#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 624 of 407
this is my true motivation
maybe your question's related to the cayley dickson construction @chilly ocean
i meant numbers like complex and quaternions, elements of R^3 aren't numbers
How are you defining a number here
I'm not sure but I'd say elements of fields and rings like C and H
like why aren't there numbers like T = a + bi + cj
i think so
these are just the ones that arise from the Cayley-Dickson construction, which doubles the dimension every time you apply it. I also wouldn't consider the sedenions to be a good example; past the octonions the construction produces things that have absolutely no good arithmetic properties
You can get a lot of other vector spaces which happen to be rings or fields
including ones of odd dimension
I've heard of "applying the cayley dickson construction" to produce algebras, but what exactly is the cayley dickson construction and why does it only produce 2^n dimensional numbers?
I mean it produces algebras which are 2^n dimensional
over the field you start the construction with
well it ends up being 2^n since each application of cayley dickinson doubles the dimension lol
since every time you do the construction on A you're taking certain 2x2 matrices in A and defining a certain multiplication on these
the space of 2x2 matrices in A that are considered here has twice the dimension of A
I see
also just be aware that after the octonions these things have very awful properties
the octonions lose associativity but are very weakly associative
to be clear while these algebras do have nice properties for n = 1, 2, 3 theyre not like. uniquely number-esque
after that it's a complete mess
Is proofwiki a good review website? It seems very incomplete, but it doesnt seem wrong though.
It is good to recall proofs when you forget them, you probably shouldn't cite it as a reference if you are writing something
if you think it is not well written or is incomplete
well idk im just talking shit
Maybe incomplete is the wrong word, its just hard to navigate
I was just using it to review for my Modern Alg 1 exam, nothing that fancy but I need to know what stuff means
My professor sent a list of topics on the exam and it was literally a 4 page long list of 103 topics. I like modern alg and all, but how do I even study that much reasonably?
This class is 3 credit hours and it 100% should be more than that
At least 5 tbh...
any tips about how I can not fail? I feel like even if I get all the concepts fairly well, the formal definitions will dock me points
as a general rule, if you can do exercises, then you probably know the vast majority of what you need to know tbh.
i wanted to ask about this one:
in a section about products
the only note we have about isomorphisms other than those of groups with order 4 is this
which doesnt really seem sufficient or enlightening
getting a couple of these is easy but im confused about all four
like $\bZ _ 1 \oplus \bZ _{12}$ and $\bZ _2 \oplus \bZ _6$
jan Niku
You have 2 groups which come from direct sums of cyclic groups
Then you need 2 more
12 is an even number which means you can also take the… something group 
And then for the last one
Maybe think about what 2•12 is
(There’s actually a 5th group of this order but… idk how you’d find it unless you just ran a program or knew these things exist lol)
something group 👀
oh you can have an alternating

oh the last hint was for alternating?
im not sure what you mean about even then

dihedral 
can i ask another silly question
why is the dihedral group of order 12 a hexagon? unless some of the flips collapse into rotations or visa versa but i dont see how that happens
a hexagon has 6 distinct reflection symmetries and 6 distinct rotational symmetries so intuitively, the symmetry group of the hexagon is at least order 12.
oh are you saying that you think there are more than 12 elements in the symmetry group of the hexagon?
yea
well i know there arent but its cumbersome to see why not
maybe i just need to take a break
if all 6 rotations and all 6 flips are not all distinct elements, how do you decide which to exclude, assuming the choice is (mostly) arbitrary
hm this is a good question. Maybe the best way is to derive the relations that generate D_12, and show that it generates a group of order 12
hmm
so maybe some operation that cycles all elements, the identity, one that swaps 2 pairs, and one that swaps 3 pairs
although i have doubts you need the last one
im not sure thats what you were suggesting
label the vertices of the hexagon, clearly the rotations are pairwise distinct by looking at where a fixed vertex ends up
now the rotations "flip" the order of the vertices: say you go counter clockwise, it turns 1, 2, ..., 6, 1, .... around, so all reflections are distinct from rotations
if you again fix a vertex and look where reflections send it you see that they are distinct
alternatively, look where an edge ends up
a symmetry is uniquely determined where an edge ends up and in what order the vertices are labeled
there are 6 places to send an edge and each has two orientations to be in
im saying using a labeling scheme like loch is suggesting, show that if r is rotation by 30 degrees and s is a flip along some axis, then (rs)^2 = 1 and r^6 = 1. Then show that r,s generate a group of order 12.
i mean, these are basically just the relations that generate any dihedral group
kxrider is suggesting the algebra-brain solution
i invite you to embrace geometry brain
im thinking of between the two approaches
i think the edge way is better
it seems like youre saying that if you look at any one edge, and examine where it ends up and how its oriented, that can be associated to a single permutation
or some equivalent permutation
yes
which if i believe sounds way easier 😄
??
(technically there is orbit stabilizer in this argument but it should be clear)
oh wait i see what you mean
yours was what i was attempting
but then i had questions about like
they're all distinct
okay the largest is obviously order 6
but then you have some of order 3
why should you believe that its not order 18
i know im bad at algebra though
bc 3|6
the action on the hexagon is very rigid, you can't just shuffle the vertices wildly, the vertex with label n will always be next to the vertex n-1 and n+1 (mod 6)
yea loch
thats why knowing where an edge ends up suffices
thats very cool 😄
(if you know the orientation)
im still sorta confused about what youre suggesting to exclude in the list
although listing elements is maybe a bad idea in general
or not the point
i mean this shows that all 6 rotations and all 6 reflections are unique
and make up the whole group
the idea is that the group generated by r and s under the relations (rs)^2 = s^2 = r^6 = 1 is something like r^{n_1}s^{n_2}r^{n_3}...., finite products of integer powers of r and s, and you have to show that it all reduces to r^ns^k for 0 <= n <= 5 and 0 <= s <= 1. The argument for why the relations hold is ultimately geometric like loch was talking about.
solid plan
For this homework problem I'm asked to prove that for a group G, Z(G), the center of G is a subgroup without doing any computations. I can do it with computations but im not sure how else I would go about it
g is in the center if and only if conjugation by g is trivial. maybe you can use that to write Z(G) as the kernel of something
That gives you that it’s a normal subgroup without much of explicit computations
im not familiar with concept of kernel besides faint memory in first linear algebra class. any alternative ideas or does this seem like best way to go?
have you learned what a homomorphism is?
no
i don't know how you'll do this without computations then
hm ok I will ask prof. Thanks for advice anyway 👍
if you know linalg then you learned vector space homomorphisms w/o calling em homomorphisms
what is this from
Idk someone took it and posted it on a Facebook group where I found it lol
just a sanity check: you don't need to be over a field or integral domain in order to say that an eigenvalue of a matrix satisfies its characteristic polynomial, right? This should be true over any commutative ring
Are functions that map Q(x)->Q(kx) automorphisms? Where Q(x) is the extension of the field of rationals by x.
in a group, if ab=cd does ba=dc?
Intuitively I feel like this follows from there being an isomorphism from the group of group actions with the group itself, but Im not sure.
im reviewing cycle notation and im getting confused lol
(1345)(234) = (135)(24) right?
yes
Ok good
no, consider the dihedral group on a triangle, then let a = rotation, b = flip, c = ab, d = identity
"For A any set of points in the plane, (a,b) is constructible from A iff (a,0) and (0,b) are constructible from A." Would (0,0),(1,0) need to be an elt of A for this to be true?
(I'm not sure how relevant this is to algebra, it's from my algebra textbook. I can delete if it's too far from the channel topic)
I think these would be a lot easier if I understood all the terms about finite Abelian groups
like type and exponent
I think exponent might be the minimal number which satisfies g^n = e for all g in G
Maybe?
@unique berry
Exponent is what I said it is
For the type it’s almost surely the invariant factor decomposition from the classification of finite abelian groups
Type (n1,…,nt) almost surely means that G = Z/n1Z x … x Z/ntZ
Where n_i+1 divides n_i
yeah
and yeah
(I'm not sure if you were asking for confirmation but just in case..
)
No, depends on how you define composition of permutations. Most common would be right to left, in which case (1 3 4 5) (2 3 4) = (1 4 5) (2 3).
I must be mixing them up then, because I got (145)(23) for left to right 😅
Wait. Forget what I said, I meant common was left to right and what I wrote is the result of that 
But I prefer right to left, because I don't like writing (x)f instead of f(x)
Alright
Who else writes f \square g for "f then g"? 🌜
Do you have any guesses for what the centre is? Any obvious elements that you know will be in the centre? Do you happen to know the centre of M_2(Z)?
The idea is to get an idea of what elements will definitely be there then to eliminate all other possibilities
So they want me to give specific elements instead of just a,b,c in Z?
No I want you to try and guess which matrices (elements of R) are in Z(R). Eg you know that the identity matrix commutes with everything therefore it's definitely there. Anything else that comes to mind?
Why do you think they commute with all elements of R?
Here is a hint to try if you're stuck with the guessing part, but I'd recommend you try working it out with some trial and error first: ||consider the simplest elements of R, and get conditions for a matrix to commute with those. Prove that the conditions you get are also sufficient||
Okay give me a min, I'll work some out and guess
I've tried a few matrices and seems like everything works :/
(1 1 0 2) ( 1 1 0 2)
or ( 1 1 0 2) ( 2 2 0 2)
or (1 1 0 2) ( 2 3 0 2)
or (0 0 0 2) ( 0 0 0 2)
Or is this not what I'm supposed to do?
Hmm interesting if those all commute, I see that the last one definitely does
But here's a tip
Try simpler matrices
Maybe make one matrix really simple and the other one have random a,b,c
And see what equations you get by the commutativity
Okay
And do this for various very simple matrices not just 1
By very simple I mean ||make some entries 0||
So like (1 0 0 2) (0 1 0 2)?
You can do simpler 
(0 0 0 2) (0 1 0 2)
that one works
What do you mean by works?
I mean it commutes
They don't, the products are (0004) and (0204)
lol F

So now maybe try doing this for other simple matrices, and also this to get precise conditions
Okay I'll do that
So it seems like if there is some value in b, then it does not work
Hmmm should I keep trying simple matrices to observe that?
Yes, R has 3 "simple" matrices
Which are non zero in exactly one entry
Try multiplying those with a generic a,b,0,c matrix
You'll get conditions from all 3
Prove that a matrix satisfying those conditions commutes with everything
For this last step there's a neat way of doing this in a general case when you want to figure out if an element is in the centre of a matrix ring or not, I'd suggest looking at this after you've solved it
||Any matrix can be written as summation_{ij} e_{ij}, where e_ij is the matrix with 1 on slot i,j and 0 elsewhere (though here you will want e_22 to be (0002)). Use this to prove that a matrix M commutes with all other matrices iff it commutes with each e_ij||
Okay I have to go but thanks for the help! I'll look at multiplying that way and if I get stuck again, can I dm you? or should I just ask on here again?
Better here, you can just tag me
Let $G$ be a group, $R(G)$ the representation ring. How does a congucay class $\gamma$ in $G$ give a prime ideal $\mathfrak{p}$ in $R(G)$
lime_soup
if g is in G, you get a ring morphism from R(G) to C by taking a representation rho and looking at trace of rho(g). The map only depends on the conjugacy class of g and its kernel is a prime ideal of R(G)
C is the field we take are taking out representatiosn over
then we take any representation?
oh no sorry
we have a map $R(G)\rightarrow \mathbb C$ defined by $\rho \in R(G)$ is mapped to $\text{Trace}(\rho(\gamma))$. This is a ring morphism
lime_soup
By property of the trace it doesn't depend on the choice of representative for the conjucacy class
well you extend it to a ring morphism since not everything in R(G) comes from a representation
so the kernel should be an ideal in R(G)
C is an integral domain so the kernel is prime
oh
I thought R(G) was by definition
representations of G over whatever field we pick
can you recommend some place to read about this
that wouldn't have additive inverses
i'm looking to understand equivariant k theory
I know fulton harris talks about it a little
also there are obvious size issues for whoever wants to be petty enough to point them out
umm that's a proper class tho? 
I think they had in mind finite dimensional representations only
which actually I could like go back to the beginning of the book and see
Is the field some particular field?
Because otherwise I think you'd still have too many reps
C
ah ok
and an isomorphism class of representations is probably a class but who cares
can someone help me figure out what a quotient group is 
looking at G/H
its just Z4 + Z4 again, right?
or does it do something special
16?
that's the size of G, right?

Z4 has 4 elements, so G should have 4*4
yea, but does H actually shrink it
yea, so do you know a theorem relating size of G, H and G/H?
id have to search my notes 1s
okie
Lagrange's theorem! It says that for a finite group |G/H| = [G:H] = |G|/|H|
I guess im not seeing mechanically why you'd lose them I mean
um... one reason would be... why would you call it G/H is it had literally nothing to do with division 😛
You’re taking elements and making them the same so you lose stuff cuz what was once two elements is now one
im having a hard time wrapping my head around these so im not sure what questions to ask, im getting a little closer each day though
Except two is the size of H
two is the size of H?
maybe think it like this... elements of G/H are cosets... i'll use multiplicative notation so elements are gH where g varies over G. So it might seem that there are total |G| elements... but these gH are not distinct!!!
think it like this... when are aH and bH equal?
I mean you replace the number two with |H| in general
So in this case 4 elements become one
when a and b are equal?
when they have the same elements
okie, so maybe let's go a step back. if h was an element of H, then what is hH?
H
exactly!
see all those |H| elements of G are compressed into one single element of G/H... namely eH
this should motivate why sizes should go down
does that make sense?
sort of? so youre saying since theres 4 elements of H its just each h in H operated on by G but then i guess uhh
i mean thats just the definition of it
if that reduces the size why would it land at 4, arent a bunch of the elements the same then
like (0,2)G and (2,0)G are the same
so it seems like if it does go down to 4 it should go down further
so what i'm saying is that if aH = bH, then this should mean that any element on the left is on the right and vice versa. Check that this is equivalent to having a^-1*b in H
but then all of our cosets are equal
what we want to do is look at distinct cosets of H
there are 4 elements in every coset
and G has 16 elements
you should write them all down
and write all the cosets
Ive wrote a couple, you just get G again but in a different order right?
but still all the same elements
i mean if you have those 16 elements and tick one element of them forward by 2 it doesnt make you lose or gain any elements you just shuffle them around
right but every element in G is in (0,2) + G unless im totally misunderstanding what a coset is which is possible
okie lets take a smaller example? consider the group G = Z_6 = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5} and the subgroup H = {0, 2, 4}.
there are two cosets of H...
0 + H = 2 + H = 4 + H = {0, 2, 4}
1 + H = 3 + H = 5 + H = {1, 3, 5}
we are talking about cosets of H not of G
cosets are sets of them form xH
xH = {xh | h in H}
and G/H is the set of those cosets
hmm so really i could just divide the two orders if i had to write it out
then just stop once you have 4 distinct sets
thats slow but faster than what i have been doing 
sorry i just had the orders reversed because idk what im doing
that was a dumb mistake 
so you end up with
0,0 1,0 2,0 3,0
0,2 1,2 2,2 3,2
0,1 1,1 2,1 3,1
2,3 3,3 0,3 1,3
what's H again ?
{(0,0) ; (1,0) ; (2,0) ; (3,0)} isn't an H-coset
the coset containing (0,0) should be containing (0,0) + (0,2) because (0,2) is in H
oh i drew my lines the wrong way
ok
0,0 0,2 2,0 2,2
1,0 1,2 3,0 3,2
0,1 0,3 2,1 2,3
1,1 1,3 3,1 3,3
yeah
then { (0,0)+H, (1,0)+H, (0,1)+H, and (1,1)+H}

ive asked before but how youd know its gonna look like that without writing anything down?
it looks cyclic?
i guess you just get a better feeling for it over time
im not sure about the isomorphism part id have to think about it more
i was just trying to figure out what it was
so then you should do the addition table of G/H
oh since some coset would have to generate all the other cosets and youre not talking about orders of each element anymore
like the operation?
yes
G's operation is component wise addition mod 4 yeah
so its not cyclic
G isn't cyclic
well i guess you have weirder collapsing in the table
its more like mod 2
table of the cosets i mean
well G/H is G mod H
sorry this is so rough 
so it's like mod H
oh 
so it just happens that these numbers are iso to H and its not really mod 2 any more than H is
bleh i ordered this wrong
ill have to keep working after class
yeah so G/H is isomorphic to Z/2Z * Z/2Z
I will get there 😄 I appreciate your time 🙇♂️
,rotate
(5) the subset is {a^m : m in N} or?
yes
det
$0 \notin \mathbb{N}$
Master|Y|
I think I solved this isomorphism proof but wanted to get it double checked.
Prove that <Q, +> is not isomorphic to <Q+, *>
Suppose towards a contradiction that an isomorphism phi(q) exists where q in Q and phi(q) in Q+ . Choose phi(p) = 2.
Then, phi(p) = phi(p/2 + p/2) = phi(p/2) * phi(p/2) = phi(p/2)^2
This implies 2 = phi(p/2)^2 but this contradicts phi(p/2) being a positive rational number.
Looks fine to me
If R is a UFD, and r is an irreducible element, there is no ideal smaller than <r> smaller containing r right?
do you require UFD-ness?
We don't require it but its a nice feature of the ring
if an ideal I contains r, then (r) is contained in I
Oh its that easy huh lol
(r) may not be maximal
r is irreducible
bro like just say yes or no
They're asking questions to make me think, don't bash them for helping, unless youre bashing me
this is pretty much what you're looking for ig...
which is fine
don't think we explicitly learned this, but it is sufficient
I'm basing them not you
it follows straight from the definition...
r in I, then the ideal I absorbs multiplication by elements of the ring

so rR = (r) is contained in I
So we can at least say it is not contained in any SMALLER ideal, but a larger one, sure
which is sufficient for what I need

I'm just trying to prove that a given ideal is the smallest ideal containing some affine subset over R
How does it define transitive?
uwu?
Moldi has this god like presence which is only observed through emotes
my sully is back 
It’s true if G = Gal(F/K) is the Galois group of a finite galois extension. This is because if H is a subgroup of G then [H’:K] = [H’:G’] = [G:H] (and finite implies algebraic)
If F/K is not galois, then you could have G’ strictly bigger than K in which case [H’:G’] <= [H’:K] so idk
What does the |Z C A} do in regards to this question? It doesn't really restrict what A can be right?
it restricts A to those sets of rationals containing all the integers
can every eleemnt of SU(2) be rewritten as $\begin{bmatrix} x & y \ {-\bar{y}} & \bar{x} \end{bmatrix}$ where $|x|^2 + |y|^2 = 1$?
jesse
Seems insane !
like i figure u need to do some funky stuff composing multiple of these or something?
Yes

SU(1,1) is a bit different . Its exactly the same thing but the bottom left corner is y-bar instead of negative y-bar, and the condition is |x|^2 - |y|^2 =1 instead of |x|^2 + |y|^2 = 1
sry this isn't a t/f question it is claimed to be true and i must prove it
i just wanted to make sure that he didnt make an error or something cuz lol
ah i see
I have a proof that the subgroup of SL(2,C) which preserves the unit disk is SU(1,1)
But maybe thats not relevant to what you're trying to do
Have you tried multiplying the matrix with its conjugate transpose and seeing what relations you get?
Wait
that should be identity no?
When you write |x| + |y|=1 do you mean |x|^2 +|y|^2=1
well. should be obvious from context pty 
Take a general matrix (a b ; c d) and multiply it by its conjugate transpose
And see what relations you get by setting that equal to the identity
What if you did the same thing with the inverse of (a b; c d)?
Its a group so its inverse must be in the group as well
And you get more relations between the coefficients from that
what is -bar
Conjugate
Note d = d*1 = d(|a|^2 + |b|^2) = d( a•a-bar + b•b-bar) = ad•a-bar + bd•b-bar -bc•a-bar +bc•a-bar = (ad-bc)•a-bar + b(d•b-bar - c•a-bar) = a-bar
Hi guys, i got a question, can someone explain how i show that both equations are equal?
(i think that i know how to resolve properly, but can't be that easy)
so first you assume that ab = ba and try to prove (ab)^2 = a^2b^2
then you assume that (ab)^2 = a^2b^2
and prove that ab = ba
is there a way to show this is a group hom without compooting

S(H) is group of quaternion z s.t. |z| = 1 under multiplciation
if working in a ring ( not specified to have unit) and you have an expression ab + b, can you right factor out b? what does the second term become?
maybe its literally not a group hom 
its definitely an isomorphism but
I don't think so, being able to factor would imply that you could distribute back to get the original expression, but there's no guarantee to exist such an element e such that eb = b
i have the easy containment
but im completely lost as to how to show that for f(x,y) in the kernel
f is divisible by y^2 - x^2 - x^3
is there some kind of trick i need to use?
So
Generally I think the best way is to take an in the kernel then in K[x,y]/(y^2 - x^2 - x^3) show that its 0
This implies f is in the ideal we want to show is the kernel
The reason this is beneficial is we can replace any y^2 with x^2 + x^3
So you can write f like
f = yf1(x) + f2(x)
Because when you replace every y^2 with a polynomial in x the only power of y you can’t just rewrite in terms of x is the y^1 term
From here we know this still maps to 0 because we’ve only messed with f by something in (y^2 - x^2 - x^3)
Which we know maps to 0
So now you want to do some shenanigans to show this is divisible by y^2 - x^2 - x^3
It should be something like, note that under phi yf1(x), if it’s not 0, maps to something which has an odd power of T
Meanwhile f2(x) maps to something which has even powers of T
So for them to cancel both yf1(x) and f2(x) have to be 0
Or something like that
@past temple
This is generally how I do these problems involving polynomial rings and showing the kernel is some specific ideal
okay i think this makes sense
i get how in the quotient, any polynomial divisible by y^2
can be rewritten with x^2 + x^3
so u have the decomposition into f1 and f2 as u wrote
Yup
im a little confused by this line of reasoning though
Well
Y maps to T^3 - T
And every X maps to T^2 - 1
So when you have a polynomial only in X
The result is a polynomial in (T^2 - 1) and after you expand that out you only have even powers of T
So take that multiply by T^3 - T
Now every power of T is odd
Sorry, I should have wrote “has odd powers of T”
As in when you write it like a0 + a1T + … + anT^n
If k is even then ak = 0
ahhhh okay thats very clever
This is like
The only way I know how to solve these 
The other strategy might be that some term is like degree < n
But for some reason the other side is >= n
So again, they can’t cancel each other out unless they’re both 0
Stuff like that, you just wanna see how you can rule out them cancelling each other
Cuz then it forces everything to be 0 to start with
You can use resultants to make stuff simpler ig... Like call that polynomial f and say g was something in the kernel, then you can kill y and get fu+gv=h where h is a polynomial purely of x and deg v < deg f... h must be in the kernel as well, but h clearly can't die unless it's 0. Since f is irreducible f divides gv means f divides g.
I learnt about resultants recently and they look very OP
wait but how can we conclude that yf1 and f2 are zero from the fact that their images under phi are zero?
Well cuz
Like
Just show that this is true
Like in particular look just at f2 rn
It’s a polynomial in x
Then look at the fact that if it’s degree n
Then phi(f2) has a single term anT^{2n}
Like the highest degree term will map to the highest degree term
And there’s no way for it to be cancelled
Do a similar thing for yf1(x)
The highest degree term is anT^{2n + 3} I think
And nothing can cancel that out
i get how theres no way it can be cancelled in their images under phi
but im still a bit confused on how this shows that they cant be cancelled
just as polynomials in x,y
Wdym?
The point is you conclude f1 = f2 = 0
Like because the image of yf1 and f2 can’t cancel each other out if the images are nonzero tells you that yf1 and f2 map to zero
But because f1 and f2 are only polynomial in x
you can show f1 and f2 have to be 0
You just look at what the highest degree term of the image or yf1 and f2 are
It will have the coefficient, corresponding to the highest degree term of f1 and f2
So if those are non-zero, then yf1 and f2 can’t map to 0
ahh okay that makes sense
wait
is it just like
trivial
that if the coefficient of the highest order term of a polynomial is zero
then the polynomial is zero?
Would this be the correct channel for questions on mechanics?
#groups-rings-fields? probably not
If I have field extensions, L / K, and S / L. Does an embedding from K to S induce some embedding from L to S?
My guess is no in general
Or would it be possible to write an embedding from K to S, as some restriction of an embedding from L to S?
The answer is no
Take L/ K transcendental
And S/L algebraic
Something like R(x) / R vs C / R
ahh
Oh wait
Once again the things are wrong
Umm
I misread it 
But I think transcendence might be an issue time to look at the letters again kek
If it makes it easier, restricting to algebraic extensions would be fine
yup
So I guess you’re wondering if there’s an embedding of it which factors the one S / K
yeah
I think it’s true for algebraic extensions
Like… I thought I remember there being something about being able to lift isomorphisms like… up a ladder
The reason is we have this kinda vertical ladder
S
L
K
And then this other embedding of K into S gives you something like this
S S
L
K -> K
Where the right is representing your new embedding of K into S
And the arrow K -> K is just an isomorphism
Then I swear there’s some theorem in Dummit and Foote which lets you like find a copy of L in between the S and K on the right
I feel it’s somewhere around where they prove the primitive element theorem or something
I think you needed algebraicity for this but you said you’re happy to assume that
I'll take a look for it, thanks!
What do you think of the book Groups, Rings and Fields? I feel like the proofs use the conclusion to be made
author?
If I take an embedding from a number field K into Q closure, and then compose it with an automorphism in Gal((Q closure)/Q ) would that still be an embedding from K into Q closure?
I think it is obvious, but I'm pretty new to Galois/field theory
every field homomorphism is an embedding so yes
yea it's correct... try to ask such stuff #point-set-topology next time 
D.A.R Wallace
Is it true that if $C\subseteq X\times Y$ then there are $A\subset X$ and $B\subset Y$ such that $C=A\times B?$
RaD0N
no
for example consider Z2xZ2
ie. (0, 0), (0, 1), (1, 0), (1, 1)
consider the subgroup {(0, 0), (1, 1)}
Yes but my question is about the set not in sense of group
Z2={0,1}
yes
Ohh I see.
Thanks
I had that question because of an exercise of topology about disjoint union and the definition of subdirect product
it's a group (H is, to be clear) so it contains the inverses of its elements
Here in 4th part a belongs to Integer so -a is also an integer. But in above case how did you conclude -a and -b are inverse of a and b ?
-a literally means the inverse of a
it's the notation being used in the first image for the inverse of an element of an arbitrary group
Ok.
What is the best method for defining/notating a group
I know a bit on how they are supposed to be written, but I don't think I fully understand it.
a group is a groupoid with a single object 
Hm?
When writing/defining/notating a group should I write
G = {contents}﹡
Or
Gₓ﹡
Maybe G = {contents}ₓ﹡
Or perhaps I should write out the table itself
wtf is ﹡
I was taught to use the ﹡ for the operation the group is under

If it is not specified
we just write "Let G be a group"
Usually you write (G, *) where G is the underlying set and * is the operation
if the group operation is not clear, then what moldi said
Alright
Ok so I have a question
Consider D_4, the set of all symmetries of a square
Now let Z_2 = {0,1}
why is it that the homomorphism g : D_4 -> Z_2 is g(x+y) = g(x) + g(y) for all x,y in D_4? It is because multiplication multiplication doesn't make {0,1} a group. right?
unless we consider the set {-1,1}, then g(xy) = g(x)g(y) because multiplication would be an operation on {-1,1} ?
why is it that the homomorphism g : D_4 -> Z_2 is g(x+y) = g(x) + g(y) for all x,y in D_4?
you shouldn't use + in both cases, to avoid confusion
let's say the operation in D_4 is idk "
- 🤢
then any homomorphism g from D_4 to Z_2 must satisfy g(x"y) = g(x) + g(y)
" 🤮
look, at least it's symmetric
did asterisks hurt you
i don't like having to backslash them to avoid italicism
basically yes
Z_2's operation is +
not *
if R is a ring, then "how many" non-isomorphic simple R-modules are there?
5
a sets worth or need proper classes?
They should all be quotients of R right?
I see
because they are cyclic
also |2^A| = |2^B| doesn't easily imply that |A| = |B| right
... i feel like it should
nope
rip
is there some intuitive way to understand that?
There may be cardinals between omega and 2^omega, whose power set is 2^omega too
ZFC+GCH proves it though
oh what
MA says that this is the case (so you usually assume MA with not GCH)
oh wait i was misreading it
'there may be cardinals between omega and 2^omega such that these cardinals have power set 2^omega'
that's what you meant, ok
yeah 
why are left and right actions equivalent?
Left action of G is the same as right action of G^op, where G^op is G but with opposite multiplication
xg := g^-1 x 
I guess that works too
Because it reverses multiplication order in the group
G^op is like
a (•^op) b = b • a
Try and see why defining xg := gx fails
That won't be a group action necessarily
yes the property of (gh)x=g(hx) will fail
cause of composiiton
but still,i don't see why this would turn a leftt action into a right aciton
lets say gx is my left action
then how is g^{-1}x a right action?
or do we actually mean, we DEFINE a new right action, in terms of the old lef taciton?
xg:=g^{-1}x, where g^{-1}x is a left action
so every left action gives rise to another right action?
my issue is that a left action can't be a right action at the same itme so i'm pretty confused with terminology
an action is either a left action or a right action,no?
can't be both
Yes
Yeah it's not both
It's a bijective correspondence
right,so every left action produces a right aciton and vice versa
this makes sense
Yes
here does the g have to be fixed?
or not necessarily
i.e. what I mean is, do we look at a family of maps,or the action itself? or can look at boht?
both*
GxX->X is not the same as gxX->X is what I mean
is there a correspondence both on the level of actions and on the level of |G| many induced maps?
It should be a correspondence between maps g x X → X that extends to left G actions and the other thing I guess
Oh right also all maps g x X → X and X x g → X ok
But then it's really just a bijection whereas in the other case it's something much nicer
It's actually an isomorphism of categories of left G actions and of right G actions
Maybe anti isomorphism
So it has a lot more structure in that sense
tf is an anti-isomorphism
is this ok? I wanted to clarify notation.
i hate writing dots withou being explicit
Yes looks fine
Isomorphism that reverses arrows
You can also talk about anti isomorphisms of groups
please do
An anti isomorphism G → H is an isomorphism G^op → H

This
You just reverse the multiplication to get another group
oh
So it does nothing to abelian groups
wait woah
ok so
basically it's an isomorphism from G to G^op?
if you have G -> H and G^op -> H
G → H you don't have an isomorphism
oh
An isomorphism G^op → H is called an anti isomorphism between G and H
ok
so
G and G^op aren't necessarily isomorphic
i really thought they would be ngl
Ye they're just very similar in an obvious way
And that similarity is what anti isomorphisms capture
can you give me an example where they're distinct
Of course G and G^op are antiisomorphic
can you give me a G where G^op is not isomorphic to G
let me think
aw is this gonna be some awful infinite bs group
Man it'd be embarassing if they're always isomorphic
They're not for monoids
Wait they are always isomorphic lol
yeah thought so lol
g ↦ g inverse
Monoids are very useful lol
But you can also talk about anti isomorphisms of rings
yes but they're so weaaak

??
oh
hang on
oh because it reverses multiplication but has no effect on addition?? or
Then left R-modules become right R^op-modules
Well you're defining a thing so you can just say that it doesn't affect addition
no but addition in rings is commutative
anyway
so it couldn't
ok wait no
i feel like even for rings it's an isomorphism
Yes but we're not using that fact
We are just saying take a new ring R^op with same addition but reversed mult
well i just meant that whether or not you were reversing both operations or just multiplication, it'd look the same
Ah yeah
but anyway is it not also an isomorphism for rings as well
@hidden haven actually doing the proof clarified exactly why it must be like that 
Nope I don't think so
the first axiom of right action gest violated if I don't use ^{-1} when (gh)^{-1}=h^{-1} g^{-1}
can you give me an example
Otherwise there won't be so much stuff surrounding it 😵💫 there's like a wikipedia page for it
I'll have to think lol
Yep
See "Opposite ring"
ok
There's also an opposite group page, but that says that G is naturally isomorphic to G^op while the ring page doesn't

what is that
Apparently there's even a division ring counterexample
Lol what's wrong with the examples
there has to be a simpler thing
what's the core of it
look you can't just spring something on me when it has things like 'relative norm map' and 'cyclotomic field' and 'primitive ninth root of unity'
You need a non commutative ring
The simplest examples I know are matrix rings, operator algebras, quaternions and free algebras 
what does the diagram mean?
i'm confused by it,since we never defined 'the canonical projection' for example
i don't see how orbist are naturally identified with cosets
i think cosets are like. the image of the subgroup under the group action
ie. a coset is like the slices of the orbits of the elements of the subgroup? so that's what springs to mind
canonical projection sends all the elements to their respective coset
if H is a subgroup of G then we can define a group action of G on H via the group operation
wait,to clarify notation here, the orbit (image) of o_x is Gx:={gx|g in G}?
upon doing so, orbits are precisely H-cosets
where do we have a subgroup here?
it's given "H<G"
Gx is a subgroup
we have a point x in X and its orbit o_x:=gx
is Gx:=gx|g in G?
i presume so
how can this be a subgroup of G? would no tmake any sense
since you're talking about orbits
why not
what's X
the fundamental set?
and hten we have a left action gx
or what's it
what's the name
yes
right
if gx is in X then gx is in G
like
we can just say informally
if an element is in X it's in G ok
how? this would contradict the definition of left action
why
it can't be an element of G
Let X be a set and G be a group. A left action is a map GxX->X, which satisfies: 1) g(hx)=(gh)x for all g,h in G x in X
2) ex=x for all x in X.
right
so let G now act on itself
the left action is GxG -> G
this is a common thing we like to do
I don't think that was assumed here
i think it is
otherwise there's just a whole bunch of random information
nothing tying it together
it even says Gx is a subset of X
so?
so Gx can' have elements in G
yes,but this should (somehow) be more general
what do you mean
I mean prof would have specified X=G if it only worked like that
i think it's implicit
i mean it all works, right
assuming X = G
then G acts very obviously on like G/H
Are you proving that an orbit looks like the set of coset of a subgroup?
That doesn't require action of the group on itself
Can be on any set
trying ot prove that there's a 1-1 correspondence between cosest and orbits yes
but my prof just sketched a diagram and i don't understand
he said the commutativity of the diagram is the proof itself
i'm mega confused
Ok so have you seen maps of G-sets/equivariant maps at all?
arrows 😨
no
this is a manifolds course
ok hmm
and prof said we review undergrad algebra and analysis firs tweeks
So is this just a bijection between the sets of cosets and the orbit
and he defined tensor product via universal property
I wrapped my head around it,but he's pretty cat-theoristy 😦
which is the explicit bijection?
say,I have a point x in X. fix it. then we have ist orbist
Gx, which is a subset of X
I don't think you can do better than the universal property for the tensor product, the construction is very bad
I mean if he is just proving bijection then this is fine, but this is actually more that's why I'm confirming
It's an isomorphism of left G actions
You know how to quotient a set by an equivalence relation right?
He is just doing that, the equivalence relation is "being in the same coset of G_x"
if they're in the same coset
Similar to group quotients
partitions are eq. relations, the cosets are a partition
G/G_x is shorthand for G/~ where ~ is the being in the same coset relation
G_x meaning?
the stabilizer?
Stabilizer of x
Yeah, that's a subgroup (not necessarily normal)
So this quotient won't be a group
wait so there's wrong notaion here
But it's a set
Gx up is not same as down
righT?
up it's the action of G on x,down it's the stabilizer
G_x and Gx oof
One is subscript and the other isn't
Gx is orbit, G_x is stabilizer
Bad notation
yes
So G → Gx is the map g ↦ gx
G → G/G_x is g ↦ [g]
The map in the middle is induced by the first isomorphism theorem for sets
You might have seen it under different/no names
this one?
That's the first isomorphism theorem for groups
But same idea as first isomorphism theorems elsewhere. If f: X → Y is a function, then it induces a surjection
f: X → im f
And an injection
f' : X/~ → Y
Both of these should be extremely obvious, as long as you can convert from symbols to like actual language
Combining these you get an induced bijection, f': X/~ → im f
In the first case we throw out things in the codomain that are not hit by f
In the second case we identify things in the domain that map to the same thing
correc,this all makes sense
Is the same as the relation you quotient by, in G/G_x
You'll have to prove that
That g and h map to the same thing iff they're in the same coset of stab
And that directly gives you the induced isomorphism between Gx and G/G_x by the above theorem
so in this case,he canonical projection would be the injection?
The canonical projection is g maps to equivalence class of g
the*
It's not injective unless G_x is trivial
The injection is the diagonal upward map
Quotient to image
Here things are made easier because image = codomain
But for now you can maybe just remove the left vertical arrow and think how the diagonal map is induced
The left vertical arrow and commutativity can come later
(though that's how you should eventually start thinking)
just to make sure:quotienting here means that I get a set of equivalence classes,correct?
Yes
I did a whole section on the first isomorphism theorem but didn't post the sticker once
I'm ashamed
what's the difference beween doing quotient wrt equiv relaiton and partitioning G into cosets?
They're the same, a partition is the same as an equivalence relation
Partitions give equivalence relations by "being in the same part"
Equivalence relation partition into a set of equiv classes
It's not though, G_x could very well be the whole set in which case gG_x = G for all g
When you have the trivial action, gx = x
Everything is a stabilizer
ahh
So the map G → Gx is surjective, and all they're saying is, if you identify things that map to the same thing, then it's a bijection
right,I see this par
The only thing to prove here is G/G_x identifies exactly the things that map to the same thing along the horizontal map
I don't see how is this related at all to stabilizers tho
So you have to prove that g and h are in the same coset iff gx = hx (images of g and h along the horizontal map are equal)
this I've done,but I don't see how is related here
this is part of Lagrange's theorem proof
when you partition G into coses
This is what links the 2
cosets
So G → Gx
induces injection
G/~ → Gx
and we are saying
G/~ = G/G_x
what we are saying is the consequence of first iso thm

