#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages Ā· Page 626 of 407
Let A be a commutative ring, and let G be a subgroup of Aut(L), where L is a field containing A
is it true that (Frac A)^G = Frac A^G?
where A^G, (Frac A)^G are the elements of A, Frac A, respectively, that are fixed by every element in G
don't really have time to help but when G is a galois group A^G is a field for any subset A of L iirc. But idk if that's true more generally, and idk if it'll help you here
what is a field extension
I think the isomorphism I want is $\phi\left(\frac{x}{y}\right) = xy^{-1}$
Spamakinš·
but I'm not sure what a field extension is
ok so
if I have a subgroup H <= G
and H^{ab} = 0
then does the normal envelope bar{H} <= G have abelianization zero?
is F an extension of R is there is an injective homomorphism from R to F?
I was trying to solve an exercise from a book but i got stuck in my calculation.
I'm trying to show that foundamental groups of a class of orientable 3-manifold is not left orderable where by this i mean that they admits a strict ordere invariant for left multiplication.
The groups are Seifert manifold built over a surface where the surface is $\mathbb{R}P^{2}.$
They admit the following presentation: $$\pi{1}(M)=\langle\gamma{1},...,\gamma{n},y,h;|$$
$$yhy^{-1}=h^{-1},\gamma{j}^{\alpha{j}}=h^{-\beta{j}},\gamma{j}h\gamma{j}^{-1}=h,y^{2}\gamma{1}\cdots\gamma{n}=1\rangle.$$
With some calculation I got to show that if $k>0,h>1$ the following holds: $h^{-k}<y^2<h^k$ and $h^{-k}<y^{-2}<h^{k}.$ In the book I was given the hint to show that $yhy^{-1}>1()$ and this in facts concludes as it is a contradiction with the assumption that $h>1$ given the first relation but I could not find a way to prove the key fact $()$. Any suggestion in what kind of relations I should look for?
Thanks in advance.
Stephen
Field extension is just a field that contains another field (or ring in your case). So yea there would be an inclusion map of R into F
For case number 4, imagine if G were not cyclic but H is cyclic, then I can conclude that this is not an isomorphism right?
i just want to make sure such a statement can be inversible if that makes sense
Sure, because phi^-1 is an iso in the other direction
ah ok
Suppose that $L$ is an extension of $F$ and that $K_1, K_2$ are two intermediate subfields such that $L = F(K_1,K_2).$ Prove that $[L : F] ⤠[K_1 : F] · [K_2 : F]$.
eM
I'm trying to make sense of the notation for L since I haven't seen that before. Is that our field generated by elements in those two intermediate subfields? Is it the composite field of our two intermediate subfields?
if J is a maximal ideal of a ring R
and I is an ideal of R that is NOT contained in J
does that mean that I is also a maximal ideal of R??
No, here is an example, (x,y) is maximal in k[x,y] (here k is some field). The ideal (x-1) is not contained in this ideal, but is is also not maximal as it is properly contained in the ideal (x-1,y)
if I have $\mathbb{Z}_4 \times \mathbb{Z}_2$, and I'm trying to find the direct external product, would the elements of this group just be the elements of the set of the cartesian product?
Zoro
i did a couple examples and they seem to give me the same pairs as i do the binary operation
Itās the smallest sub field containing K_1 and K_2
You can explicitly view it as taking like F(alpha_i) where thatās like rational functions in alpha_i over all alpha_i in K1 and K2
Which yeah is the composite of them
IS anyone around to help clear up something for me?
Ask š« no promises
"Does (Q_+, Ć·) form a group?"
ie does Ć· satisfy the group axioms
Ok. That clears it, thanks
just b
the a is not in math mode
so it means "there exists b in G such that..."
so I'm considering the ideal generated by 85 in Z_204
the generators of this ideal are {17, 85, 119, 187} which I found by code
but how do I figure this out without using code and a brute force search
so 17 = 17 * 1, 85 = 17 * 5, 119 = 17 * 7, and 187 = 17 * 11
but I don't see a pattern
wait isn't every ideal of Z/nZ principal?
yes but they can be generated by different numbers
oh isee what you mean
so $\langle 17 \rangle = \langle 85 \rangle = \langle 119 \rangle = \langle 187 \rangle$
Spamakinš·
(a) = (b) if and only if a = bu where u is a unit?
?
a unit is an invertible element of a ring
so just find all the units in Z/204Z
and multiply them with your generator
Hm I see
units in Z/204Z correspond to the numbers which are coprime to 204
there are alot more than 4 numbrers in Z_204 that are coprime to 204
When you mod by 204 you probably just get those generators still
yea but probably the point is can we filter out which units to look for
ones such that u*17 <= 204?
still not sure how to show this
gcd(85, 204) = 17
so we're looking for distinct values of 17u where u is a unit mod 204. So need to understand the units which do no work, i.e. 17u = 17
this is same as 17(u-1) = 0(mod 204) which is same as u = 1 (mod 12)
so we're going to look at the map U(204) --> U(12)
the kernel is the units that do nothing.
U(12) has 4 elements which is why there were 4 generators
U(204) = the units in Z_204?
yea
aight
so if you wanna find the nice units take inverse image for each units mod 12
so find a unit in U(204) which is 1, 5, 7, 11 mod 12
no need to find all of them
but lucikly 1, 5, 7, 11 are units in U(204)
we're done lol
so the generators are 17, 17 * 5, 17 * 7, 17 * 11
ok cool
What is the name of the ring D referred to here?
can you ive context
I have no idea what theyāre talking about until I know what D is
I assume D is a standard notation like R or C or Z
i've never seen it. maybe it was defined earlier in the text?
In fact it was I just missed it

Anyone around to answer this one question that I've been sitting around thinking about?
nope

Do you know about free groups and relations 
šµāš«
Wait that would be way too annoying to work with anyway
looks like you need a group that's not commutative
Every group embeds into a symmetric group (donāt worry how to prove this, youāll definitely see it in your class if you cover group actions)
what's the simplest one you can think of
So youāll definitely be able to find an example in a symmetric group
Iād maybe just start writing down some permutations and try to find an example
ĀÆ_(ć)_/ĀÆ
That ain't the best answer but it might be the one I have to go with
I mean itās good experience I think to just get your hands on some stuff
Since I'm stumped af on this one problem. Everything else just need a quick clearance on the question then everything snaps into place
And just try to notice what goes on
You might end up with stuff that after cubing the things are pretty close to the same so you think about how you might fudge it a little bit
I think thereās value in just writing some stuff down and trying to notice patterns and get closer to what youāre trying to find
The only other suggestion is to look at dihedral groups
I'll do that
Those are a lot simpler than symmetric groups but still are non-commutative
Professor likely like a clean proof than a messy one
Well in the end the proof is probably just a computation so
It wonāt be too messy once you write it up
Just messy to find xD
well if you want a strong hint for the symmetric group approach then ||product of 2-cycles in a symmetric group is a 3-cycle (sometimes)||
why is 0 != 1 a field axiom
Itās not
because we don't like 0 ring to be a field
why not
BECAUSE WE SAY SO
a lot of things... say every map now becomes injective!
K --> L, 1 maps to 1, not to 0, so kernel has to be trivial
Imagine having to open every theorem about fields with a Let K be a non zero field

But yeah just removing the 0 ring from fields makes every field homomorphism injective, makes fields easier to study
Also study of 0 ring as a field would be very nothing to say study
No proper field extensions, I guess it's automatically alg closed? Lol
group of units of a field is K\{0}
I'm asked to give an example of a non-projective $R$-module $P$ for some ring $R$, and a surjective $R$-module homomorphism $f \colon M \to N$ such that $\operatorname{Hom}_{R}(P, f)$ is not onto.
Am I correct in saying that $R = \mathbb{Z}$, $P = N = \mathbb{Z}_2$, $M = \mathbb{Z}_4$ and $f (x \mod 4) = x \mod 2$ would give such an example? It seems like here $Hom_R(P, f)$ would just be the zero map
expectTheUnexpected
expectTheUnexpected
lel

felt cute, might delet later
Ye that seems legit
Nice, ty moldi
what does this notation stand for? K[X]/f
how can I construct a monoid with a certain number of units?
polynomial ring modulo ideal generated by f?
Construct group of that cardinality 
idts
context then?
quotient fields
I can't think of any examples
integers modulo 48 under addition comes to mind but idk
Yeah that's a monoid with 48 units
can we construct a group of any cardinality?
so, what is f? I would have thought it's some irreducible poly
they havent mentioned what f is
Yeah and Z/nZ for finite lol
Can you post a sentence where that notation appears? @gray scroll
And model theory proof too š
yes, just a min
Yeah, f will be the minimal polynomial of alpha here
is it possible to find (up to isomorphism) all the abelian groups given a certain order?
Finite order?
yes
i still dont understand the notation
See the classification of finite abelian groups
Should be a wikipedia page or something
There's an easy classification
So f is some irreducible polynomial, and (f) is the ideal generated by f. f is irreducible, then (f) will be a maximal ideal, and so the quotient by (f) is a field.
Maybe you should look at chapter 2, where the notes apparently show this statement or something similar
is that talking about writing it as a sum of cyclic groups?
Yes
You know about quotients, right?
i tried looking, but cannot find this statement
i know quotient spaces
I think the statement is: R/I is a field iff I is a maximal ideal in R
Then I'd suggest you look into ideals in rings and quotients of rings by ideals
how many abelian groups of order x are there?
is there a way to count it?
Yes Z/xZ is one, and for 2 integers p and q,
Z/pZ ā Z/qZ is Z/pqZ iff p and q are co prime (Chinese remainder theorem)
Prime factorize x and count
I'm having trouble applying it to an example
if I wanted to find the all the abelian groups of order, say 180
Big number 
Right
That's only if it's cyclic right?
right
So any group of that cardinality is a direct sum of groups of cardinalities 2², 3² and 5 by CRT
And using the classification theorem of course
You can just separate out the parts corresponding to different primes
So it reduces to counting number of abelian groups of order p^n for a prime p and natural n
That's just the number of ways of writing n as
a + 2b + 3c + 4d + ...
can someone give a plain and rigorous definition of k[X]/f where small k is a field and f belongs k[X]. A definition not using ideals but construction of what the elements look like
a tells you the number of Z/pZ, b the number of Z/p²Z and so on
Cyclic group of order p
Yeah both are standard, Z means the group of integers
This is Z/48Z
trying to make sense of all the theory and I got C_2 x C_2 + C_3 x C_3 + C_5 for all the abelian groups of order 180 which doesn't seem right to me
What is C_n here?
a cyclic group of order n
But then it's not a number
is x different from +
x is for direct product
oh wait right
Finite direct sums and direct products are the same for abelian groups
I see
I don't understand how to find more than one of these groups
isn't there only one prime factorisation of 180?
roughly, k[x]/f is like k where you add another element alpha that satisfies f(alpha) = 0. For example, if k = Q = rational numbers and f(x) = x^2 - 2, then k[x]/(f) is a two-dimensional vector space over Q with basis 1 and alpha, where alpha also satisfies the equation alpha^2 - 2 = 0. In other words, you have added a root of the polynomial f (which doesn't have roots in Q) to Q
there are more?
why 4?
See this lol
did you do the classification of finite abelian groups already or not ?
Fair
can you prove that C180 is different from C2 + C2 + C3 + C3 + C5 ?
yeah C2 + C2 is different from C4
so there are 2 sorts of abelian groups of size 4
despite 4 having a unique prime factorisation 4 = 2 * 2
I don't think I can prove this
how did you prove that C2 + C2 is not cyclic
That's exactly the Chinese remainder theorem
isn't it isomorphic to the Klein 4 group
which is not cyclic
you can check the subgroups made by each generator
none of them are all the elements
well you can kinda do that too for C2 + C2 + C3 + C3 + C5
any element in there will have their order be a divisor of 30
there are 4 abelian groups with order 180 because 2^2 x 3^2 x 5 = 180, and the powers are 2x2
so correspond to partitions of 2 ?
yeah ?
thank you so much
also what is the difference between k[alpha] and k(alpha)
k[alpha] is the ring of polynomials in alpha, k(alpha) is the ring of elements p(alpha)/q(alpha) where p and q=/=0 are polynomials. k(alpha) happens to be a field.
(You can also say that k[alpha] is the smallest ring containing both k and alpha and k(alpha) smallest field containing both k and alpha)
And it's the second definition with subring and subfield in place of ring and field when alpha is some element in a larger ring/field
C2 x C2 x C3 x C3 x C5, C4 x C9 x C5, C2 x C2 x C9 x C5, C4 x C3 x C3 x C5
are these all of them?
C4 x C9 x C5
yep
uh you're welcome
why does every element of a group lie in a subgroup of order of one of the prime factors of the order of the original group?
um no ?
of a non-abelian group
a generator of C4 doesn't lie in a subgroup of order 2
hm
like if we have G
a non-abelian group of order pq
p,q are both prime
doesn't every element of G have to lie in a subgroup of order p or q?
then yeah
because if you have an element or order pq then the group is cyclic but it can't be cyclic if it's not abelian
so every element has order 1,p, or q
in this very specific case
no
suppose I have rings
A and B
If i have a ring morphism A to B
B is then a module over A
yea
yes
and these should be compatible in some sense
yep
what is the sense
(A,B)-bimodule 
But also stronger lol
So maybe you can say more like one is the restriction of the other
what i am looking to say is
you need some sort of commutativity if both are left modules
the support of C as a B module is contained inthe support of C as an A module
I assumed we were in commutative rings 
we are but thank you det thats good to know
usually for an (A, B) bimodule M, you want A to act on left and B to act on right
if you're working with non-commutative stuff
if you have a ring map A --> B, then we have an exact functor B-Mod --> A-Mod which just "restricts" the scalars. So a B-Mod M is same as a ring hom B --> End(M), all you do is precompose by the ring map A --> B, to get the A-Mod structure... this means the underlying abelian group doesn't change, and so exactness.
Sorry im a still a little bit confused
maybe ill explain the situation as best as i understand maybe im going wrong some where
Let M be an A module, then Supp_A(M) is all the prime p ideals of A such that the localization M_p is nonzero
Simillarly Supp_B(M) are all the prime ideals q of B such that the localization of M_q is non zero
there must be some statement im missing about
f:A to B a ring morphism then every prime ideal from one comes from an extension or restriction from the other?
idk much algebraic geo, so can't say for sure... I'll assume the two module structure are compatible... as in
A --> B --> End(M) gives the A-Mod structure on M.
So if q is a prime such that M_q is non-zero, this should mean that there is an element m in M such that b * m = 0 => b in q, (might have to check my reasoning again)
but if this is the case, then look the the inverse image of the prime q, say it's p. Then a * m = 0 means that f(a) * m = 0 which means that f(a) in q, so a in p. which would mean that M_p is non-zero.
So it seems like this a map from Supp_B(M) --> Supp_A(M) which is just taking the inverse image of a prime, so same as restriction of Spec B --> Spec A
Just a real quick question regarding direct external products of two groups G and H;.... if the two groups are defined under binary operation of addition, their product G x H is just the cartesian product right?
yep, it's cartesian product whether you use additive or multiplicative notation
ok thanks
okay thanks
ill try think about this some more
as in
"b * m = 0 => b in q, (might have to check my reasoning again) "
but it seem slike this works
i dont really get why the centralizer of pi is a direct product of wreath products
basically C_ci here would "be" a single cycle and S_k_i just permutes the disjoint cycles of length c_1?
ah right yeah that's it, an element of the centralizer acts on the cycle decomposition of pi by permuting disjoint cycles of the same length
makes sense
Let $R, S$ be any rings, let $P$ be an $(R,S)$-bimodule, and $Q$ a left $B$-module.
If $P$ and $Q$ are both generators as left modules (over their respective rings), is $P \otimes_S Q$ also a generator in $A\text{-mod}$?
My idea to show this was the following: let $p \colon Q^n \to B$ be an epimorphism, and let for $M \in A\text{-mod}$ also $e \colon P^m \to M$ be epi.
Then
[
(P \otimes_S Q)^{n m} \cong P^m \otimes_S Q^n \xrightarrow{P^m \otimes p} P^m \otimes_B B \cong P^m \xrightarrow{e} M
]
is an epi, and so $P \otimes_S Q$ is a generator.
Is that correct?
expectTheUnexpected
Iām trying to find an isomorphism between (Z/6, +) and (Z^inv/7, *) but I am kind of at a loss
So Iāve gotta map 1 to 3 and 5 to 5 right? Seems like n mod 6 -> 3^n mod 7
looks right
It works for the generators but it seems like it doesnāt map each element in the first group to the second
nah, it works
{0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5} are maped to {1, 3, 2, 6, 4, 5}
in general if G is a group and g is an element of order n, you get a group homomorphism Z --> G which sends 1 to g, the kernel of this map is nZ and the image is <g>
so you get an isomorphism Z/nZ --> <g>
in our case, you found an element in (Z/7Z)* with order 6. the element is 3, so it also generates the group. which gives us the required isomorphism
let me know if that clears it up...
That makes sense, but is there a way to explicitly find the isomorphism each time? This example I just guessed and got n mod 6 -> 3^n mod 7 but for other problems seems like it could be troublesome
as in finding an isomorphism between Z/(p-1)Z and (Z/pZ)*?
that's like a computationally hard problem, finding a generator modulo a prime isn't easy
wait, really?
i thought any non-identity element (Z/pZ)* was a generator
and then you just map that to 1 in Z/(p-1)Z
wait no the first part def isn't true
ok
non identity of Z/pZ is a generator
yeah
Guys, I've some exercises about equivalence class and quotient set, but I didn't get the point yet. Can someone explain me the item A?
The exercise is asking for describing the equivalence class and quotient set in relation to ~ induced by the following functions.
Can someone explain it to me, pls?
I think the idea is that the equivalence classes are such that a ~ b if f(a) = f(b)? I'm not sure though, I've not seen problems like that before
how do you take the order of an element that is a pair? Like so: |(a,b)|? This is in the context of direct products of two groups G and H
where say (a,b) is in G x H
$\mathbb{Z}_2 \times \mathbb{Z}_2$
Zoro
for this my book says there is 4 elements
but order two
im not sure why, but what i guessed was they divided the order of elements of the group (4) by 2 to get order 2 for a pair elements
compute (a,b)^n for n= 1,2,3,...
untill u get the identity
or if u cant then its infinity
just like you would do in any group
@deep nova
ah ok
i know this is supposedly connected to the concept of colimits in category theory but i fail to see the point of it or even think of an example
i feel like the directed family {S_n} under inclusion might work but i have so much trouble even visualizing the operations that i dont see what group it might be isomorphic to
Direct limits are so useful
theyāre exact in modules for example which is nice
And they commute with a lot of things like say tensor product
im sure they are but even though i managed to do the exercises without an issue it's really hard to get a feel for them
Theyāre not something you deal with explicitly
IMO
Itās less a feel for and just something you do to reduce to say, finite generation
the universal property is the main important part i suppose?
Yes, they are, but even moreso I use it mostly to reduce to FG
Cuz anything is the direct limit of its finitely generated submodules
do you have an example
This is literally saying
A module is the union of finitely generated submodules
So now if you want to show a module is flat letās say
modulo the equivalence relation
No
Like
The fact itās the union of its finitely generated submodules
Is how youād show it satisfies the universal property for the direct limit
but how do you show it's the union of its finitely generated submodules
that sounds mad
yeah okay lmao
Hahah
i just overcomplicated things
Anyway so
Direct limits are exact and commute with tensor products
So to show M is flat
You only need to show it preserves injectivity for finitely generated modules
im not sure what exactness means or what a flat module is 
Okay
All it means here is
Suppose you have a system of maps
M_i -> N_i
Which are injective / surjective
Then let M and N be the direct limits of both sides
By the universal property you get a map
M -> N
If all the original maps of the M_i and N_i were injective / surjective
Then the map M -> N is injective / surjective
So sometimes you want to know a map is injective say
And you can write M and N as the direct limit of some stuff
Then you can reduce to showing each of the M_i -> N_i is injective
And this often lets you reduce to assuming all the modules are say finitely generated
And then your proof becomes easier / actually fucking possible
hard to see when youd need this but alright sure
It will pop up
i guess ill know it when i see it
Another example is that any ring is the union of its finitely generated Z-subalgebras
This literally means
Take a finite set of element r1,ā¦,rn
Take all polynomials in them with coefficients in Z
The upshot here is those sub rings are Noetherian
so again you can reduce to the Noetherian setting sometimes
And trust me
The Noetherian setting is 1000000000% better
hmm alright ill just trust you 
Itās something you just have to see in practice
Itās usually just a sort of technical tool
yeah i get that
That you use to take a hard problem and make it easier
can i not use it to construct interesting new groups?
(groups/rings/modules whatever)
I mean
So yes
You can construct S_infinity this way
I believe
As a direct limit of all S_n or something
But itās usually hard to get your hands on an explicit description of a direct limit without more info because the explicit construction kind of sucks
And verifying you have a direct system is kinda cringe
fair enough
However direct limits are used to construct the stalks of sheaves
Which are very very useful
But a bit further down the line
and i already have a construction of S_infinity anyways
Or maybe just never down the line
or at least i saw one i dont remember how it goes at all
this particular example captures the idea of a ring of all ways that functions that can be continuous at p?
that's kind of cool
i thought that was the way we were meant ot think about coproducts 
category theory really makes me wanna oiwejfoiaf
A discreet union
As in like they donāt overlap at all
But a direct limit identifies some elements via that equivalence relation right?
fair enough
Think about the āany module is the direct limit of fg submodulesā
If we did the coproduct itās like weāre ignoring the fact some of them intersect
you get rid of all repetitions yeah
This is the stalk of a sheaf 
oh lmao
But yes this is why these are important
If you just buy into the sheaf = some sets of functions we care about
The stalk = direct limit
Captures the behavior of those functions locally at that point
Like as a limit of all the nbds of p just like shrinking and shrinking and shrinking
So it says that f a function on U and g a function of V are equal in this stalk iff thereās a nbd of p, call it W, with W < U\cap V
Such that f|W = g|W
what's an nbd?
Open neighborhood
ah right
So f and g are equal in the stalk if theyāre āeventually the sameā
Where eventually means we just zoom in closer around p
Thatās what W is doing
so like every taylor polynomial gets identified with a corresponding analytic function?
I donāt know
Lol
My point is like
If youāre looking at like derivatives
At a point say 0
All you care about is behavior arbitrarily close to 0
So in that sense x^2 and some function thatās like
x^2 from (-0.000000001,0.0000001)
But then like idfk, e^x outside that
If all you care about is the derivative at 0
Then x^2 and this other function might as well be the same
right
and yet x^2 and the constant 0 function have the same derivative at 0 but arent identified 
Well I never said this is like bijective
fair
feels a bit random though, like when do you ever come across a function that's defined differently in all small enough nbds of a point than outside of those
it's not really as much of a local property since there's some finite radius for which the function is what you want within an nbd of that radius
so idk it doesnt really feel as much like a limiting process?
im not sure what im saying tbf
For complex analytic functions germs determine the entire function
This is the identity principle
Note that the germ at p is strictly more information than the value at p
x^2 and constant 0 are not identified as germs at 0
Even though their value at 0 is the same
right
You want to have basically as local information at a point p which still captures behavior on open sets around p
but isnt it more work to determine a germ at a point than just the function straight away?
given the direct limit construction?
Because germs are more local and when we only care about local info thatās what we want
cause sure determining f on a small open set will give us all of f but it feels like germs are more complex than that
They are which is why we want them
fair enough
Hmmm, so having a bit of trouble with this. I need to show that the intersection of two normal subgroups is normal.
what is troubling you
Well, we know that for any x in G, there exists, h,h' s.t. xh=h'x. However, what if this h' is not in HnK
Sorry, H and K are normal subgroups
We need to show HnK is also normal
let b be in both H&K
the $\forall g\in G, g(H\cap K)g^{-1} \subset H\cap K$ definition of normality might be easier to apply
TTerra
Speaking of, what would be a situation where those set is not equal?
which sets?
if that inclusion holds for all g then it's an equality for all g
xHx^-1 and H
when H is not normal, i suppose
Lol, alright. My book says H of G is normal iff xHx^-1 is a subset of H for all x in G
Anyways, back to the problem at hand
there's a: G -> A such that ker(a) = H
and b: G -> B such that ker(b) = K
let c: G -> AxB such that c(g) = (a(g), b(g))?
i think ker(c) will be H&K
Kernels are discussed in the next chapter
let $x\in G$ be arbitrary. to show that $x(H\cap K)x^{-1} \subset H\cap K$, let $h \in H \cap K$. then $h \in H$ and $h \in K$. what does normality tell you?
TTerra
that should start it off
It tells us there exists an h' in H and an k' in K so that xh=h'x and xh=k'x.
we're thinking of different definitions of normality
this will get confusing. let me think about yours
Well, if you want, xHx^-1 is a subset of H and xKx^-1 is a subset of K
yeah it's a nice one. "element-free" proofs are good
so xhx^-1 is in H and in K
Yes indeed
What you are talking about here is a theorem relating the definition with this in my book.
Of course, they are equivalent notions, but that's why I didn't think of that right away
actually now that i look at it
you can just $$x(H\cap K) = xH \cap xK = Hx \cap Kx = (H \cap K)x$$ or $$x(H\cap K)x^{-1} = xHx^{-1} \cap xKx^{-1} \subset H \cap K$$
TTerra
then you dont have to think about elements in H or K lol
(these set manipulations work because left/right multiplication and conjugation by x are bijections)
Tbh, I really liked the element approach. Normally I prefer to stay away from them, but this version was very simple
Moreover, it's a very natural way to do this with an arbitrary number of sets

so this is pretty easy with restrictions on the groups
is this true without any restrictions at all?
im guessing yes just maybe grasping 
i guess its just free 
theres not a whole lot to prove its just machinery
nvm
I assume ā means isomorphic?
If so, you have a pretty good guess at an isomorphism. $\phi((g_1,h_1))=(g_2,h_2)$.
dackid
i think its just definition putting
like its the same sort of thing as the direct product of groups is a group
it looked more interesting than it was š
Yea, this shouldn't be too difficult.
Direct Products are pretty nice to work with
they are honestly
i wish wed done them before FIT since its gives you limitless examples to practice with
FIT?
first isomorphism theorem
its very pretty š
We just started talking about kernels
my teacher in class said
she didnt know why they chose the word kernel
and she couldnt think of any thing it relates to in other fields

but doing products before fit seems right
Ah, kernel means seed
Gotta admit, I am surprised I got an answer with my search xp
Yep
i thought she was joking but then no one in class noticed or laughed or anything
and she didnt seem like she was joking
it seems like theres so many reasons thats the name
but someone asked and shes like "i have no idea" and theyre like "oh weird"
Well, linear algebra is just a subset of abstract algebra
i was thinking of that too, yea
like if linear came first or
algebra strengthened linear
or theyre just the same
im guessing some forms of linear came first
Well, it is definitely a mix in between.
To this day, more things are being developed to LA and Abstract Algebra
And since LA has groups we know so much about, we can learn a lot from them
la gives groups?
like invertible matrices of some size or something?
i havent really done lin alg other than a really intro course
The group of invertible matrices of size n under matrix multiplication
And the set of matrices of size n under matrix addition/or vector multiplication
Iirc, the combination of matrix addition and vector multiplication gives a ring.
Don't worry too much about it now. At its basic, rings are like groups with two operations isntead of 1.
I say 'like' because the multiplication operation removes some assumptions
Sorry, the two operations are called addition and multiplication
Ah, does not surprise me tbh
this game
the rules are really convoluted but the natural question was like
well when you play how many cards have to be on the table before a set exists, and then why the hell it seems like no matter which you recognize and which you dont, all cards can be setted at the end
Hmm, interesting
idk she cited an older game, i guess there are a lot of games like this
idk ill stop babbling
You're fine Jan, I'm just distracted rn
I am having major trouble showing that this is surjective
I have shown that this is a homomorphism and that it is injective
but surjectivity got me down bad
original question
Isn't an injective ring homomorphism an isomorphism onto its range?
so that $\phi(Frac(R))$ is the desired subfield of $F$
IlIIllIIIlllIIIIllll
@barren sierra
define K in this way
it shouldn't be hard to prove that this map is an isomorphism
given any element in K
sorry wait K is generated by the elements in the set in my picture
I mean K is how I defined F' essentially
but don't I have to prove that my defined F' is the whole range?
which is the same problem just different words
@barren sierra $F$ is a field extension of $R$, so we may as well assume that $R \subset F$.
IlIIllIIIlllIIIIllll
yea
your function $\phi$ is an injective ring homomorphism from $Frac(R)$ to $F$. So (I think so, but I have to verify) $\phi(Frac(R))$ is a subring of $F$ and $\phi$ is a ring isomorphism from $Frac(R)$ to $\phi(Frac(R)) \subset F$. Since $Frac(R)$ is a field, it follows that $\phi(Frac(R))$ is also a field, so you are done.
Hm
IlIIllIIIlllIIIIllll
This is exactly the proof
Frac(R) embeds into Fā by universal property of Frac(R) but then this is a subfield of F containing R so Fā by minimalist is contained in it
@barren sierra have you managed to resolve your confusion with the proof?

any recommended books for some self-learning?
Yuh
Although itās a little nonstandard due to category theory being a bit more central
The standard one is probably dummit and Foote
dropped Reals since it wasn't going well going to spend a little time with this book before Algebra next semester
aluffi + d&f
I figured the wizards in here were a good place to ask for reasonable undergrad level books
dummit and Foote cost $130 yeah this is probably the book most schools use if that's the price 
l*bgen
oh trust I'm not paying for a book for selfstudy
I just want to graduate so I want to spend my 30 hours of free time now that I'm sans-Real Analysis doing something to set me up for success next semester
rain destroyed my copy of aluffi 
Real talk bruh, fuck rain
the day I bought it 
Fucking rip dude
if i show that a finite extension of a perfect field is a separable extension, is it enough to say that it is perfect?
Umm
Are you trying to show that a finite extension is separable??
Or are you trying to show the field is perfect?
Because it sounds like youāre already assuming the field is perfect
i need to show that an algebraic extension of perfect field is perfect
Ah well
An algebraic extension of an algebraic extension is algebraic over the bottom thing
So like if K/L is algebraic, L perfect
You have some algebraic F/K then F/L is algebraic
So separable
Then that shows F/K is separable
Because well, if it werenāt then F/L has no chance of being separable
So I guess your question is
āIf every finite extension of K is separable does that mean K is perfectā
And yes this is enough
I am currently practising proofs and logic which are prerequisites of abstract algebra. I am referring to a popular book "mathematical proof: a transition to advanced mathematics"
Per a single topic, there are 15 practice problems and 15 examples I think are saturated and time-consuming. Of course, I have got less time in my hands.
Since I'm preparing for exam.
The quantified statements consists of more than 15 examples and problems.
How much are they required as far as my preperation is concerned?
Can someone help me with the process for using the euclidean algorithm to determine gcd(3+i,1-i) in Z[i]?
3+1 = (1-i)(-1) + 2
1-i = 2(??) + ?
I am stuck at the second part
2= (1-i)(1+i)
yea but shouldn't I be dividing 1-i by 2?
$$\frac{1-i}{2} $$
Mac
well in the euclidean algorithm you want the remainder to be smaller than (1-i), you didnt factor correctly at first step
Mac
But how should I write that in the euclidean algorithm?
3+i = (1-i)(1+2i) - 1?
3+ i = (1-i)(1+2i) - i
āāāāāā”·ā Braham Gƶdelā ⢾āāāāā
āāāāāā”·ā Braham Gƶdelā ⢾āāāāā
Is it right?
I mean, I know the class will be a pair like (x, 1) for a given y, each y will have a class
But I'm not sure how to write it formally.
I am supposed to find all the intermediate extensions of the splitting field of x^4+3 over Q that are Galois over Q. I have an answer but I am pretty sure it is wrong and I can't find the mistake. So here is the sequence of claims I have in my answer:
- Let 4th root of -3 be c. Then the roots of the above polynomial are some power of i times c.
- The splitting field is then Q(c,i).
- This is a degree 8 extension of Q because i is not in Q(c).
- This is generated by the 2 automorphisms:
r which maps c ā c, i ā -i
s which maps c ā ic, i ā i - These automorphisms satisfy r^2, s^4, rsrs = id, and by a cardinality argument the galois group is D_4. The normal subgroups of that are <s^2>, <r, s^2>, <rs^2>.
- ic is fixed by rs^2, thus Q(ic) is fixed by <rs^2>, and since this is degree 2 under the splitting field, this must be the fixed field.
This last result is wrong because Q(ic)/Q is not normal (it doesn't contain c which is a conjugate of ic). I am pretty sure the mistake is somewhere near the end but I am just not seeing it 
Pls just tell me I am doing the last step wrong and ic is somehow not fixed by rs^2
I don't wanna redo the whole thing
btw one thing before going forward.... who names s the rotation and r the swap??
okie, so i think the normal subgroups you claim are normal are false
is the convention the opposite one
<s^2> is the center
<s>, <s^2, r> and <s^2, rs> are subgroups of index 2
yea lol, r should be rotation and s should be swap š
damn I see
isn't rs^2 just another swap?
like any r*(s^i) is a swap
and swaps don't commute with rotations

thank š
Ok what am I doing wrong now lol
Conjugating s by r we have
rsr = s^-1
So <s> can't be normal
But it has index 2 so it should be?
What is going on have I forgotten group theory 
normal doesn't mean it commutes lol it just means that r<s>r = <s>
need to extend ag deadline lol
Pls mail him
yea lemme watch lecture 10 before mailing
Mapping cones š
another three hours š¶
Any one know what the set X is?
triples (a,b,c) where a,b,c are 0 or 1
i see
Can someone help me understand this
Suppose A and B are rings and f is a ring morphism
Then B is a module over A
Suppose now M is another ring
And there is a ring morphism from B to M
M gets the structure of an A module
From the composition of maps
And M gets the structure of a B module from this map
What I want to know is
Is the M as a B module
Just the same as
$M \otimes_A B$
lime_soup
I don't think so
Damn
What I am really trying to understand
Is in this situation I want to know that the support of M as an A module is comtained in the support of M as a B module
But Iām not sure how to see this
Can't you say that M āį“ B ā
M because
M x B ā M defined by
(m,b) ⦠bm
Is A-linear so induces a map from the tensor to M
And M ā M āį“ B given by
m ⦠m ā 1
Is a 2 sided inverse to this
these aren't inverses
consider A = R, B = M = C
M tensor B will be dim 4 real vector space
This doesn't seem semantically correct because the support of M as an A module is a subset of spec A while the other is a subset of spec B
Right, I see
i don't wanna hear Spec 
Is that where this goes wrong
Or like is one of the maps not defined or something
ah
m tensor b --> bm --> bm tensor 1
Since you are only able to move around scalars of A
how did u get these symbols
okay yes but i think there is a way
just take the zerosets or something
google gboard latex dictionary (if you are using gboard on Android)
thx
sorry det this is the same question you answered the other day but im still confused
(just saying this in case you thought ignored what you said the other day)
lol i didn't mind that... i didn't prolly understand it well enough
moldi's emoji makes me more sad lol
Ignore det 
Okay just to double check
A to B to M maps of rings
B is an A module
M is a B module
M is an A module
the following is not true? : M as a B-module is M āį“ B (where M is taken as an A module in this tensor product)
Nope
chungus rip
ahh
but the following is true
if B is a subring of A
then the support of M as an A module is contained in the support of M as a B module
and this does make sense because now the prime ideals are living in the right place
the ideals in a sub ring
are just the ideals that are contained in the subring
sorry kinda tired, have to watch a lecture...
yes
okay
was "then the support of M as an A module is contained in the support of M as a B module" correct for B a subring of A
that doesn't make sense if you don't relate Spec B with Spec A
but if B is a subring of A then you have a ring map from B to A so this induces a map from Spec A to Spec B
which should be intersecting an ideal of A with B ?
okay
ill go try think about this map
hey guys, I should show the identity element of the group of permutations S_n is (1 1, 2 2, 3 3, ... ..., n n)
the identity * sigma (where sigma is an arbitrary permutation) yields the identity
However I am having trouble with sigma * identity because we have 1 -> 1 and 1 -> sigma(1) (where sigma(1) is the first entry for the arbitrary permutation sigma)
you mean yields sigma?
oh wait, I am doing something wrong
what I mean in here is identity = inverse of sigma
oh lol
nvm
I get it
hello friends
thanks to you all i got a very high score on my algebra midterm
well sort of i know i didnt ask too many questions here but
the help is appreciated and im sure when i studied my homeworks again you all came back in that manner


Gg
š§
Hi guys, is there any clue to show that at least one element of {-1,2,-2} is a square in Z/pZ, for all prime p?
The multiplicative group of Z/pZ is isomorphic to Z/(p-1)Z. Considering some isomorphism between the two, how does being a square in the multiplicative group of Z/pZ translate to a property in Z/(p-1)Z? @untold cloud
You can either go down that path or note that x^(2m+1) * x^(2n+1) = x^2(m+n+1): both are equivalent but mine frames it more in terms of morphisms so I find it kind of neat
Thank you, but i do not have clue how to go down the isomorphism path. f is the isomorphism, f(a^2) = f(a)^2. And what should i do next?
Z/(p-1)Z is an additive group (and the isomorphism is from Z/pZ^* to Z/(p-1)Z)
Oh, Thank you. I solved it by considering f:Z/pZ --> Z/pZ, x-->x^2, and then the image of Z/pZ{0} --->Z/pZ{0} is a multiplicative subgroup of index 2, then if two of {-1,2,-2} is not a square, then the product is a square
Mf said he needs to get good but he already got good
Suppose $F \subset L \subset L(\alpha)$ and that $[F(\alpha) : F]$ and $[L : F]$ are relatively prime. Prove that the minimal polynomial of $\alpha$ over $L$ is in $F[x]$.
eM
Should that be F(alpha) in that towers of extension?
I'm wondering if that is a typo.
In addition, I'm not quite sure how to approach this problem.
at a glance yeah seems like it should be $F \subseteq F(\alpha) \subseteq L$
young_smasher
actualyl that doesn't make sense
maybe it should be $[L(\alpha) : F]$ instead of $F(\alpha)$? idk
young_smasher
hmm maybe there's no type
typo*
i think consider the diagram
% https://tikzcd.yichuanshen.de/#N4Igdg9gJgpgziAXAbVABwnAlgFyxMJZARgBoAmAXVJADcBDAGwFcYkQAxEAX1PU1z5CKAAyli1Ok1bsOACgA6CpmgAW9AJQ8+IDNjwEi5cZIYs2iEABlt-fUKJkRp6ReuLljNZp6SYUAHN4IlAAMwAnCABbJDEQHAgkcl4wyJjEOISkYhSQCOjsmizEAGZc-PTjeMTS7kpuIA
\begin{tikzcd}
& L(\alpha) & \
F(\alpha) \arrow[ru] & & L \arrow[lu] \
& F \arrow[ru] \arrow[lu] &
\end{tikzcd}
A simple visual editor for creating commutative diagrams.
young_smasher
So like
Here this shows that [L(alpha):F] >= mn by them being relatively prime
But Iām pretty sure explicitly you can show that itās <= mn
By just like combining some polynomials
The upshot is that [L(alpha):L] = m
Which is the same as [F(alpha):F]
And this says that alphaās min poly over F has the same degree as alphaās min poly over L
Oh so it's a diagram of extensions where one isn't contained in other.
But note that the min poly over F is also a poly over L
So that the min poly are the same
Okay that makes more sense then.
The only thing I havenāt shown on here is that [L(alpha):F] <= mn
Like
Okay yes
This is easy
Because note that [L(alpha):L] <= m
Reason is
Itās the degree of alphaās min poly over L
i think once you have the two towers of extensions it's easy to prove that [L(alpha) : L] = [F(alpha) : F]
But the degree of alphaās min poly over F is degree m
And a poly over F
Is in particular a poly over L
So the min poly of alpha over L has degree <= m
So now we have [L(alpha):L] = [L(alpha):L][L:F] <= mn
But we also know itās a multiple of m and n and since those are coprime itās >= mn
Idk ĀÆ_(ć)_/ĀÆ
The point is you want to show [F(alpha):F] = [L(alpha):L]
And I think you have to decompose the thing and use the fact itās a multiple of coprime things to show itās >= their product
hmm i think you can just do it directly
like from the diagram i drew it's like [F(alpha) : F][L(alpha) : F(alpha)] = [L(alpha : L][L : F] and i want to say that coprime just gives you things for free
Umm
I feel like I did a group theory problem that resembles this but I can't remember it--using coprimality to deduce relationships/properties between groups.
Like the LHS here
Maybe like order of GH is product of orders when coprime
i would just write out hte prime factorization lmao
and i think coprime should do the rest
But you need a way to relate [L(alpha):L] and [F(alpha):F]
And that is only ever going to be an inequality
my equation (which i fixed) should relate them
it's cause orders of extensions are multiplicative
No
Because youāre asserting something like
ab =cd with b,d coprime implies ab = bd
This isnāt true unless you know some more stuff
you need a relation between a and c
And in this specific case all you have is an equality between them
I mean if you can prove me wrong pls go ahead but Iām very doubtful
Like by coprime you know the value is a multiple of the products of the coprime things
But to get that itās equal requires another argument
And I think this basically just boils down to an inequality since the only thing you can really get from this is that [L(alpha):L] <= [F(alpha):F]
ye
K thanks
How would I work this out
try representing them as matrices
i donāt think youāre doing that the right way
In the context of a group of order $p^2q$, p and q are prime, what does the notation $n_q=1$ usually denote? I believe it just means the exponent of q
fajitas
if q doesn't divide p^2 - 1, then you can say that the number of sylow q subgroups is 1. n_q should be that.
Thank you!
Trying to find an isomorphism from (F, +) to G where G={[1,x; 0,1] x in F} and I think it should just be mapping x to matrix [1,x;0,1]. Only problem Iām having is proving that phi(x+y)=phi(x)+phi(y)
It seems to fall apart as left hand is [1, x+y; 0, 1] and RHS is same but with 2 in place of 1s
Iām thinking I am using the wrong operation on the right side or something
@elfin patrol What is [1, x; 0, 1] * [1, y; 0, 1]?
operation on G is matrix multiplication and not addition
so you actually want to prove phi(x+y) = phi(x) * phi(y)
anyone here have professor nate
Can someone quickly summarize how to use the theory of finite abelian groups to classify groups?
classification of groups 
How does ya boy classify these finite abelian groups?
Is it literally just the different factorizations?
Like if I have a group of order $12=2^2 3$ then is $Z_2 + Z_2 + Z_3, Z_4 + Z_3, Z_2 + Z_6$?
fajitas
Ahhh okay š
is the orbit that of conjugation?
well |orbit(x)| is a constant in a conjugacy class right
yes
so do you see how to do the sum now?

Yep
hmm use orbit-stabalizer i think
well depending on what you are summing over, use orbit-stabilizer to make 1/|C| nicer and then sum that
anyhow i gotta run for now
I see that a nilpotent group G can be defined by having it's upper central series terminate at G. Yet equivalently a nilpotent group may be defined by having it's lower central series terminate at the identity. How are these definitions equivalent?
I'm trying to prove that if a polynomial over Q with nonzero constant and nonzero leading coefficient is irreducible, then so is the polynomial formed by reversing all the coefficients (i.e the constant value is now the leading coeff, the leading coeff becomes the constant, everything backwards).
I don't feel like it's intuitive at all
I was thinking of Eisenstiens Criterion, but that criterion is just an implication and not a "if and only if", so with the given setup I don't see how it could be used.
I'm sure there's some fact stemming from irreducibility I need to work with
I'm listening, anything to get the brain going
