#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 299 of 1
which topologies do you mean exactly, because if you mean those generated by open balls vs open rectangles then they are the same thing
oh that's what munkres is saying
yeah that's what i meant
i can see visually why theyre the same thing ofc but why do we say theyre the same if they technically have different elements
The topology don't have different elements
or is that a silly thing to ask
You're generating the same topology using two different bases
hmmmm
Well, what do you think 'being the same thing' means there?
well i was thinking it meant having the same elements
Perhaps 'it' is the problem
but i think it might be better to think of it as covering the same space/set?
The topology is the same whether you generate it with open balls or open rectangles
i know covering might not be the most ideal word though
you can make any rectangle out of balls, and any ball out of rectangles
but exactly?
idk if it matters that theyre exactly the same though just contained right
what do you mean exactly
and by 'they'
big fivehead moment on my part, but im imagining like interior rectangles approximating the area of a circle and vice versa
yeah and because we're allowed arbitrary unions, you can union a bunch of interior rectangles to get an open disc
not something that roughly looks like a disc, an actual disc
These pointset topology questions are giving me flashbacks to recent exams
im preparing for my fall semester topology class
definitely not avoiding studying for my algebra class too
really? we must have taken different exams
Well
Pointset topology reminds me of our topology course which reminds me of the exam
Even though the exam didn't end up being pointset

biggest bait of 2022
Overkill proof is that any two norms on R^n are equivalent. Now consider the Euclidean norm and supremum norm
Super niche thing I'm curious if anyone has any resources for. Is there a unique representation up to rigid transformations for a complete distance matrix on the surface of a flat torus?
So example I've got a mapping of a flat torus to a square with wrapping edges, I've got the complete distance matrix (along the surface), is there an arrangement of 4 points that has the same distance matrix but cannot be mapped onto the others by a rigid transform?
are the elements of a subbasis open sets in the topology it generates? no right
that’s probably phrased weird
What's the definition of the topology generated by the subbasis?
Yeah
i guess intersect an element w itself right
Well just intersection of a single set works fine too
very general but what’s the point of a subbasis
So one useful thing is you might want to have the minimal topology such that e.g. certain functions are continuous, for example
Then you can just consider those sets that have to be open and let that generate the topology
For example if $(X_i){i \in I}$ is some collection of spaces, if we want to endow $X = \prod{i \in I} X_i$ with the smallest topology such that the projections $\pi_i: X \to X_i$ are continuous we can just consider the subbasis given by $\bigcup_{i \in I} {\pi_i^{-1}(U) \mid U \text{ open in } X_i}$
(since we require those sets to be open)
potato
Then in fact this produces the standard product topology
There are also other theorems which involve playing around w subbases
ok sorry i’ll come back to that in a sec but i was reading about the order topology - what does it mean to say that “open rays form a subbasis for the order topology”
moreso the “for” part, bc i was seeing bases and subbases as separate things
S is a basis (resp. subbasis) for a topology T if S generates T (as a basis resp. subbasis)
resp.?
respectively
The naming is somewhat confusing because a basis for T is always a subbasis for T, but not the other way around.
honestly I'd never heard the word subbasis until a couple days ago. as shin said it's just an open cover
No.
{R} is an open cover for R with the usual topology, but definitely not a subbasis for it.
Shin said cover and that was talking about when you don't already have a topology on the set (or at least not in reference to that)
oh my bad
Wikipedia states that books disagree about whether a subbasis should be required to cover the entire space in addition to generating the topology,
huh, never seen anyone to require that the subbasis covers the whole space
Apparently it's about whether you dare to appeal to an empty intersection in order to conclude that the entire space is in the topology generated by the subbase.
I see. You could argue that we can define subbasis as any family generating the topology of our space, in the sense that it's the smallest such family.
Imo that's more natural, you always define "closure" of something, and then try to describe this "closure"
So just alternatively define the topology to be arbitrary unions of finite intersections of sets from the basis and the whole space
If you're scared of empty intersections, that is
otherwise it's just an artificial requirement that it covers the whole space
closure not in the topology sense, but in like, something generated by something
I am somewhat not great at topology. Suppose there is a torus which is modified so that there is a tube connecting the torus to itself. How would you go about classifying it.
My guess is its the connected sum of the torus and another shape however i am not sure what that tube would be
the 2-torus?
i.e. the connected sum of two tori
assuming you mean "classifying it up to homeomorphism"
(which is usually what is meant when talking about classifying closed surfaces, but your wording makes it sound like you don't know these definitions)
in general, adding a "handle" is the same as connected summing with a torus
Ok thank you!! @golden gust could you look at my attempt
The figure is two Klein bottles connected to two torus with two open disks removed. I need to identify the type of shape. My guess is that the disks can be homeomorphically moved to create a "hole" with the hole in the Klein bottle resulting in a 4 torus.
This is my attempt for this figure
the klein bottle is not orientable, so the final surface shouldn't be orientable, and in particular can't be the 4-torus
do you know the classification of closed surfaces?
They have to be either a torus or projective plane
Tbh my prof didn’t have a great explainatiin and I’m kinda piecemailing it together
yeah, either the connected sum of tori or the connected sum of projective planes
So how would I see this turned into projective planes
the relation $\mathbb{RP}^2 # \mathbb{T}^2 \cong \mathbb{RP}^2 # \mathbb{RP}^2 # \mathbb{RP}^2$ might be useful
have you seen this before? would you know how to prove it?
Average J∘du=du∘j enjoyer
We didn’t really do proofs for this. I’m good with point set proofs
but would you be allowed to use this statement in your solution?
Yep I know that one haha
(use \#)
Yes
yeah and $\mathbb{K} \cong \mathbb{RP}^2 # \mathbb{RP}^2$
Average J∘du=du∘j enjoyer
How do I handle the removed disks
I remember that connected sim proof!
Thank you so much btw. If you need any analysis help lmk
you can just say the final surface is "<whatever the connected sum of surfaces is> minus two open discs"
like, they don't really interact with the connected sums at all
Is that acceptable?
Bc the question only wants me to be like Torus sphere or projective plane
Or will the cancelation then allow what the removed disks to make sense?
if you remove two discs then the boundary of your surface is the boundary of those discs. but the torus and projective plane are both closed (they have no boundary) so the final shape cannot be a torus or projective plane
can you send the question?
Yeah sure one sec
this is the question
@golden gust for the first part i said it is an 8-genus torus
oh I see, the boundaries are identified. my bad I didn't realise
How does that change it?
because then the surface is closed
Ok I see
semi-important note: the orientations of the circles are such that you are connect-summing with a Klein bottle, not a torus (these are a priori different, but it turns out that since your surface is already non-orientable, it's the same. still, important to keep in mind)
so its 4 Klein bottles put together
because of the circle things, the final shape is actually 5 klein bottles
Where does the 5th Klein bottle come from
I see the 2 main ones. Then the two holes result in two more?
I'm sorry I misunderstood (but luckily it doesn't change the answer). I thought that we were gluing the two circles together, but actually we're just identifying the antipodal points of each one individually
yeah ok so
each of these circle-things is the same as connect-summing with a single RP^2 (this is called "adding a crosscap", if you've heard of it)
Ok so its basically $\mathbb{RK}#\mathbb{RK}#\mathbb{RP}^2#\mathbb{RP}^2$
Lord Mind
Then I substitute in $\mathbb{RK}=\mathbb{RP}^2#\mathbb{RP}^2$
Lord Mind
So the final answer is a 6-projective plane?
you forgot about these two holes
i.e. connected sum of two tori
you need to add those in too
yeah
I think im getting the hang of it
you're nearly there
$\mathbb{RK}#\mathbb{RK}#\mathbb{RP}^2#\mathbb{RP}^2#\mathbb{T}#\mathbb{T}$
Lord Mind
So basically it is 2 + 2 + 3 + 3 = 8 projective plane?
oh lol
Mod 2 though
yes
yeah exactly
whats the mod 2 for?
or in other words, this
can you explain how you got 8?
Sure, so there is currently a 6 tori with a hole in the middle and a tube. As discuss we can move that tube to become another torus. And the center hole can be shrunk to be another torus
sounds good to me
Ok yay!! I have another question to do but I am going to try to do it myself!!!
Thanks so much!!!
Ig I am confused on how the loops can be orientation preserving when the Klein bottle is non orientable
orientability is a global property
you can imagine that a tiny loop can be orientation preserving if it stays within a small open set homeomorphic to R^2
Is it just me, or is C two separate loops?
looks like it lol
C is
I got two mobius stripes for that one
@golden gust could you explain how I could figure out if something is orientation preserving or reversing
Also I was able to successful do the word question yay!
this is the picture
follow an oriented disc around the loop, and if it has a different orientation on its way back, the loop is not orientation preserving
Ok that makes sense. @golden gust for the 1st on how do I glue it after I make the cuts. My idea is to create a new square but that seems wrong
stuck on this topology problem
the closure of A is the union of A and its limit points
i need to show that the closure of A is equal to the intersection of all closed sets containing A
where are you stuck
for one direction i have two cases
that an element x is in A or x is in the set of limit points
im stuck on the limit points part
i assume some j in I and by contradiction that x is not in V_j
so x in A/V_j
@gritty widget for any closed sets containing A it must contain the limit points of A
So the intersection must have the closure of A in it
The upper and lower halves of the vertical sides are not interchanged by the gluing!
What does that mean sorry
If I understand your symbolism right, your drawing says that the upper half of the right side should be matched with the lower half of the left side.
I’m trying to do A on this
But it really should be: upper half of left side to upper half of right side.
Yes, I recognize it as A.
Ok so flip those?
But the sides you have marked up as c and d have been matched up wrongly.
Yes.
The lines with with three red chevrons are cuts. They become boundaries after cutting, not something to glue together again.
(And you forgot to cut the lower one).
Yes. This should now be recognizable as a well-known surface.
Again the edges you have labeled as c are cuts. They are the boundary of your new manifold and should not be glued together again.
Ok so I can’t do words
I'm not familiar enough with alg topo that the words thing makes sense to me in the first place, but that's probably just me.
Ok so without using words what do I do
Bc I’m just confused what that shape is
Or is still Klein?
A rectangle with two opposite edges left unglued and the others glued together with the orientation flipped ...
Möbius strip?
Yes.
Yeah.
Looks like it.
(That's not surprising in itself -- if you cut along a loop in a plain old sphere, it will fall into two parts too).
Is there any work on n-dimensional paths? The homotopy groups are defined in terms of maps from S^n, but I think they could also be defined as closed n-dimensional paths, i,e, maps from D^n somehow
They can be defined as maps from I^k (k- times the cross product of the unit interval) into your space (X,x_0) such that the boundary of I^k is mapped to the basepoint x_0
(that would be the k-th homotopy group)
Now from this you get to your definition over S^n by collapsing I^k and the boundary of I^k along the boundary itself
collapsing I^k along the boundary gives you S^k and collapsing the boundary gives you a point that has to be mapped to the basepoint
so you can also think of maps from (S^n, s_0) in terms of maps from (I^k, del I^k) here
this is pretty chaotic but i hope it makes sense 
thanks, I do get it! wondering how it'd work for other paths though, not just the closed ones
so for example, I could have a usual homotopy H between to paths p1 and p2 (with same endpoints)
The (image of) the homotopy H is homeomorphic to I^2
if I had another homotopy G between to paths p1 and p2, it'd also be homeomorphic to I^2
I don't think isomorphic is the right word here
I want to say what a path between H and G is
oops homeomorphic*
too much algebra (;p
isomorphic in Top
^^
I'm basically trying to formally state this part of the HoTT book
sorry for long wall but I can't seem to explain it well myself
I want to rigorously define what a "3-dimensional homotopy between homotopies" is
(third line of 2nd pic)
I'm not familiar with some of the terms in there
but a homotopy between two dimensional homotopies sounds like a map I^2 x [0,1] into your space that preserves the basepoints to me
making it just a map from I^3 into your space
those classes are maps are used to define the third homotopy group of a space
Maybe look into higher homotopy groups, i might be missing your point tho, if that's the case im sorry 
np, thanks timo; the higher homotopy groups are the equivalence classes of the n-dimensional paths, as homotopies of the (n-1)-dimensional constant paths over the base
hmm I think I'm getting close to what I need, thanks again
You're welcome. I think it will be helpful to see elements of those groups as maps from (I^k, del I^k), might make that "recursive" relation easier to formulate
Why do they stress on semi locally connected here? Every point x has arbitrarily small neighborhoods U that admit lifts projecting homeomorphically to U by p if I’m not mistaken, so the same argument could be used to say that a necessary condition is that X be locally simply connected no (which is stronger)?
Im still confused on the orientation reversing curves. My guess is B,C are because they basically show that the shape contains a mobius band. Not sure on A tho
I remember someone saying that topologies (or was it top. spaces) are the among the most fundamental mathematical objects there are and that many other things/objects/structures can be described as topologies. Is this right?
That's kind of a vague statement
It does generalise a lot of terms from other subjects like analysis tho for example
This is something that bothered me too. First off, locally simply connected is not stronger than semiloc simply connected as per wikipedia. For a universal covering p:E->X, the ley thing to notice is that for some trivializing open set U , i the inclusion of U in X and j an inclusion into E we have pi1(i)=pi1(p)opi1(j) where the lhs is just the 0 map as pi1E is trivial.
Thus for a universal covering to exist pi1(i) must always be trivial which coincides with the definition of semiloc simply connected. I dont have any good intuitive reason for why this maut be the case though if i recall correctly the condition does appear somewhat naturally in the construction of the universal cover.
Tbf though these are somewhat technical conditions which are satisfied for most(if not all) reasonable spaces, my prof (and presumably your future prof too ;)) didn’t stress this too much
Oh abd for a space which is not locally simply connected but is semiloc simply connected the cone over hawaian earring works (as per wikipedia)
Yeah so locally simply connected is stronger then
I can’t quite understand what you’re saying with the universal covering quite yet but I’ll give it another look later thanks
cone over hawaian earring
This example was in Hatcher too
sounds funny
Oops read that wrong sorry, im tired. Yeah i dont know the order in which hatcher does things, if you take the definition for granted it should appear rather naturally afterwards
See the thing is in principle I agree with you (if I understood what you were saying with the universal cover correctly) I just don’t get why you have to restrict yourself to semiloc
Since you can take U arbitrarily small if im not mistaken
Well locally simply connected is a stronger condition so youre not restricting yourself by looking at semiloc sc
No but I mean saying semiloc is necessary is weaker than saying loc is necessary
So if you can show loc is necessary why bother with semiloc
So I’m guessing my argument fails somewhere
Just not sure where
You should soon see why semiloc is the right condition for covering spaces, loc is not a necessary condition for the exostence of universal covers
Ie the cone over the hawaian earring admits a universal cover (itself) but isnt loc
Oh I think I see where my argument fails
You can have arbitrarily small neighborhoods U such that pi(U,x)->pi(X,x) is trivial but that doesn’t imply the neighborhoods themselves are simply connected
Okay that makes more sense
Thanks for the help 👌
Yes
Np hope i didnt confuse you as much as i just confused myself
Lol relatable
Could someone walk me through how to tell if a curve is orientation reversing
@crude vector
Anyone familiar with Foundations of Topology by Preuss?
Favorite Anime? (This is allowed according to the channel description):
it will probably be chainsaw man whenever mappa finally releases the adaptation, but for now i think that attack on titan takes that spot
i have generic anime taste
it was beastars s1 until the recent season of aot dropped
I can see that
i don't watch a lot of anime to begin with
odd taxi was really good
is this the part where you tell me to watch whatever obscure late 90s/early 2000s "art house" almost-hentai deconstruction anime film you have on your mind?
No. But I admire your creativity
Mushishi is really good one
Is $I_+\wedge X \cong I \times X$?
lime_soup
Not quite, the left side collapses x × I where x is the basepoint of X
I × x rather
So a homotopy from X to Y in Top_* is exactly a function I_+ ∧ X → Y
Smash replaces product, and you add disjoint basepoints to specific spaces
yes thank you
another thing I am confused on
if X is some pointed space, the reduced cohomology of agrees with the regular cohomology everywhere except degree 0
If (X,A) is a good pair then H(X,A)=H(X/A)
the reduced cohomology of X is H(X,x_0)
if the base point of X is nondegenrate then (X,x_0) is a good pair
So this should say that for spaces with non degnerate base points
the reduced cohomology is always the cohomology of X/x_0
but now where I am confused is I think X/x_0 is just X? so this should mean that the reduced cohomology and regular cohomology agree in every degree
ah
this one also requires degree greater than zero
Ye the left side is unreduced the right is reduced
@stark creek Death Note is a good one
depending on the day either the original dragon ball (the tournament sagas in particular) or samurai champloo
in any case maybe a weird question but i left a note to myself in my notes asking "on what sets is it useful to create an order topology"
so uhhhh... on what sets is it "useful" to create an order topology
Any ordinal. R. Long line iirc
Hopefully this will cease your thirst for examples
ngl i dont know what past me meant by useful but i think i get it anyways
how can we talk about an open set of X if we dont necessarily know what the topology on X looks like
"let X be a topological space"
but X can have multiple possible topologies
"let X be a topological space" presumes we have picked one and are talking about it
unless this lemma is more about "given a topological space with this particular topology, we want to check if a collection is a basis"
i'll assume we kinda said the same thing there so merci 
the phrase "topological space" does not mean "set which can be given a topology", but "set which is given a topology"
so when speaking about a topological space the topology is already determined
understood, probably shouldve realize that sooner 
so if i say consider the topological space R, it's assumed that that's (R, T) with the obv ordering topology on it right
and not "R with some topology"
I mean
you usually just say consider R with it's standard topology or something along the lines of that
or i guess talking about that would really be consider the topological space R with topology _______ right
yeah ok
im fixating on language lol i'll stop thinking too hard abt it

a monotonic function between posets is continuous wrt the order topology if it preserves... ?
i think directed suprema but i could be wrong
but yeah like my guess would be to give an order-theoretic definition for the continuous monotonic functions
and that's when the topology is useful
when you care about monotonic functions satisfying that extra hypothesis
Where's nikita when you need him
Ha!
if i have a collection of indexed top spaces X_i each with a base B_i for the topology on X_i, is there a way to construct a base for the disjoint union of the X_i’s using the B_i’s?
something like every disjoint union you can make with each set from the B_i’s if that makes sense?
yes
Does anyone have an overview of how homotopy equivalence interplays with the separation axioms?
Since any indiscrete space is contractible, this suggests to me the following particular questions:
✅ Is any space homotopy equivalent to its T₀ quotient?
❔ Is any T₀ space homotopy equivalent to its T₁ quotient?
❔ Is any T₁ space homotopy equivalent to its T₂ quotient?
do u mind elaborating?
Homotopy equivalence vs. separation properties
if you have bases B_i for X_i then the union of the B_i's should be a basis for the disjoint union of the X_i's
oh shoot, i thought i was going to have to do some weird indexing and set manipulations to get all the required properties. thanks
I think you probably need to close under finite intersections though too right?
When they say "union of B_i" they mean union of their images under the canonical map from X_i to their disjoint union
You don't need for them to be closed under finite intersections because they're disjoint if from different indexes
Slight neglect but a forgivable one
True sorry yes i was being silly
This is from fomenkos homotopical topology
I can't see what the "obvious" homomorphism should be
Personally I wouldn't forgive it
I know that if E is a ring spectrum then E^* is a multiplicative cohomology theory. Does the converse also hold?
reading munkres' section on a subspace topology, i'll assume here by subspace he really just means subset? or is using the word subspace already implying that it's a subset as a topological space
idk if i phrased that well
He means that Y has subspace topology

a multiplicative cohomology theory gives rise to a ring spectrum (up to phantoms) via brown representability
but you often can't really say anything about how structured the multiplication is
okay I see
but how is this true?
here does he mean the same as in both R and Y have an order topology? so like the same kind of topology as opposed to the same open sets?
"its subspace topology (as a subspace of R) and its order topology"
he means that for [0, 1], the subspace topology and order topologies coincide
the open sets in the subspace topology for Y come from R, but they are not the open sets in R
they are the open sets in R intersected with Y
ohhhh it means order topology on Y
language tripping me up a lot lately for no reason
thanks yall 
Why can't you use van kampen on this. Intersection of every spheres is just (0,0,0) which is path connected, fundamental group of spheres is trivial, so by van kampen there is a surjection from free product of trivial groups to fundamental group of space, or fundamental group is trivial, or simply connected
math stack exchange ppl said there was no way they could see of doing it so idk whats wrong with this
c squared
if each of the X_i are hausdorff then the disjoint union is also hausdorff
if we pick distinct points a and b in the wedge sum, then there are essentially two cases: a and b are both singletons, or one of a or b is equal to {p_i}_{i\in I}
I think that's for the Scott topology, I happened to read about it a bit recently.
++++++
Also I think what's usually called order topology is only applicable to tosets.
mfw my pdf is just randomly missing a page 
lol
what do you think a neighborhood basis of a point should look like
what are the simplest open sets in a metric space you could possibly use?
no, you can't just use every open set
here's a more precise hint: think about open balls
that is what i meant by this, which you didn't answer
try drawing concentric circles
there might not be a smallest open ball
not necessarily
just bumping. having a pretty hard time with this. any suggestions would be awesome
So if neither of the points is the point of gluing then it should be fairly straightforward (if both in the same X_i just take open nbhds not touching the identified points ; try to fill in the same where they're in different ones)
If one point p is that basepoint and the other is xbin, say X_i, then we can pick a nbhd of x and a nbhd of (the preimage of) p in X_i which don't intersect and then extend its image in the wedge into an open set about p
That's informal but meant to be more a hint - I think it's instructive to, say, consider how to prove it for a wedge of two circles
That gives the geometric motivatiom
how do i know that the nbhds will be open when i take them back through q?
is q an open map?
geometrically i can see this for the wedge of two circles (i think). i’ll try writing it out more explicitly tho
Note that $\bigcup {p_i}$ is closed
Blitz
q isn't necessarily open no, but in this case the neighbourhoods can be completely contained within (the copy of) one of the spaces and are saturated
okay, thanks guys, will try something with this
Shaw
If you replace open with closed everywhere that works aha
A isn't necessarily open in X
It might be easier to argue using filters since you're dealing with closed spaces.
is open in A which is open in X is wrong
if u picture it
u got a space X decopmosed into two parts and then you have Y which just assume its one part
u want the inverse image so like a set of Y sent to X
X is two parts so like either A or B
so take a set E subset of Y
f^-1(E) must be either in A or in B
is that true?
@gritty widget
yup
now
f|A^-1(U) = f^-1(U) intersect A
now it should work ?
try
using
the fact that A and B are closed
and continuous pre of closed is also closed
but yea ur right
so to finish this up
open subsets of A is open in X
f^-1|A(U) is open in A so..
do the same for the other part
and then just union both of them
do u get it
yea
now rewrite the proof
like fully
A is closed in X given
actually yea ig those are clopen sets
cuz like X is decomposed
ye
open subsets of A are open in X
I mean just swapping open for closed works too
Idk where you got clopen from tho
just thought about connectedness idk
A and B needn't be complements

A and B could overlap
It wouldn't contradict anything tho
You're gluing the disk together along its boundary
hmm
could be a tedious homeo to define explicitly
but then again i think you get exactly S^n and not just something homeo to it when doing that
maybe thats of help?
but i guess jumping between dimensions like that doesn't work formally
I think a projection to a closed hemisphere (boundary only) followed by stretching it to bring the boundary to a single point would give you a map D^n -> S^nwhich is a homeomorphism of D^n/S^{n-1} with S^n
Something like (x,y) -> (x,y,sqrt(1-x^2-y^2)) composed with (x,y,z) -> (k(z)x,k(z)y,(z-1)/2) where k(z) is chosen to keep the result on the sphere
It's not 'exactly' S^n if you're defining S^n as the set of points of norm 1 in R^n
yes thats what i meant with the msg after that
with any kind of norm on R^n 
continuity
your function is not continuous, and a retraction must be
thinking about connectedness
"map" should be read as "continuous map"
sometimes people have a convention that they don't write that maps are continuous
maybe it's one of such authors
Anyone familiar with limit spaces?
Like convergence spaces.
I'm trying to nail down what the sup of a set of limit structures is, but every definition I try leads to problems.
I'm consulting Foundations of Topology by Preuss, but he doesn't define the sup explicitly.
Fix a topological group G
i'm interested in the category of spaces equipped with a G-action, continuous maps respecting the G-action, G-equivariant homotopy
I googled this a bit ago and google seemed to suggest that the right definition of 'contractible' in this setting is that
a G-space is contractible if the identity map admits a G-equivariant homotopy into a single orbit of the G action
So sure i'll just accept that this is a good definition.
My question is, is there an analogue of the path space fibration in this setting like
if (X,x) is an ordinary pointed space there's a based path fibration P(X,x) over X
the space of continuous maps (I,0)_->(X,x)
and this fibration admits a section iff X is contractible, more generally a map (Y,y) -> (X,x) is homotopic to a point iff it lifts along this fibration.
My question is like
is there a G-equivariant analogue to the path fibration with the same properties?
I guess like, precisely, take (X, A) to be a pair of a G-space X and a subspace A consisting of a single G-orbit.
Is there a G-fibration over (X,A) such that for any (Y,B) and f : (Y,B) -> (X,A), f lifts along the fibration iff f is contractible to a map (A,A) by a G-equivariant homotopy
f:[0,1]->S^n t-> sqrt(1-t^2)*x+ty where x and y are points on S^n shows its path connected right
sqrt(1-t^2)x+ty doesn't need to be a point of S^n
oh yeah
guess im assuming they are orthogonal
<ax+by,ax+by> = 1 a^2+b^2 + 2ab<x,y> = 1 , b^2+2ab<x,y>+a^2 -1= b =[-2a<x,y>+-sqrt(4a^2<x,y>^2-4a^2+4)]/[2], which is a continuous function of a as square root is positive, and ax+by will be a member of S^n. Taking a as parameter yields result? ???
basically do quadratic formula to find suitable value of b
given a between 0 and 1
thanks
is being homotopic the same as being homotopic relative to the empty subset?
yeah
So its an iff?
f_1 homotopic f_2 iff f_1 homotopic f_2 relative empty
yes
can someone explain lifting the path with example?
p:X->B, f:A->B maps, there is g:A->X covering f or lifting if p*g=f
is it like composition of functions in math analysis?
p(o)g 
yes
any hint for c first point? i.e. [X,Y] bijective with pi_0(Y)
I did this so far
ProphetX

Think about what it means to have a homotopy class of maps from a point into a space
hint: X is contractible means it's path connected. what can you say about f(X) for cont func f
try to show constant maps are homotopic iff their image lie on the same path component
I apologize for the double post, but perhaps this is the more appropriate channel: Is the topological data analysis technique of persistence homology invertible?
By van kampen, the fundamental group of the wedge of two spaces is the free product of their fundamental groups, right?
sry for the wordiness i cant use tex
yes
like this? 
didn't check the details but the idea looks alright
Is there any nice reference for constructing a manifold with a prescribed group presentation ?
This construction specifically
this is so much data to keep track of. is f_0, f_1 fixed or arbitrary? is g_1 an extension of f_1? is G extension of F?

f_0, f_1 are fixed, yes, yes
I wouldn't say f0 and f1 are fixed. f0 and f1 are implicitly determined by the choice of F because
f0 can be defined in terms of F as the restriction of F to A x {0} and similarly f1 is the restriction of F to A x {1}
so when it says f0 -> f1 you can just view this as new notation to designate these functions being introduced on the fly
similarly with g1, g1 is determined in terms of G by restricting it to time t=1
I am not sure I get what you mean. a homotopy needs be from f_0 to f_1. that s how a homotopy is defined
I can have several homotopies frm f_0 to f_1 though
if I don t fix f_0 and f_1, then what is the homotopy between?
Sure but you can simply speak of maps F: A x I -> Y
and then after F is introduced you can introduce the notation f0, f1 for the restriction of F to A x {0} and A x {1} respectively
Then F is a homotopy from f0 to f1.
Therefore any continuous map A x I -> Y can be considered a homotopy retrospectively
But if you like you can rearrange the quantifiers so that f0 and f1 are introduced before F
"For all Y, for all f0, f1 : A -> Y, for all F : f0 => f1"
Similarly if you want you can rephrase the last line as
"there exists a map g1 : X -> Y and a homotopy G : g0 => g1, G extending F"
sorry I am really confused. what is your definition of homotopy?
For me it looks liek this: Let X,Y be topological spaces and f_0,f_1:X->Y continuous maps. A homotopy F from f_0 to f_1 is a continuous map F:X times 0,1 closed to Y, such that F(x,0)=f_0(x) and F(x,1)=f_1(x)
how you define homotopy?
a homotopy is by defintion from f_0 to f_1
Ok
I need know what f_0 and f_1 is to speak about F here
no?
I'll repeat what I said a minute ago
Let X and Y be topological spaces.
Let F : X x I -> Y be a continuous function.
Sure, fine. Let me continue
Let f0 be defined as the composite F \circ i0, where i0 : X -> X x I is the inclusion map x |-> (x,0)
similarly let f1 be defined as the composite F \circ i1, where i1 : X -> X x I is the inclusion x |-> (x,1)
Now, f0 and f1 being given
it makes sense to say that F is a homotopy from f0 to f1
even though we've given F beforehand, we can now say in retrospect that it is a homotopy from the newly defined functions f0 and f1
yes, in your definition A homotopy is a quintuple (F,i0,i1,f_0,f_1)right?
I don't consider i0 and i1 part of the data
I don't know if I understand what you mean
my point is you have a random continuous map F. Then you compose this to get f_0 and f_1
and after composition you get the homotopy
so from any continuous map,you can construct a homotopy
but I am confused as what it means to be for any homotopy?
any homotopy F means for any continuous map F, I can construct the homotopy via your procedure?
yeah i see
in my def,if I fix f_0,f_1, then I have one homotopy from f_0 to f_1 as one cntinuous map so that
by "any homotopy F" they mean "any triple (f0, f1, F)"
and then simply all homotopy from f_0 to f_1 is the collection of continous maps, which satisfy the property given
yeah.
this is an abuse of notation which is acceptable because f0 and f1 can always be reconstructed uniquely from F if only F is given
but f_0 and f_1 is constructed from F
yes
so they simply mean for all F, and then f_0,f_1 follow (i.e. they are fixed by F)?
Yeah.
thanks for help!
something similar is going on with the g1
like
g0 is introduced in the assumptions "for all g0" and then we introduce a homotopy G : g0 -> ???
yes, if there exists a homotopy G, then g_0 and g_1 are determined
Yeah. here it's slightly different because g0 is introduced prior to G
but G determines g1
yes,true. but as G is extension of F,that means G restricts to F, so both g_0 and g_1 need restrict to f_0 and f_1, right?
Yes, that follows.
apparently this guy satisfies the homotopy extension property
but I have troubles understanding who M_f is in the first place
I am confused by what it means (x,0) sim f(x)
they never define it
(x,0) sim f(x) if what
yeah
so
you understand that given any topological space we can form the quotient space of this by an equivalence relation
yes
right?
I do not know what the equivalence relation here is
so they're defining it on the fly here by saying, the relation on (X x I) \amalg Y is the smallest equivalence relation \sim such that for all x in X, (x,0)\sim f(x)
what does this mean? I never saw this
an equivalence relation is a subset of X x I amalg Y cartesian product with itself.
Yeah.
so
Let R be a relation on some set X, so R \subset X x X.
Do you understand what i mean by 'the smallest equivalence relation containing R'
no. but my guess is this is some univ prop
I only say smallest/largest things when defining things via univ property
arguably it is but category theory isn't going to be a helpful perspective here.
i mean smallest in the sense of the ordering imposed by \subset
like
there is an equivalence relation R' \subset X x X
such that R\subset R'
and for any other equivalence relation R'' \subset X x X with R \subset R''
there could be several equivalence relations on R. how can I know how many?
how do I determine them?
sry
Let $R \subset X \times X$ be a relation on $X$.
Then there exists an equivalence relation $R' \subset X \times X$
such that $R\subset R'$,
and having the property that for any other equivalence relation $R'' \subset X \times X$ with $R \subset R''$,
$R'\subset R''$
diligentClerk
this is a claim or assumption?
I claim it
i can prove it
First of all do you agree that if such an R' exists
it's necessarily unique?
Suppose $R'''$ is an equivalence relation with those properties. Then $R \subset R'''$ and it has the property that for any. equivalence relation $R'' \subset X \times X$ with $R \subset R''$ it holds that $R''' \subset R''$
ProphetX
we apply this to $R''=R'$
ProphetX
Then, $R''' \subset R'$
ProphetX
now we apply this for $R''=R'''$
ProphetX
and we get the converse
yes
and are equal.
yeah. i guess it technically is a universal property proof except we're in a category where all isomorphisms are equalities. hahaha.
anyway
yeah so it suffices to construct any guy satisfying this property
there are two methods of constructing this guy R'
First of all let $R_0$ be the union of $R$ with the set $ { (x, x) \mid x \in X}$, i.e. the 'diagonal' of $X\times X$
diligentClerk
It's easy to see that $R_0$ is reflexive.
diligentClerk
Moreover any relation containing R0 will also be reflexive. We'll construct R' so that it contains R0.
R_0 is a relation on X, but it doesn't yet satisfy all the axioms of an equivalence relation.
If it did we would be done.
But there's no reason to believe that R0 is symmetric or transitive.
R_0 is reflexive,because R is, and we added a set, which is 'reflexive'?
No, I didn't assume R was reflexive, I think.
R_0 should be reflexive even if R satisfies no interesting properties at all
yes,fair
(R could be empty!)
Ok let's take care of symmetry.
Let $R_0^{\rm op} = { (y, x)\in X\times X \mid (x,y )\in R_0$
diligentClerk
let $R_1 = R_0\cup R_0^{\rm op}$
diligentClerk
I claim R1 is both symmetric and reflexive.
Do you buy this?
(Not necessarily transitive.)
intuitively makes sense,but I will have to work out the details, I am not convinced by reflexive either yet
this makes sense intuitively
Good, cool
Let $R'$ be defined in terms of R1 as follows : $(x,y)$ is in $R'$ if there exists a sequence $x_1,x_2,x_3,\dots x_n$ of elements of $X$, (some $n\geq 1$), such that $x = x_1$, and $y =x_n$, and $(x_k, x_{k+1})\in R_1$ for each $1\leq k < n$. (In the case $n=1$ we will take this condition to be vacuously satisfied, so $(x,x)\in R'$ automatically because it comes from the singleton sequence with $x_1 = x$.
The point of this construction is to guarantee that R' is transitive.
The parenthetical observation at the end about the vacuous case n=1 guarantees that R' is reflexive as well.
Moreover, this should be symmetric if R_1 is.
this is kind of a big fish to me
how does this have anything to do with transitivity?
What is the definition of transitivity?
Suppose $x \sim y$ and $y \sim z$. Then $x \sim z$
ProphetX
A set of nodes with edges between them
I'm really bad with pictures
but yes, I know what you mean by graph
aight nvm
but yeah like
I could tell you why R' is transitive but think about it for a second and unfold the definition of R'
and see if you can figure it out
i won't torture you too long
diligentClerk
small edit
ok,sec,sorry for disturbing this,but I think I managed to get this idea: R_0 is reflexive, because a relation on X x X is reflexive iff it contains all points {(x,x)}
Yeah.
Right
if (x_k,x_k+1) in R_1, then (x_k+1,x_k) in R_1 by symmetry. now my intuition is that from singleton we should somehow get that x=x_1=x_2=x_3=...
but i don't see the last part
is just vague idea
i'm allowing sequences here to be of varying lengths
n isn't fixed, different sequences can have different lengths
The case of reflexivity comes from considering sequences of length 1
transitivity would look like this: if $(x,y) \in R'$ and $(y,z) \in R'$, then $(x,z) \in R'$. Suppose $(x,y)$ in $R'$. then there exists a sequence $x_1,\dots,x_n$, such that $x=x_1$ and $y=x_n$ and $(x_k,x_{k+1}) \in R_1$ for all $1 \leq k \leq n$. Moreover, suppose $(y,z) \in R'$. Then there exists a sequence $y_1,\dots,y_m$, such that $y=y_1$ and $z=y_m$ and $(y_l,y_{l+1}) \in R_1$ for all $1 \leq m$
ProphetX
Yeah
we now need to find a sequence $z_1,\dots,z_p$, so that $z_1=x$ and $z_p=z$ and $(x_m,x_{m+1}) \in R_1$ for all $1 \leq m \leq p$
ProphetX
but this is impossible
lmao
no, sorry
i should have clarified that
they're permitted to have different lengths
||Just concatenate the sequences you have||
wait, is the sequence necessarily finite?
yes
I define the sequenze $z_p:=x_1,\dots,x_{n-1},y_1,\dots,y_m$. Clearly, $z_1=x_1=x$ and $z_p=y_m=z$. Left to see: $(z_m,z_{m+1}) \in $R_1$ for all $1 \leq m \leq p$. However, this is clear, as all $x_n$ and all $y_m$ are.
ProphetX
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
like this?
yes,except the indexing part
what length do I allow the sequences to have?
any finite length?
Yes, any length >= 1
ok so if R_0 was reflexive, R_1 is and in turn R' is, because I just added elements
R' is transitive,as I just proved
left to see: R' is symmetric
Suppose $(x,y) \in R'$. Then there exists a sequence $x_1,\dots,x_n$, such that $x=x_1$ and $y=x_n$ and $(x_k,x_k+1) \in R_1$ for all $1 \leq k \leq n$. Then there exists a sequence $x_n,\dots,x_1$, such that $x_n=y$ and $x_1=x$ and $(x_{k+1},x_{k}) \in R_1$ by symmetry of $R_1$, so $(y,x) \in R'$
ProphetX
yeah. does that make sense to you?
yes
so yeah this construction works
left to see: R_1 is symmetric.
I think i got it right. why do you think this wouldn't work
So if (x,y) in R_0, and I add (y,x) to it, where (x,y) in R_0, then R_1 seems to be symmetric 
R_1 is symmetric if for all (x,y) in R_1 it is true that (y,x) in R_1, yes?
yes
suppose (x,y) in R_1. Then either (x,y) in R_0 or R_0^{op}. If (x,y) in R_0, then (y,x) in R_0^{op}. So (y,x) in R_1.
If (x,y) in R^{op}, then (y,x) in R_0. So (y,x) in R_1.
Altogether: (y,x) in R_1 in either case
like this? 

yep,makes sense
just for curiosity, in what books is this treated? 
because our topology prof never mentioned this
also without going through the construction we did for this specific example right now,which would take really much work, I will do it tomorrow,is it fair to say the equivalene relation ~is a subset of X x I amalg Y cartesian product with itself, such that x~x' iff x=x', y~y' iff y=y' , (x,a) ~(x',a') iff x=x',a=a' and (x,a) ~y iff f(x)=y, a=0?
Idk. lol. Sorry. Equivalence relations are treated in the book "Elements of Set theory" by Enderton and in the first chapter of "Topology" by Munkres. I don't see this specific construction in either one though
I got it,I will type it up tomorrow in detail,but I was curious where you learned it 
it didn't seem completely trivial to me, without your hints,I would never come up with such construction 
I'd be careful about saying iff here
By the way there's a very slick proof of existence of R'.
The proof is as follows.
- There is at least one equivalence relation containing R; namely the equivalence relation X x X \subset X x X
in which all elements are identified.
- If ${R_i}_{i\in I}$ is a family of relations, $R_i \subset X \times X$, then their intersection $\bigcap_i R_i$ has the following properties:
diligentClerk
- if each R_i is reflexive, then \bigcap R_i is reflexive
- if each R_i is symmetric, then \bigcap R_i is symmetric
- if each R_i is transitive, then \bigcap R_i is transitive
- if each R_i is an equivalence relation, then R_i is an equivalence relation
Moreover if all R_i contain R, then \bigcap R_i contains R.
Therefore we can define R' to be the intersection of all equivalence relations containing R. This is an equivalence relation, it contains R, and by construction it is a subset of every other equivalence relation on X containing R.
how is this R' the same as the one we had before?
this is really counter intuitive
It has to be the same because it satisfies the same universal property hahaha
i guess i didn't actually prove that R' as i constructed it before has the universal property
yes,we just showed is an equivalence relation
yeah
well
i don't want to do that rn but it's doable
there's something else i want to point out
namely like
remember that you learned the universal property of the quotient of a set by an equivalence relation
yes
so what's interesting is
if you go back to the definition
then in order to phrase and state the universal property
you don't need that R is an equivalence relation.
You can just say
Let X be a set and R be a relation on X.
Well hold on.
The quotient of X by R is a set X/R, together with a function eta : X -> X/R
such that
- if R(x,y), then eta(x)= eta(y)
- if Y is any set, and f : X -> Y is a function satisfying R(x,y) -> f(x)=f(y), then f factors uniquely through eta, i.e. there exists a unique function f' : X/R -> Y such that f' \circ eta = f
This makes sense right
like i don't use the fact that R is an equivalence relation anywhere
ok let me ask now what you mean that 'the projection isn't surjective'
Hmmm ... but when you constructed X / R you were working under a specific construction of X/R, namely the set of points of X/R in that case was the set of equivalence classes of X/R
equivalence relations
How would I use Van Kampen for this? I thought to use $U = R^n\setminus K$ and $V = R^n\setminus{p}$, so $R^n = U \cup V$ and $U \cap V = R^n\setminus (K\cup{p})$. By Van Kampen, we have $\pi(U) {\pi(U \cap V)} \pi(V)$ is trivial. Note that $\pi(V) = {1}$. With $i \colon \pi(U \cap V) \to \pi(U)$ the homomorphism induced by the inclusion map, it follows that $\pi(U)$ with the relations $i (c) = 1$ for $c \in \pi(U \cap V)$ is trivial. Can we conclude that $\pi(U \cap V) \cong \pi(U)$ from this fact?
OmnipresentCoffee
Interesting expository paper on the historical task of computing the homology of the K(pi, n) spaces
and the methods developed to solve this problem
PDF link here
http://www.numdam.org/item/AST_1976__32-33__173_0/
What is the basic cofibrant replacement notion in the category of G-spaces, G a fixed topological group
I'll be more precise
Conjecture:
Let G be a topological group, X a G-space.
There exists a G-space Y such that the projection Y-> Y/G is a principal G-bundle, and a G-equivariant map Y -> X which is (forgetting the G-action) a homotopy equivalence.
What does the construction of Y look like?
is a half open interval open in R under the standard topology? no right?
in general my question is: if you can express a subset of a topological space X as a union of basis elements then it is by definition open in X right?
the half open interval came to mind bc [0,1) = {0} U (0,1) which are both open in R - but then that same reasoning would work on closed intervals and closed intervals are… closed
actually i guess a point set isn’t open in R …?
yeup nvm, point set is closed
are these all open in Y? im pretty the first four are but idk about the last one
isn't this the Milnor construction?
of the classifying space
{0} is not open in (the standard topology on) R.
yeah i realized that
of these i think the only open one in R is the first
idk any topological arguments for this but if you take the standard metric topology on R you can show that there is no neighborhood around 0
so it is not open
What is this example trying to show
Like what does “closed as subsets of Y mean “ if it’s saying they’re open in Y
It is demonstrating that things can be open and closed at the same time.
only the first and last one should be
Why isn’t the second?
This appears before he talks about closure and interior tho
[-1,1]
As a subspace of R
Then why isn’t C?wouldnt the same logic as B apply to C
no, because [-1, 1] has those two points -1 and 1
which act differently from points of (-1, 1)
basic neighbourhoods around any point of (-1, 1) are just open intervals (given they are small enough)
I see it
yeah, that's why you can't include 1/2 there
because there's no points on the left of it
Notice that being closed does not imply not being open. In this case it does, but only because R is connected and {0} is a proper.nonempty subset. You can just show directly that [0,1) is not open by showing 0 doesn't have a nbhd which is a basjs element and container in [0,1) e.g. An interval.
You don't have to worry about it now
But it's one condition that precludes clopen sets from existing
In one Equivalent formulation it is the existence of a clopen nonempty proper subset
I’ll keep it in mind then 
connected means it can't be decomposed into two disjoint non-empty closed (equivalently open) subsets
or, there is no non-trivial clopen sets, the only clopen sets are empty set and the whole space
clopen meaning closed and open
The milnor construction of the classifying space is very closely related to what i'm asking here but it's not quite it... the milnor construction solves this problem in the case X = a singleton endowed with the trivial group action
i'm looking for a generalization or adaptation of the milnor construction where the total space of the fiber bundle would not be contractible necessarily but rather homotopy equivalent to a given space X
Any nice references that explain regular neighborhoods of CW-complexes ?
@chrome ridge
Yeah I've seen the construction in Hatcher's, are there any references that maybe explain some intuition. I don't think I can visualize it the way Hatcher defines it.
How are the boundary maps being calculated from the triangulation? I've got zero grasp of this module as a whole, but I cannot for the life of me figure out the method for calculating them
I went through a computation of them a while ago
see if that helps
its a different example though i think
Aye, I think so. I've got an example with just a standard triangle that's giving me a larger headache
maybe this picture already does it
you basically use the boundary formula of oriented simplices
I could honestly kiss you, that clicked straight away
First year the modules being taught at my uni and the examples given skip any kind of computation. Just jumps straight to the answers for each step
Exactly. Especially when you're getting to this level of maths where you start losing the abundance of examples online and are heavily relying on the teaching
Are there universal properties for vector bundle constructions? I've been thinking about how to prescribe uniqueness to the constructions (sums, tensor products, pullbacks, quotients, etc.) but it feels like there's a general noncanonicity that makes this stuff a bit trickier
Like, if f*E -> N is the pullback bundle of E -> M with f : N -> M, I'm thinking if E' -> N is another bundle with bundle map g* : E' -> E commuting with f, do we get some kind of bundle map f*E -> E'?
I mean you have adjointness
if you regard a vector bundle E as a (sheaf of) O_X-modules
we have a natural isomorphism $\mathrm{Hom}_{\mathcal{O}X}(f^*\mathcal{G},\mathcal{F})=\mathrm{Hom}{\mathcal{O}Y}(\mathcal{G},f*\mathcal{F})$
nGroupoid
so you can characterize maps f*E -> N as you say in terms of their adjoints
also, the pullback f*E is itself a colimit, so there's a universal property there you can exploit
isnt the pullback a limit?
limit over cospan
Yes but we’re talking about two different things
oh sorry
The pullback f^{-1} of a sheaf is a colimit
I see-I only know the definition of pullback in categorical sense
didn't work with sheaf yet 
A is subset of X, let x in closure of A is there always exist a sequence (x_n) in A such that (x_n) convergence to x.
Depends on the type of space
But for first countable spaces, in particular metric spaces, yes
In Hausdorff?
no
no
proper concept of a "sequence" in a topological space is that of a net
some people use filters instead which are more set-theory vibe
Hausdorff spaces are those for which limits of nets, if they exist, are unique
I don't think this has anything to do with separation properties, you can have pretty strong ones and still can't use sequences in general
first countability is the culprit
Okay thanks alot
If I only have as toolkit seifert van kampen and the fundamental group of CW complexes, how do I start computing fundamental groups?
This is my toolkit
Fundamental groups of what? Arbitrary spaces?
In theory every space has a map into it from a cw complex which induces an isomorphism on the fundamental group (even on all higher homotopy groups), so in some sense it does suffice to „know“ the htpy groups of all cw complexes
I dont think this is of much help in practice though, as non-cw spaces can be pretty wild, and these maps pretty complicated
it really depends on what data you have...spaces in mathematics can be described in dozens of ways, so you need to know what description you have in your hands to start with
generally though, giving a cell structure, van kampen to break your space up into smaller spaces, and covering space theory (not listed in your toolkit--but later essential) are all the ingredients you need to compute something like this
Why is the closure of a set important in general
important in what sense
Nothing in particular I’m just reading about it in munkres and I’m wondering if/when it’ll come up again
It will
it's quite an important idea (so is the interior)
small closed sets are good
Sometimes elements you want to consider wander outside your set, but close enough to be in the closure
I meant the why at this
It's a bit hard to explain why they're useful without seeing it
But it really does turn out that these concepts come up often
Maybe here's an example
The boundary of a set is defined as its closure without its interior.
I hope at least you can see why this is sort of an interesting idea, even if you can't see its uses yet
You can use the definition to prove some interesting facts about the boundary. For instance, you can find a description of the boundary of A u B in terms of the boundary of A and that of B
dense sets also use the concept
Perhaps that gives you an example of why the closure and interior are interesting ideas
just keep reading for now

it's a central concept to all of topology
it describes the topology of your topological spaces, and it behaves in a particularly nice way on subspaces too
many things can be described using the closure of a set
One thing that often happens is that if some property P holds for all points in S, then P holds for all points in the closure of S, so the closure is useful for proving a property for many points.
This is also where density comes into play. If you want to prove some property about some closed set E, sometimes it’s good to find a subset S inside E, such that the closure of S is E. Then, it might be easier to prove the property first for S, and then prove that the property is true in the closure
I can't describe in words how important the concept of closure is in topology, but you'll have to trust me that it really is extremely important without no doubt.
Questioning the importance of closure feels a bit like questioning the importance of topology itself
The closure of a set is essentially the optimal solution to the problem of finding a closed set containing that set. So anytime you want to find a closed set containing some set (which is often), the closure will probably be useful.
Maybe I haven’t gotten to this in the book, but I don’t see why this is the case yet
There are many ways of describing a topology. The usual way involves open sets, but you can also do it with closed sets.
In fact, you can define "closure spaces", which are sets with a closure operator. These are more general than topological spaces.
One common example where the closure is important are dense sets: a set is dense if its closure is the entire space. This effectively means that any point of the space can be approximated to any degree of accuracy by points in the dense set.


