#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 625 of 407
Do you see why this does the job?
sadly no. G~ means I partition G into cosets, right?
how are cosets at all related to G_x?
Cosets of what? 
~ doesn't necessarily mean identifying cosets btw, it could be an arbitrary equiv relation
Here it happens to identify cosets, the cosets of G_x
if it identifies that,hten the LHS is a partition of G into cosets
Of G
so would G look like g G_{x}?
I don't get it
G looks nothing like that
Maybe try working with an explicit example?
i'm super confused of what this equaliy is supposed to mean
It means that ~ defines the same partition as the cosets of G_x
So they give the same quotient
how is ~ defined?
ahh
well this is exactly he condition to partition in cosets
but now, why of G_x?
used in Lagrange's theorem oto
Partition into cosets condition is
g ~ h iff gG_x = hG_x
because for that G_x would need to be a subgroup of G
G_x is a subgroup of G
why is g G_x=h G_x the same as gx=hx?
That's what you have to prove 
That is the only non trivial part in the problem, the rest is just deciphering language
We went from surjective map
G → Gx
To a bijective map
G/~ → Gx
And we wanted a bijective map
G/G_x → Gx
And we said G/~ and G/G_x are the same set
Which is true iff (gx = hx iff gG_x = hG_x)
This is the entire argument
I have to go to sleep now, but I'd suggest that you just look at this outline and maybe work with explicit examples until this is utterly obvious, and then try to prove the last iff
why are elementary algebra and abstract algebra both considered algebra when they are very distinct? I am aware of the relationships but I don't get how they can be under the same roof
From my understanding (ie someone who hasn't formally studied abstract algebra, bar linear algebra) it's cause they're both algebra.. algebra is just the branch of math for dealing with manipulating symbols and includes number theory, geometry, etc.
algebra is the branch of mathematics which deals with structures whose elements can be added, multiplied, or otherwise combined to yield new elements. an algebraic structure also often has distinguished constants like 1 or 0 which have special roles with regards to addition, multiplication and the other objects. Both elementary algebra and abstract algebra study polynomials, for example, which can be added, multiplied and have distinguished elements 0 and 1. The difference is that abstract algebra applies to a more general class of structures.
oh alright
linear algebra is part of algebra because it deals with systems of linear equations, which can also be added together, scaled by constants, etc.
it also deals with matrices, which can be multiplied, added... there is an identity matrix and so on
true
geometry is not part of algebra
ok so abstract algebra is just an abstraction of elementary algebra
ok yeah that seemed odd to me
concepts like "continuity", "differentiability" don't belong to algebra really
the notion of limit is also not really an algebraic concept
they're all more of calculus concepts
Number theory is arguably a branch of algebra.
Yes.
I would say that the integers, as equipped with 0, 1, + , x, and these operations form an algebraic structure.
because they're a group right
Yes. The integers are a group under the binary operation of addition. the 0 is the additive identity.
This is an Abelian (commutative) group.
I've been learning about abstract algebra for the past few days and im learning all about groups, is group theory a subset of abstract algebra?
Yes, definitely. It's one of the main parts of the subject taught in a first class in algebra.
oh okay cool, now im starting to learn about rings and fields
lol
They are named after Abel. I don't remember what exactly he used them for. Abel contributed a lot to group theory and field theory, but I'm not sure why commutative groups in particular would be named after him.
The name "Abelian" is so well established in the mathematical community that it would be going against the grain and idiosyncratic to speak of "commutative groups" in most contexts.
Haha. It will be annoying.
time to piss everyone off then ;)
btw once I learn some more algebra, would I be well-equipped to begin algebraic topology?
I tried studying it but after watching two lectures I am bored out of my mind
ugh
you'll learn point set topology in analysis
so you know basic topology
I do?
what's an open set
lul
oh wait is it just a shape in space that doesn't contain the boundaries
oh ok
alright I looked up the pdf and there's some that I know but a lot that I don't
this should help me
tyvm
suppose G is not abelian
is the free group generated by all finitely generated subgroups of G G?
Of course not for example let G=S_3 then the group you are asking about isn’t even finite
study analysis, it's more interesting
alright thank you
I ended up trying this but ended up proving something stronger than the original statement, which makes me think I did something wrong in my proof:
Let $n\in\mathbb{Z}$, and $\phi_n ~ : G\to G$ be defined by $g\mapsto g^n$. Prove that if $G$ is abelian then $\phi_n$ is a homomorphism of groups.
Thomas
I noticed that since $\operatorname{Im}(\phi) \leq \mid G \mid$ that it suffices to show that $\operatorname{Im}(\phi)$ is a subgroup as that implies it's a homomorphism with that alone.
Thomas
I did assume that the operators are the same for each group. Lemme know if this is a bad assumption.
So now we use the one step subgroup test and of course trivially $\phi_n(1) = 1$
Thomas
So now we hope to show ab^-1 is in the set for every a and b in the new group
So we show that $\phi_n(x) = a$ and $\phi_n(y)=b$ just by having a preimage.
Thus $x^n = a$ and $y^n=b$ by definition of phi.
Now we try $\phi_n(xy^{-1})$. Of course this maps to $x^n y^{-n}$ and that's equal to $ab^{-1}$ by simplification.
So it is in the group.
Thomas
so i have a T/F question: if n = a + b + c does there always exist a permutation in Sn where the order of that permutation is abc? and i think it's false because it's only order abc if the gcd of abc is 1 bc of product of disjoint cycles but i'm having a hard time finding a counter example bc if i find one permutation that i can write as abc that then turns into abc/gcd(a,b,c) does it prove that i can't find one with order abc?
This isn't true... also use the word "homomorphism"... "homeomorphisms" are a completely different thing
Thanks, and lemme check my reasoning there
if that were true, then any surjective function would be a group homomorphism
another problem is that (xy^-1)^n = xy'xy'xy'....xy' does this equal x^n y^-n? you see some sort of Abelian-ness is used here?
Oh wow yea that was literally me assuming it's abelian bahaha thanks for that catch.
to verify it's a group homomorphism, all you have to do is check phi(xy) = phi(x) * phi(y)... seems like you're already doing more work which isn't required
Okay yea I see it. THat's embarrassing
And now the whole thing about it being a subgroup not working makes sense now as that doesn't imply it preserves group structure.
didn't fully get you... if phi is a homomorphism, then it is true that image of phi is a subgroup... but not the other way round
Yea the last statement was me saying "Ah yes, I see where I went wrong now and I agree"
oh okie
the order would be lcm(a, b, c) if you take disjoint cycles. so if you want to write that in terms of gcd, it will be a little longer expression. But if you're just looking for an example, take a look at S6, 6 = 2+2+2, but can you find an element of order 8?
yep
cycle length would have to be powers of 2, so that reduces that cases by a lot
but then raising to the power of 8, won't kill that 3-cycle
Remember the cycles are disjoint
so you can think cycles per cycle
they can't interact with each other
said another way, the order of the product of the disjoint cycles will be the lcm of the order of each cycles
largest is 4
4+2
4+1+1
largest is 2
2+2+2
2+2+1+1
2+1+1+1+1
largest is 1
1+1+1+1+1+1
well you don't really have to write it down, but ig that might make things a little more concrete
because if the largest cycle has length 4, then raising to the power of 4 will already kill everything
so i get that the lcm of the orders of the disjoint cycles is the order of the permutation, and see why if i have a product of disjoint cycles of length a, b, c and they're not coprime, it's just lcm(a, b, c)
and it can't have anything bigger than 4, because well, 4 is the biggest power of 2 smallest than 6
even if they're coprime, it's still lcm(a, b, c)
but what i don't get is if i have that, how does that show i can't possibly have one
it's just that if they're coprime, lcm(a, b, c) = abc
which is the condition
pairwise
yep, 2, 2, 3 are coprime 
yeye 
Also I don't get your question @marsh fossil
could you rephrase your last sentences ?
like this question is false because its only true if they're all coprime, because then i can write them as disjoint cycles of lengths a, b, c where lcm(a, b, c) =abc but if i take an example, and show it does not have order abc for some a, b, c i don't get how that shows that there can't be any permutation of that order, i guess my question is there some m, n, k such that (a-m)(b-n)(c-k) = abc? and i guess not just because how algebra would work so is that a sufficient proof? showing that say i have a product of cycles of these lengths, then the permutation has order lower than abc and i can't have another because changing the cycles orders to still sum to a + b + c changes the value of the product so that it'll never equal abc
okie say we're working with S6 and a = b = c = 2
we need to show that there is no permutation in S6 with order 8
so lets assume there was such a permutation
and say if you write it as a product of disjoint cycles, then the lengths of the cycles are c1 c2 ... ck
so we know that order of this permutation is lcm(c1, c2, ..., ck) and this should equal 8.
from this what can we say about all these ci?
they're all multiples of 2
first that ci divides lcm(c1, ..., ck) = 8
well some ci could be 1
and next as these are disjoint cycles we must have ci <= c1 + ... ck = 6 as this was a permutation of S6
so each ci is <=6 and divides 8
from this we can conclude ci divides 4
but if all these ci divide 4, this means that 4 is a common multiple of c1, ..., ck
so 8 = lcm(c1, ..., ck) <= 4
this can't true
okay that actually makes a lot of sense, and thanks that clarifies a lot, but my teacher's problems specifically say find a counter example, idk if contradiction is valid
umm... we found a counter example right?
6=2+2+2
abc = 8, but we proved that there are no elements of order 8 by means of contradiction
okay, so is it okay to use contradiction for a counter example? like i guess the "example" is s6 is that the idea?
yea so counterexample is S6 with n = 6 and a = b= c= 2
but how do you know this is a counterexample?
that requires some sort of reasoning
we just happened to use contradiction to prove that it is indeed an counterexample
okay, so the key is understanding that it says there exists an element, typically with counter examples i just produce one that follows the hypothesis but fails the conclusion but bc this one says show that for any Sn there exists an element in it of order abc thats the cue to actually go forth and prove it. alright so we're basically reversing quantifiers, there exists an Sn where every permutation does not have order abc
looks right
okay great, thanks a lot for all your help!

alright so i suppose this could go here but maybe it's better in #combinatorial-structures or whatever
there was a problem in yesterday's class that i was almost able to solve but not quite
the problem: let A and B be nonempty subsets of Z_p. prove that |A+B| ≥ min(p, |A|+|B|-1)
the instructions were to use this result
i wrote $f(x_1, x_2) := \prod_{s \in A+B} (x_1+x_2 - s)$, noticed it vanished on $A \times B$ by construction, and thus the coefficient on $x_1^{t_1} x_2^{t_2}$ had to be zero, where $t_1 = |A|-1$ and $t_2 = |B|-1$
then i wrote $f(x_1, x_2) = \sum_{j=0}^{|A+B|} c_j (x_1+x_2)^j$
so this coefficient is in fact $\frac{(t_1+t_2)!}{t_1!t2!} c{t_1+t_2}$
and something went wrong when i tried to examine what happens if it's equal to zero
i've computed the highest and second highest coeffs of f (the c_j) as, respectively, 1 and sum[s in A+B] (-s)
this is where i got stuck
Ann
ping me if replying
Ann
this is what it was meant to be
I think I got it
det
@fickle brook

I figured out! I just had to use the homomorphism property, i.e. that G_x is a subgroup of G.
(which I should prove )
nice
In general gS = hS iff there's some s in S such that gs = h, where S is a subgroup of G
This is an important property to remember
just to be more explicit,when I write it in my notes: here x~y if f(x)=f(y)
right?
iff yeah
yep
a short sketch in one direction. Suppose $g_1,g_2$ are in the same equiv class. That is $g_1x=g_2x \implies g_2^{-1} (g_1 x)=x \implies (g_2^{-1} g_1)x=x \implies g_2^{-1}g_1 \in G_x$
is this ok?
Nice yes
You also have to show the converse, and that is just going back along the same implications
Everything is iff
and the other direcion I can just reverse the arrows by assuming the last setp
yes
exactly


also,a short note: g_1x=g_2x here the operation is group action, while g_1 G_x=g_2 G_x operation is group operation, correct?
different operations I mean
since G_x are elements of G
Yes

This in fact proves that the G/G_x and Gx are not just in bijection, but isomorphic as G-sets
Where G/G_x is viewed as a G set by (g, hG_x) ↦ ghG_x
So as G sets, all orbits look like quotients of G (notice that these are quotients by subgroups, not by normal subgroups, so these quotients are merely left G-sets, not groups)
So the quotients of G are called the canonical orbits of G
Or something similar I might have the name wrong 
this was exactly the prof's next remark
oh nice lol
now the only part which I don't think I 'need to' understand is why is this identification natural 
my prof said naturalness plays an important role later on
😵💫
Natural identification between what functors 
Is he saying that there's an equivalence of categories between category of transitive G sets and canonical G orbits
also:the identification of left-cosest with orbits is this bit, correct?
LHS=orbits,RHS=cosets
not sure,it was just a remark that this identificaiton is natural
Not with orbits, but with elements of the orbit
but he never defined natural
yes
waitt there's some neat stuff
using this identificaion and that G_x is a subgroup + Lagrange theorem,I immediately get the orbit-stabilizer theorem? :PogChamp:
Yes 😌
a free action is defined by the fact that all point stabilizers are trivial
how does this imply the fact that the orbit maps are injective?cause their kernel is just the identity?
i.e. gx=x iff g=e => orbi tmaps are injective
What's an orbit map
Le $x \in X$. he orbi tmap is $G \times {x}\to X, (g,x) \mapsto gx$. The image of the orbit map is the orbit of $x$.
ProphetX
it's basically the action,where x is fixed
ProphetX
ah I see
free is defined as all sabilizers are trivial. this somehow should imply that orbit maps are injective
It's not a group homomorphism so you can talk about kernels
ahh yikes
But notice that that map is exactly the map G → Gx in the previous thing (× singleton doesn't matter)
So it induces a bijection G/G_x to Gx (really from (G × {x})/(G_x × {x})
Here you have to use the commutativity of the diagram
Since the diagram commutes, the horizontal map = quotient map then bijection
But because G_x is trivial the quotient map is a bijection too
So the orbit map because a composition of bijections hence a bijection (onto Gx)
why?
how does G_x triviality imply quotient is bijection?
ah cause G/G_x={g G_x|g in G}={g e|g in G}=G?
Yep
The last one is a bijection not an equality
Because it should be g{e} not just ge
can one say that transitive action means:each point in X can be reached via an action of g on it?
in words
from any other point
shouldn't an element in Zm x Zn be (x^a, y^a)
how do we know that x^ay^a is well defined?
they identify Zm with Zm x {1} and Zn with {1} x Zn
interesting, so x^a = (x'^a, 1^a)= (x'^a, 1) for some element x' in Zm?
well the x' is still a generator of Zm
but now if you identify Zm with Zm x {1}
x becomes a generator of Zm x {1}
it's uuh weird to look too hard into it lol
I guess they could have said "let Zm = <x'>, Zn, = <y'> ; let x = (x',1) and y = (1,y')"
if A is isomorphic with Zm x Zn and B is isomorphic with Zk x Zs, can we necessary conclude that A x B is isomorphic to Zm x Zn x Zk x Zs?
yes
hmm, why is that?
???
well uh if A isomorphic to C and B is isomorphic to D
then A x B is isomorphic to C x D
you take isomorphisms f : A -> C and g : B -> D
does this stem from CRT?
you define (x,y) -> (f(x),g(y)) and check that it is an isomoprhism
the reason we can say that Z6 is isomorphic to Z2 x Z3 is because we know that (2,3)=1
Z6 = Z2 x Z3 and Z15 = Z3 x Z5 come from the CRT
ah thanks
When it is asked "Determine all of the qoutients of a group G", what does that mean?
Say G is cyclical with order 10
determine what groups are isomorphic to a quotient of G ?
there you would get Z10,Z5,Z2,Z1
also it's not clear if they want you to count how many different ways you can get a particular quotient
wouldn't that be to find what the qoutients of G are up to isomorphism?
when doing group theory you only care about groups up to isomorphism
you do not care at all if the elements of your group are numbers or stuff you ate for breakfast
But how did you determine this?
I went through all the subgroups H of Z10 then determined what Z10/H was isomorphic to
oh, and we know from lagrange that a subgroup must have an order that goes up in the order of Z10
so the possible subgroups are of order 1, 2 5 and 10?
Ah, and if we mod G out with a subgroup of order 1, we get a qoutient group of order 10, if we mod it out with order 2, we get a qoutient group of order 5, etc. etc.
I am trying to prove direcly that lef mult. is simply transitive => right mult. is simply transitive,but I don't get anywhere
I can prove separately that both left and right mult. are simply transitive. thus if left is simply transitive=>right is simply transitive
i.e. let A,B be two propositions. if both A,B are true,then A=>B is true.
however,I want to do a proof without assuming anything about righ tmult.
so a direct proof. Let left mult. be simply transitive=> right mult. is simply transitive
does anyone have hints?
Is it true that Z(G) <= C_G(S) <= N_G(S) <= G ?
Hi, this question's official answer is "false" but I don't see why, could anyone explain pls? Thanks
Isn't N an inverse element to every element in P(N)?
Regarding intersection
umm... the inverse of an element is unique...
also the easiest way to go about this would be to use that in any group you have a cancellation law. i.e. if ab = ac in a group G, then b = c
but notice that for any two subsets B and C of N, taking A = empty set gives,
A intersect B = A intersect C = A
but clearly you can start with different subsets B and C
Thanks!
the advantage of this is that, you don't need to wonder about what inverses and identities are
But why N doesn't work in this example?
Works as an inverse to every element
You said that the inverse of an element is unique , I think N could be an inverse to every element though
Because in P(N), every set intersection N is N, isn't it?
Ah ok
Isn't N included in every set in P(N)?
P(N) is (one of) the standard notation for the power set... i.e. set of all subsets
an element of P(N) is a subset of N
Alright just realized I got a big confusion lul
I knew this before but idk why was so confused 🤷♂️
Thanks for the reminder
also if inverse of two elements are equal, then the elements themselves are equal
so all elements can't have the same inverse
Yep got it thanks
I also had another question
Why is the product of 2 groups cyclic iff the order of these groups are relatively prime?
you mean product of two cyclic groups?
if G = <a> and H = <b> are cyclic with orders relatively prime, then show that G x H is cyclic by finding the order of the element (a, b)
Got it thanks!
conversely, if they are not relatively prime, say have orders m and n, then show that any element of G x H satisfies g^(lcm(m, n)) = identity in GxH
so order of no element can be m*n as lcm(m, n) < m * n if they are not relatively prime
I understand now
Thanks

oh I have a big brane proof
\begin{tikzcd}
\bZ \arrow[rd] \arrow[rdd] \arrow[rrd] & & \
& R \arrow[d] \arrow[r] & {\Hom_{Ab}(N, N)} \arrow[d, "\circ f"] \
& {\Hom_{Ab}(M, M)} \arrow[r, "f \circ"'] & {\Hom_{Ab}(M, N)} \
& M \arrow[r, "f"] & N
\end{tikzcd}
mniip
Z -> R epic in Ring implies U : R-mod -> Ab full
wait... not all of those are rings tho
...back to the drawing board
.
is it even provable directly? Haven't seen proofs like that in books
Aren't left and right multiplication always simply transitive
If g ≠ 1 then gh ≠ h so it is free
If x and y are in G then (yx^-1)x = y so it's transitive
I'm assuming that by left multiplication you mean the group acting on itself by multiplying on the left
I'm having trouble understanding this: If $C = \langle c \rangle$ is a cyclic group of infinite order, then $\lvert Aut(C) \rvert = 2$. I don't see how this is the case. If I have an automorphism $\varphi: C \to C$ then I understand $\varphi(c)$ completely determines the automorphism, but $\varphi(c)$ can be anything in $C$, except for identity so that gives infinitely many automorphisms. What is the issue with this?
Mr.Hahn-Banach
C is isomorphic to Z. Do you see the issue now?
isomorphisms have to be surjective
Unless you're following herstein 🤕
yeah, just consider Z and find the only two automorphisms
So $C \cong Z$ and the only two automorphism should be the indentity and the inverse map $a \to -a$
Mr.Hahn-Banach
yes
Yeah, though if you're writing it down then involving Z just makes the argument more complicated, and it's just for intuition for what's happening
Yea i see now, thanks
@sinful mirage
tthey are
in groups ?
i have other wishes tho
I want to ignore right being simply transitive
I proved left is
Group actions
and I want to show,that left is => right is
without proving right is true
so you have a set with two group actions on it ?
yes
If a statement is true about G, then the dual statement is true about G^op
A group is acting on itself by left and right mults
ah on itself
Want to prove that both actions are simply transitive
@hidden haven the issue is accepting left is transitive
that uuh
I can't prove right is transitive
is obvious from the definition ?
Depends on the definition 
But they've checked left mult is, somehow
And want to get same for right mult without extra work
Duality works here
The dual statement of "action is simply transitive" is itself, while the dual group G^op makes left mult into right mult action
In simpler words I guess we could say
You proved this statement "left mult is simply transitive" for all groups, so in particular for G^op
G^op acting on itself by left mult is same as G acting on itself by right mult
G^op=?
G but with reversed multiplication, opposite group
Or wait
You already proved that correspondence between left and right G actions
You can show that a left action is ST iff it's corresponding right action is ST
That's essentially what I'm saying
Wait it's corresponding right action is not right mult is it 
It's just isomorphic as G sets
this really is a dumb question but I don't see how A tensor B is isomorphic to B tensor A. I know that the isomorphism should obviously be f(a tensor b) = b tensor a but how is f(a tensor b + c tensor d) = f(a tensor b) + f(c tensor d) when a isn't c or when b isn't d?
ahh
makes sense
I use the proof from yday
You’re free to extend f linearly so that holds
How is tensor product defined for you? Universal property, or explicit construction?
Or rather, if you didn’t specify f is linear then you’ve incompletely defined f
just explicit construction I guess, it's free abelian on basis AxB and blablabla
Well definedness is an issue though 
ye I get that you extend stuff linearly but I don't know how that homomorphism thing holds
the definition in Hatcher
Oh Hatcher does this? oof
Once you’ve extended f linearly doesn’t your equation become a tautology?
You have to show that there is a well defined linear extension
Oh are taking vector spaces
I think so ya
{a ⊗ b} is still not necessarily a basis though
ye abelian groups in my case
I see 
free abelian on this
Ok so yeah there’s a massive quotient
sorry I didn't mention that
so the relations are (a+a') tensor b = a tensor b + a' tensor b and the same thing on when you tensor on the other side
So tensor product is free group on product modulo stuff
So first define f on the free group on product set rather than on the tensor directly
So saying f is linear and specifying it on simple tensors
Then show that f maps the things you are quotienting by to 0
Automatically specifies f on the entire space, provided f is well defined
Thus f factors through the quotient uniquely
And linearity will be there from this being a factoring lol
oh lmao
I thought that you could just define f directly from A tensor B to B tensor A
Yeah that's annoying in general
Because the well definedness of maps out of a tensor is hard to check explicitly
Because the quotient is absolute non sense, we don't know what the subgroup we are quotienting by looks like
So tensor products without universal properties are 
But at least you can use univ prop of quotients here
A map from A/B to C is a map from A to C such that B maps to 0
but yeah okay I think I get it now. So in general when you want to show some isomorphism of tensor products, you just do this?
like define the map on the underlying set etc.?
In general you use univ prop of tensors instead of univ prop of free then of quotients 
But in the absence of that you use these 2 yes
Univ prop of tensors bundles the useful stuff together
🥴
So I know that if $C$ is an infinite cyclic group, then there are two possible homomorphisms $\psi: C \to Aut(C)$, namely $\psi(c) = id \in Aut(C)$ or $\psi(c) = \varphi \in Aut(C)$ where $\varphi(c) = c^{-1}$. How can I tell if the semidirect product $C \rtimes C$ w.r.t those two homomorphisms yield two non-isomorphic groups? I was trying to contradict the existence of a isomorphism between those two semidirect products, but without success. There should be an easier way to see the two are non-isom.
Mr.Hahn-Banach
I doubt the two semidirect products are actually isomorphic, since $C \rtimes C$ w.r.t the hom $\psi = id \in Aut(C)$ gives us a group operation that works coordinatewise, namely $(a_1,b_1) \cdot (a_2,b_2) = (a_1a_2 , b_1b_2)$ while the operation w.r.t other other automorphism behaves differently
Mr.Hahn-Banach
It is the first isomorphism theorem/universal property of quotients. It pops up whenever you talk about quotients, which is very very often
One is commutative, the other isn't
.... yep, that does it....
And I mean quotients of anything, not just of groups, even though the diagram above is the specific instance of the univ prop of quotient groups @sinful mirage
I guess that diagram works for any object that has kernels really, not just groups
Kernels and all fibers of a map are translates of the kernel in some way 
The quotient is the universal “C along with a map A -> C such that everything in B goes to 0”
Yeah when you have kernels and cosets, but you can do it for an equivalence relation on a set too
The quotient is the map which is initial among maps that respect the equivalence classes of a given equivalence relation, idk if there's a more general way of saying this outside of concrete cats
Your definition is the one for abelian cats though with some change 😌
Mr.Hahn-Banach
I’m having trouble showing the only central element of Sn is the identity.. I know disjoint cycles commute but I’m having trouble using that
Oh wait do I show that if an element has order higher than 1 it cannot be central?
Just write it as a product of cycles
And come up with something that doesn’t commute with it
This shouldn’t be too hard
Like if I gave you (1534)(26) in S_6 what’s something that won’t commute with it?
Maybe try a few examples and try to note a pattern
Take a nonidentity permutation and try to construct another that does not commute with it
Oops discord being strange
Too late mr roblox man
Also worth noting that this is false for S_2, lol
But I think only for S_1 and S_2
f's in chat
Try looking at the conjugation action
okay, thanks all for the suggestions
I'm trying to find out how many non-isomorphic groups are of the form $Z_7 \rtimes Z_3$. There are 6 possible groups in total of that form noting $\lvert Aut(Z_7) \rvert = 6$, given by the following homomorphism $\varphi_n: Z_3 \to U_7$ (the multiplicative group) that maps $1 \to n \in U_7$. I was able to show the two semidirect products are isomorphic w.r.t to the homomorphism $\varphi_2$ and $\varphi_4$ and $\varphi_3$ and $\varphi_5$ since they are multiplicative inverses in $U_7$. That narrowed it down to at most four possible non-isomorphic groups, but the idea does not allow me to reduce it anymore than that.
Mr.Hahn-Banach
Hi, I am working our this proof and I am running into trouble. I have a lot of chicken scratch but can’t seem to budge.
Here’s is what I have but I know there must be another direction. Is there a way to relate o(gh) and o(g)o(h)?
<@&286206848099549185>
Wait, it's abelian?
I don’t think the group G is necessarily Abelian
"order in G that commute"
I think that these particular elements g and h commute
It doesn’t mean every element in G commute
Yea, that's all we care about in this case
Note, the claim is true regardless of commutativity
What claim?
The order of ab divides the least common multiple of ord(a) and ord(b)
Ah
Commutativity is probably just to make the proof slightly easier to deal with.
Important thing to note here (gh)^m=g^mh^m
just use the fact that if for some element x in a group, if x^n=1, then o(x) divides n
Will we utilize that $lcm(a,b)=\frac{ab}{gcd(a,b)}$?
Mega Euler
if you prove that $(gh)^{\lcm(o(g),o(h))}=1$, then you will have proven that $o(gh)\divides\lcm(o(g),o(h))$
Ohhhh wow
That’s great
What Stain said. And this is a way to do it (for these commutative elements anyways)
So what if the elements g and h doesn’t commute. What is the different in the proof?
Difference*
I am not entirely sure off the bat. But I do know this equality is generally invalid and cannot be used in that proof.
i don't think it's true if they don't commute
Right. $(gh)^m = \underset{\text{$m$ times}}{(gh)\cdots(gh)}$
Mega Euler
Perhaps the group needing to be finite would be a necessary condition
All the phi_n that you describe are not homomorphisms. The order of an element cannot become larger in the image
so wait
going back to the problem of whether U : R-mod -> Ab is full
we showed that if it's full then the ring inclusion Z->R is epi
is the opposite actually true?
oh
if we M, N in R-mod and we have f : M -> N an Ab-morphism but not an R-mod morphism, then we have some m, r such that f(rm) =/= rf(m)
consider the left ideal {s | f(sm) = sf(m)} in R
it clearly includes all of Z but not all of R which is impossible
because we have a map R -> R/I that's zero on Z but not everywhere
wait is it an ideal
it is a subring
not even that. Only if we quantify "forall m"
does this work? Say you had such a ring R such that R-Mod --> Z-Mod is full.
Then consider two maps f, g from R --> S. We need to show these are equal in order to say Z --> R is epi.
using f, g we can give R-Mod structure on S. (forget about the R-Alg thing... for that we require other stuff like R maps to center of S and all that which we don't need.) To be precise I'll call them S_f and S_g. Now consider the "identity" map of abelian groups.
S_f --> S_g
By full-ness this should also be an R-Mod map. so r * 1 in S_f equals f(r) * 1 = f(r) so this should be sent to r * 1 in S_g which equals g(r).
but since this was just the identity map on the abelian group S, we can conclude f(r) = g(r) showing f = g. And so Z --> R is epi
oh oops you wanted the other way round
I don't think so
I love the way it says "The next theorem shows that we can say nothing at all"
That's a funny theorem 
i've got a very simple question, is any element of the group of integers Z infinite order?
i think it would be so because it would imply the group is finite if it wasnt
Except 0, yes
no
There are infinite groups with only finite order elements
Yes, cyclic groups with finite order elements are the finite cyclic groups
so if a cyclic group has a finite order element then it has finite order
Take the tensor product $End_{Z}(M) \otimes End_{Z}(N)$ over Z, notice that the maps $Z->R->End_{Z}(M)-> End_{Z}(M) \otimes End_{Z}(N)$ and $Z->R->End_{Z}(N)-> End_{Z}(M) \otimes End_{Z}(N)$ commute, so as the map from Z to R is an epi, we can omit the Z->R map in both cases and it will still commute. now define an abelian group map $End_{Z}(M) \otimes End_{Z}(N)->Hom_{Z}(M,N)$ by taking (a,b) to bfa (and using bilinearity to get a map of tensors). now just chase an element r in R both ways $to Hom_{Z}(M,N)$ and that will exactly be bilinearity.
saketh
Yeah this is correct
The simplest way of seeing it is:
pick a generator, denote it by a, and say g is your finite order element.
There is some n such that a^n = g.
If g has finite order k, then g^k = (a^n)^k = (a^{nk}) = 1, meaning that a has finite order, so the group must be finite since the order of a generator is finite
okay gotcha, thanks for the clarification
maybe say finite order element other than the identity
oh and yes this ^
Am I reading this correctly?
"assume phi hom[omorhism] show that for all x in G, |x| = |phi(x)|"
Totally makes sense and logical ^^^
And then it says
"Show that |phi(x)| divides |x|"???
My prof says "in general this a little harder to prove" but that makes no sense. Literally they're equal so of course it's divisible?
My best guess is she's talking about a different proof method but Idfk
the picture is very blurry at least on my end, so I can’t tell what she wrote.
It’s probably not |x| = |phi(x)| because it’s not always true
example: || Z/4Z -> Z/2Z by “moduloing again” (ie quotienting by 2Z/4Z). In our starting group the order of 1 is 4, but in the image group, the order of 1 is 2 ||
My guess is that the first part is just |x| >= |phi(x)|
or maybe the first part is supposed to assume that phi is injective
Is there a systematic way to see what the (non-proncipal) prime ideals in a ring extension of Z (say Z adjoined w/ finitely many algebraic elements) look like?
I'm trying to understand the whole dedekind and ramification business better but it's hard to come up with examples if I don't know what the spectrum looks like in its entirety
weren't ideals in a dedekind domain always generated by 2 elements?
I never heard about that, so can neither confirm nor deny that :P
Nice, then I should probably limit myself to the integrally closed case 🙃
What's this from if I may ask?
Oh, this is from Chapter 3 of Marcus Number Fields
tyvm
what are the 3 subgroups of index 2?
you've named 4?
i think the last one is also <r^2, rs>
srsr = 1?
how can we use the fact that the 3 subgroups are abelian to see that x \nin Z(D8) ....
from the example here..
ok so any element is in one of those three subgroups
it definitely commutes with everything in its own subgroup, since they're all abelian
so if it doesn't commute with everything
then it can't commute with anything more than its own subgroup
since the centraliser is a subgroup?
and the largest non-trivial subgroup is of order 4
which is its own subgroup
if it commuted with anything more, the centraliser would have to be the whole group, by lagrange's, and it would be central
oh, so if the index are 2 for each of these subgroups where it is abelian, that means that the subgroup must have order 4
trivially
the conjugacy classes, how are those calculated?
do we calculate for example, for an element s, gsg^{-1} for all g in D8?
i think so
it's not as bad as it looks bc equivalence classes
so would only need to do around half the elements, not all
still not incredibly fast, but possibly slightly faster than brute-forcing it
But i get for s,
sss^{-1}=s
r^3sr^{-3}=r^6s=r^2s
(sr)s(sr)^-1=srsr^{-1}s=sr^2s=r^2
there are 3 elements
and the conjugacy classes all only contain 2 elements
Any book recommendation that focuses on cringe? (Commutative ring endomorphisms).
how would a mathematician compute the orbits of a group using the definition?
for example Lorentz group
why are the orbits classified by the bilinear form?
the orbit is defined as: O_{p}:={lambda p|lambda is a lorentz trafo},p is in R^{1,3}
someone ik brought up this cool question
is it okay to consider the vector spaces of all vector spaces over a field?
where this vector space would be over Z/2Z
where multiplying by 1 corresponds to including a vector space in a sum and multiplying by 0 means not including (or just getting the 0 vector space)
does this vector space lead to paradoxes?
Sounds like it should
similar to how "set of all sets" does
the vector space Z whose vector addition operation is just V + W
Yeah but V and W might be over different fields
Ah over a particular field
"vector space of all vector spaces over a particular field"
My bad I misunderstood
you won't run in to a russels paradox type thing if the specific field is something other than Z/2Z
Might be possible but I’m not sure
Would need the opinion of someone more qualified
The class of vector spaces over a specified field is not a set
But you can consider the vector spaces only upto some cardinality
Also that doesn't seem like a vector space operation
If you are defining the addition as V + W = V ⊕ W then adding W twice doesn't equal adding nothing so this can't be a Z/2Z vector space
Or I didn't get your addition operation
I am having a bit of trouble figuring out how to deal with part 2
a normal subgroup is one such that gKg^-1 = K for all g. what automorphism does this suggest you use?
Oh, the conjugacy map.
so here's the question, how do I know that is indeed surjective?
try proving it
le sigh
oh...yea, that is easy :p
okay, I have two more questions.
So I know part 1 is not true, but I suck at finding counter examples. If possible, I could use some help figuring out a good counter example here
I can do part 2 and 3 on my own
try matrix groups
Hmmm, well that put a damper on things
you can try finding the size of AB when A and B are finite subgroups
some theorem by some guy starting with L might help 
I know that guy!
oh duh. I already know how to prove (iii) and normal just means the subgroup is in the center. Silly me.
I was being silly, there's an easier example
think free groups
||using this i think S3 works fine... <(12)> and <(13)> both have size 2. their product has size 4 which doesn't divide 6.||
||<s,t | s^2 = t^2 =1>, <s><t> is not a subgroup||
doesnt the product have size 5?
the product is (1), (12), (13) and (12)(13)
Oh yes. AB, not the combination of AB and BA. My b
it's easy enough to check by hand that this isn't a subgroup... but Lagrange 
For some reason, I was looking at all of the possibilities for AB and BA. Live and learn I guess
Also, yea. Lagrange is doing wonders here
Ty det

evee butt 

The last sentence requires each omega_i be of equal size right
Okay, last question. I am not gonna lie, I do not even know where to begin with this
My only thought is all elements in (Z_2)^n have order 2
So if we can find the U(k)'s that are isomorphic to (Z_2)^n (for any n), we solved the problem.
Hmmm, I got excited
U(16) = Z_2 x Z_4
Yea, I got excited for a second.
you know CRT right?
Depends, what does CRT mean?
for coprime m, n we have U(mn) = U(m) x U(n)
Oh yes, I know that
I also know what U(p^n) is isomorphic to when p is odd or even
one prime at a time
Oh awesome 
yep
Moreover, U(12) is such a group, since U(3) is also isomorphic to Z(2), you end up with the whole thing being isomorphic to (Z_2)^2
U(8), as we know, is also that group.
However, there is an issue. If we looked at (Z_2)^3, then it is built by some combination of external products of U(3), U(4) or U(8), but U(4) is not relatively prime to U(8)
So... I think that's it
ah... we're still missing a few
Well shoot.
maybe think it like this... what are the nice powers of 2? they are 1, 2, 4, 8... beyond that we don't get good stuff
for 3, we only like 1, 3. after that stuff is bad
for other primes only 1 is good
what are all the product of these things?
basically divisors of 24
Wait, 9 works?
nah
Ah, U(6) is U(3)xU(2), which is indeed isomorphic to (Z_2)^2
Did you start by first looking at which values of m give phi(m) = 2^n btw
Nvm me it’s basically what you’re doing now
No. I do not see how that immediately relates. However, we did find them all.
this will also include those fermat primes... so thought of not doing that
this requires some work though. What i'm using here is that U(p) is cyclic
Okay, so we know all primes greater than 3 aren't gonna cut it. So we have to look at factors that are a combination of 3's and 2's. But anything larger than 2^3 is gonna fail, and anything larger than 3^1 will fail. So that exhuasts our options.
So the largest thing we could have is U(8*3) because of this.
Yep, I see what's happening now. I was on the right path, I just was having a hard time seeing how to exhaust the info. Thank you again det.

I was just saying this since |U(m)|=phi(m)
Of course what you did is better since my condition isn’t sufficient, only necessary
real quick question. How do you write the isomorphic symbol in latex (a bar with a ~ over it).
no, just one bar
$\simeq$
det
Thank you det 😄

Z has infinite order, does it not?
So then no. The question does not apply if both orders are infinite
if any of the order is infinite*
Yes, that too
Keep in mind, Z and 3Z have the same exact cardinality, so there is no difference in 'size'
Do you mean Z/3Z
So {0,1,2}?
Ah, well the issue is still the same. Z is infinite
My bad, I realize this claim is not true.
it's true right? for abelian every subgroup is in the center
Well, I was generalizing it to any group. But that just isn't the case.
xH=Hx, does not mean that there is an h in H so that xh=hx
True, 1 is trivial.
doesnt make it be in the center though
in general normal subgroups are not in the center
but the center is normal
Yep, that is the assumption I made foolishly.
xH=Hx means for all h in H, there is an h', and h'' in H so that xh=h'x and hx=xh''
I was not paying attention to that subtle distinction when I made that claim.
you noticed it after though that's good 👌
I'm a bit confused with how to relate these two descriptions of Schur's lemma
for a given complex and irreducible matrix representation D, if a matrix Q commutes with D(g) for every group element g, then the matrix Q is proportional to the identity
vs
Such a Q is an element of Hom_G(V(D), V(D))
Yeah I get that but where does the commuting statement come from?
That's what the _G under Hom indicates
yes because a homomorphic image is just G/N for some normal subgroup N and has order |G|/|N| so it is a factor of |G|
oh sorry I misread your question to be about the homomorphic image of a group not a subgroup
but it is still fine, the image of subgroup H of G is a subgroup of G/N so its order divides |G|/|N| which divides |G|
so i have to find the left cosets of S4 = H, S5 = G, am i right in saying that all the sets would be found by taking all the powers of cycle of length 5 and finding the coset formed by those? since for every power i choose, that cycle times another power of that cycle is not in s4 so the cosets of them would not be equal right?
S4 isn’t well defined in S5
There’s… a chance that the cosets ang copy of S4 generates is the same
But there’s ambiguity as to what S4 means
s4 is the symmetric group of 4 elements
Yes but there’s many of those
You could permit 1234 inside 5
Or 1245
Or 2345
Etc
but no matter what power of the cycle i choose, barring the identity, it's never in s4 right?
since it's always a cycle of length 5
I don’t know, I’m not convinced you can’t embed S4 into S5 in a really weird fucked up way
Which does permutr all 5 numbers but in a weird way
Why?
But you aren’t specifying what copy of S4 it is
You’d need to show any subgroup of S5 which is isomorphic to S4 doesn’t involve all 5 numbers
This isn’t immediate
will never be a 5 cycle by lagrange, would be some 2 cycle and 3 cycle kinda stuff
Okay well there’s a proof so you’re good there
But it isn’t as simple as just
“S4 acts on 4 things”
is saying that there are many ways to put S_4 inside S_5, and we don't know (a priori) if they give the same quotient
Because S4 as a subgroup of S5 isn’t just “the elements that permute 1 through 4” because that’s a choice of a specific subgroup
But there’s multiple subgroups of S5 that are isomorphic to S4
another way to say it is that S_4 is not a subgroup of S_5 (only isomorphic to a subgroup of S_5) so S_5/S_4 doesn't make sense because you can only take cosets of a subgroup
my class hasnt even talked about ismorphisms lol
Well the term S4 inside S5 is ambiguous is all I’m saying
Instead you should be saying cosets of i(S_4) in S_5 where i is an embedding
If you defined that to be the set of things which only involve 1 through 4
but is it fair to say any 5 cycle is not in s4
Then your proof is immediate
so you have to say what i is
or prove that different choices of i give the same answer
5 doesn’t divide 4!
But it isn’t just 5 > 4 so it isn’t in there
If S4 means “the set of elements of S5 which only permutr 1 through 4” or like “which fix 5”
Then yes it’s fair to say that without any more argument
well im trying to show the cosets are all different for the all powers of a 5 cycle
since every 5 cycle taken to a power is a 5 cycle
But you say cosets
cosets of what though
You haven’t fixed what you’re taking cosets of
cosets on S4
You aren’t addressing the issue
What does S4 mean??
What do the elements look like
You have to be precise
so S4 could be the subgroup of things that fix 1, or the subgroup of things that fix 2, and so one
all of these are S_4
they permute 4 things
but since you haven't done isomorphisms I am guessing you are looking at S_4 as the subgroup of permutations that fix 5?
okay. the proof for if cosets are different, is if for 2 elements of G, if g1xg2-1 is not in the subgroup im taking cosets of, S4, then their cosets are not equal
so regardless of the type of s4 im taking, the product of the powers of different powers of a certain 5 cycle, is never in any permutation of 4 elements, since it's a 5 cycle
But you have to prove any copy of S4 has to fix one element of {1,2,3,4,5}
are products of 5 cycles always 5 cycles? Their powers are
To make this argument tick
Unless you fix a specific copy of S4 you’re dealing with
You can multiply 2 different 5 cycles and get a 3 cycle
yes but powers of a specific 5 cycle will always be a 5 cycle
i dont understand why i need to fix a copy of s4.. no matter what copy i pick it never contains a 5 cycle
You have to prove that these are the only 5 copies of S_4
there may be more, ones that contain the 5-cycle too
(though you can prove there aren't)
I am assuming that you are supposed to look at the copy which fixes 5
Are you working on a problem? Could you send that? That might clarify things
bruh
So either say the problem is wrong or assume they are talking about the copy that fixes 5 
but you should probably bring this up with the instructor and ask for clarification, if you understood what problem we have with this
i kind of do, but with that aside my approach is fine? take some 5 cycle and take powers of it for the different cosets?
if you change the embedding, the cosets change too
Yeah assuming that embedding it does
okay cool, thanks
quick question
I have a group G of order 105 and I am assuming that there is a unique subgroup for every divisor of 105
I want to show that G must be cyclic
I know by Lagrange's theorem that the subgroups of order 2, 3, and 5 must be cyclic since they're of prime order
so I have 3 subgroups <a>,<b>, and <c> where |<a>|=2, |<b>|=3, and |<c>|=5
I also know that |<a>|=|a|=2, and by the same logic |b|=3 and |c|=5
I believe my next steps would be to show the following
|a| |b| |c| = 105 = |abc| so <abc> = G
However, I believe |abc| only divides |a| |b| |c| and that's only if commutativity holds
How would I go about showing that |a| |b| |c| must equal |abc|
are you saying that 105 is even
how did you get |abc| = 105
did you also assume that G was commutative ?
ah nevermind
in general |abc| can be almost anything it wants
I don't know that |abc|=105 but I think it's what I need to show
I would try to show that the subgroups are ordered by inclusion as they are ordered by divisibility
then it would make things easier
but using sylow's theorem just for that seem super heavy handed
I haven't learned sylow's theorem yet
yeah
Also no, I haven't assumed commutativity unfortunately
well you can show all the subgroups are normal
not sure how that helps though
ah it might show |ab| = |a| |b|
oh
since |bcb^-1| = |c| = 5, bcb^-1 is in <c>, so it's c^k for some k
do the same with cbc^-1 to show it's equal to b^l for some l
then bc = c^kb and cb = b^lc so eventually you get c^(k-1)b^(l-1)=1, and that implies c^(k-1) = b^(l-1) = 1
so k=l=1
and so b and c must commute
Is there a general thing I might try if I wanna show that no groups of some order n are simple?
lagrange + the sylow theorems
Is this true? I dont know if I am allowed to alter the value of y, but by definition I dont think x^2=x^2(mod6) can be an equivalence relation
it isnt reflexive is it?
Checking reflexivity means putting x = y and checking if that satisfies the condition
Yea, that is what I did and I dont think it is reflexive for all integers (where the problem is defined). Is this correct? I am doubting myself due to how the problem is stated.
x² ≡ x² (mod 6) 
This is true for any x by reflexivity of ≡
I think you might be reading it as
x ≡ (x (mod 6))
hmm alright. is that because a mapping can be made from Z6 to all of Z?
It is supposed to be read like
(x ≡ x) (mod 6)
ooooooooooohhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhh. that makes much more sense thank you
I was trying to solve an exercise from a book but i got stuck in my calculation.
I'm trying to show that foundamental groups of a class of orientable 3-manifold is not left orderable where by this i mean that they admits a strict ordere invariant for left multiplication.
The groups are Seifert manifold built over a surface where the surface is $\mathbb{R}P^{2}.$
They admit the following presentation: $$\pi_{1}(M)=\langle\gamma_{1},...,\gamma_{n},y,h;|$$
$$yhy^{-1}=h^{-1},\gamma_{j}^{\alpha_{j}}=h^{-\beta_{j}},\gamma_{j}h\gamma_{j}^{-1}=h,y^{2}\gamma_{1}\cdots\gamma_{n}=1\rangle.$$
With some calculation I got to show that if $k>0,h>1$ the following holds: $h^{-k}<y^2<h^k$ and $h^{-k}<y^{-2}<h^{k}.$ In the book I was given the hint to show that $yhy^{-1}>1()$ and this in facts concludes as it is a contradiction with the assumption that $h>1$ given the first relation but I could not find a way to prove the key fact $()$. Any suggestion in what kind of relations I should look for?
Thanks in advance.
Stephen
question
Is there some kind of duality between groupoid actions and intransitive group actions? I can't exactly put my finger on why, but they seem very analogous in some sense.
How do I quickly see if a cyclic finite group has an element of a given order?
check if the given order divides the order of the generator
So for the second part
say I have phi: R -> S
do I need to show phi([x, y]) maps to [phi(x), phi(y)] is an isomorphism?
spam is talking about the second part
ah ok
yeah
u do need to show that phi
extended to the fraction fields is a well defined isomophirsm
so basically what i said above?
that's what I used for the first part lol
yeah
oh I shouldn't have called the map from frac(R) to frac(S) also phi
that's confusing lmfao
my bad
ok cool that's easy
anyway, you have the map f : S -> Frac(S) and a map f phi : R -> Frac(S) which you have to show induces a ring hom f phi : Frac(R) -> Frac(S)
and then show its iso
are u using this bracket notation to denote the equivalence classes?
yea
u can just denote the elements as x/y
oh true
well-definedness and injectivity and such
is gonna follow from like
the usual fraction cross multiplication
and such
putting the elements in fraction notation will make this all more cler
clear
you can do this without ever writing a fraction

how would you figure out if they are isomorphic exactly? What I did was just list out the elements and sort of just do the math and I've encountered a few cases where it is not isomorphic
and from the examples of my book, it doesn'
doesnt give a way to figure this stuff out
oh so there are many ways to do it
one of the first ones that you see are checking whether both are cyclic or not
like Z4 is generated by a single element which would have order 4
but not the same with U_8
U8 is {1, 3, 5, 7} but square of everything is 1
check order of group, check order of elements, check abelianness and things...
ah ok i see
i sort of did the slow and brute way of just doing the whole math and it turned out it wasnt isomorphic, but then obviously such a way is just too inefficient
so would the cyclic method always work for instance?
or does it depend on the problem?
the checking order of elements works for any two finite abelian groups as far as i remember
👍 ok i see
but yea the cyclic thing won't work because what if both groups are not cyclic... that doesn't give a whole lot of information
if anything at all is different between the two of them, they're not isomorphic
I was trying to solve an exercise from a book but i got stuck in my calculation.
I'm trying to show that foundamental groups of a class of orientable 3-manifold is not left orderable where by this i mean that they admits a strict ordere invariant for left multiplication.
The groups are Seifert manifold built over a surface where the surface is $\mathbb{R}P^{2}.$
They admit the following presentation: $$\pi{1}(M)=\langle\gamma{1},...,\gamma{n},y,h;|$$
$$yhy^{-1}=h^{-1},\gamma{j}^{\alpha{j}}=h^{-\beta{j}},\gamma{j}h\gamma{j}^{-1}=h,y^{2}\gamma{1}\cdots\gamma{n}=1\rangle.$$
With some calculation I got to show that if $k>0,h>1$ the following holds: $h^{-k}<y^2<h^k$ and $h^{-k}<y^{-2}<h^{k}.$ In the book I was given the hint to show that $yhy^{-1}>1()$ and this in facts concludes as it is a contradiction with the assumption that $h>1$ given the first relation but I could not find a way to prove the key fact $()$. Any suggestion in what kind of relations I should look for?
Thanks in advance.

