#advanced-algebra
24687 messages · Page 25 of 25 (latest)
Its for sure a useful lemma to know, at least in all of the problems ive done
right, thats cool
you can also use it to prove that the Jordan decomposition of a derivation must be into derivations
gradings where most components are 0 are the best kind of gradings lol
easier to understnad
true
At that point just grade by a finite group
Sweep everything into grade 0.
hmm yes let's add structure by not adding structure
gradings sound very intuitive
touched up on like superalgebras and mentioned that they are Z2 graded algebras
where the superalgebra is composed of a direct summation of two subspaces
isnt a superalgebra also a vector space
wait but i thought an algebra over a field K or a K-algebra considered a superalgebra or is that not how it works
thought its just an algebra but with more structure
well it is
everything "over a field" has an underlying vector space
a grading can be seen as a generalization of polynomial rings
in a polynomial ring, everything can be written uniquely as a sum of elements with a certain degree (either simply degree or a multidegree in the case of multiple variables)
these will be monomials
graded rings/algebras generalize this
Interesting
Direct sum decomposition of subspaces is what algebra grading is right
I thought it was a direct sum decomposition of sub algebras
It's part of it. It only becomes a "grading" when the multiplication operation respects the grades.
Does that mean grading is structure preserving
well that cant be it
the unit element can only be a part of a single component
It means that An Am ⊆ An+m for all n, m
and 1 ∈ A0
in particular, A0 is a subalgebra
So 1 component can be a subalgebra and the other is a subspace ?
Is that how even graded algebras work
well you can do this over any commutative monoid Γ
So the odd graded algebra can’t be a subalgebra ?
you mean graded over Z/2Z?
Yes
then yes, because it is not the 0 component
This is for multiplying elements of degree l and k resulting in an element of degree l+k right
yes
Could algebraic extensions also generalize superalgebras
What algebraic structure would you make if it were to be a direct summation of two even graded algebras over Z2
These are of homogeneous elements of parity 0 right
Would that mean the superalgebra is unital by definition (I don’t think superalgebras are associative by definition)
Maybe this is because I worked through a treatment of the derived category in decent detail from Weibel (and also a bit from Fourier-Mukai Transforms in Algebraic Geometry), but when reviewing this stuff from Residues and Duality, I’m surprised at how such a complicated object (relatively speaking) is kinda… obvious?
Like it’s still kind of homological algebra like where if you know what to do the steps in doing that are relatively obvious and just kinda doing the only thing you can
It can just maybe be a pain to verify that this construction has all the properties you need and whatnot. And then there’s some silliness when trying to extend stuff out of a derived category with some sort of finiteness condition to one with less finiteness conditions, but I think these become really standard stuff
-# re-self-promote my message; as stated before, any help is welcome
I am stuck at iv), i don't see how the hint helps me here? Okay 1 \otimes x = 0 in A\xi \otimes M
Note that
A -> A\xi
a |-> a\xi
is an isomorphism of A-modules
And you know that
a (x) x = 0 iff ax = 0
because
A(x)M -> M
is an isomorphism
I got it, thank you
Oooh very neat that the torsion functor is left exact
I mean it’s kinda clear
It’s literally a subset of the module it comes from so it’s gotta preserve injections
I guess exactness at the middle is kinda interesting
Yeah, I can see it in hindsight. It just wasn't something that occurred to me
@hallow bone is there a name for when a quasigroup's divisions are identical to its multiplication, and also, the quasigroup is idempotent?
it's like if steiner quasigroups were non-commutative
involutive
whoa
i found something interesting geometrically that is naturally described by them
not UAG tho sadly
oh?
just like, geometry-geometry
i was thinking about interesting ways to generalize how a line graph is the unique connected 2-regular tree
like the one whose vertices are integers and whose edges are given by consecutive integers
so instead i decided to consider what happens if you freely try to tessellate solid triangles together
by "freely" i mean escaping the constraints of euclidean space, just like as an abstract structure
and what i came up with was, let the vertices be elements of the free involutive idempotent quasigroup on two generators, and let triangles be of the form {s, t, st} for all terms s, t
actually i wonder if i could get sagemath to make some drawings for me
i did some on my own via a whiteboard
sounds hyperbolic almost
yea that's part of what im thinking
admittedly, a while ago, i did something similar, by generating the unique connected 3-regular tree via the cayley graph of the group presentation <a, b, c | a^2, b^2, c^2>
these structures, as topological spaces, should be homotopic, although i dont have a precise proof, just vibes
but it's interesting to me how the quasigroup creates the "filled-in" version, which might possibly be a manifold with boundary, while the other one isn't. although im not sure if it's a manifold because of what happens at sharp corners
well it shouldnt have a boundary because every triangle is surrounded by triangles
that's true. so the only problematic behavior can occur at vertices
cuz we end up having infinitely many triangles all attached by the same vertex
right
at every vertex
yea kinda mind-boggling
ok this is too big to be useful for understanding it
yea ok this is terrible for visualization
ill just make my hand-drawings
actually wait maybe the computer is trying to tell me i was wrong
i need more axioms
yeah you cant form tetrahedrons
because then it wont be a tree anymore
yea i checked via sagemath, the homology is nontrivial, which is very much not intended
well glad to know i was wrong
this is what happens when i just declare things true on vibes cuz i checked a few cases 🥀
lmao
aha i see what happened
i entirely forgot that (xy)(yx) is a term
in my head, i was only generating more terms off of edge-connected ones
ok tl; dr everyone can ignore everything i wrote in this channel today cuz it was based off of a fundamental error in understanding
ok i fixed my idea
this is what i originally intended
im using polish notation to reduce vertex name sizes
anyway this time the rules are very simple
each edge freely generates a face with that edge on it
this is more analogous to my previous idea cut in half, cuz there is an explicit edge boundary this time, specifically along x-y
ok yea now that ive not fucked up, it's actually planar
hi mico
sorry for clogging chat with me talking to myself a little, yall are free to like, use this channel as intended if yall want
this seems to be the largest it'll go before sage gives up trying to get hyperbolic space to fit into euclidean space nicely
It scares me mishu :3
it constantly seems like it wants to close up on itself lol
mishu no know what maths mishu want do so mishu bored
i do have UAG notes im working on :3333333333333
UA no is option
fucK
Scooped
You is have opinions on fun group theory for mishu?
well im sure you know lots more group theory than i do lol, but quantum groups are always fun
What is good book to learn quantum groups?
Kassel!
It beeg and not dwagon shaped
ikr
mishu steal :3
that's true although i think mico actually once tried ua before
you should teach me ggt
:3
idk maybe theyd like uag lol
tbh i have no idea what kind of math it's mostly into
mishu probably no would
It not very mishushaped
mishu mostly do all the groups like micotses
that makes sense when i think about it
sadge
this is mishu
eepy
its kinda interesting to see how did systems interact with like math
ok so there's a natural action on the faces by the free monoid on 2 generators
Wawawawawawawawa
mishu mostly just get in way of doing maths because cudl is more fun :3
lowkey can get behind that
for me tho i dont have like full dissociation between alters or wtv i do notice that math just seems to be like
mostly an ever present knowledge? not like my other skills like drums or breaking or whatever
right
an easy way to get a 3 regular tree is the term algebra on one variable and three unary operations
oh fuck
anyway i wonder if there's a similar thing that the free group would act on
no you're right im stupid
wait what if theyre all involutative though
then it should work
so like the variety of Gsets with G the product C2 * C2 * C2
yea that does work
peak
im sorta trying to get a surface version of that
yeye i see
i think you can take a really large colimit
How does Jacobson's "Lie Algebras" compare to other, more modern texts?
i havent really studied a ton of it but i did buy it because its one of those cheap dover publishing books, i think it gives an good treatment of lie algebras that you could find in most modern texts but i think you could probably get better takeaways from texts that will talk about lie groups and lie algebras
its very focused on lie algebras hence the name so it doesnt really cover much about the connections between lie groups and lie algebras and how to relate representations of lie algebras to representations of lie groups
lie algebras can be taught independently just fine, but a lot of what you learn can feel unmotivated without seeing how it gets applied to the representation theory of lie groups
that was my experience at least, because my first exposure was introduction to lie algebras by erdmann and wildon
i think brian hall's textbook gives a better picture
maybe you can use vi) cause i think there is an isomorphism M/aM = A/a (x) M
should be
But then I need A/a has to be finitely generated as A module
it is
Yeah
take the SES
0->a->A->A/a->0
tensor with M
a ⊗ M -> M -> A/a ⊗ M -> 0
is exact. Clearly the image of a ⊗ M in M is aM, so M/aM ≈ A/a ⊗ M
so whats the problem lol
peak
I'm fine with a purely algebraic text, I have some familiarity with Lie groups.
if you are already familiar with lie groups i think youd definitely get a lot more out of brian halls book but jacobson is fine if you just wanna learn about lie algebras
the treatment is pretty much the same as most other texts on lie algebras
Is there a standard category whose automorphism objects are the finite Weyl groups of all other types, similar to the category of finite sets for type A?
I mention https://pages.uoregon.edu/njp/fsb.pdf as relevant.
I am stuck at the last part, any hint?
I think it may be helpful to recall that
$(M \otimes_A B){\mathfrak {q}} \simeq (M \otimes_A B) \otimes_B B{\mathfrak {q}} \simeq M \otimes_A (B \otimes_B B_{\mathfrak{q}}) \simeq M \otimes_A B_{\mathfrak{q}}$
HChan
for the middle isomorphism refer to exercise 2.15, p.27
Any hint for part c?
The exceptional types should just be the delooping of the corresponding Coxeter groups, embedded into FinSet via their canonical group action as real reflection groups. In the notation of the paper you linked one can most likely define FS_D by a similar process of embedding a unique involution on-top of FinSet as D_n is isomorphic to C_2^{n-1} \rtimes S_n, similar to how B_n is Z_2 wreath S_n but I admit I haven’t worked out the details - the involution in the paper seems to corresponds to the diagonal C_2 in B_n but the semidirect product that forms D_n isn’t as simple so the precise action of this involution on the finite sets isn’t as clear to me
Hey guys, i understand that the "If condition (i) (and therefore (ii)) holds..." statement should be true but how do i prove it?
This guy here says it's an easy consequence of (i) so i think im missing something obvious
The (satisying (7)) => (forming a basis) implication is clear but i cant see how to do the other implication
For info, "B as above" means N-graded k-algebra where k is a field and "h.s.o.p." is homogeneous system of parameters, as in homogeneous, algebraically idependant elements a1,a2,...,an€B such that B is a finitely generated k[a1,a2,...,an]-module
this is how far i got
simple examples work if you just try stuff out
Does anyone here have a reference for learning more about Koszul-Tate resolutions? I'm specifically interested in ones for group algebras, but I can't find a good resource for this
To check that I am understanding correctly:
The sheaf $\underline{{p}}$, which I will denote $p$ from now on, is the sheaf such that for any open $U \subset X$, $p(U) = {p}$.
swifteeee
That is, to any open set, I am associating the set {p}
Hom(p, F) is the sheaf on X given by associating to any open set U, the set of morphisms from the restrictions of sheaves. Hom(p, F)(U) = Mor(p|U, F|U)
And a morphism $\varphi : p|_U F|_U$ is given by the following data: to any open $V \subset U$, I get a morphism of sets $\varphi(V) : p|_U(V) \to F|_U(V)$, that commutes with restriction
swifteeee
So this is just a map {p} -> F(V)
Ts is like an onion twin ✌️ tf is going on 🥀
long story short: I don't know where to go. I am completely overwhelmed by the amount of data in this one sentence. Help.
This is not the correct definition of a constant sheaf
The constant sheaf are all continuous maps from U to {p}
I think in this case it's the same because they're always the same map
But you've gotta be careful in general
its the sheafification of the constant presheaf
Yes
in this case its the same
the set {p}(U) is cts maps from U to {p}?
aren't singletons final in Top
so there is one map, sending each element of U to p
In this case what you wrote is correct but for other bigger sets you have to look at the continuous maps
okay
So I just said that so you don't get the wrong intuition from a special case
I see, thank you
I think where I'm struggling is to describe a map from Hom({p}, F)(U) -> F(U)
Well what does Hom({p},F)(U) look like
A section of Hom({p}, F)(U) is a sheaf morphism from {p}|U to F|U, where | denotes restriction.
I.e. to any open V \subset U, I get maps {p}(V) -> F(V)
that play nice with restriction
And what is {p}|U?
Well notice that maps {p}(V) -> F(V) are in bijection with the elements of F(V)
Oh I see my problem
I thought this wouldn't work, because it wouldn't 'play nicely' with restriction. Take f : {p}(V) -> F(V), say f(p) = v. Then if we take a subset W of V such that v is not in W, then it wouldn't restrict appropriately, but of course my arrow is the wrong way
I'm not explaining myself too well, but I see now
Okay let me try to write this up
If you want a concrete answer the way you do it is you look at the global sections of your morphism and map it to it's image
And the inverse is given by taking a section s in F(U) and defining the morphism by phi(V): {p} -> F(V) where p is mapped to the image of s in F(V) by the restriction map and then this glues by the fact that we're working with sheaves
Writing these things out still feels really awkward to me, so I would appreciate any comments on clarity/brevity/notation
This is the following data: for any open subset V of U, p|_U(V) = p(V) = {p}
this whole paradigm of doing ag better become useful soon
I think you should clarify what f is and that you're taking global sections of something in Mor(p_V, F_V)
Could you please elaborate on 'clarify that you're taking global sections of something in Mor(p_V, F_V)?
Well I mean a morphism between sheaves is a collection of maps for each open
So the idea is to look at the map for the biggest open (this is U since that's what we're restricting to)
And looking at the image of that map
I'm fairly sure I know what you mean, but I'm kind of struggling to put it into words.
Perhaps I need some air
Thank you for your help Irony
Let R be a ring and suppose it is freely and finitely generated over a subring S.
Apparently this implies that R is integral over S, so for any r in R, it is the root of a monic polynomial with coeffs in S.
Under what additional conditions is it the case that the constant term of this monic polynomial is non-zero?
This is false unless you are using "freely and finitely generated over a subring" in a nonstandard way
Since this should just mean it is a polynomial ring over S
I assume you mean it is a finite free as an S-module for S a subring
Yes, sorry
I do mean R = S^n for some finite n
I should add that R is commutative here.
Ultimately, I'm trying to prove (or disprove) that if M is a finitely generated R-module, its torsion submodule as an R-module is the same as its torsion submodule as an S-module
Its clear that if m in M is an S-torsion element, it is an R-torsion element.
If m is an R-torsion element, then I was trying to use that R is integral over S to show that some r that annihilates m is the root of a monic polynomial with coeffs in S. But unfortunately, I'm not sure if I can say the constant term of this polynomial is non-zero
If I can, then I can conclude m is an S-torsion element (the constant term is the element in S I need)
R being an integral domain is a simple condition at least
Why is that?
Divide the poly by x
If x * f(x) = 0, then either x or f(x) is 0
Idk if there is much nicer stuff you can say
Idk if you want a hint for the question you are ultimately doing though
Is what I'm trying to prove even true in general?
No
One issue is like this module structure isn't massively helpful
Like let's take S to be a field k
Then the hypothesis holds for any finite dim commutative k algebra R
I in fact have that in my specific situation
Well now there are.simple counterexamples I mean
Since you're talking about torsion elements at all, presumably R is an integral domain. So then there's no issue
Like k x k
I'm confused
Then it isn't fd over k
Even in general you would probably define torsion element as annihilated by a regular element, and then again there's no issue
Yeah you're right, I specifically have a quotient of a polynomial ring
To be fair that is implied already by being integral over k
So to summarize, you're saying that if R is a finite dim k-algebra and M is a fg module over R, then torsion_R(M) = torsion_S(M) (where M is interpreted as an S-module on the RHS)?
Well depends what Torsion_R means
Sure
like m in M is in Torsion_R if there exists an r in R such that rm = 0
I mean, if that's your definition that's fine. But it's a stupid definition that isn't even a submodule
Ah sure, I guess I need regular element in general like you were saying
My situation is basically this.
R = k[x,y], S = k[x^b, y^b], so R = S^(b^2) as an S-module (I will need to consider quotients of these rings later).
I have a map M: R^2 --> R given by the 1x2 matrix [f g], where f and are g are in R.
I have an induced map M': S^(2b^2) --> S^(b^2). I need to consider Torsion(coker M) vs Torsion(coker M')
It wasn't clear to me how these are related, but I'm skeptical there is a relationship based on what you two said
Thanks for the help!
So I guess these maps are a bit of a distraction.
What you're saying is your have an R module and you take restriction of scalars to S.
As R is a domain an integral over S, the two torsion modules should be the same
Ah ok, and is the proof obvious?
I mean you already wrote it earlier
If rm = 0 take the minimal polynomial of r, then the constant coefficient also annihilates m
Ah ok. And if I then quotient S and R by a common ideal, the proof breaks since R is no longer necessarily an integral domain
At the very least it would depend what torsion should mean for this new ring
Thank you two once again for your help!
I think torsion is best considered associated with a mulitplicative subset of a ring (at least if it's commutative).
Or more generally a filter of ideals, but in any case not just a function of the ring and module.
Could define it with respect to an element in a flat module, as the kernel of the map M = M(x)R -> M(x)F.
Then you get it with respect to a multiplicative closed set by picking 1 in S^-1 R
I wonder if this gives you more than multiplicative sets in the commutative setting...
Another nice way is do define it as the torsion part of a torsion pair. So for example fix a module Q and call a module torsion if it has no map to Q.
If Q is the field of fractions of an integral domain you get the usual notion. Not sure if there is a nice cannonical choice associated with a multiplicative closed set for this
Okay, I think you can pick Q to be an injective cogeneratot for S^-1R modules
This definition seems rather circular and I don't know how to interpret it
What part are you struggling with?
all of it
If you're thinking of the differential then a more verbose description would be
$(df)n \coloneqq d_B \circ f_n - (-1)^n f{n+1} \circ d_A$
jagr2808
Okay, forget that equation and let me step back.
Let C be the Homcomplex we're constructing.
Then Cn = Prod_i Hom(Ai, Bi+n). That is an element f in Cn is a tuple of f_i : Ai -> Bi+1.
Now we need a differential d: Cn -> Cn+1. It should take this tuple f to a new tuple g = df.
Then g_i is defined as
d_B o fi - (-1)^n f_i+1 o d_A
A more abstract perspective could be that Cn consists of homomorphisms of graded abelian groups A[n] -> B (i.e. we forget the differentials) and then the differential d: Cn -> Cn+1 is checking if these homomorphism commute with the differential. (So df = 0 iff f is a homomorphism if chain complexes)
are there more than one f in \underline(Hom)(A,B)_n?
ah so the differential is a map of of tuples of maps
Underline-Hom(A, B)_n is a product. So an element f in it is an element of a product, i.e. a tuple
indeed
So all understood?
The idea is you start with P^(i) = A, then modify it one differential at a time to replace the objects with objects in A_0
I have a probably dumb thing I wanted to check, but suppose I'm working with chain complexes of vector spaces. Let f: A --> B be a chain map.
We know the homology of the mapping cone (by taking the usual LES) helps us determine if the induced map in homology f* is surjective/injective at various degrees.
But in the vector space setting (and I think any hereditary category?), it can be shown MC(f) is homotopy equivalent to ker(f) (+) coker(f) (up to some degree shift I'm being lazy about). So surely I can just analyze the homology of ker(f) (+) coker(f) to get the same information about f*?
You say "just", but I'm not sure why this would be any easier
Well I guess it depends what info you want about f
In my application, my f is in fact surjective. So I only need to analyze ker(f), and I know the boundary maps on this complex are induced from those on A
That's why I was hoping this would help
I guess it is unclear to me what you want to know about f
If you have a short exact sequence of chain complexes you get a LES in homology.
So if you just want to know the dimension of the homology of the cone, then it's the same as for ker(f)
It's specific to my application, but I just want information about whether certain homology groups of the mapping cone vanish and to relate that to properties of the boundary maps on A and B (their kernels and ranks)
I don't understand how the limit comes into play
The limit is then a complex where every object has been replaced by something in A0
Like P^(n) has replaced every object for i <= n
Then in the limit as n goes to infinity, every object is replaced
I see
Why isnt this nilpotent? This is the argument presented in the solutions, but Im not sure if thats what I get? Like H is a cartan subalgebra, so its abelian, so [A,A] = \oplus_i L^1_{alpha_i} right? But then going to A^2, dont we end up taking like [L_alpha,[L_alpha,L_alpha]]\subset L_{3alpha} and get the same argument as with L^(n)?
Im slightly just confused about why the same arugment doesnt apply to both the derived and lower central series, I guess im misunderstanding the argument that its soluble too (which is possible, the solutions mention heights which afaik we didnt cover this year, this is an old past paper)
So we get
[a, [a, a]] contains [h, [h, L_a]] = h^2(a)L_a
Now there’s some h with h(a) =/= 0
But with [[a, a], [a, a]] we can’t do a similar thing, since neither side contains H
Im not sure I follow
explaining it is annoying to phrase correctly because i have forgotten all of lie algebras, but if you just work things through with sl_n (where this is the upper triangular traceless matrices) it becomes pretty clear why it's solvable but not nilpotent
Ok this is probably wise, just work with sl_n as a toy is the mantra of lie algebras lol
Just as a toy example. Let F be a sheaf on X, equipped with the discrete topology. Let U \subset X, where U = {p1, p2, p3}. If f is a section of U, let [f]_p denote the germ at p.
Let f, g be sections of U. Then does ([f]_p1, [f]_p2, [g]_p3) consist of compatible germs?
I can pick open subsets of U, namely U1 = {p1, p2}, U2 = {p3} and f in F(U1), g in F(U2), such that the germ of any element of U1 is the germ of f?
By f in F(U1) i mean the image of f in F(U) under the appropriate restriction map
I'm fairly sure this is correct looking at the equivalent definition.
Yes. In general whenever U is a disjoint union of open sets you don't need to check any compatibility between germs in coming from different sets
Thank you : )
Notice that [H, [A, A]] is already simply [A, A], since each L_α is a generalized eigenspace, so L_α = [H, L_α] as α =/= 0
Thus
[A, A] ⊃ [A, [A, A]] ⊃ [H, [A, A]] = [A, A]
im a lil tired so i may be misinterpreting why youre confused
I think the issue is the first line, but I’ll give this another go tomorrow with like sl_n and see if I can work out exactly where I’m getting confused
Because I’m pretty sure what I said about it being soluble is correct, I just need to work out why it doesn’t then carry over to nilpotent, but I suspect I’m just saying something silly
well its not nilpotent because for every L_α (with α =/= 0) there is an h ∈ H such that it acts invertibly on L_α
the H is important, because without it the algebra would be nilpotent (for example because its [A, A], and derived algebras of soluble algebras are nilpotent)
what did u try to prove it
yea i would say that exactness « spreads » information in a way
wdym the rest?
the way it's stated is kind obtuse but the two cases are "the morphism is injective" and "the morphism is surjective"
so the way you prove it is to do a diagram chase
going around the rest of the diagram to show it's injective/surjective
Bro it looks you held the pencil overhand with your whole fist
Are you right handed?
Ok well then I don’t think the fact you use your left hand matters much lol
How does one make it to homological algebra before primary school 🥀
I knew homalg before primary school, it’s like
The first thing your parents should teach you
I learned the alphabet through homological algebra
Like M, I was like oh that’s like modules
R is for R-Module
A is for Algebra
B for BG 🎵
C is for chain complex
D for dg 🎵
E is for Eilenberg
And F is free 🎵
G is for group
H for homology 🎵
A is for abelian group
B is for bar resolution
C is for chain complex
D is for differential
E is for essential extension
F is for free module
G is for group ring
H is for homology
I is for injective module
J is for Jacobson radical
K is for killing form
L is for Lie algebra
M is for module
N is for Noetherian
O is for octahedral axiom
P is for projective module
Q is for Quillen
R is for radical
S is for short exact sequence
T is for torsion
U is for uniform module
V is for variety
W is for Weyl algebra
X is for exact sequence
Y is for young tableau
Z is for zig-zag lemma
Amazing.
X for eXact
Y for yoneda
Z for ... the integers
lol we came up with Z at the same time
Changed E to essential Extension and X to exact sequence
I prefer mine for Y (down with the categories!)
Yoneda meaning yoneda extensions of course, not yoneda lemma
X is for Twitter
Z is for Zentrum
B for bar resolution
O is a little boring too
Yeah fair
Z for zig-zag lemma
I was thinking A for A-module, O for O_X-module...
T for Tate Module?
okay maybe only I find this joke funny
D for dwagon module :3
O for orbit-stabiliser
Just joined, can i put questions in here or is this just for discussion and i should put my questions in regular maths help?
You can put them here as long as they’re (abstract) algebra questions beyond a standard first algebra series (questions from a first algebra series belong in #groups-rings-fields )
To add onto the answer above, you should not post these level of questions in the help channels cuz it won’t get seen by someone who can help you, most likely
thank you, having a quick look it seems im definiutely not at the abstract alegbra level yet thanks tho
O for octahedral axiom?
Added
Down with the octahedral axiom
Outer isomorphisms, then?
Just rename it to the second isomorphism theorem and all is well
I have a question about this exercise in Weibel
Let P ---> A, Q ---> B be Cartan-Eilenberg resolutions. Its clear that when taking the vertical filtration, doing the vertical homology H_q(Tot(P_(i,*) (x) Q_(j,*))) computes Tor_q(A_i, B_j).
My first question: is the Tot^(+) in the second result just denoting the fact that when I take horizontal homology, I'm just doing something like taking the pth homology of Tor_q(A_0, B_0) <--- Tor_q(A_1, B_0) (+) Tor_q(A_0, B_1) <--- ....?
Second, I know that for CE resolutions, taking horizontal homology gives a projective resolution of the homology of the base complex at a particular column. But is it the case that P (x) Q is itself a CE resolution of A (x) B?
Or at least is it obvious that when I do the horizontal differential along Tot(P_(*,k) (x) Q_(*,l)), it factors as the direct sum of terms like H_k(A) (x) H_l(B), where k+l = q?
Can someone please verify this solution? I'm slightly suspicious because it felt too easy. Comments on notation/clarity/whatever else appreciated : )
(implicitly I am assuming that F, G are (pre)sheaves on a set X, and U is an open subset of X)
I can't exactly take credit because the hint is to consider the diagram, but thank you haha
Nvm, when taking horizontal homology, I can use flatness + kunneth to distribute the homology over the tensor product. Then the columns are tensor products of resolutions of the homology groups of the base complexes by a property of CE resolutions, and taking vertical homology computes Tor of these
people who take classes on them usually don't understand it pretty well
that's why they take the classes :>
the fuck is a neurotropic
"the math channel" 💔
I don't see how they conclude that that P^(n) -> P^(n-1) is a quasi-isomorphism
You only need to worry about the homologies being isomorphic in degree n and n+1. The fact the kernels of the chain map in degree n+1 and n are isomorphic (via the natural map between them) is a general categorical fact due to it being a pullback square.
Because the chain map is surjective, and the next map is identity, it’s obvious that H_n(P^(n)) surjects onto H_n(P^(n-1)), the question is whether it’s injective or not. Suppose a class x goes to 0 via this map, then x is mapped to something by the chain map to something in the image of P^(n-1)_n+1. Pull this back to an element y in P^(n-1)_n+1, and since the chain map is surjective in degree n+1 as well this pulls back to something z in P^(n)_n+1. Then the image of z maps to the same thing x does via the chain map, meaning it differs by something in the kernel. This means x = im(z) + x’ for some x’ in ker(P^(n)_n -> P^(n-1)_n). But because the kernels are isomorphic, x’ is the image of some z’ in P^(n)_n+1, so z - z’ maps to x.
This says that the class of x in H_n(P^(n)) is zero, and so the map on homologies in degree n is injective and thus bijective
You can do another similar element-wise argument to show that the homologies in degree n+1 are isomorphic which I leave to you
is there a categorical argument that does not rely on element-wise arguments?
There’s this marvellous thing called the Fryed-Mitchel embedding theorem
There will be an argument just using kernels and cokernels etc because it is true of abelian categories but I suspect it’ll be pretty painful
A -> B
C -> D
is pullback iff
0 -> A -> B(+)C -> D
is exact.
As B -> D is epi you get that
0 -> A -> B(+)C -> D -> 0
is exact, so the square is also pushout.
Pullbacks induce isomorphisms on kernels, pushouts on cokernels.
So in degree n+1 the kernels are the same, and the images coming from n+2 are the same, boom boom.
In degree n use that you can define homology as the kernel of the map
cok(d) -> P_n-1
and it's just the dual of before
Alternative approach:
Let K be the kernel of P^(n) -> P^(n-1)
From the square being pullback the differential K_n+1 -> K_n is an isomorphism, so the homology of K is 0 in degree n and n+1.
Then take the long exact sequence in homology
i wonder if theres a way to automatically diagram chase
like with prolog
where you give constraints and it tries to prove things like that
Okay I wanted to try and do something like this but failed to see the kernel as a complex and LES
Jagr with an incredibly slick proof as usual
Nope with the jagr glaze as usual
The LES argument requires proving that first though. Which then ends up more complicated than the first one
Youll write a good proof one day chmonkey, I promise
Proving what first
The existence of LES in homology
Oh I guess but
I think you’d have that by the time you’re doing this thing
This is like something to setup the derived category
Yeah true
Using projectives
Let F be a presheaf of sets on X, let F^sh denote its sheafification. Let V \subset U. Is the restriction map F^sh(U) -> F^sh(V) given by essentially 'forgetting' all the germs of points not in V?
As, in, we send (f_p), p \in U to (f_p), p \in V? Is this even a morphism? It feels as if I am not specifying where some elements are sent?
That’s a morphism of (sets, groups, rings) fairly trivially
It’s just the projection morphism of the product
Wait I am so silly
And yeah this should all be pretty tautological because we’re essentially saying “well if something works, it must be this. Does this work?”
If you think of compatible germs as a function from U to the germs, then the restriction map is literaly restriction
Oh this is neat. And the sheafification of a sheaf is the same datum as the sheaf itself because we showed earlier that "sections of a sheaf F over U" = "compatible germs"
Do you mean as a function from F(U) to the germs?
No
A set of compatible germs (f_p) is a function on U taking p to f_p
I think I see
Like the idea is if you let
X' be the union of all germs. Then you have a map
X' -> X
that just takes a germ to whatever point it is a germ over.
Then for a sheaf F, sections of F are exactly sections of this map and the restriction maps are restrictions.
I need to ponder for a moment
if 0 -> A -> B(+)C -> D -> 0 is exact isn't the cone on the morphisms is acyclic and hence they are quasi?
any hints for showing a localization of a UFD is a UFD?
I mean. That's true yes
A factorization of a/s is just a factorization of a times the unit 1/s
Lmfao
I think this is not that simple????
Oh no, I think what im thinking of is showing a regular ring is a UFD
At least in Matsumura I think you prove first that if a localization with respect to some multiplicative set with some special property is a UFD, the original ring is a UFD or some shit
how does B -> D being epi imply that A -> B (+) C is a mono?
It does not. That's unrelated.
If
0 -> A -> B(+)C -> D
is exact. Then
A -> B(+)C is mono, independently of whether B -> D is epi
But if B -> D is epi, then also B(+)C -> D is epi
then how do you get that 0 -> A -> B(+)C -> D -> 0 is exact from B -> D being epi?
0 -> X -> Y -> Z -> 0
being exact is equivalent to
Y -> Z being epi and
0 -> X -> Y -> Z
being exact
Here you have a pullback square with P^(n)_n -> P^(n-1)_n epi
The point is that this square is also pushout
I’m pushout
How do you argue that
"As B -> D is epi you get that
0 -> A -> B(+)C -> D -> 0
is exact, so the square is also pushout."
how is 0 -> A -> B (+) C known to be exact?
The square is pullback
That's how P^(n)_n+1 is defined
You need a D at the end
ah ok I see
How can I do moves in triangulated categories like jagr
Just shoot for the stars, if it feels right then aim for the heart of a t-structure
Well if you miss the stars you’ll still be… wait it’s supposed to be shoot for the moon and if you miss…
Shoot for the stars, if you miss you'll land among the vast suffocating emptiness of space
you know in kung fu panda when po goes to the top of the mountain with master shifu? thats my plan for getting good
The secret ingredient is ||that there is no secret ingredient||
My plan is basically to think about them for the next 4 years, suffer a lot, and maybe become wise somewhere along the way
About what
Maths
triangulated categories, likely among other things one would think
I like stable ∞-categories
I don’t
Have you considered studying AC :3
What’s ac
Axiom-o choice
axiom of choice Atiyah conjecture
autistic cohomology
Idk what that is
Basically a whole cluster of conjectures about what values l^2 betti numbers can take
On what
Aeanvalue Cheorem
What’s l^2
What is C^2_n
It no is simples
Peak
Does 'natural' in this case mean 'unique'? Both of these objects are limits/colimits, so is the question asking me to verify that each side satisfies the others universal property?
Can someone verify that this is the correct definition of the colimit? Vakil simply tells me to flip some arrows but I get confused sometimes about which arrows should be flipped and which arrows shouldn't be.
essentially, yes
alternatively you can show that the morphism induced by their universal properties is an isomorphism
thanks : )
all of them
all the arrows should be flipped, because youre working in the opposite category
wait i think F(m) is going in the wrong direction
It doesn't matter for the concept whether you flip m and F(m); at worst that just corresponds to taking I^op instead of I.
(At best, to drawing the mirror image of the same commuting triangles, in which case the actual content of the definition is exactly the same).
Natural means in the categorical sense. But the unique isomorphisms between things with the same universal property are natural, so that is a way to obtain naturality.
Wait I've just had a thought. I don't think this is good enough. \
Suppose $\ker(\mathcal{F}_p \to \mathcal{G}_p)$ satisfies the universal property of $(\ker(\mathcal{F} \to \mathcal{G}))_p$. As the stalk is a colimit, this induces a morphism $(\ker(\mathcal{F} \to \mathcal{G}))_p \to \ker(\mathcal{F}_p \to \mathcal{G}_p)$\
Now suppose that $(\ker(\mathcal{F} \to \mathcal{G}))_p$ satsifies the universal property of $\ker(\mathcal{F}_p \to \mathcal{G}_p)$ As the kernel is a limit, this induces a map $(\ker(\mathcal{F} \to \mathcal{G}))_p \to \ker(\mathcal{F}_p \to \mathcal{G}_p)$.\
Originally, I thought one of the morphisms was going in the other direction, then I could conclude they are isomorphic because limits/colimits are unique up to unique isomorphism, so they have to compose to the identity. But, now I'm not so sure. \
I've already shown the first part, that there is a unique morphism $(\ker(\mathcal{F} \to \mathcal{G}))_p \to \ker(\mathcal{F}_p \to \mathcal{G}_p)$, but I'm not sure how to proceed. \
Any advice?
swifteeee
I suppose I can try to show that the induced morphism is an isomorphism
and we're assuming that F is a sheaf taking values in abelian groups, so maybe this won't be too painful
Are you doing set valued sheaves or a more general category?
Yeah, then you can probably just show explicitly that it's injective and surjective
I'm going to have lunch then give this a go
I'm just thinking, so far I've only shows the existence of a morphism using universal properties, and there is no way I can prove injectivity/surjectivity using just existence? Maybe I need to explicitly constrcut a morphism using the characterisation of limits/colimits we have for categories that are set with extra structure, in terms of some quotient of the (co)product. hm
in general categories this doesn't hold
the fact that limits and colimits commute isn't a true statement generally
so you have to use the properties of the categories you're given
so you can't do this "purely abstractly"
this is true for abelian categories in general right? (that limits in abelian categories commute, not that sheaves with values in an abelian cateogry form a category in which limits commute)
No, not true in general.
An abelian category where direct limits commute with kernels is called AB5
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/AB5_category
In mathematics, Alexander Grothendieck (1957) in his "Tôhoku paper" introduced a sequence of axioms of various kinds of categories enriched over the symmetric monoidal category of abelian groups. Abelian categories are sometimes called AB2 categories, according to the axiom (AB2). AB3 categories are abelian categories possessing arbitrary copro...
I like how AB4 categories aren’t mentioned in this page
oh curious. this grothendieck guy seems pretty good at maths
they're not real
Its also interesting that it doesnt just redirect to the abelian category page where they discuss this anyway
what an odd stub article
since all this is already said in the abelian category page anyway
Bro took inspiration and decided to repeat what I said 🥀
it's meta if you think about it
you're like the abelian category article and im like the ab5 category article
90% of the actual content of the article was written by the original person to create the article in 2010
i totally didnt just make up this excuse
Perhaps even metabelian?
Am I being stupid. Is there an easier way of doing this
Or do I have to just thug it out
I mean, this doesn't seem that hard.
It's the induced morphism essentially by definition.
Well definedness and injectivity should be immediate and there's not much to showing surjectivity either.
Okay, maybe I am just being a weakling and should just shut up and write
After thinking for 2 minutes it turns out that basically everything is immediate. And all of a sudden after spending a solid 3 hours on this exercise, all of it feels trivial and it feels like I haven't done anything haha
thank you all for the help
youve done lots! familiarised yourself with the concepts more
No of course, I know, I'm being dramatic
i feel you haha
this is the first time i've really experienced a 'grothendieck proof' I think. at each step we're unravelling definition, or doing some obvious diagram chase, and in the end we have really done something nontrivial
I feel like a nut in water rn
Typical day in the life of math
Also what the hell, for sheaves of abelian groups, kernel, cokernel, mono, epi and exactness are all stalk-local
I'm slightly stunned
I'm flabbergasted in fact
I hated stalks ten days ago and now I am a huge fan and this makes me happy
It’s kinda the point
It is good to know that they are all fancy variations of "exactness is stalk local" using the properties of abelian categories
IMO the more amazing part is how many complicated things are usually determined by "coherence condition + pointwise condition", in case of morphisms of sheaves you want to know the existence of some morphisms but then a lot reduces to just looking at all the points.
In Vakil we show that kernels, images etc. are stalk-local first and then use this to deduce that exactness is stalk-local. Does this mean that we can show that exactness is stalk-local first then deduce everything else?
I'd have to think about it, but no thats the normal way
Preserving exactness is equivalent to preserving short exact sequences... which in particular means preserving kernels and cokernels
So any reasonabe proof would end up proving these two cases first
You can make reasonable proofs that just proves exactness without splitting into cases
What's the idea?
I mean just consider a germ in the kernel and show it's in the image
I guess from there it would depend how exactly you're defining image of sheaves
But I'm not sure how it would help to split into cases
local global principles!!
I prefer local to local principles
I got really giddy in my commalg module when we proved that being the zero module is local so it shouldnt be a surprise that i got so giddy at this
haha
its a very nice result
Prove that AG is local
and basically all the results you mentioned can be proven from that
every geometric property is local, AG is about geometry
hence AG is local
I was actually wondering if there is a difference between study of local properties and geoemtric properties
Not every geometric property is local :3
I don't intuitively why geometry should be local i suppose
such as?
(metric geometry is not geometry)
I say in the metric geometry sense because metric geometers require a geodesic to be globally length minimising and Riemannian geometers usually only want locally
(It is)
(but geometry is when topoi)
(Least brainrot algebraic geometer)
I mean have you seen algebraic geometry when you dont do all that nonsense?
do metric geometers use the word "topoi"?
It’s all bs 🙃
How about being simply connected?
let A = k[x,y,z]/(x^2+y^2+z^2) where k is a field (char(k) is not 2). Then A can be checked to be integrally closed in its fraction field (This is similar to calculating the ring of integers in quadratic fields).
What happens when k is not a field? is it still integrally closed?
same thing duh
I think you need to have that 2 is invertible
and probably k itself should be integrally closed

another question. If A is integrally closed, is A[x] integrally closed?
how do I show this?
idt it's entirely straightforward to prove
idt = I don't think?
I will just take it for granted for now xD
In short, like: if K = Frac(A) then note K[x] is integrally closed, so it's enough to show that A[x] is integrally closed in K[x]. In other words we need to show that given some polynomial f = a_n x^n + ... + a_0 where the a_i are in K, if f satisfies some monic polynomial g over A[x] then each coefficient is in A. But by induction on n and using our hypothesis on A, it's enough to show that a_n is integral over K, which should just follow from staring at g(f)=0
<@&268886789983436800>
Let A,B be two k-algebras and domains that are isomorphic as vector spaces.
If A is integrally closed then is B integrally closed?
Isomorphic as vector spaces tells you basically nothing. Any finitely generated k-algebra will be a countable (or finite) dimensional vector space
As an example compare k[t] with k[t^2, t^3]
I see
That they're isomorphic as rings for example
Not sure I have that in my case
Looking at
k[w,x,y,z]/(wz-xy) and k[x,y,z,w]/(x^2+y^2+z^2)
which one do you know is normal?
The sum of squares one
Also I would like just a hint
I need to check if the isomorphism I have in mind is an isomorphism of rings
If k has square root of -1 it looks like you can maybe do a change of variables
Its alg closed yeah
I didn't check, but looks like it could be possible
I will try
Btw do you have a reason you want to use one to prove the normality of the other as opposed to just proving normality
Thats the point of the exercise I think
are they even isomorphic? diagonalizing wz-xy should give you a sum of squares in four variables, not three
Yeah i meant 4 squares
this should just give you the answer then lol oops
Already finished this exercise
Bro go to #prealg-and-algebra or #competition-math
Alright alright
For an n-dimensional symmetric real matrix is there any well known tight lowerbound for the smallest eigen value?
This goes to #linear-algebra or sth
Idk
Dont try to move people if you dont even know what question theyre asking
Okay
What do you know about the matrix that you'd hope to get that lower bound from? Merely the fact that it's symmetric will not give you any.
Sorry I meant, I have an n-dimensional symmetric matrix. And it's too difficult to calculate the eigenvalues by solving the characteristic polynomial. So is there a way I can get a lower bound for the eigenvalues
beyond standard ones like the matrix norm idts. Consider just like a diagonal matrix with your favourite arbitrarily large or arbitrarily small values on the diagonal
Also do you mean absolutely smallest eigenvalue or would large negative eigenvalues qualify too?
(Not that I have a good answer in either case).
negative eigenvalue qualify too
shouldn't there be an inequality with some norm or something?
Not really a bound, but iterating
x |-> Ax / |x|
should converge to an eigenvector for the largest eigenvalue.
And the smallest for A would be the largest for A^-1.
This is in absolute value though. Negatives might be annoying
I guess you might also just solve the characteristic polynomial with newtons method or whatever
this is probably interesting to you https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spectral_radius#Symmetric_matrices
if you have a norm on the vector space, that induces a matrix norm on nxn matrices that's compatible with the vector norm in the sense that |Ax|<=|A| · |x|. Then if x is an eigenvector |lambda x|=|A x| <=|A| · |x|. Assuming x!=0, you get |lambda|<=|A|
and in the case of the l^2 norm you get equality with the maximum of the absolute values of the eigenvalues
for other eigenvalues you have this
WHY THE HELPER TAG BEING PINGED
because someone needs help?
No they are not following the rule of 15 minutes
they probably dont know the rule
or are just impatient
gershgorin + the fact that they’re real might get you pretty far
advanced-algebra is immune to typos
Somewhere a moderator is thinking, "oh, a challenge ...".
it's known that trace 0 matrices over any PID must be additive commutators, but what do we know about when determinant 1 matrices must be multiplicative commutators?
this doesn't even hold over all fields (consider 2 by 2 matrices over F_2)
It holds over F_q if q> 3 though
Actually it holds for any field with more than 3 elements
You can just prove it by hand by writing elementary matrices as commutators of elementary matrices
wouldn't this only give us that every det 1 matrix is a product of commutators
is the Kahler differential $\Omega_{k[[x]]/k}$ what one would expect ($k[[x]] dx$,) or does the fact that $k[[x]]$ is not finitely generated cause this to fall apart?
lexi
tl;dr
Hard
that makes sense; the 'sensible' description of the module of kahler differentials of k[x] depends on a derivation being determined by where it sends x
but k[[x]] isn't finitely generated
Oh I thought you wanted to know if Sl_n(K) was perfect, not if every element was literally a commutator
That fails even for Sl_2(R) so I don’t know what kind of statement you’re hoping for
mostly hoping that it would at least hold for SL_n(K) when n > 2 and K is not char 2
and indeed this is stated in the literature (see for example the intro of https://www.jstor.org/stable/1993409) but I can't find a proof
they proved theorem 1 in that paper
you don't have the full paper ?
why does jstor watermark the pdfs you download with your ip and date and time
probably to discourage redistribution
