#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 623 of 407
Nice, good luck with your studies 
thank you and thanks for the help again
it's hard to get into serious maths as a hobbyist
lmao seems overkill to conclude that the totient function is multiplicative from the CRT
is it? CRT is super simple to prove and i know one proof of this that avoids that and it's kinda weird
yea CRT proof is a lot nicer... not just that, the groups of units functor is right adjoint to the functor which sends a group G to the group-ring Z[G], and so the fact that it preserves products or any limits is immediate.
fair it just feels weird i guess if this was done in isolation: like if someone randomly asked you about the totient function would you start teaching them about rings or give them a non CRT dependent proof
though ig you could prove it via the special case of the CRT in Z...
and so make no reference to rings
you should teach CRT anyways, its important
also for reference the non CRT proof i know considers a matrix like picture and then argues that in each column either every or no element is coprime to m and phi(n) element are coprime to n
okay ive just realized the only proof i had previously seen that the totient function was multiplicative also involved CRT 🤦♂️
so forget what i said lol
det
ew

i dont remember convolutions much but im pretty sure ive seen this proof actually
i feel like jacobson algebra used this proof but implicitly
when you are an analytical number theorist and you have to do an elementary NT class
how do polynomials behave over quaternions?
like when they have quaternion coefficients
<@&286206848099549185>
They are not constrained at all
i mean, for a start, quaternions are non-commutative, right?
so you can wave goodbye to the fundamental theorem of algebra
In an arbitrary group G we consider the commutator of two elements: [x, y] = x^(-1)y^(-1)xy, and i simply want to give an example of three elements, let's say a, b, c as a counterexample to prove that the commutator operation is not associative. I guess it's easy because if a = b and c is a third element, then [[a, b], c] = 1 but [a, [b, c]] is not 1. I just need a confirmation, if it's a good solution or not
that should work
Thanks
Yeetus
say f = sum of a_i * x^i
derivative is sum of i * a_i * x^(i-1)
which needs to be 0, so we have i * a_i = 0
what can you say when p doesn't divide i?
so Fp is a field right?
and p doesn't divide i means that i is not 0 inside F_p
does this say something about a_i?
i * a_i = 0 in F_p, but i isn't 0
any thoughts?
yep!
so if p doesn't divide i then, we know the coefficient a_i = 0
so recall that f = sum of a_i * x^i
only the multiples of p matter
f = sum_{j} a_{pj} x^{pj}
so you can take g(x) = sum_j a_{pj} x^j, this way f(x) = g(x^p)
it factorizes as 3(X^4 + 2X+2) in Z[x] as the primitive polynomial X^4 + 2X + 2 is irreducible by eisenstein, and by gauss it's is irreducible over Q as well
well in Q[x], 3 is a unit so usually you don't care about it
but in Z[x], that 3 is a different factor
so its correct to say that 3X^4 + 6X + 6 is irreducible over Q, but it's not irreducible over Z
3 is a unit in Q[x] right... 3 * 1/3 = 1
but in Z[x], 3 is another irreducible factor
is it not called unit elsewhere?
i see
oh okie
right
better to write it like 2 * 2 * (x^2+2) in Z[x]?
2 is irreducible in Z[x]
like if your problem was to factor it completely... that's how one would do it
yee
yea you can... but do those factors matter given that they are units?
you saying something like what if you factorize 6 as 2 * 3 and (-1) * (-1) * 2 * 3
that -1 does no real work here, same with that 4 in 4(x^4+2) if you're looking it in Q[x]
yea, that polynomial is irreducible in Q[x], so there isn't any way to factorize it non-trivially
these things just matter upto conventions, like people prefer monic irreducibles if they wanted to choose among all irreducibles which are same upto a factor of a unit
like in Z, you only think of positive primes as prime, -2 and -3 and other things are also irreducible, but we just pick on nice candidate which we like
yep
so 2 and -2 are both irreducibles, but people usually choose the postive one if they really have to pick one
okie
looks like it
if you go modulo 3, then it factors as (x^3 - x - 1)*x
so if this polynomial was reducible, then it would have a linear term and a cubic term
but the linear term would be something like x-3k, so just check if it has a root of the form 3k
okie it does actually
-3 is a root
so that gives you a factorization
(x+3)(x^3 - 3x^2 +2x - 1)
imma sleep now
If A, B and C are normal subgroups, then [AB, C] = [A, C] [B,C]. Can someone give me some hint regarding the solution of this? I tried to prove by two sided inclusion but I didn't get anything
wtf is this question even describing
It’s kinda like the thing describes
If you’ve seen this for topological spaces, it’s like gluing along a homeomorphic subspace
So like you’re taking the product and identifying the parts of each group which are the same, this is kind like if you take say… the top of a sphere and the bottom of a sphere
Then the “rim”s are isomorphic so we can glue the two halves of the sphere along that, you can take the disjoint union then identity the parts which are the same
This is sorta like that kind of thing except we’re taking the product and then quotienting out because that’s what’s more natural to do here
Part (a) shows that you can embed A and B into this central product since there’s an isomorphic copy of them
But whereas in a normal product A x B the copy of A and B are disjoint except at the identity (as the subgroups A x {e} and {e} x B), because we’re quotienting out by stuff they now meet non-trivially
And it’s “along Z1 and Z2” that we’ve glued them
No
It’s A[x,y]
A polynomial ring in two variables is (sometimes defined to be) a polynomial ring over a polynomial ring
It’s also impossible for them to be isomorphic (assuming A is commutative) anytime A has finite Krull dimension
Because adjoining a variable strictly increases Krull dimension
(I mean unless it’s infinite but… yeah)
Depends
Or…
Yeah it kinda depends, the easiest way is to consider it just in one variable
You can consider a polynomial f(x,y) as being written as
f_n(x)y^n + f_{n-1}(x)y^{n-1} + … + f_1(x)y + f_0(x)
Or you can swap x and y
Then you can say it’s “monic in y” or “monic in x” respectively
In general though you don’t really have a good notion of monic because you don’t have a unique monomial of highest total degree
See like x^2 + 3xy + 1/2y^2 or something
i see
im reading this example on wikipedia and it makes sense
im working with integral closures so this deifnition is appropriate (i think?)
Well it depends
But yeah if you’re looking at things and asking if it’s integral over R[x]
Then yes you take the definition of monic as outlined here
And what I outlined here
gotcha
could someone check my proofs
I would like proofs checks on two theorems
(1) Prove for any set A is isomorphic to itself
For there to be an isomorphism between sets X and Y we need functions
f: X -> Y and g: Y -> X
that satisfy the following compositions:
(g o f) = id_X
and
(f o g) = id_Y
we will check these compositions are satisfied.
let g=id_A: A -> A
we see that by substitution
(id_A o id_A) = id_A
let f=id_A: A -> A
and we see that by substitution
(id_A o id_A) = id_A
thus the compositions for a isomorphism between f:A->A are satisified and hence A is isomorphic to itself
(2) Prove for any sets A, B id A is isomorphic to B, then B is isomorphic to A
Proof:
Assume A is isomorphic to B then there are functions
f: A->B
g: B->A
Such that
(g o f) = id_A
(f o g) = id_B
B is isomorphic to A if we have the compositions:
(f o g) = id_B
(g o f) = id_A
But due to A being isomorphic to B, we already have such compositions satisfied
Therefore B is isomorphic to A
For the first one, You need to define f and g before the first " we see that by substitution" since you need some value of f to plug it in.
Secondly, You also need to show why id_A o id_A = id_A .
For the second, it would be more clear to rewrite the compositions with different letters (say h and k) and then state that if you pick h to be f and k to be g, you obtain your desired isomorphisms.
few questions @tribal pasture what do you mean by defining what f and g are and showing why (id_A o id_A) = id_A?
like for all a in A there exist a b in B such that f(a)=b and for all b in B there exist an a in A such that g(b)=a and for all a in A id(a) = a?
By the defining part, I mean write "let f=id_A: A -> A" and "let g=id_A: A -> A" before the substitution line. By the second question, I mean, write why do you think id_A o id_A = id_A is true
for h,k thing would you assume that
h: A -> B and k: B -> A
and are there any assumptions made whether they are distinct mappings from f and g?
For the h,k thing, I mean write "B is isomorphic to A if there exists h: B -> A and k:A -> B such that they satisfy the composition laws .... " And then find such an h,k.
i went back to write it before the substitution line and was a little confused isnt it already before that line?
what do you mean instead? and why would i do the h,k thing in the second proof but not in the lines below in this proof?
“we will check these compositions are satisfied.
let g=id_A: A -> A
we see that by substitution
(id_A o id_A) = id_A
let f=id_A: A -> A
and we see that by substitution
(id_A o id_A) = id_A”
I mean
"let g=id_A: A -> A
let f=id_A: A -> A
we see that by substitution
(id_A o id_A) = id_A
"
(Since your composition law consists of both f and g, you should specify what value for f and g (both) are you substituting)
so you’re combining both steps at once?
and how can i show why (id_A o id_A) = id_A? isn’t that by definition and compositions of the definitions?
No, so see your composition law is (f o g) = id_A.
So it requires both f and g. If you only state g = id_A and substitute that, the resulting equation is
(f o id_A) = id_A
ah, i see. it’s like a computer program. calling functions before they’re defined in lines of code
Yes, but you should show that. More precisely, write specifically what definitions are you appealing to and what laws are you appealing to arrive at this identity.
@tribal pasture
ok. i think i have enough to finish that one off tomorrow when i wake up
in regards to (2) im kind of confused by h,k business
let’s say i define
h: A -> B
k: B -> A
- are these h,k functions different than my f,g functions?
f: A -> B
g: B -> A
then my argument would be something like for B to be isomorphic to A we need to show the following compositions hold:
(equations 1)
(h o k) = id_B
(k o h) = id_A
and
let h=f and substitute f into equation 1 for h
f o k = id_B
k o f = id_A
similarly in equation 1 let k=g and substitute g into equation 1 for k
h o g = id_B
g o h = id_A
is that what you meant?

the advice you've been given about h and k is really bad, it overcomplicates an already overcomplicated proof
the original proof you have is valid, it's just incredibly long winded
show that A is isomorphic to A
the identity function id_A:A->A is its own inverse, hence an isomorphism.
show that if A is isomorphic to B, then B is isomorphic to A
if A is isomorphic to B then by definition we have a function f:A->B with inverse g:B->A, that is gof=id_A and fog=id_B. But by symmetry this means we have a function g:B->A with inverse f:A->B, that is fog=id_B and gof=id_A, hence B is isomorphic to A.
I think this symmetry argument is good if you are already familiar with the proof techniques, but for someone, who is starting out new with such proofs, I think it is more useful to be perfectly clear with the usual definitions and strategy. That's the usual strategy involves "We will find maps such that the compositions are identity." And in this case, finding those maps is basically f,g. However, I presume this is merely a stylistic difference, and whatever helps the OP. I felt to clarify because the advice was termed as "really bad".
I mean sure you can rephrase it in any way you choose, the point is that there is absolutely no need to overcomplicate things by introducing h and k like this, and there is no need to belabor what is already a really simple proof
Yeah, I agree. There are proofs that are simple and there are proofs that are useful in building one's familiarity in writing proofs. I do agree that your proof is simple, my intention was to make the person familiar in following through in writing a proof that works generally in problems like this.
Yes, the reason I asked you to define h,k separately is because sometimes h,k would be different from f,g (but luckily in this case h,k are equal to f,g).
Secondly, you can also combine the steps of substituting h = f, g = k, once you get comfortable with such substitutions.
That sounds very unnecessary. "We need to show that there is x such that P(x). Define x = something, and then P(x), so there does exist such an x" is a common proof phrasing and there is really nothing wrong with this even at a foundational level (even the lean prover uses phrasing like this). Introducing h,k is also not good from an understanding perspective because you're just increasing the amount of things to keep in mind
"Define y = something, check P(y), set x = y" is not really needed lol
I believe I was suggesting the same. "We need to show that there is h,k such that compositions are identities. Define h = f, k=g, then compositions are indeed identities and so there does exist such map".
(1) Prove for any set A is isomorphic to itself
For there to be an isomorphism between sets X and Y we need functions
f: X -> Y and g: Y -> X
that satisfy the following compositions:
(g o f) = id_X
and
(f o g) = id_Y
we will check these compositions are satisfied.
let g=id_A: A -> A
we see that by substitution
(id_A o id_A) = id_A
let f=id_A: A -> A
and we see that by substitution
(id_A o id_A) = id_A
thus the compositions for a isomorphism between f:A->A are satisified and hence A is isomorphic to itself
apart from moving the "let f = ..." line 2 lines up, I see nothing wrong with this
or are you talking about some other proof
That's what I stated as well, apart from stating that maybe the person should also clarify why they claim id_A o id_A = id_A
isn't that the definition of identity morphisms
I mean yes, but if this was a homework exercise, graders would deduct marks, I believe, if this was an introductory class. So just to be safe writing that out would have been better.
I am sorry for what your graders have done to you lol
But deducting marks for this is dumb
this absolutely does not need to be clarified
My bad then.
I have a question about the snapshot from this paper https://arxiv.org/abs/0805.3806 .
Namely, the associativity seems wrong to me. To me, it seems like that should be $\chi(a a') = \chi( a (\eta \circ \chi)(a'))$, no?
expectTheUnexpected
Like, if $r \cdot a = r \chi(a)$ is the right $A$-action on $R$, then $r \cdot ab = r \chi( (\eta \circ \chi)(a) b)$ by (ii), but $r \cdot a \cdot b = r \chi( a (\eta \circ \chi)(b))$ by (i).
expectTheUnexpected
Algebroid 
Btw, the solution to my problem is that I didn't read on 🙈 My naive action isn't the action that's being used, but it's rather defined as $r \cdot a = \chi( \eta(r) a)$, and then it indeed checks out
expectTheUnexpected
Hello, brace yourselves, this is a long one:
say we have a 1-dimensional representation $\rho$ of a group $G$. Denote $H=ker \rho$.
Let $\sigma_{i}^{j}$ be irreducible representations of $G$ for all integers $0\leq i \leq n-1$ and $0\leq j \leq l-1$.
In addition, $Res_H \sigma_{i}^{j} = Res_H \sigma_{0}^{j}$ for each $0\leq j \leq l-1$.
Moreover, $Ind_{H}^{G} (Res_H \sigma_{0}^{j}) = \sigma_{0}^{j} \oplus \dots \oplus \sigma_{n}^{j}$ for each $0\leq j \leq l-1$.
Prove that $Res_H \sigma_{0}^{j}$ for each $0\leq j \leq l-1$ are irreducible representations of $H$ and that they are the only ones.
Gromov
All I got so far is that $Ind_{H}^{G} (Res_H \sigma_{0}^{0} \oplus \dots \oplus Res_H \sigma_{l-1}^{0}) = \mathbb C [G]$ i.e. the regular representation of $G$ which means that $Res_H \sigma_{0}^{0} \oplus \dots \oplus Res_H \sigma_{l-1}^{0} = \mathbb C [H]$
Gromov
Forgot to mention that we're over the field of complex numbers
Something is off with the indices in your first post (i.e. when you write Ind Res sig^j _0). Also, do you mean to say that \sig^j_i form a set of representatives of isoclasses of simple reps?
And in the second post, you also have the indices switched, i.e. it should probably be $\operatorname{Res}H ( \bigoplus{j=0}^{l-1} \sigma^j_0 ) = \mathbb{C}H$,
expectTheUnexpected
Sorry, too many indices. Correct version for the first message:
say we have a 1-dimensional representation $\rho$ of a group $G$. Denote $H=ker \rho$.
Let $\sigma_{i}^{j}$ be irreducible representations of $G$ for all integers $0\leq i \leq n-1$ and $0\leq j \leq l-1$.
In addition, $Res_H \sigma_{i}^{j} = Res_H \sigma_{0}^{j}$ for each $0\leq j \leq l-1$.
Moreover, $Ind_{H}^{G} (Res_H \sigma_{0}^{j}) = \sigma_{0}^{j} \oplus \dots \oplus \sigma_{n}^{j}$ for each $0\leq j \leq l-1$.
Prove that $Res_H \sigma_{0}^{j}$ for each $0\leq j \leq l-1$ are irreducible representations of $H$ and that they are the only ones.
And that's the second:
All I got so far is that $Ind_{H}^{G} (Res_H \sigma_{0}^{0} \oplus \dots \oplus Res_H \sigma_{0}^{l-1}) = \mathbb C [G]$ i.e. the regular representation of $G$ which means that $Res_H \sigma_{0}^{0} \oplus \dots \oplus Res_H \sigma_{0}^{l-1} = \mathbb C [H]$
@tribal pasture i attempted to incorporate your h,k recommendation into my proof for (2), see if this is now valid:
assume A is isomorphic to B then there are functions
f: A->B
g: B->A
such that
(g o f) = id_A
(f o g) = id_B
B is isomorphic to A if we have the following functions and function compositions:
h: A->B
k: B->A
(h o k) = id_B
(k o h) = id_A
but due to A being isomorphic to B, we already have such compositions satisfied,
we can see this if we let
h=f
k=g
and we see that
(h o k) = id_B
(k o h) = id_A
Therefore B is isomorphic to A
This isn't quite enough. Judging by this, I am not sure you have proven that the inverse of an isomorphism is also an isomorphism (this is necessary).
You have showed bijectiveness, sure. But not necessarily that the inverse is also a homomorphism
@strong moth In case you haven't seen it yet, your argument is not enough to show B is isomorphic to A
ok i just saw due to your ping
im really confused because i had another argument and someone said it's correct and then someone else said it wasnt and to use h,k stuff so i wasn't sure what they meant
Moreover, we also know that the inverse of a bijective function is bijective, so much of your argument isn't really necessary.
What was your original argument?
i'll find it hold on
(2) is the original argument
So here is the issue. All of your arguments just check to see if their is a bijective map between them.
However, you still need those maps to be homomorphic
They're trying to do this in a general category setting
correct
so in the general category theory setting, is my argument correct, and if so, which version
I don't see a problem with the argument yeah
either one of them, both the original and h,k one?
Why are we ignoring the homomorphism part of an isomorphism?
In a category a morphism is just an arrow
Like you don't need to check anything
If it exists, it is a morphism
Didn't see the original, this one seems fine
Oh, well then this is a much easier isomorphism to deal with than for groups
this being the h,k one? i'll post in #category-theory next time.
sorry for the confusion
i incorrectly assumed that cat theory and abstract algebra would be the same proofs
This is a more general kind of isomorphism than for groups
In the category of groups the morphisms are exactly the homomorphisms
So even there, if some morphism exists then it's a homomorphism
Ah, so what is a category exactly?
isn't a category of a group a cat w/ one object and arrows are group homomorphism?
and if so whats the diff between a cat of a group and cat of monoid
It is a collection of objects and arrows between them, in a way that any 2 arrows with matching heads and tails may be composed, and the composition is associative and has an identity arrow at each object
So the category of groups is the category in which the objects are groups and the arrows (morphisms) are homomorphisms
Not a single group, the above description is of the category of all (small) groups
@hidden haven what is the reason i need to label h,k the way i did, as oppose to just say given the isomorphisms between A,B such compositions for the isomorphism between B, A already exist, and just write out those function compositions out expliclty and say done?
So I have a question. I need to describe the automorphism group of Z_2xZ_2 (by showing an isomorphism with a familiar group).
I know that the set of automorphisms is just permutations of (0,1),(1,0), and (1,1), but how do I show this concisely?
Right now, it feels like my only option is to check each one is homomorphic (which is a bit tedious)
Belongs in #proofs-and-logic
If you are phrasing it as "A ≈ B therefore there are f and g such that [...]. For B ≈ A we need f and g such that [...]" then it's wrong because you're using the same symbols again for something different
ahhh that makes sense
But if you phrase it as "A ≈ B therefore there are f and g such that [...]. But then g and f are such that [...] and this B ≈ A" then it's fine
Notice the reversed order of g and f in the second part just to emphasize that they exchange places when you do the check for B ≈ A
ok, i see i essentially had both proofs correct
because i understood the core ideas
i needed help with phrasing things correctly
No need to check them individually, just call a permutation sigma and check it in a general form
kind of rephrasing what you said phrasing it as "A ≈ B therefore there are f and g such that [...]. For B ≈ A we need f and g such that [...]" -- this is wrong because i am saying for B ≈ A then the composition of the functions need to match the order of the function evaluations in the compositions as written for A ≈ B, but thats wrong because f and g switch places in the evaluation order so instead of g and f being in this specific order (g o f) i need it to be in this order (f o g)
Another way to do this is to notice that Z2 x Z2 is exactly a 2 dimensional vector space over the field Z2 so the number of automorphisms is exactly the number of (ordered) bases, and it's easy to see that those are exactly ordered pairs of non zero vectors in this case.
So how might I do this?
Yeah kinda
maybe the word i am trying to use is there is a function composition 'template' for what an isomorphism is and im doing variable over-loading on the template
so i use new variables and say if they match the pattern of (h o k) = id_B and (k o h) = id_A then there is an iso between B,A oh wait, i already have that satisfied by the iso between A, B
where (hok) and (koh) is my 'template' that has to be satisfied
Call the permutation p. Then a ↦ p(a) is an automorphism: it's a bijection because that's what permutations are. It's a homomorphism because: handle the case for when one of the 2 summands is 0 separately (pretty easy) and for the other case notice that the sum of 2 distinct non zero things is always the third non zero thing. For the case where you have p(a+a), this is p(0) which is 0 which is p(a)+p(a)
This is still kinda brute force so way better to do the second thing using Z2 vector spaces
@hidden haven i feel like these proofs are literal computer programs
thats how i make sense of them interallym
i only know python, but this compels me to learn haskell lol
btw ill post cat questions in #category-theory and will post actual algebra questions here. anyways, ty all for the help, highly appreciated
Hi, guys. Why here it emphasise integral domain rather than unital ring?
it's false for general rings
for example in Z/4Z [X], (1+2x)² = 1 so 1+2x is invertible, but is not a constant polynomial
Weird question, but can we derive associativity of the symmetric difference Δ by noting that Δ: 𝒫(X)×𝒫(X) → 𝒫(X) has Ø as a neutral element, and every nonempty set is its own inverse?
In other words, can we rewrite a(bc)≈(ab)c using only ae≈a and aa≈e (where e is a constant)?
Hm, simpler question, can we even derive a(ab)≈b?
So the idea for integral domain is you cannot eliminate the nonconstant term by another nonzero polynomial, so you will always keep nonconstant term in product?
yeah if you look at the monomials of highest degree
over an integral domain, the degree of the product of two polynomials is the sum of the degrees of the polynomials
and since 1 has degree 0, well then your invertible polynomials must have degree 0
Thank you!
I remember this rule differently. "If it exists, there is ..." wait, nevermind
Do you know this? https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Curry–Howard_correspondence
reading
It's off topic, but it's the "proofs as programs" viewpoint.
it appears to be saying there is a bidrectional correspondence between proofs and programs, i.e., you can convert one into the other and they are really the same "thing"?
like there is a system of types or logic in programs and you can encode proofs into these type/logic systems?
Yeah a program (or a function) of a certain type corresponds to a proof of that type viewed as a statement
where can i learn type theory 101 at
i want to start w/ haskell
to learn its type systems
can you prove things using haskell?
look up Lean and waste your entire life on that (or become kenny lau and get incredibly good at lean and maths at the sam time)
Haskell can probably be learned from some random online tutorials
For CH correspondence you should probably look at a book or lecture notes
i found these lectures from hutton (associated with his book on haskell) https://www.youtube.com/c/GrahamHuttonNotts/playlists
Hi there! I'm a Professor of Computer Science at the University of Nottingham.
I enjoy making videos about functional programming - here you can find videos for my introductory and advanced Haskell courses, and also the videos that I've made for ComputerPhile.
Hope you enjoy watching :-)
Graham Hutton
i'll start with these
oh neat
Yeah but it is not super useful from what I know
i suspected that lol
so where is category theory actually used in a natural way in cs that makes sense
You can view certain operations as functors on the category of types in Haskell

when all you have is a hammer everything looks like a nail
recursive data structures are related to algebras on functors
structurally recursive buildup/teardown algorithms are also related to this
cartesian closed categories capture the essence of (pure) computation
lambda calculus is the internal language of a cartesian closed category
this connects to the church-turing thesis
then for effects you have various ways of encoding/representing them
the most popular one is monads and monad transformers (functors on the category of monads)
data aggregation is related to semigroups and monoids
then there's profunctor optics
using various kinds of profunctor to represent what is essentially a pure functional reference
so i have a feeling x=4
im stumbling through proving it
well thats an overstatement im not sure how to start
maybe just enough to say "its 4" and nothing else
Have u studied the first isomorphism theorem?
I think we saw it briefly
let me review
hmm im not really sure how id use that here
so $\phi : \frac{\bZ _{24}}{\langle 4 \rangle} \to \psi( \bZ _{24} )$ by $g \langle 4 \rangle \mapsto \psi(g)$ is an isomorphism?
jan Niku
Yup

And $\psi(\bZ_{24})$ sits inside $H$
Noob666
ok but even more simply
.
I'm not sure I follow what you mean
so you have to pick some x to ensure that its inside H?
If you've understood the theorem, it should be obvious
Otherwise I suggest reviewing
i guess i dont really understand the pieces of the theorem
i have a lot of reviewing lol
Can u say give a goodish classification of all homomorphisms $\bZ_n \to \bZ_m$
Noob666
Aren't u assuming that the homomorphism is surjective
oh
hmm i know what a homomorphism is im not sure what statements you could make that generally
$\bZ_n$ are rather nice groups, so you can say a lot actually
Noob666
are you saying about the mapping or n and m
Oh, like have u done cyclic groups?
yea
i mean if it's not surjective aren't there... multiple answers, at all?
Ya, there are
|| all multiples of 4 ||
i mean you can make statements about m and n but im not sure what you mean the mapping
yeah thought so
unless you mean generators
here's another way to think about it: G/ker(phi) = im(phi)
so what group actually is im(phi)
You can characterize the whole homomorphism by the image of a generator (say 1)
No, I'm saying that this helps characterize all homomorphisms between those two cyclic groups
and gives a way to solve ur problem without the isomorphism theorem
Why do people always call modules algebras tho :(
So where I'm from, the canonical example of a monad is given by tensoring with an algebra, in which case the "algebras" for the monad are exactly modules for the algebra.
Another point of view is that "algebras" over a monad M are actually right M-modules when considered as constant endofunctors (i.e. an object gives a constant endofunctor, and that functor is a left module over the algebra M in End(C))
But of course it doesn't matter, I along with many people I know seem to prefer the terminology "module" though.
Well, people say "the algebras for this monad are.." though
yea but I'm not talking about those?
algebras of a monad M are certainly F-algebras for F=M, but the kind of F-algebras you usually encounter when talking about recursive datatypes are not algebras of a monad
I see, didn't know those 
I someone says functor and algebra, my brain goes monadic, mb
consider the (1+) functor on some (cocartesian) category C
it certainly is a monad (factoring into an adjunction between C and 1 \downarrow C)
but the monad algebras here would be maps 1+X -> X, that fix the X part
i.e. an object with a chosen point
F-algebras on the other hand are any maps 1+X -> X
and we are interested in the category of all such F-algebras
because we want to claim existence of an initial object there and make use of its universal property
- = \sqcup?
So I am having a bit of trouble with this: Let G be a finite abelian group where over half of the elements are their own inverse. Show that all elements are their own inverse.
I can't seem to find anything notable that will force that. I could use some help figuring out how to approach this.
It’s probably pigeonhole
My suggestion is, for every element which is its own inverse g
Look at the set of all g + h
Do some weird shenanigans with the sizes of sets
Something might pop out
it really is just that
I'm not sure what weird shenanigans we are talking about here
suppose A is the set of elements that are their own inverses and g is in G\A
Where g,g’ are distinct
what can you say about g+A
Well, I can say that gA=Ag, but I'm not sure that's very helpful here
can g+A intersect A?
No
and how big is g+A?
can't you show that the set of elements who are their own inverses is a subgroup, then use lagrange ?
true
Local Algebra
Thank you for the help mniip!
are you saying find what some generator would have to get mapped to here then figure out where everything else would get mapped to then show you end up with Z_4?
maybe ill try to start further back and work there 
Figuring out image of just one generator suffices
But yes. Also x=any multiple of 4 works
any multiple
okay
Okay, final question. I need to show that Aut(Z_2xZ_2) is isomorphic to S_3.
The automorphism group is literally cycles of non-identity elements, so it is not hard to see why this is.
However, I am having a hard time figuring out how to do this concisely, instead of case by case (which is a bit much)
what do you mean by "The automorphism groups are literally cycles of non-identity elements"
For example, ((0,1),(1,0)) is an automorphism of Z_2xZ_2.
So (0,1) maps to (1,0) and (1,0) maps to (0,1). It really is just a cycle
A neat way to do it is to notice that its automorphisms as a group are the same as its automorphisms as an F2 vector space
Which are just given by invertible matrices
so you are saying that automorphisms permute the three non-identity elements ?
So we can construct a function so that ((0,1),(1,0)) maps to the cycle (12).
that gives you a map from Aut(Z2xZ2) into S3
you need to explain why it's surjective I suppose ?
No, that is a bit obvious. It is more about defining such a function. I'm having a hard time with it
:/
Which function?
Moreover, it is the automorphism group is all such possible permutations
The isomorphism between Z_2xZ_2 and S_3.
It really is basically just denoting (0,1) by 1, (1,0) by 2, and (1,1) by 3.
yes
hey im having trouble understanding symmetric groups and cosets. So I know how to do cosets, but there's a questions that has me stomped
,,D_4 in S_4
Zoro
what does this imply?
d4 is just a square with all the respective rotations and reflections as elements right?
and if im not mistaken those are permutations, so they are functions
but then S4 is a symmetric group with 4 objects
that's what my textbook says
but im not sure what that means? how do you do a coset of this?
so an idea i have is that since S4 is a group, then i can represent all its elements with the cayley table right?
where the binary operation is composition of functions?
you can interpret D_4 as a permutation group on the 4 corners of a square and as such you can view it as a subgroup of S_4
then you just do cosets like you do in any group
Oh, does it suffices to show for one transposition
It should I think?
Or maybe two transpositions
Does anyone know any rings formed on the unit complex numbers? Especially with complex multiplication as the additive operation? Basically, the circle group would be the additive group of this ring
Okay, so I am near the finish line with this question. Now how do I show that phi is homomorphic w/o going element by element?
So if $\alpha,\beta\in A$, I need to show that $\phi(\alpha\beta)=\phi(\alpha)\circ \phi(\beta)$.
dackid
i think the original problem was to show Aut(Z_2 x Z_2) = S_3
i dont directly see a way to neatly show phi is a homomorphism dackid but that might be cause im just tired (there's probably just a straight definitional way to do it)
I'd rather not. The ideas y'all were trying to do with linear algebra were a bit above my head.
if i may i would have approached this problem by considering how the automorphisms act on the generators of Z_2 x Z_2
I mean, I already have the automorphism group. Also, we haven't discussed generating sets yet.
Pretty sure that is all there is to it, but I am having a hard time figuring out what to say.
this is better
honestly id just say "phi is trivially a homomorphism" 
and easier
because you only have 4 elements to consider
yea
i wouldnt really bother
thats better
Well, 6 elements
i mean from Z_2 x Z_2 and as a matter of fact 3 since (0,0) is out of the game
Oh, I see what you mean. My bad
the homomorphism just follows from your identification
i mean you gave a labelling to each element of Z_2 X Z_2 and each automorphism just permutes these
so it's a permutation of 3 elements and hence S_3
That isn't the question. But to answer it, order
cant exhibit an element of order 6
yea
i mean a clean way to go about it is to know all isomorphism types of groups of order 6 and then just argue by the properties you have from your automorphism group
but clearly not the intended direction
Why sully this 
because this is probably not what's expected of dackid
in the general case i agree it's better
hello moldi
gets you the automorphism group of every elementary abelian group
bruh im tired today
did you try that problem from above? it was asking if you could define a multiplication on the additive group R/Z such that it forms a ring.
What's an elementary abelian group 😵💫
(Z_p) ^ n
No
Oh ok though there's it's slightly harder to count all bases
can always be viewed as an n dimensional vector space over F_p
Ye
and then automorphism group is just GL_n(F_p)
Ok maybe it's not hard actually should be fine
Dackid are you not allowed to use linear algebra?
what's wrong with regular multiplication and taking fractional parts?
cuz Z is not an ideal, so doesn't work
right nvm was just not finding a counterexample
I would like to know how to use LA here for future knowledge. But I guarantee I would not have come up with it, so I do not wish to use it in my assignment.
The number of automorphisms of a vector space are exactly the number of bases that the space has (but all the bases have to be ordered by the same indexing set I, or in the case of finite dimensional spaces you can just say you count bases as ordered tuples, so (e,f) ≠ (f,e)). This is because given a basis, you get an automorphism by mapping some fixed basis to that, and conversely an automorphism must map a basis to a basis
Can you remind me what a basis is?
Linearly independent spanning set
Moreover, how do we know that first claim?
First claim?
"The number of automorphisms of a vector space are exactly the number of bases that the space has"
Oh I explain it later in the message lol
But if you aren't familiar with bases yet then I'm guessing you've also not seen vector spaces over arbitrary fields? Like Z2 x Z2 is a vector space over Z2 
No, definitely not.
To put it in perspective, we have only talked about groups. We have not discussed rings/fields yet.
I see, alright
We'll get there, but we have a minute
the integers with usual addition and product are a ring right?
can you have an algebraic structure similar to a vector space
where the scalars are a ring and not a field?
im asking because im trying to think what would be a basis for the "vector space" of positive rational numbers with positive integer scalars
like, can you get any positive rational number by scaling some rational number in [0, 1] by some positive integer?
Yes, look up modules. They are exactly vector spaces over rings (invertibility is not mentioned anywhere in the vector space axioms)
But not all modules have bases, only the free modules do (all vector spaces are free modules hence they all have bases). Q is not a free Z module, so it doesn't have a basis. You can still talk about minimal generating sets though
It's not a free Z module because ||any 2 elements of Q are linearly dependent over Z: if you have a/b and c/d then they are dependent because bc(a/b) - da(c/d) = 0||
nice
i like it when amorphous thoughts in my head actually turn out to be real things
but [0,1] is not a basis becuase bases have to be finite right?
that's the only difference between bases and minimal generating sets?
No bases can be infinite, we then call the vector space infinite dimensional
because [0,1] in Q is enumerable
[0,1] a basis for what?
Oh intersected with Q
It's not a basis because it's not a linearly independent set
how do you even talk about linear independence when it's positive scalars?
are we looking at modules over half-rings?
im asking because im trying to think what would be a basis for the "vector space" of positive rational numbers with positive integer scalars
like, can you get any positive rational number by scaling some rational number in [0, 1] by some positive integer?
what im struggling to understand is S4. D4 has 8 elements, and I think S4 must have 64 elements right? Because after all S4 is a group which by definition is the binary operation (composite function) applied on a set D4
but since its S4 it must be 4 objects not 64
and the problem doesnt specify the elements so i dont know what to use for my cosets
S4 has 4! elements
and it's the set of bijections between a set of cardinality 4 and itself
oh i thought it was 64 because i thought you do a cayley table on D4 elements
what does that mean exactly?
you know what a bijection is right?
yes
you can just think of S4 as the set of bijective functions f: {1, 2, 3, 4} -> {1, 2, 3, 4}, with the group operation being composition
ah so s4 is a number then, it has nothing to do with all the reflections and rotations of d4?
sorry i meant
no, S4 is a group
s4 has number elements
the elements of S4 are functions
and the elements of D4 can also be interpreted as functions
just to make sure im on the right track, let's say if im doing the left coset, would this be correct? (1234)[u1]; where (1234) is an element of S4 and u1 is an element of D4 and it's a reflection
??
though im using abcd for my vertices, should i use (abcd) instead of (1234)
bit weird to take the left coset of a set with only one element
it's not one element, it's just an example
oh
just a sample of the many that are to come
usually the set you're taking cosets of is capitalised
so it would be like
gH
or (1234)H
ok
anyway yeah so it doesn't really matter whether you use abcd or 1234 although numbers are more standard
but i don't see how that's a reflection
so u1 is the reflection where A goes to B and D goes to C;...... where A is bottom left point of square, B bottom right of square, D upper left of square and C upper right, so it's a reflection where the line splits a square in half
right, i thought you meant (1234) was a reflection
but yeah it doesn't really matter what u1 is
i mean yeah there was an element and a set and you took a left coset
i just thought maybe in order to compute the gH, they all needed to be abcd so i was making sure
gotcha
Perhaps this is meaningless, but if S_n is the set of bijective functions from a set of n elements into itself, is of order n!, then is the group of bijective functions from R to R of order |R|!
Which I assume is roughly R^R?
the actual set is called R^R
|R|! is meaningless
can't take factorials of infinities
what does R^R even mean?
the set of all functions from R to R?
yeah
set
ok so
how did it go
right so
any specific list of three numbers in R^3
can be thought of a function from {1, 2, 3} to R
wait
If there is a homomorphism from group A to group B, is that equivalent to A being isomorphic to a subgroup of B?
is this why the exponential object is notated like that?
yes
wow
cool, right?
yeah
no, for example consider the homomorphism from G to the trivial group
So for any given two groups, there is always a homomorphism from one to the other
@viscid pewter Wait, can you go over your {1,2,3}->R example?
yeah it's a little hard to describe
basically
thanks
np
im confused by the solution to (i)
it only shows that the roots of f,g are integral over A in the splitting field F
so how does it conclude that those roots are in the integral closure of A in B?
when B is strictly contained in F
<@&286206848099549185>
coefficients of f,g are integral over C and they are contained in B, but since the integral closure of C in B is C, you're done
would a permutation (1) just be 1 mapped to 1?
permutation (1) is used to mean the identity permutation i think?
and if it's in a subgroup that has elements {(1), (123), (132)}, would it also imply that 2 maps to 2 and 3 to 3?
oh yeah that is right
isn;t that usually represented by id?
sure
meh, id, (), e, various things
meh is my favorite
im gonna start writing meh from now on and be forced to explain to my prof where i invented this new object
what are some resources that are good for understanding the krull topology on galois extensions?
like if someone knows a book with a good section on it, just for reference
Actuate example of a homomorphism into the trivial group:
https://youtu.be/AuEY5JYbWlI
Don’t know whether it helps, Jacobson gave some discussion about it on charter 8 volume 2 of basic algebra
thanks, I have that
How can i show a subset of $\mathbb{Z}[i]$ , such that $I={a+ib /}$ where a and b are multiple of 3 is a maximal ideal,
I have proved that this an ideal, next is how to show this is maximal ideal ( without using homo, or isomorphism)
I consider some J such that
$I \subset J \subset Z[i]$ ,now by contradiction i want to show that this is wrong , please help
Algebra
Compile Error! Click the
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are you allowed to assume that every ideal in Z[i] is generated by a single element? That would make it very easy, as I = (3) and say J = (a). since I is contained in J, we get 3 in (a) implying that there is b such that 3 = a * b. If you know 3 is irreducible, then what does this tell you about a? else just take norms and see what the norm of a can be.
Would showing Z[i]/I is not a field work?
Because it seems like (3+I)(u+I)=1+I would give 3u-1 divisible by 3, which seems contradictory?
Maybe I'm misunderstanding the q tho
well, i see them writing "without using homo, or isomorphism"
Oh the stuff I'm talking about relies on that right?
kind of?
like the way i like to think about m is maximal iff R/m is a field is via correspondence theorem. ideals of R/m correspond to ideal of R containing m. If m was maximal then it says R/m has only 2 ideals. so is a field.
I see what you mean.
and if i were proving that it's a field, then i would have probably used that Z[i] is isomorphic to Z[x]/(x^2+1), then quotienting by (3) would be isomorphic to Z[x]/(x^2+1, 3) which is isomorphic to F3[x]/(x^2+1). But x^2+1 has no roots over F3, making it irreducible and F3[x]/(x^2+1) a field.
That makes sense. I would never have even thought to prove it along those lines.
what would you have done?
No idea, wing it and try and figure something out lol.
oh lol
I'm not particularly experienced with algebra since I am learning about this stuff in one of my classes rn.
This is some interesting fact
Hi guys! How can I prove that [a, c1][b, c2] = [a1b1, c3], for some normal subgroups A, B, C?
where [a, b] = a^(-1)b^(-1)ab is the commutator
and a, a1 is in A, b, b1 in B and c1, c1, c3 in C
so you're asking whether [A, C][B, C] is a subset of [AB, C]
are the abelian groups here isomorphic to eachother?
no I think none of these are isomorphic
why not?
which of these groups have an element of order 4, and which have an element of order 9?
Z60xZ3 has a element of order 4, namely (15, 0) ?
how can you see that?
if g in G has order n, and h in H has order m, then (g, h) in GxH will have order lcm(n, m)
(notably not n*m)
yes
i proved that [AB, C] is a subset of [A, C][B, C] but I don't know how to prove the other inclusion
yeah maybe the way I wrote it is a little misleading
when taking [A, C] you want the two instances of a to be the same
Well, we know something: for all a,b,c [ab, c] = b^(-1)[a, c]b[b, c], but this is not enough for the inclusion we want to prove
I used this to prove the first inclusion
I don't quite see how this is used in the above example
hmm that doesn't prove anything
if a divides x and b divides y, then lcm(a, b) divides lcm(x, y)
mhm
elements of Z30 have orders that divide 30
elements of Z6 have orders that divide 6
therefore elements of Z30xZ6 will have orders that divide lcm(30, 6) = 30
oh and 4 doesn't divide that
there exists no such a in Z30 and b in Z6, such that lcm(a,b)=4, since 4 doesn't go up in lcm(30,6)?
Is it euclidean @rustic crown
think so
If so then it would be a PID, and the answer would be yes
@bronze jay you know CRT right?
what?
chinese remainder theorem
uh not really
it's the statement that Zn x Zm = Znm, when n and m are coprime
I have no idea
but what about CRT?
well, it comes with a bit of intuition for why it fails when n and m are not coprime
it's very easy to see the difference between Zp x Zp and Zp^2
Zp x Zp doesn't have an element of order p^2
so like, it's kinda obvious what orders a group like this does and doesn't have
yeah
Another question, elementary divisor decomposition and invariant factor decomposition are two ways of uniquely determining what a finite abelian group is up to isomorphism?
I'll leave that to someone else
Well every finite Abelian group is isomorphic to a direct sum of finite cyclic groups of prime power order
This is one of the most famous characterization theorem in group theory
Or isn't it your question? 😄
false
consider Z4
Z2xZ2
no
Z4 has an element of order 4
Z2xZ2 has none such
every finite Abelian group is isomorphic to a direct sum of finite cyclic groups of prime-power order
woops
get dunked on
:P
So any ideas regarding my problem?
..
we just talked about how they're different 
Yeah, I didn't follow that 
but is this not correct?
do we also have that G is isomorphic to Z2xZ9xZ5?
depression
I don't get why we can just factor 6 and 15 here?
what theorem are we referring to
is there a theorem that states the left cosets of H in G must be equal to the right cosets of H in G? Specifically for permutation groups. I've seen examples where this is not true, but is there a fast way to determine if the right and left cosets are equal instead of having to do all the right ones again
normality
im not sure if we've done such concept in class
surely you have covered normal subgroups?
nope, hasn't been in the syllabi so far
it's the next chapter after cosets and lagrange's theorem
really dont feel like doing 8 more right cosets right now lol
well, one way to easily deduce gH = Hg is g commuting with every element in H, in particular if your group G is abelian you get gH = Hg for all g and subgroups H
in general proving normality is hard
i see
is that true if I take A, B, C, D normal subgroups in G such that, A < B and C < D, then AC < BD?
Oh... I wasn't really asking a question.. the question above asked to not use isomorphisms, so was wondering if we're allowed to use Z[i] is a PID.
AB < BD?
"<" just means subgroup?
yes
is AC the subgroup generated by A and C or is it {ac ; a in A and c in C} ?
they're normal so
ah yeah then it's the same
thanks
I want to prove that if A, B are nilpotent normal subgroups than AB is also nilpotent, and I'm guessing that I need that inequality here, but not sure
not sure how your lemma is going to help there
well actually it doesn't 
The simple group PSL(3,4) gives rise to ten almost simple groups, including PSL(3,4) itself, PGL(3,4), PΣL(3,4), and PΓL(3,4). Do any of the others have names like these?
Hey guys, I followed the hint given the question but I don't understand why showing that both functions are equal we're answering the problem
manoid lol
To show it's a monoid, you need to show there is an associative operation and an identity element for that operation. What you have done is shown that the usual composition operation restricted to the set of such mappings is closed. That if you take two things in the set, and compose them, you get another thing in the set. You just now need to verify if identity function is also here.
also that it’s associative
right
what about ahah
you have a typo
where??
“… set of all such mappings is a manoid under the circle …”
the actual word is "monoid" with an "o" and not "manoid" with an "a"
I am trying to understand how is this the set
oh
lol
wtf
sorry
,rotate

,rotate 45
thanks!
,rotate 315
nice xd
Woah
quite handy
right 
yea lol
a function f : R --> R is in that set if you can show there are a, b such that f(x) = a + bx = f_{a, b}(x)
Yeah, I was thinking how I could define the set
So that I could take the elements to prove closure, associativity and that there exists e in the set which is the identity element
S = {f_{a, b} | a, b in R}
uh, so taking s in S we have some a,b in R such that f_{a,b} = s. So s = a + bx?
like think of it as abstracting stuff out
functions are big objects
but now you zoom so far out, that these functions look like elements to you
elements of S are functions from R --> R which look like that
so s = f_{a, b} which means s(x) = a+bx
oh for associativity I need to show that $f_{a,b} \circ (f_{c,d} \circ f_{e,f}) = (f_{a,b} \circ f_{c,d}) \circ f_{e,f}$ ?
mns
and for the identity element I need $f_{e_1,e_2}$ such that $f_{e_1,e_2} \circ f_{a,b} = f_{a,b} = f_{a,b} \circ f_{e_1,e_2}$
mns
would it be correct or incorrect to think of a ring as being an commutative group under addition and a monoid under multiplication along with the left/right distributivity property?
A ring is a field without units where 1 may be equal to 0
Projective space

Damn! Cosets are powerful
its says that projective space is the space invariant under all general linear homogeneous transformations
Whats the difference beetween a linear homogeneous transformation and just a general linear transformation?
I assume its just a homomorphism from one vectorspace to another vectorspace
So I am a bit stumped on something. I need to show that the order of U(n) is even when n>2.
We will end up using the fact that the order of an element divides the order of the group
Nevermind. n-1 is always relatively prime to n. And (n-1)^2=n^2-2n+1 which is congruent to 1 mod n
There is our answer
I could use some help on 25. I am not even sure where to begin
No, but worth exploring. Z_5={0,1,2,3,4}
The sum of all of those is 10, which is congeuent to 0mod5
One thing I do know for certain is that all elements have odd order.
But I am not sure how that helps tbh
notice that you can write the sum as 0 + (1+4) + (2+3)
can you do such stuff everytime?
so as a light hint: ||if G has an odd number of elements, it has an even number of non-identity elements||
Yea, I already caught that thembossing
ok so we're taking g_1 g_2 ... g_2n of the non-identity elements in G
So you are just pairing an element with its inverse
Of course, this is assuming that an element is not its own inverse
maybe there's a silly way you can do this using the fundamental theorem of finite abelian groups
and what are the elements which are their own inverses?
Ooo, but if that were the case, you'd have to have an even number of such elements
Otherwise you couldnt pair every other element with its inverse (pigeonhole principle)
um... almost... it's necessary that we need even to be able to do this... but is it sufficient? what if there were elements which couldn't be paired
Well, if they couldnt be paired, it would be its own inverse
right... but what are those elements? is identity the only one?
Not always.
||recall that the order of an element divides the order of the group||
U(n) is a fine example. n-1 is its own inverse when n>2
Oh good point. So this actually cant happen
Every non identity element has to have a distinct inverse since the order of all elements are odd


Lagrange's theorem coming in clutch
Okay, one last thing. I need to determine all finite subgroups of C^*.
I know a class of subgroups is cos(theta)+isin(theta) where theta is period multiples of 2pi/n (n positive integer).
But how do I show this is the only possible subgroups (if it is)
this is actually true not just for C but other "fields" as well, that pretty much means a structure where you can add, multiply, subtract and divide all nicely.
so let's try to first write down precisely what we want to prove
So the examples of subgroups you gave are of the form <zeta_n> where zeta_n = cos(2 i pi/n) + i sin(2 i pi/n)
Yes
so if i just gave you the subgroup... can you give some description of that zeta_n?
try to draw the elements of this group on the complex plane, and think of if you just knew all the points in that subgroup... how would you describe the point given by zeta_n
Well, the subgroups are points on the unit disk centered at 0 each having an argument of 2pi/n between each other
I took complex analysis. I know this all too well :p
hehe nice 
so looking at the picture... how would you distinguish that one zeta_n with all other points?
By the argument of 2pi/n? Not sure what you mean here
so what i'm getting at is... given an n, you have this picture which gives you a finite subgroup of C*. we want a way to reverse this procedure, if I give you some finite subgroup of C*, how would we determine n? or if it has a generator or not?
Umm, I am not entirely sure tbh
we wanna show that the subgroup is generated by a single element, right... how should we go and find that element?
the subgroup apriori could look very wacky... we need a simple criterion that will pin down that generator
so why can't something like this happen. Consider the finite group Z_2 x Z_2? it's not generated by a single element, you need at least 2.
Well, in that situation, all non identity elements have the same order
right, but why can't that appear as a subgroup of C*?
Well, for starters, -1 is the only element of order 2 in C^*
But, how does that restrict our possibilities? -1 is not gonna be in every <zeta_n>
okie, say i gave you this subgroup... can you point out one generator?
Sure. It's the point just anti clockwise of 1
exactly!
this is one description of that generator that doesn't depend on our knowledge whether all subgroups look like <zeta_n> or not
phrased differently, what we can do is look at the non-identity element of the finite subgroup which makes the smallest angle with the positive real axis
so does this element generate that subgroup?
Absolutely
also this is where we use the finiteness hypothesis... if the group was infinite taking minimum would be hard, like there is no minimum of all the positive rationals
Yea, I am with you
so let's give some names, H is a finite subgroup of C*, and let g be the element which has the smallest angle with positive real axis
if h was another element, then we're claiming that h = g^r for some r
Yes, that is the claim
if this wasn't the case then we can find an r such that, h * g^(-r) would have a smaller angle than g!
Why is this exactly?
um, say g makes an angle of alpha and h makes an angle beta. So we can take r = floor(beta/alpha) this way 0 <= beta - r * alpha < alpha
I follow everything except the <alpha bit
oh so find the integer r such that r <= beta/alpha < r+1
multiplying by alpha gives r * alpha <= beta < r * alpha + alpha
and now subtracting r * alpha gives that inequality
Ah, I see now.
I hate to cut it short my friend, but I got to head off to class. To be continued?
okie!
this was one proof, there are plenty others...
i maybe chose this one because it doesn't use any group theory lol
you can make use of Lagrange's theorem and what not to give much shorter proofs
Well, I am taking abstract algebra. Maybe using group theory isnt the worst thing in the world :p
Especially this!
okie i'll just say the idea, you can fill in the details... not sure how much longer i'll stay up.
take the finite subgroup H, and say it has size n. the all the elements of the subgroup H satisfy x^n = 1... but the equation in C has exactly n roots, namely the n-th roots of unity!
Ohhh. Because all elements have order that divides n. So x^n=1 for all elements
yep 
That's beautiful!
elements of H are distinct roots of x^n -1, but there are only n roots of that polynomial, so H better be the set of roots of x^n-1
I see. Wow, lagrange's theorem is coming in full force
It's such a simple result, but it is incredibly useful

For this question I’m asked to find nilpotent element greater than 2 of Z_n where n=p^a, p prime. I’m not sure how to find it generally
I’ve tried playing around but can’t seem to find anything. Any help is appreciated
Lagrange’s theorem is the fundamental driving force of a lot of finite group theory
Ultimately it all relies on equivalence relations
right
to remind, the reason is that in Q[X], 3 is a unit, so factoring it out is same as doing nothing
or equivalently, you can just say 3X^4 + 6X+6 is irreducible in Q[X]
Any suggestions for my question above
what exactly do you wanna do there?
isn't anything in pZ_n nilpotent?
what do you mean by "greater than"... don't see a way to order elements of Z_n
Sorry maybe I worded my question poorly. I’m trying to find a nilpotent element in Zn where n=p^a for p prime and a>/ 2. Is everything nilpotent?
If it is I don’t follow
no, not everything
but everything in the ideal generated by p, i.e. (p) = pZ_n is
because (p*k)^a = p^a * k^a = 0 * k^a = 0
stuff outside that ideal are units! so they can't be nilpotent
(as our ring is not 0)
Oh that is way simpler than I thought. Thanks, I feel like I should have seen that right away
i don't know what you meant by greater than 2 tho... for n=4, the nilpotents are {0, 2} so what do we do?
The question just defines n=p^a but isn’t that fine. 2^2=0 so isn’t that what we want
so i was referring to the part where you said "nilpotent greater than 2"
Oh I see, I made a typo there, my bad
oh okie
what does <(1234)> mean? How can you generate a group where the generator is a permutation group?
like you usually do
what does <2> mean for example in the group Z_8
additive
you just keep repeating the operation
till yoou get back
thats the definition
right?
@deep nova
<(1234)> = {(1234)^n | n in Z}
where exponentiation here is in context of the operation of the group
so if i were to be in an additive group for example Z/8Z
2^2 = 2+2 = 4 mod 8 =4
not 2^3 = 8 mod 8 = 1
etc
2^3 = 2+2+2 =6
not 8
so (1234)^2 for example would be
composition ( as in the context of S_4 group )
(1234)(1234)
np
is the order of an element x in Z/nZ LCM(x,n)/x?
Q[x]/x^3-7 is a field?
ye
thx
i realize now that this is more like number theory D :
still fits here
do you mean order in the additive group?
because multiplicatively it is not a group
additive, yeah
Deriving as in?
Why do numbers only work when the dimensions are powers of 2? like real numbers are 1D numbers, complex numbers and 2D numbers, quaternions are 4D, octonions are 8D, sedenions are 16D
why is that?
why can't we just have something like T = a + bi + cj
or just any other other than powers of 2
Um
