "of order r" would not contribute any meaning to the claim at all.
Is the completion (at the maximal ideal (x,y)) of $k[x,y]/(xy)\cong k[[x,y]]/(xy)$?
Finitely Many Bananas
Here k is a field
I don't think k[x,y]/(xy) is flat as a k[x,y] module, so the short exact sequence thing won't work
Wait
My bad. The SES thing does work
I forgot that polynomial rings over fields are noetherian
typical scheme theory enjoyer
How does one compute the intersection of ideals in a polynomial ring? For example, I want to show that, in $k[x, y]$ (where $k$ is a field), $(x^2, xy)=(x)\cap (x, y)^2 = (x) \cap (x^2,y)$.
adi
why not just do what you would do for sets?
That would be ideal
ba dum tsh
wut does the notation (x,y)^2 mean
its the ideal multiplied by itself
Yeah
yeah
yeah
😔
What do you mean?
No
is there a surjective homomorphism $\varphi\colon \bR^\times\longrightarrow \bQ^\times$?
DarQ
how about if we changed the operation?
also, is an injective endomorphism of a vector space an automorphism?
Only in the finite dimensional case
Necessarily
I see
If you want a counterexample in infinite dimensions, consider the space of bounded sequences l^infty and the right shift operator (a_1,a_2 ,a_3,...)->(0,a_1,a_2,...)
There's also corresponding left shift operator which is surjective but not injective
Space of bounded sequences
i.e. sequences (say complex) which are bounded as sets in C
I'm thinking we know phi(-1)=-1, so we can focus on the positive numbers. If we look at the logarithm as a homomorphism of the groups from * to +, we can think of them as vector spaces over Q and mapping surjectively with some axiom of choice nonsense probably
If you just want a simple counterexample you dont even need bounded sequences
Just look at the space of all sequences
Also i think the answer to the previous question about R* and Q* is “no”. R* is a divisible group but Q* is not.
Eg if phi(2) = x then phi(2^(1/n)) = x^(1/n) which implies that x = 1
@warm wyvern
I think the issue with mero’s argument is that while positive R* and R are isomorphic via the logarithm, positive Q* is not isomorphic to Q.
I'm here, I'm just looking at the definition of a divisible group 
I'm still in functional analysis mode so I went for a banach space & bounded operator lol
You dont need the full definition, i just proved it for you
But i was originally just appealing to the general fact that a quotient of a divisible group is divisible
Well, proved via example
Which operation?
Also what is this for, why are you looking for examples like this
Like if i know what you want i can maybe give a better example of it
i.e. what if we have $\varphi\colon \bR^+\longrightarrow \bQ^+$ instead
DarQ
I don't remember, I wrote them down yesterday when I was sleep deprived 
I think I was trying to prove the dim is well defined or smth
Just ignore the log stuff
That was for when you had the times instead of plus
R is a vector space over Q
Choose a basis and send one basis element to 1 and send the rest to 0
bruh
oh nice, divisible group argument is clean and nice
is "choose a basis" the axioms of choice nonsense part?
Yeah
Also what’s wrong with saying R is a vector space over Q
Sorry i thinj maybe im assuming you know more linalg than you do
I've never seen it before and it reminded me of some trail of thought when I was trying to prove a function with the property f(a+b)=f(a)+f(b) needn't be continuous
no need to apologize lel
you guys just gave me a lot to think about and research lol
Oh, when you were talking about dimension i assumed it was of vector spaces
yeah
it was
Oh haha my b
indulging in mathematics? criminal!
@warm wyvern you can also derive a contradiction from the fact that every element of R has a square root in R, and a surjective homomorphism would imply that the same is true of Q
yeah, that's like a special case of buncho's argument
I woke up feeling like a Lie algebra
do additive functors make sense outside modules?
sure, they make sense between any two additive categories
i see
det
$x(x \otimes y) = x \otimes xy = xy \otimes x = x(y \otimes x)$

det
yee
[G:H] is the number of distinct cosets of H in G
so all n dimensional vector spaces over a field F are classified since they're isomorphic to F^n
is there any nice classification for infinite dimensional vector spaces?
how about just real vector spaces?
All vector spaces have a basis
I.e. they’re isomorphic to F^S for some set S
(Or think of S as a cardinal; that’s the dimension)
This is assuming axiom of choice
F^S is F acting on S?
Think of it just as a vector space with S as a basis
Like F^n has a basis of n elements
every vector space has a basis, and two vector spaces are isomorphic iff their bases have the same cardinality
ah
In Aluffi I saw a definition of IM where I is an ideal of R (commutative with 1) and module M, and
IM := {rm | r ∈ I, m ∈ M}
and claims it's a submodule, I don't understand why
clearly r1m1+r2m2 has to be of the form rm but r1, r2 may not have a gcd so
Is the def supposed to be { finite sun of rm | r ∈ I, m ∈ M}?
yes
you are correct
IM is generated by elements of the form rm; maybe that's what they were trying to say
cool tks
@lethal dune aluffi is semi-notorious for errata, much of which is documented online here: https://www.math.fsu.edu/~aluffi/algebraerrata.2009/Errata.html

I have consulted this page several times while reading through the book lmao
they have mentioned it there 
the book is good tho
oh yeah, i love it
also there are two printings of the book. second one is soooo much better than the first
@winter hawk Sure, if you have further question about it then DM me or ask me in this channel, it can be classified as an algebra question
Q1. Why can't exp(x) be a vector of F[x]? After all F[x] is infinite dimensional so, it is possible for a vector in F[x] to utilize all the basis(which is also infinitedimensional). No?
And again, why is it necessary for all vector in F[x] to be composed of only finite number of monomials? (after all you have infinite many monomials)
Q2. If n is fixed, then why is S an infinite sequence? Shouldn't it be finite because you have finite basis vectors cardinality n? FS would then be a space of finite sequences with infinite number of non zero elements?(assuming F is infinite dimensional)
Thanks!
F[x] is defined as the set of all polynomials over F which by definition always are finite sums.
You can look at F[[x]], ie. The ring of power series, if you want to take infinite sums but this has the drawback that you cannot evaluate power series at a random point, as on general fields you do not have any notion of convergence
Also not sure how you would define n! over a field of finite characteristic
n isnt fixed here, n indexes your sequence.
It doesn't look like n is fixed anywhere in that screenshot. And S is not an infinite sequence -- it is a set whose elements are infinite sequences.
I'm not sure of the exact definition of the notation FS in use there; but it looks like it might be the span of S as an F-vector space. Since each element is an infinite sequence, linear combinations of those elements are of course also infinite sequences.
(assuming F is infinite dimensional)
That doesn't make sense -- F must be a field here, and a field always has dimension 1 as a vector space over itself.
I wonder which one I have then
I'm doing a problem where I need to examine the relation fTg where fTg iff f(3) = g(3) and check if it is an equivalence relation and then describe the set of equivalence classes
Obviously it is an equivalence relation
each equivalence class is then the set of functions that map to a specific y in the cartesian plane
how am I supposed to write this ^ description in set notation
do you know the definition of an equivalence relation?
Yes?
So in this case T has to be reflexive symmetric and transitive
f(3) = f(3)
f(3) = g(3) implies g(3) = f(3)
ok yeah so what's the question
f(3) = g(3) and g(3) = h (3) implies f(3) = h(3)
yeah
How do i write the equivalence classes in set notation
^^
is that it
do I have to further elaborate more than: each equivalence class is then the set of functions that map to a specific y in the cartesian plane
[f] := {g : f(3)=g(3)}
np but for future reference this is not really an abstract algebra question
I mean if it’s part of a question about a quotient of like, continuous functions on R or something, then it’s abs alg
true I suppose
idk its in an abs alg textbook
ik its a really surface level thing i just wasn't sure how to write the set ahaha
but also I do have to do this :p
Yeah in general [x] = {x : xRy} for some equiv relation R
Let A and B be commutative rings
Assume there exists a monomorphism f (injective ring homomorphism) from A to B, and there exists an element x in B that is outside the image of f
Let Hom(B,A) be the set of homomorphisms from B to A, and allow two homomorphisms be equivalent if they map x to the same element of A. If Hom(B,A)/~ [set of equivalence classes] is bijective to the set of elements of A, then does B have to be isomorphic to the polynomial ring of A?
i know jack shit about abs algebra. I thought of this 2 days ago while working.
I know jack shit about abs algebra
I might be reading this wrong, but what's wrong with taking A=B?
if B = Z[x] and image of A doesn't contain x, then Hom(B, A)/~ is always bijective to A
Injective.
& x outside of the image
oh there exists, sure
oh forgot about injective mb
I haven't read any book about it lol
I mainly just know basically what a homomorphism is
and fuck around with that
what about $B=(A\times A)[x]$ or something
does that work
no
also btw what do you mean by "the" polynomial ring? if A = Z and B = Z[x, y] then also it works right? Hom(B, A) = A^2 after quotienting does become A
there is an injection A->B. and there always exists a homomorphism mapping x to any element of A so Hom(B,A)/~ should be in bijection with A no?
ig
Well, the quotient Hom(B,a)/~ is bijective to A^2 instead
which isn't bijective to A i t h i n k
w a it
well if A is infinite then A and A^2 are bijective, but here it is A i think
Assume N and A are bijective
use this bullshit
not explaining this fuckery
Recognize f(x)'s is the sum of n from 0 to N, g(x) is a branch of it's inverse.
god here we go.
You start with asking how many points are drawn using the diagonal argument for every point on the y axis
and every diagonal line has as many points as the y coordinate of it's intercept + 1
(number of elements from 0 to the intercept lol)
fuck it, moving to discussion
King shit
I did this while at work waiting for an avionics panel I spray painted to dry
Yh i don't see why just using like R[x,y] over R as a counterexample doesn't settle it
or am i misinterpreting the discussion
lol
this seems like a "free object" type thing
Is this question motivated by Z[X] representing the forgetful functor on Ring
like, you're really asking if we can hit everything in A
R[x] is a pretty free object ngl
from x
"forgetful functor" or some dogshit
yh
Natural bijection between hom(Z[X], A) and the underlying set U(A) of A
But yes
Aren't rings just a set with two binary operations satisfying axioms, and homomorphisms are SPECIAL functions between the sets.
So why the fuck do we need forgetful functors to make the ring a set.
This is a fairly interesting construction actually
someone before got pissy at me
I mean okay depends on what your view is lol
we we don't "need" it, but if you wanna talk about function from a set to a ring, it's nicer to put everything in the same "place" and then talk about the functions
I think the point is more that it allows us to be more clear over which category we are working and things like that
also forgetful functors are often not very interesting, what's more interesting is their left/right adjoints...
Aren't categories just like, an alternative notion of "sets" with a slightly modified inclusion to say that they contain elements that have axioms over it's elements
A category is a graph 
not inclusion
this also seems to extend to say 'aren't forgetful functors useless' but ye
I'm not really sure what the second half of this sentence says / intends to say
nvm
I had a question that I answered myself in my head that I was originally going to say afterward
ignore that
But yes informally they are collections of objects with maps/arrows between them
I did some bullshit on my own before which was sorta like
bigggg directed graphs >.<
ZFC y'know
Sure
ok
but I added a third, that's LIKE containment but is slightly different
not reflexive, some other shit that helps allow containment of all forms of sets with structure but without self refernece
til I caused self reference lol
oop
so just to kind of formalise this problem: given a commutative ring $B$ and a subring $A \leq B$ and an element $x \in B \setminus A$. the ring $\Hom(B,A)$ has an ideal $I = {f : f(x) = 0}$. then we are asking whether the map $\Hom(B,A)/I \to A$ given by
[f + I \to f(x)]
is surjective
Average J∘du=du∘j enjoyer
right?
so I guess we can extend this to a map Hom(B,A) --> A so we can forget about the ideal
Hom(B, A) may not be a ring 
I was working with fields a little bit, and I wondered why so many of their properties related to it's polynomial ring are important especially for shit like automorphism groups
and it's stabilizers when considered as actions on elements in the form of galois groups
then I wanted to consider more shit about polynomial rings,
had an idea while at work
then came across that question I had
oh because of multiplicative identity issues?
... what
what the fuck it has structure besides being a set
composition makes NO sense
yea and multiplication in general
crying
what's wrong with (f.g)(b) := f(b)g(b)
no idts
oh i meant f+g may not preserve multiplication
you can't compose them because the domains and images doesn't line up
is there even a 0 element if you require that 1->1 for ring homs?
(f+g)(ab) = f(ab) + g(ab) = f(a)f(b) + g(a)g(b) and this isn't same as (f(a) + g(a))(f(b) + g(b))
yee Hom_ring is kinda boring
oh rip
Hom_set(a set, a ring) is a ring
h o w
Sorry yes confused it w something else that was dumb lol
Is the operation not composition
nope, it's pointwise addition and multiplication
o
How can composition when S -> A not A = S so chain ->->->->... break?! ☝️ 🤨
indeed
yeah
using S and A in the same sentence when S isn't a multiplicative subset of A should be banned

lol
If F is a field or commutative integral domain or whatever semantic bullshit
