#help-4
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I was trying to prove catalan numbers (so (2n!)/(n+1)!n! are.. numbers
and this is the last step of my reasoning
btw type .reopen or this will close suddenly
.reopen
✅ Original question: #help-4 message
thanks!
this is probably not what you want but you can show that using the induction formula
ah yeah (strong?) induction probably does something! I wanted to take a look at that too
but yeah I wanted to finish this reasoning before
okay I think I got something: what can you say about (2n)!/(n! * n!) and (2n)!/((n-1)! * (n+1)!)
Haven't worked out the complete proof, but if you assume n is even, then (n+1)! = 2^k (sum of first n integers)P = 2^kNP where P is a product of odd numbers; you could probably work in cases show if d divided N, then it accounts for certain factors of the RHS and if d divides P, then it accounts for the remaining factors (I do not believe each factor needs to be distinct but this could be wrong)
I'll write that down to keep it in mind for later, thanks!
not sure I understand your rewriting of n+1! ?
you can factor out a 2 from the even integers which will leave an n/2 * (n+1) at the end of the product which turns into sum of first n integers (which is odd if n is even); you then can continue factoring 2 until you are only left with odd terms in the product
this is what I was using
Yeah, I haven't worked out the proof myself so I can't be certain but that may/may not be useful
Though I agree it's a cool problem 👍
ah yeah! hadnt seen it that way of factoring
thanks for the answers! Guess I'll try to think about it a bit more 😅
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can someone explain to me direct sum generally
and direct product
Both direct sums and direct products of two objects X,Y usually have as underlying sets X×Y (Cartesian product) such that X×Y is another object of the same kind. The word "sum" is used when your object is abelian , the word product is used when your object is generally not or when you are taking an infinite Cartesian product where direct sum and direct product may not agree
Cf. Direct sum of vector spaces, direct product of groups
my current understanding is that u can write it as an order pair or u can write it as a sum, with elements of both sets over some.. field? or something but im not sure how to say it well or if im understanding it well. or which is which. also they are analagous in finite dimension but not in infinite dimensions? im not sure
so just say with the set of arbitrary objects with no structure, we would use direct product? say the elements of the set were x1, x2, ..., xn with no clearly defined structure
and how would the direct product of two such sets look like, say X = {x1, x2, ..., xn} and Y = {y1, .., yn}.
if we did direct sum instead what happens or is it nonsense
what if we replaced it with an infinite set, X = {x1, x2, ..} . or if both were infinite sets
and thank u for helping <3
What I'm saying is, direct sum and direct product are somewhat the same
If you have vector spaces X,Y, you take X × Y and turn it into a vector space
And you say directsum to refer to this construction
If you have groups X,Y, you take X×Y and turn it into a group
And you say direct product to refer to this construction
yea.. what is this construction 😭
i tried going to wikipedia but its hard to understand what they are saying
so um... im trying to ask about like, precisely the definitions and so on
So your question of "what if I take direct product instead of direct sum" doesn't make much sense
words? in the category?
For vector spaces X,Y, their direct sum is the vector space X×Y where you define addition of (x,y) and (a,b) as (x+a,y+b) and scalar multiplication by c(x,y)=(cx,cy)
sorry, im sure ive seen all these before but my foundations are shaky so i would rather, use simpler terms or be told all terms and their definitions
and according to wikipedia, direct sum is different for different structures, so its hard to write a general definition for direct sum?
For abelian groups X, Y, their direct sum is the group X×Y where you define the group operation as (g,h)*(a,b)=(ga,hb)
As you can see the definition for direct sum is different between groups and vector spaces
is it not the same, only that the abelian operation changed from addition to multiplication and that vector spaces have a scalar multiplication which still works
i guess
so
is there a general way to describe or understand the two, direct product and sum
The very general idea is that direct sums and direct products of some family of structures {Xs}_{s \in S} have the aim to put the same type of structure on the cartesian product of the family Xs. The wiki article goes into detail
family is similar to set? and different structures, can we use direct sums or products on them?
Yeah like family just means a collection of those structures. And no we don't usually take direct sums or products of stuff like groups with vector spaces
If you want to look at this from a category theoretic viewpoint, the notion of products in a category can be taken as a generalization of direct sums and products
i never understood category theory and all the category stuff :(
There it is defined via a universal property, and in a lot of cases some cartesian product construction happens to satisfy the properties
yea, ill try to understand it sometime, and yes i do know the definitions of universal properties and so on. i just dont think i have a good understanding of them yet.
thank you aster
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Hi! Could someone help me verify this proof? I couldnt think of a function for A and B since the question doesnt mention whether it’s a number or an alphabet or any other element.
Do you know that NxN is countably infinite?
N x N has a bijective function with Q and Q is countably infinite, but i havent shown that over here
So if there is a bijection between NxN and AxB ,then AxB is countably infinite.
should i go about it that way, take N^2 and show that its countably infinite and the same thing would apply to A x B
In you proof, is |A| x |B| defined ?
no, im just given A and B
and i just assumed A x B would have same cardinality as N x N
Or is |N|x|N| defined? I mean, |N| is not a number, is multiplication defined on it ?
Then you should find a bijection between them.
oh wait i didnt think of that, then can i say |A| = |N| and |B| = |N| so |A x B| = |N x N|
If this is a theorem, you can use it directly.
If multiplication is not defined on |N| (which is not a number), the you proof is not correct, as it uses |N| x |N| .
ill look to check if thats a theorem, if not then if i prove that thing i can finish my proof just by using that right?
also i wont be forming a bijection, rather i would do this by double injection, but the problem is i dont know what kind of set A and B are so that i could create a function between it and Natural numbers
Because A is countably infinite, there must exist a bijection between A and N. This should be theorem. You don't have know the exact form.
Or maybe it is the definition of countably infinite.
that means even in A x B and N x N i dont really need an actual proof then, since i know A maps to N and B also maps to N so there is already a bijection by definition
the only proof would be to show N x N maps to N
You can list all elements in NxN, that makes it countable infinite.
like
(0,0)
(1,0) (0,1)
(2,0) (1,1) (0,2)
....
(n,0) (n-1,1) (n-1,2) ... (0,n)
...
Maybe there is already a theorem saying NxN is countable infinite.
wait so is this another approach to this proof? by showing we can list the elements?
yes there was an exercise in one of my readings
listing elements is an approach to prove countably infinity
You must show that every element appear at a finite position.
like at a number that could be defined by n?
what do you mean?
If you list NxN as (0,0), (0,1),(0,2),(0,3)....(0,n)....(1,0) (1,1), (1,2) .... , then (1,0) is not at a finite position, there infinite elements before it.
Sorry, have to leave now.
Thank you for your help! Really appreciate it
@granite trellis Has your question been resolved?
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How do I prove the blue statement by using the bijection between the two green items?
The bijection is clear
Every tuple that can be formed with {0,1}^|C| can be associated with one subset of C
How does this lead to the statement in the blue box?
Are you asking why the cardinality of the set is 2^|C|?
I’m asking how to prove the blue statement
What us the blue statement I cant see it
Right
So that’s the size of the set
It’s called the power set of C I’ll denote it by P(C) okay
Do you know that it’s every possible subset of C?
Yes
Yes that too
I know what it is
Alright good
But I don’t know how to determine its size
Because the only way to calculate that we got was 2^|C|
So imagine the elements of the set C are c1, c2, c3….,cn
So any subset either contains c1 or doesn’t contain c1, contains c2 or doesn’t contain c2 etc all the way up to cn
So we have 2 options for each element
2x2x2x….x2 n times
Where n is |C|
Yes
So we can portray this by using the tuples from {0,1} instead
Oh wait nvm
You explained the other thing
Yes but you’re right
The task explicitly asks us to use the results from a and c tho
Task a states that bijection implies |A|=|B|
Mhm
Task c was a proof for |A^n| = |A|^n
Oh so it wants to use a and c to prove that |P(C)|=2^|C|?
Yeah lol
Well, we can do that
First let’s use part c
We can say that |{0,1}^n|=|{0,1}|^n=2^n right?
Yes
Sorry I’m very slow
This homework has been a lot
I need to write it on paper right now and my concentration isn’t the best
That’s okay
If you read part c, it says that |A^n|=|A|^n
So using this, we can say |{0,1}^n|=2^n
Correct
How did you come up with the injection?
Well there’s a few ways of doing it
There’s one clever way which goes something like this
All of the subsets of {0,1}^n look something like (0,1,1,0,0…) right?
Some combination of 0’s and 1’s
Ill write this out because it’s easier
Alright thank you
Yes this is the bijection I’ve mentioned earlier right
Yup
So we said that we’re happy that |{0,1}^n| is 2^n, that’s part c
We’ve found a bijection between that and our set P(C)
So using part (a) we can conclude what was inside of the blue box
Im not sure what part A‘s job is here
We know that P(C) and {0,1}^n are in bijection
We know that |{0,1}^n|=2^n
Part a tells us that if two sets are in bijection, they have the same size
So P(C) and {0,1}^n are the same size
2^n
Cool
@fleet stirrup Has your question been resolved?
Sorry for disappearing I just wrote 4 pages
Thank you for your help it was clear in the end
May I ask for help with one more task?
Sure
M N are both sets
Not empty
A and B are subsets of M
While C and D are subsets of N
There’s also the function M->N
The first task wants me to figure out the mistake (there is a wrong equivalence)
This is a wrong proof for a wrong statement but once you correct the mistake the proof itself will become right and the statement of the proof will change
Im not sure if I was supposed to respond to a message to ping you or something but I’ll do it just in case
Do you hve any suggestions as to what it might be?
I don’t even understand the statement that they’re trying to prove
Im not talking about it being wrong
I know that much but I don’t understand what it’s saying
You don’t understand what the statement means?
The second part is confusing me
Sorry it’s 2 am and i haven’t slept enough in days this is killing me
Part b you mean right
No
The second part of the statement
f(A) and f(B)
I don’t know how to picture it
It’s saying that there is at least 1 x that is in A and B s.t f(x)=y
I guess it’s saying that there are values of the function that both A and B can imply?
That’d mean not having a unique pair
So it can’t be bijective
s.t.?
Such that
It can’t be injective either
Is it surjective?
I don’t think surjectivity/injectivity are really relevant here
Alright
Im currently interpreting the statement as
There’s a value y from a value x that both A and B share
But i don’t know how the right side is any different
Right side?
I’m trying
Dont get too caught up on visualisation
Sometimes you just have to get comfortable in the abstract
So the image of a value that A and B share is supposed to be the same as… an image they both share?
I just can’t even tell how to phrase it
They seem like the same thing
Oh wait
Does it mean they share an x is supposed to be the same as they share a y
I thought about it more
Is it them supposedly sharing a value x for every y they have in common?
In that case this statement would be proven wrong by two different values of x that they don’t share that result in a common y
Sorry if you were going to come back but it’s almost 3am and I need to hurry up
I’ll open a new channel so more people can respond
@pearl nacelle
I’d appreciate seeing you there tho
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Given a cube ABCD.A'B'C'D'. M and N are two point on AC and DC' which satisfy MN//BD'. Choose True or False
a) Set AM/AC = x, C'N/C'D = y [x, y ∈ (0,1)] -> Vct MN = (1 - x -y)vct BA + (1-y)BB' + (1-x)vct BC
b) Set MN/BD' = m/n (m,n ∈ N*) -> 2m + 3n = 13
Can someone prove those two statements false? (The answer sheet only show both of them are false, but i don't know why)
I appreciate it :D
@fiery pelican Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185> sorry for disrupting you all but eh... can yall help me for a bit?
Ques?
here
its a true or false question
those two are false but they dont explain it clearly
Have you drawn a picture?
i did
but after i drew it i just have no idea how to prove it false
Can you send the picture?
okay
Perf. I think it’s pretty obvious that (b) is false given the number of points M or N could be
huh..?
you can draw MN in lots of different ways
B is making a claim about the ratio of MN to the diagonal
ooh wait nvm i can’t read
aw its okay its okay
my gut is saying false but i can’t prove it. it’s near midnight where i live and my brain is not currently equipped for geometry
so i may have to bail
i’d try drawing MN in more than one way
and see if you can make a similar triangles-esque argument with DCC’ or something
okay
again sorry for not being able to do much
@fiery pelican Has your question been resolved?
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Need help on circled b
And c, inplicit differentiation
Zero clue what im doing
The steps dont make any sense to me
Hi! The entire principle behind implicit differentiation is that you just want to "take the derivative of both sides".
For example,
x^2 - y^2 = 1
What happens if you take the derivative of both sides (with respect to x)?
I learned a bit in class
Let me show u where i get stuck 1 sec
Wait
Deritive of y is always y’ right
Yep.
I feel good i think until substituting y’ back in
Common denom of y
Oh wait
If x^2 - y^2 = 1, the original form
Can u make it -1/y^2
Woah woah okay, hold on
Actually
It seems like your working out is right in a way:
x^2 - y^2 = 1
Taking the derivative of both sides
2x - 2y * y' = 0
y' = x/y, this is good.
Then you take the derivative of both sides, which is good too (using quotient rule).
Yeah actually it seems like the only problem here is making common denominators.
How do you simplify y - x^2/y?
Good; so: (y^2 - x^2)/y right?
Now divide this by y^2, as per your expression.
Yea
Like
1 - x^2?
Is this equation of important
Oh
I got it
Multiply by the reciprocal to cancel out double fraction
Yeah but there should not be a y' in front
Like it should just be 2x - 2y * y' = 0
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Let K be the set of all real values of x where the function \ $f(x) =\sin \abs{x} -\abs{x}+2(x-\pi)\cos \abs{x}$ is not differentiable. Then the set K is: \ (A) $\phi$\ (B) $\left{ \pi \right}$ \ (C) $\left{ 0 \right}$ \ (D) $\left{ 0,\pi \right}$ \
I checked differentiability at x=0 because of the presence of the absolute value function. with that I'm getting different LHD and RHD but the solution manual says the answer is (A) null set
T&C
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need help w dis
need to factorise by taking out common factors
!status
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked.
5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
i dont know where to begin
do you know what common factors are?
yeah
okay, so - do you think we could take a common factor of a?
and if we did that, we'd go from $a^2bc^3 + c^3ba^2 - a^3b^2c^2$ to $a( ??? )$
ꙮ PPK ꙮ
a square right
a square of what
A
yeah yeah
so we'd have $a^2( ???)$
ꙮ PPK ꙮ
b?
I was going one step at a time - so if we took a common factor of a^2 out, what would we have left
and then from what we have left, we can work out the common factor of b to take out
i didnt understand, sorry
okay - so we've taken out the common factor of $a^2$. so what would we fit in the missing space such that $a^2 * (????) = a^2bc^3 + c^3ba^2 - a^3b^2c^2$
ꙮ PPK ꙮ
it'd a square b and then c square right
those would be some common factors, but you'd then need to work out what you're left with
if you want to do it all at once then that's fine
$a^2bc^2 * (????) = a^2bc^3 + c^3ba^2 - a^3b^2c^2$
ꙮ PPK ꙮ
The intersection of their images is the inage of their intersection
@neat brook its okay i got it
you're 9 hours late lol
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Ah well
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Hey so i have this question here
whats up
whatve u tried
what is the answer?
the answer is this
oh that's even more interesting
isnt it
that's also correct, yes
so were both right?
you can just do 17/12 pi - 2pi
Yep
It depends on the convention of the argument range, whether it's from -π to π or from 0 to 2π
its the same but 24pi/12 away, which is the same as e^(2pi i) = 1 = e^(24pi/12 i)
or right but the answer does show the range
the convention I've usually seen is that r > 0 so that surprised me
i mean the question
Indeed, I also thought they wanted a positive mod
it doesnt matter too much unless its specified tho
yeah that's just saying that 'one possible answer is....'
of course you should pay attention in class to figure out which forms of the answer are wanted
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✅ Original question: #help-4 message
wait
so then what aobut this here
how do u add two imaginary exponents since weve been only toguth multiply and divison now
oh, compute z1 z2 and z1 / z2 in polar form first
then convert both of those to Cartesian form
now you can add
$(x, y) = (r \cos \theta, r \sin \theta)$
south
@chrome karma Has your question been resolved?
How do I use Pi in real life activities?
@chrome karma Has your question been resolved?
is this the working for the second part of c
Yea
@chrome karma Has your question been resolved?
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hi, i was wondering if my proof would be valid, or if there are better ways or doing this. i feel like my ways feels a little dubious. ty😀
sorry, the image looks weird, im trying to prove that there are infinitely many non trivial triples, i.e. not a multiple of a different pythagoren triple
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Hi, I'm currently working through this question on a representation theory example sheet. I feel like I'm not understanding the concepts that have been taught in lectures at a foundational level - case in point I'm struggling to prove the first part of this question which feels like it should be not hard.
I'm pretty sure I know what I want to be using - the fact that the sum of the squares of the dimensions of the representations should add to |Q_8| = 8. To that end I'm pretty sure there should be exactly 4 1-D representations and 1 2-D representation.
But what is stopping it from having 2 2-D representations and no 1-D representations? or 8 1-D representations? I feel like there should be something nice to be said about how to find the exact number of 1-D representations (since they're so nice and come from abelian groups and are always irreducible for obvious reasons) but afaia we haven't covered anything on that in lectures (or I am conveniently blanking on that part of the course.)
@regal stag Has your question been resolved?
First time posting a question so I'm not 100% on how this works but I think it's been 15 minutes so im ok to ping <@&286206848099549185> ?
you can also ask in #advanced-algebra which is where more people who are familiar with rep theory hang out
I'm not very good at this, but I remember there is a theorem that says the number of irreducible representations equals the number of conjugate classes.
i think that's not useful since again it gives a total and not dimensions pecific numbers
You three options listed all have different total numbers of representation.
There should be only one of them equals the number of conjugate classes.
so a few things to keep in mind
a group always has the trivial representation
and yeah Q8 has 5 conjugacy classes of like 1, -1, +-i, +-j and +-k
so there's always at least one 1D rep
also yeah, number of irreps = number of conjugacy classes
in fact, a group is abelian iff all its irreps are 1D
mhm
ok cool, i think im happy with the answer to this first part now. i'll close this and give the rest of the question a good bash. thanks guys o7
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oop
i was going to ask whether they expect you to use character theory here
wait then how do you know the sum of squares thing
i think we proved it some other way
interesting
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I've been trying to help my gf to do this one problem for so long now but I can't seem to find any other way to do it other than through logging both sides, but she has an exam where it's JUST exponential equations and no logarithm whatsoever, so I'm wondering if my mind is going blank or is there just no way to solve this without the help of a logarithm??
The question goes like so:
10^(x-2) + 10^(x+2) = 99
I've tried so many things, only way I've gotten to a possible solution is by approximating the answer but given how simple her school is (and it's not a mathematical school) where exponential equations are learnt on the basics, I don't see why they would do so.
let u=10^x
I don't think that does anything
10^x/10^2 + 10^x • 10^2 = 99
u = 10^x
u/100 + 100u = 99
It still requires to use logarithm.
did she not learn about the logarithm?
They did, but this exam is just exponential equations without any logarithms.
you use logarithms to solve certain exponential equations
its as you said, the only way in this circumstance
yes, i know and hence why i said i only see logarithm being the solution, but every other example they've done is without them, and this is just one that seems to be off, idk if it's a mistake or if they really want them to use logarithms on a test where they specifically said just pure exponential equations without any use of inverses (logarithms)
oh..
maybe its one of the 'harder' ones
idk
the answer must be in terms of a log anyways so there isn't really any going around it
.close
Closed by @rigid whale
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I can only think of logs but here’s sln
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hey can someone help me I am learning about linear algebra
lets say I have bases b1 and b2, now lets take two scenarios
- we have a vector v1 lets say 2i + 3j now I want to transform into the bases b1 and b2 subspace I would do that using [b1, b2]*v right? if not what is this video talking about https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=kYB8IZa5AuE
- Now lets say I have a vector v1 which is already in the subspace of bases b1 and b2, now to convert v1 back into my i cap and j cap i would do the same multiply [b1, b2]*v right?
Quite possibly the most important idea for understanding linear algebra.
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@misty helm Has your question been resolved?
@misty helm Has your question been resolved?
Closed by @misty helm
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Whats the first step 😭
Closed by @merry hearth
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tf is "number of integers"
My bet is on number of digits
but why not say digit if digit is meant
Bc bad

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Can you help me how to solve this problem?
do you know vieta
?
what is X
I dunno
what is root =)))
this stuff?
i only know this is a part of tree
basically x intercepts of a polynomial function
yes but for cubics
is the answer 6?
yeah, I thought he might know it without the name vieta
sum of roots is -b/a which is zero in this case, therefore using the identity
i don't understand that. That is ( if ax+b=0 and x=-b/a => x is root)??
you could say that
this is exactly it
dbc=2 3dbc=6
tysjm
ur supposed to let OP solve it not lay it out in front of them
i don;t understand what "root" mean =))
values of x for which f(x)=0
values of x for which the plot y=f(x) intersects the x axis
okey tysm im only know a litte in english
this isn't your channel though. if you don't understand OP's question then what are you doing here
i can solve some problem =))
😭
you say you don't understand this specific problem. so in this channel specifically you cannot do anything
and i love math
do you know sum and product of roots
maybe that'll be more familiar
Yea i know
ok so do you know the version of that for cubics
good
and bcd equals to 2
yeah now try to find a way to express b^3+c^3+d^3 in terms of these
whats that?
what r u gonna equate it to?
think of another way
just replace a b c with b c d as given in the question
also b+c+d = 0 so its whole cube will also be 0
now try to solve this
6?
yeah
nt
Closed by @tired aspen
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I have used it quite a lot =))
!original
Please show the original problem, exactly as it was stated to you, with the entire original context. A picture or screenshot is best. If the original problem is not in English, then post it anyway! The additional context might still be helpful. Do your best to provide a translation.
there is no question
he was just saying something related to previous question
@dawn vale Has your question been resolved?
=)) i don't have question
then close the channel
.solved
Closed by @river shale
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this question has been really confusing me, i'm unsure of how to set up what i need to get the answer
my current point is having some sort of integrals along these lines, $\int^45_15 \int^{y+5}{y} f(x, y)dxdy + \int^60_0 \int^{x+5}{x} f(x, y)dydx$
diego
augh
{} 
search up 'geometric probability': the idea is that you plot person 1's arrival time on the x-axis, and plot person 2's arrival time on the y-axis
you can do it with integrals, but the shapes you get are triangles and trapezoids
$\int^{45}{15} \int^{y+5}{y} f(x, y)dxdy + \int^{60}{0} \int^{x+5}{x} f(x, y)dydx$
diego
where $f(x, y) = f_X(x)f_Y(y) = \frac{1}{60}\frac{1}{45}$
diego
since the probabilities are independent
This info will help immensely
diagram spoiler
hmm i'll look into it but my prob course hasn't really gone over anything of the sort sooooooooooo idk if that's where i'm supposed to go with it
-# Tbh I want to see what have he cooked
is the idea that i'm supposed to like.. find the probability by figuring out the relevant section that corresponds to the event i'm looking for and then like
figuring out the area of said section?
yep!
and then you divide by the total area of the sample space, so that would be the rectangle here
okay that makes sense
https://brilliant.org/wiki/1-dimensional-geometric-probability/
also there's this article if you want to see a few more examples
is using a joint density function possible though?? the geometric solution seems a lot simpler but we haven't gone over anything like that in class so idk if my professor will love it
I know this is probably not how your class wants you to do it, but it's honestly the simplest
ig my bounds are probably weird but i'll look into it
thank you for the help!
.close
Closed by @obtuse bluff
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if you understand that the condition is |x - y| < 5
then you could do $\int_{15}^{45} \int_{x - 5}^{x + 5} f(x, y) \ dy \ dx$
south
something like that
