#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 627 of 407
Yeah it’s just 1/x
Note that the term that used to be degree d
Turns into degree n-d
Since you have x^n times 1/x^d
So it does indeed flip all the coefficients
so, what would that procedure do the the leading coefficient? It feels like it would be inflating it to larger degree, maybe I'm not understanding
a_nx^n goes to x^na_n(1/x^n)
= a_n
So it becomes the constant
And I think I have a proof idea
If the reversed polynomial factors as g•h
Then I think you can maybe try to reverse g and h and that factors f
Since like we know that
x^nf(1/x) = g(x)h(x)
Then say deg g = k, deg h = r, then k + r = n
Then if we plug in 1/x to this
We get (1/x)^nf(x) = g(1/x)h(1/x)
Multiply by x^n
f(x) = x^ng(1/x)h(1/x)
Break this up like f(x) = x^kg(1/x)•x^rh(1/x)
So f(x) is factored via reversing g and h and by assumption those were degree > 0
So indeed this shows f wasn’t irreducible to begin with
Schmoney
I did a problem which I think involved doing a 1/x thing before
So I remembered the idea
This also doesn’t require Q at all lmao
This just works over any field
Ah, make sense. So it would work in like Z_5 all the same?
yeah, just inverse and multiplicative cancellation stuff, all field properties
Yup
The one thing that needs a field and not a ring
Is that if x^nf(1/x) factored as gh
That degree g and degree h > 0
Since that’s used to show when we reverse g and h that this actually shows f wasn’t irreducible
But it might work out even over any ring
Or maybe an integral domain
Idk, I don’t feel like trying it out lol
Actually I’m pretty sure it does
Kekw
But yeah, you can try to find the most general statement if you’d like
yeah, I think it all makes sense. Thanks for the help ! 

Thanks everyone who helped me do commutative algebra the past few months. I just finished the last exercise in Matsumura! Big thanks to @gritty sparrow
Is the following true:
An $R$-module $M$ is \emph{faithfully flat} iff the functor $M \otimes -$ is exact and faithful.
expectTheUnexpected
So of course I'm only asking "if $M$ is flat, then it is faithfully flat iff $M \otimes -$ is faithful."
I guess in one direction it's: If $M \otimes f \colon M \otimes A \to M \otimes B$ is zero, then we have an exact sequence $0 \to M \otimes A \xrightarrow{M \otimes f} M \otimes B \to 0$, and since $M$ is faithfully flat, $0 \to A \xrightarrow{f} B \to 0$ is exact again, whence $f = 0$, establishing faithfulness of the functor.
expectTheUnexpected
Ok, so apparently, faithful additive functors between abelian categories reflect SES's, so the other direction follows as well.
That’s the definition is it not?
Oh you mean faithful in the general categorical sense
yeah, sorry if I was imprecise 
I think my “definition” of faithful as a functor which reflects SESes might be one I just made up lol
like what, "an additive functor between abelian cats is called Ab-faithful if it reflects SES". But then I think that F is Ab-faithful iff it is faithful, basically the same proofs as above for both directions. So your notion seems to work, right?
mns
Where S is a subset of an arbitrary Vector space V
Your lemma is certainly wrong (since S is just a subset, but <S> is a subspace).
If you take an arbitary element in <<S>>, how would you write it down? Can you massage the expression to get something which looks like an element in <S>?
it would be a vector from V which belongs to <S>
So, every element in <S> can be written as a (finite) sum of elements in S with coefficients, right?
Well.. these lectures notes I am using didn't introduced linear combinations yet (?)
just a sec, I will show you the author argument
Does <<S>> contain <S>?
yes it does
It was the sentence "But then <S> is a subspace of V containing <S> itself".
that I didn't understand
Well, <S> is a subspace, so it certainly contains itself, right?
well yeah for any space V, we have $V \leq V$
mns
But by definition, <<S>> is the smallest subspace containing <S>. So <<S>> \subset <S> \subset <<S>>
but why is it the smallest?
oh nvm
The smallest subspace containing <S>, is the subspace of V generated by <S>
Which corresponds to <<S>> such that <S> is contained in <<S>>
so <S> subset <<S>>
So we're claiming <<S>> is the smallest subspace produced by <S> ?
No, that's the definition
Basically we're showing that the smallest of the smallest subspace generated by S is equal to the smallest subspace generated by S?
Yep, that's the assertion $\langle \langle S \rangle \rangle = \langle S \rangle$
expectTheUnexpected
Okay, this is probably a fairly basic question but I'm trying to prove something for a course in commutative algebra and I'm floundering about. I have a ring A with an ideal I, and I'm looking at their quotient. I've gotten to the point where for $a \in A$ I know that $a + I = 0$. I want to say that then $a = 0$ or $a \in I$, is that true?
TheKikko
just a in I, because 0 is always in I
Oh, alright. Perfect! Thank you 😄
When can we write $Z[x]/I$ as $Z[\alpha ]$? (My guess is not always as if $I=(p,x)$ then we have $Z/pZ$ which is not $Z[\alpha]$ for any alpha ). In particular does $Z[\alpha]$ always contain $Z$? I am confused about what $Z[\alpha ]$ means in general.
Ashutosh Jangle
Is alpha a complex number?
need not be
is it given to be an element satisfying certain polynomial equations?
$\alpha $ comes from quotienting by $I$, so if $I=(x^2+1)$ then we have that $\alpha =i$
Ashutosh Jangle
So it seems alpha is the equivalence class of x by that definition
yea
So Z[alpha] won't necessarily contain Z
because I could be, for example the ideal generated by 2 in Z[x]
Then the quotient is (Z/2Z)[x]
There is a map from Z to Z[alpha] but it may not be injective
the map is
Z → Z[x] → Z[x]/I = Z[alpha]
The composition of these
So for some alpha Z/pZ=Z[alpha] , that seems weird
Z[alpha] is either a polynomial ring or there is a ring R containing Z and alpha and then Z[alpha] is the smallest ring containing Z and alpha
There is also an abstract adjoining of elements satisfying some relations, like if you say that alpha is an abstract element satisfying some set of relations R, then you define Z[alpha] = Z[x]/(R) and say alpha = [x]
is it correct to say that in a strict UFD, every element can be decomposed into prime factors, or is it better to say irreducible factors?
what's a strict ufd? like one that is not a pid?
don't think that matters because in UFDs irreducibles and primes are the same thing.
i'm trying to find or come up with a definition of a PID that doesn't mention ideals
like trying to word it without using the ideal concept
i think dedekind hasse valuation might be useful...
hmm just might be
like UFDs have the notion of unique factorization, and Euclidean domains have Euclidean division
so what basic notion would be intrinsic to PIDs?
PID's have a form of "euclidean division" in a little weaker sense
so say you have an integral domain D with a valuation say d : D\{0} --> N
and say that a, b are elements such that b is not 0.
a normal euclidean division would say that you can find q such that a-bq is either 0 or an element with smaller valuation
but what if you're also allowed to have a factor with a? that's exactly what a dedekind hasse valuation is, you can find p and q such that ap-bq has smaller valuation or b just divides a.
you can practically use the same proof of Euclidean => PID to show that if D has a dedekind hasse valuation then D is a PID.
start with an ideal I, take the nonzero b with smallest valuation. then for any a in I, ap-bq can't have a smaller valuation as b was the minimum, is b is forced to divide a showing I = (b)
so like O_k of Q(√-19) has a dedekind hasse valuation but p=/=1?
yea, if you could assert that p = 1, then it would just be a euclidean domain, but it's quite well known that O_k has no universal side divisors so can't be euclidean
i remember that for dedekind domains the notions of UFD and PIDs coincide...
basically Q(√-19) is not eucidean, so there does not exist a q such that d(a-bq)<d(b) for any choice of valuation d?
yea
and to show that, one way is to first get some sort of a criterion which is independent of the valuation
universal side divisor is one I know of. if D is a euclidean domain, then look at the non-zero non-unit with smallest valuation, call it u. Then for any non-zero element of a of D, either u divides a or u divides a + some unit
for k = Q(√-19), it's easy to find all units in O_k, so not hard to see that it has no universal side divisors, hence it can't be euclidean
PID -
And Euclidean domian - p can be set to 1
alright thanks m8

i have this question here on my homework:
Let $G$ be a finite group and $H\leq G$. For $a\in G$, let $f(a)$ be the smallest positive integer $d$ such that $a^d\in H$. Prove that $f(a)\mid|a|$.
[Hint: Consider the cyclic group $\langle a\rangle$].
Snodlop
i think i worked out the case regarding cyclic groups using the fundamental theorem of cyclic groups, but i'm not sure how to extend that to non-cyclic groups
i asked this question in a help channel here as well, and while typing it up i briefly ruminated on the notion of applying lagrange's theorem (but again, i'm not sure how to accurately apply it)
is there some way to find f(a) with the information that |H| divides |G|?
let a^d be h, and let the order of h be e; is the order of a just de?
am i correct for addition in saying that $(b_0 + b_1p + ...) + (b_0'+b_1'p+...) = (b_0 + b_0') + (b_1+b_1')p+...$ where each addition $b_i + b_i'$ is done mod $p^{i+1}$?
𝓛’ai Eric Stove ✓
im getting a bit confused frankly
yeah i expected that
but im getting really confused with patching that together with the addition as seen in the inverse limit
cause in the inverse limit you just add component wise
right but you're adding different things
so what's an element of the inverse limit?
an element of the inverse limit would be a sequence $(a_0,a_1,...)$ where each $a_i$ is a least residue mod $p^i$ and $a_j \equiv a_i \operatorname{mod} p^i$ for $j\geq i$
𝓛’ai Eric Stove ✓
right
and then i took the hint and wrote each least residue as a base p expansion
nice nice
so that the morphisms $\mu_{ij}$ have the effect of truncating powers of $p$ that are greater or equal to $i$
𝓛’ai Eric Stove ✓
right
so then if I write $a_1 = b_0, a_2 = b_0 + b_1p, a_3 = b_0 + b_1p + b_2p^2$ and similarly for the $a_i'$, dont i get that $(a_i){i\in \mathbb{Z}^+} + (a_i'){i\in \mathbb{Z}^+} = (a_i + a_i'){i\in \mathbb{Z}^+} = (\alpha_i){i\in \mathbb{Z}^+}$ so that each component has base p expansion $\alpha_1 = b_0+b_0' \operatorname{mod} p, \alpha_2 = b_0+b_0' + (b_1 + b_1')p \operatorname{mod} p^2, ...$?
𝓛’ai Eric Stove ✓
but when you add two base p number you have to carry over the stuff, else that extra part is lost
maybe think it like this...
you have a power series b0 + b1 p + ...
but since the b_0 + b_0' for example is done mod p doesnt that carry over get lost?
like i get that you should have a carry over but i dont see where that comes in by arguing purely from the inverse limit construction
right, lets go over that
like you said, the corresponding element of the inverse limit is just the collection of all it's partial sums...
think about how you write a real number... you just give an expansion in base 10... with as much precision as you want
so think of 'p' as being very smol
so yea... if you have two power series (b_i) and (c_i)... how should be add them?
looking at a precision of p^n, that is looking this modulo p^n we know what the numbers (b_i) and (c_i) correspond to in Z/p^n
so do you now see that all the lower powers of p should have a carry over?
but since we're mod p^n all the things that cross it are kinda lost
but they'll be just recovered again if you started with a higher precision
right
so when i was adding the a_1 components i was losing information since i was adding mod p but that's recovered when i add a_2 and a_2' since im adding mod p^2?
right
right i think i see
so if you define the sum with carry over and say you got a power series (a_i)...
then going mod p^n we will definitely have
(b0 + b1 p + ... + b_{n-1}p^{n-1}) + (c0 + c1 p + ... + c_{n-1}p^{n-1}) = (a0 + a1 p + ... + a_{n-1}p^{n-1})
so this has to be the right multiplication
im not sure i get what you're trying to say
okei so let's take an example
lets say p = 5
and i wanna see what -1 looks like
mod 5, it's 4
mod 25, its 24 = 4 + 4 * 5
mod 125, it's 124 = 4 + 4 * 5 + 4 * 5^2
so -1 in the inverse limit is represented by the power series 4 + 4 * 5 + 4 * 5^2 + ...
and adding that to 1 gives you 0 because of the carry over i can see that
yee!
it might seem that you're getting higher and higher powers of p... but like we think of p as smol so that's not an issue
how do you properly "define" carry over addition for an infinite series though?
i think you can define some topology on it where p actually becomes smol
yeah the p adic metric does it i believe
like do you want to explicitly write an algorithm?
it's not very different from the usual base 10 thing... but in "reverse" direction
well im just not sure how formally the exercise wants me to describe addition
and i cant really write an algorithm can I? Since the series are infinite so the process would never end
ah but in the inverse limit each component has a finite expansion
so would i just say we get regular finite carry over addition in the components which translates to infinite carry over globally?
by algorithm i meant like how to get a_i if you've computed everything till a_{i-1}
just define it formally, and say it works?
ah right
so definition of ai would be something like (b_i + c_i + previous carry over) % p and next carry over = floor((b_i + c_i + previous carry over)/p)
yeah really not bothered to write that
yea lol
ill stick to a verbal description
arithmetic becomes weird when you have bases lol
a simpler situation occurs when you instead look at the ring k[x] and the prime x
if you do the same construction, you'll see that you recover k[[x]]
yea lol
but if you think about it... addition and multiplication of real numbers is also very painful
we just don't need to do it lol
true
is it possible to deduce the addition table for F4 given no other information aside from the defn of a field
i think so
it's a field, so it's characteristic must be a prime number...
so you know adding anything to itself in F4 should give 0
and the underlying abelian subgroup has order 4, which forces it to be Z/2Z * Z/2Z
wait how does prime characteristic -> x + x = 0, for x in F
was struggling to make that link earlier
oh because F4 has size 4... characteristic is the additive order of the element 1, so it divides 4
characteristic is either 2 or 4
but it can't be 4
the characteristic can't be composite follows directly from the definition of a field that every non-zero thing has an inverse
like if characteristic was m*n then (1 + ... +1) m times and (1 + ... +1) n times would multiply to give 0
why is it that the characteristic must divide 4? i get everything else
have you seen some group theory?
if yes, i'm just using lagrange's theorem with the underlying additive group of F4
order 1 divides the order of the group = 4
if not, then consider this
if you add 1 to every element of F4, you should get a permutation of F4. if the sum of elements of F4 was s, then it should also be 4 + s showing 4 = 0 in F4
studied some group theory a year ago but im currently limited to results shown in class, not including group theory
but yeahi see
tysm !!
the exact same thing shows that additive subgroup of any F_{p^n} is (F_p)^n
char has to divide p^n, so must be p. Then only abelian subgroups of order p^n such that multiplying stuff by p gives 0 is (F_p)^n
If G is not a cyclic group then there exists at least one subgroup H ≤ G that is not cyclic.
Is this true in general if we restrict it to proper subgroups that aren't the identity element?
I am sure it is not but I don't know that many examples of groups
lol
narwhal gave you a specific counterexample, but here's a cool argument:
if this were true, since H is not cyclic, the proposition applies to it again, and so you can keep getting non cyclic groups as small as you want
but there aren't non cyclic groups as small as you want
could this be true if G were an infinite noncyclic group?
The Fall semester of 2013 just ended and one of the classes I taught was abstract algebra. The course is intended to be an introduction to groups and rings, although, I spent a lot more time discussing group theory than the latter. A few weeks into the semester, the students were asked to prove the following theorem.
██▓▒░⡷⠂Braham Gödel⠐⢾░▒▓██
I know it's not reflexive, cuz (1,1) not in omega.
it's symmetric, cuz for each (a,b) in omega, there's a (b,a) in omega.
But how do I prove if it's transitivity?
You can interpret the relation as "if x is large, then y must be small" (obviously not very descriptive) and vice versa
With this can you come up with a guess?
Can I use 3 pairs like a, b, c? Then I sum a with b, and so on. So I prove that it's not transitive?
If you are trying to show that it's not transitive, you have to give a counterexample
Here's a hint ||make a and c large, b small||
This is pretty easy with model theory. We have groups of arbitrarily large finite size with that property (Zp x Zp) and this property can be expressed in first order logic, so by the compactness theorem there is an infinite group with this property
In fact this gives you any infinite cardinality
First order expressibility is only there if you restrict to abelian groups (this doesn't affect the result, you get infinite abelian examples)
thanks, moldi
nice one
audi?
yoo whats good
yoo lol
If you have a chain complex (C,d) How is 0 —> Hom(H_n(C);G) —> H^n(C;G) —> Ext(H_n-1(C);G) —> 0 exact
I am reading hatcher and it is a lot to keep track of, Does anyone know of any good explanations online or MSE answers?
thanks that's really neat!
Sort of a dumb question, but if somebody says "K is a root field over F" they just mean K is the root field of some polynomial over F right?
My book defines the root field of a polynomial a(x) over F but not that other wording.
(I'm not sure if root field is common terminology but I think other books call it a splitting field instead.)
Haven't seen that terminology, but yea seems right if you replace it with splitting fields.
There's actually an equivalent description of a splitting field which doesn't require mentioning the polynomial. It's (finite) normal.
Or more generally an extension is normal iff there is a collection of polynomials such that the extension is the smallest field where all those polynomials split completely.
That makes sense.
Let $V$ be a representation of some group G. We know that $V^{\otimes 2} = S^2 V \oplus \wedge^2 V$.
For which $k$ does $V^{\otimes k}$ has $\wedge^n V$ as a direct summand?
Gromov
Put differently, I'm trying to figure out for which $k$ does $V^{\otimes k}$ contains the sign representation as a subrepresentation.
Gromov
What if $\wedge^n V$ is a different 1-dimensional representation of $G$? Or is this not considered?
Icy001
I can only think of using the character table and orthogonality relations for any given example, but not any criterion in general
If I'm not mistaken, since the sign function on a matrix is calculated by a determinant, the sign representation is obtained by $\wedge^n V$ on an n-dimensional space.
Gromov
How would you get the result in this way?
The determinant of the trivial $n$-dimensional representation would be the trivial 1-dimensional representation, no?
Icy001
We just find a formula for <character of V^n, sign representation> in terms of n
Sorry, I meant for a nontrivial V. Let us even make it irreducible nontrivial
Okay, let G be Z/nZ. Irreducible nontrivial representations have determinant equal to themselves!
So what you are saying is that for each V we have k such that $V^\otimes k$ contains a one dimensional representation
Gromov
No, I mean for a general group.
I was just showing you that the determinant of a nontrivial representation isn't always the sign representation
Yeah, I get it, I'm just trying to generalize my first question: prove that for each irrep V of some group G have k such that $V^\otimes k$ contains a one dimensional representation
Gromov
Okay that sounds better
I thought about doing it through the sign representation
In general I still think we should use the det
thus we have just 1 as a result for the det
Ah yes
more precisely a constant
Maybe it's true that $V^{\otimes n}$ always contains $\wedge^n V$ as a subrepresentation?
Icy001
I believe there's a known decomposition of tensor powers into symmetric and alternating powers
and if you just care that there's a 1 dimensional subrepresentation
there is the Schur-weyl duality
Well, $\wedge^{\dim V} V$ is always 1-dimensional
Icy001
but it's an overkill
Maybe just provide a G-injection $\wedge^n V\to V^{\otimes n}$
correct. So we're left to find that tensor power of V
Icy001
Just use the dimension of V 👀
How?
Didn't you use n as the dimension of V?
yeah
I was saying there's a decomposition of $V^{\otimes n}$ with one of its factors being $\wedge^n V$ which solves your problem
Icy001
I agree.. I mean how do I construct this injecton
i
and if you didn't want to use some overkill theorem, I think it should just be possible to show that $\wedge^n V$ G-equivariantly injects into $V^{\otimes n}$
Icy001
Maybe try the obvious map
I think it's a good time to admit I'm terrible at tensor calculations. Do we know for sure that $V^{\otimes n}$ includes $\wedge^n V$?
Gromov
I have high confidence in it but I don't know it for sure
What about combinatorial considerations? Can you think of a way to generalize the $V^{\otimes 2} = S^2 V \oplus \wedge^2 V$ case?
Gromov
The map $S^2 V\to V^{\otimes 2}$ should go something like $vw\mapsto v\otimes w+w\otimes v$ right?
Icy001
and $\wedge^2 V\to V^{\otimes 2}$ is $v\wedge w\mapsto v\otimes w-w\otimes v$
Icy001
That sounds pretty generalizable to higher powers
I tend to agree.. I mean it is rather obvious by the definition of wedge power that it is contained in the tensor power
ye, that's one of the constructions of the exterior power
You can take the tensor power and look only at elements on which $S_n$ permutating the factors acts by sign
Icy001
The other construction is to take the tensor power and quotient by the relation $v\otimes w+w\otimes v=0$
Icy001
Equivalent constructions in characteristic 0
Glad to have helped!
What is the name for the following algebraic structure:
$S$ is a set with a binary operation $(a,b) \mapsto ab$, and $X \subset S$ is such that $ab, b \in X$ implies $a \in X$.
expectTheUnexpected
Actually, in my specific case, $X$ is even a submagma, but $ab, a \in X$ does not imply $b \in X$.
expectTheUnexpected
just check if sums, products and additive inverses of symmetric polynomials are symmetric or not.
how do we know that 3 does not divide 2-sqrt(-5)?
and similarly that 2+sqrt(-5) is not a multiple of 3
cause they just say "3 doesnt divide the coefficients" but i dont see why that should mean it doesnt divide the quadratic integer
a multiple of 3 looks like 3(m + sqrt(-5)n) = 3m + sqrt(-5)(3n)
oh right of course we cant get any cancelling since there's no sqrt(-5) term in 3
silly me
yee
thnx
is there a way in which we can quotient by units to get equality of the gcds?
in general really is there a way to quotient by units for a ring
so of course this wouldnt be a regular quotient of a ring by an ideal since we'd just get the trivial ring
but maybe there's some other equivalence relation such that this notion is useful?
maybe quotienting the additive group by the normal closure of the group of units (viewed additively) 🤔
i know that we dont need the gcd's to be equal but im just wondering
but if you quotient by this equivalence relation, you'll obviously lose the additive structure
yeah
you keep the multiplicative structure if the ring is commutative yeah
a lot of people like to phrase unique prime factorization theorem modulo this relation
does it have any proper uses though?
not any serious ones ig? because ideals just do the job far better?
cause all you get in the end is a monoid...
yeah fair enough
we dont have a guarantee that (a,b) is a unit in the more general case??
how can we just divide
mns
oop sorry
sorry me
but no it is not true @simple mulch
exactly!
however $x\in S \implies x\in \left<S\right >$
𝓛’ai Eric Stove ✓
So what can we say when we take x in <S> ?
by definition gcd(a, b) divides both a and b. so that makes sense
that $x$ is expressible as a finite product of elements of $S$
𝓛’ai Eric Stove ✓
fair enough
i must be tired today ugh
so, now suppose we want to prove <S> = the set of all linear combinations of elements in S, we can't assume that (?)
oh are you working with modules
i thought you meant in the context of groups
but yeah in the context of modules $\left <S\right > =$the set of linear combinations of elements of $S$
I am sorry, with modules? This is from lecture notes in linear algebra 😐
why is there an emoji 
𝓛’ai Eric Stove ✓
ah okay so a vector space
it is also true in vector spaces yes
the way to show it is to show that the set of all linear combinations is a subset of $\left < S\right >$, which isnt too hard to show, and that any subspace containing $S$ must contain all linear combinations of elements of $S$
𝓛’ai Eric Stove ✓
so you get equality by double inclusion
wait sorry
lemme rewrite that
nvm it's correct
lmao i really am tired
Yeah I was thinking about taking v in <S> and show v in W
and the converse
take v in W and show it is in <S>
(W is the set of all linear combinations of elements in S)
yeah so the converse is easier
instead of handling elements v of <S> individually it's better to work straight with the definition of <S>
my definition of <S> is that it is the smallest subspace of V (the vector space) containing S
Namely $\left <S\right > = \bigcap_{S\subset U, U\subset V}U$ where $V$ is the ambient space and $U$ is a subspace of $V$
𝓛’ai Eric Stove ✓
so if you show every $U$ contains $W$ you're all set
𝓛’ai Eric Stove ✓
uh
just say directly? it's clear that W is a subspace containing S. And if a subspace U contains S, then since U is closed under addition and scalar multiplication, it contains all finite linear combinations of elements of S, so it contains W. no need to first show that <S> exists by taking intersections.
but yea it's almost the same lol
this is the same lmao
just not writing it out with the intersection
yea ignore lol
interesting, I wasn't thinking about W as being a subspace
well you dont know that it is yet
but you're showing that it is <S>, which is a subspace
(nitpick)also it's nicer to write finite instead of all
yeah indeed
actually nvm you can see that W is a subspace straight away as det said
but i mean the fact that it is a subspace isnt particularly important for the proof, only that it contains <S>
wait what?
you get that W contains <S> by showing that every subspace U containing S contains W
and the reverse inclusion is simple
i guess it's all a matter of style really you could also say W is a subspace containing S so it must contain <S> but you first have to show W is a subspace
nvm im an absolute idiot
listen to det
stop listening to me
idk if it's meds but im not thinking straight obviously
take care uwu
I am showing $\langle S \rangle \subseteq W$. Note that $<S>$ is the smallest subspace of V containing S. By definition of subspace it contains finite linear combinations of S. But I can't assume straight away that it means that it is a subset of W (?)
mns
Oh yeah, take care eric!
👀 ok narwhal xd
there back to normal
i thought that eric was your real name for a second
Can you check my answer above?
yea anyway, so to show that <S> is a subset/subspace of W, all we need to do is show that W is a subspace containing S. Since <S> is the smallest such thing, we'll get <S> is contained in W.
Oh I see, W is a subspace of V because for all v,w in W and k,f in F(ield) we have kv+fw in W
we showed closure of addition and scalar multiplication
oh we need a little stronger... v and w should be allowed to come from all of W, and not just S
basically, "sum of two finite linear combinations is a finite linear combination" same for scalar multiplication
yee now it works
and by taking v,w in W we're using those linear combinations from S
yep
I see, so W is a subspace containing S. since <S> is the smallest subspace containing S, we deduce <S> subset W ?
For the other inclusion, we shall prove $W \subseteq \langle S \rangle$. Note $\langle S \rangle$ is a subspace, thus it is closed under addition and scalar multiplication. Since $S \subseteq \langle S \rangle$, then the finite linar combinations of S are elements in $\langle S \rangle$. But then $W \subseteq \langle S \rangle$.
mns
yep
this was very instructive. Thank you very much and @wooden ember too
try multiplying s_1 and s_2
s_2 = sum of T_iT_j for i < j
yee
it would sum of T_iT_jT_k where i, j, k vary over 1, 2, ..., n with i < j
notice this equals (the required sum) + 3 * s_3
to get a particular T_a T_b T_c for a<b<c there are 3 ways to get it, (i, j, k) can be (a, b, c) or (a, c, b) or (b, c, a)
If I wanted to show a subgroup N is normal in G, i have to show that gNg^{-1}=N for all g in G. But someone said that it is enough to show that it holds for the generating set of G and N, so let x be in the generating set of G and n be in the generating set of N, then show that xnx^{-1} \in N.
Why is this possible?
first notice that it's enough to show that gNg^-1 is contained in N for all g.
this is because you can use it for g^-1 to say g^-1Ng is contained in N which is equivalent to N is contained in gNg^-1 giving us the reverse inclusion
so it's enough to check that for each g in G and n in N, gng' is in N
i'll use ' for inverse cuz it's easier to type
now notice it's enough to show that gng' is in N where n belongs to a generating set of N
this is because any element of n then can be written as a product of elements or their inverses from the generating set
similarly just reduce it to generating set for G
Another question. Assume V is a vector space over an infinite field F. Assume the "initial vectors" (if that means anything (?)) in V are a and b. R is an infinite field, so let V be a vector space over R. Can't we build two proper subspaces, say A and B, such that A contains all those vectors with a? and B all those vectors with b? But then we could create a finite union of its proper subspaces?
This is because I am supposed to prove: Letting V be a vector space over a infinite field F. Show that V cannot be written as a finite union of its proper subspaces
Is it because if you have n1 n2 in the generating set of N, then you have gn1n2g'=gn1g'gn2g' in N?
you can always just insert g'g between the elements
yep, and also with inverses, you can pull out gn'g' = (gng')'
what do you mean "contain all vectors with a", which one will contain a + b? what about a + 2b?
if you say both are in the "thing of a" then their difference should also be in "the thing of a" but that's b...
try to show this... if V is a union of n proper subspaces, then it's also a union of n-1 proper subspaces.
Hey
So I've been reading about free abelian groups, and just want to make sure I understand things right
Is this the right way of thinking about it? That is, multiplication by (-1) in the formal sum is the multiplicative inverse? and + is "multiplication"
yep... but just a smol thing about writing it, it's usually nicer to write sum (n_i b_i) where n_i are in Z, and all but finitely many are 0. saves you some boring cases to check.
yes okay! thank you
say f is the inner automorphism which we get from the element alpha in Aut(N). so alpha : N --> N.
just write out what the homomorphism condition should be, and work your way back.
spoiler : ||use the map given by : (n, h) maps to (alpha(n), h)||
Thank you! I really appreciate it
Hi guys! How can one prove that in an arbitrary ring R the intersection of all maximal left ideals is a two-sided ideal?
I mean, if R is a ring with identity it's obvious
cuz then it is the Jacobson radical, which is a two-sided ideal
but what if we don't have an identity?
it's obviously a left-ideal, but why is it a right-ideal?
does the usual proof fail?
not sure... i haven't worked with Rngs at all
but feels like it should be true
if R is a ring, then J(R) can be defined as the intersection of annihilators of all simple R-modules
simple R-modules are just R/(maximal left ideal)
so that's same as intersection of all maximal left ideals
now if an element x is in J, then it kills every simple V. but then clearly for any a, b in R, axb kills V
like take v in V, x will kill bv in V. hence axb will kill any simple R-module.
so axb should lie in J
yea i'm trying to see if we ever used it
this step looks a little fishy
okie this might be wrong... but i think we can just avoid that
well, we can embed our rng into a ring with identity but idk if this helps
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1516990/category-of-modules-over-a-ring-without-unity
here it's said that modules over a Rng are isomorphic to modules over the Dorroh extension
don't have any experience with Rngs... so can't say if anything works
yeah, i'm thinking bout the Dorroh extension as well
@rustic crown are you here? i have the solution, let me know if you are interested in
yee i'm interested
Guys, a little bit off-topic question: where should I ask a question about an optimization problem? I cannot find any channel related to optimization theory
maybe in applied computational mathematics
Okay, thanks 🙂
,rotate
,rotate
oooh pretty neat
But isn't this exactly like the proof for unital rings?
Proving that the intersection of all maximal left ideals is a two-sided ideal is the same for unital rings, so we don't have to distinguish the proof
We don't have to complicate our life with the Jacobson radical
When is saw the problem I thought about the Jacobson because that's precisely the intersection of all maximal left ideals, but this is true only for rings with identity
Right. But since I dont know about rngs, I guess I'm worried about whether the expression "intersection of maximal ideals" makes perfect sense, or if "ideal" means something else.
In fact in the case of rng-s, the intersection of all maximal left (resp. right) ideals is contained in the Jacobson radical of the rng
e.g. wikipedia says rngs don't need to have maximal ideals (then of course the statement that the intersection of maximal left ideals is a right ideal is true lel)
Well we don't really need an identity to define ideals
True
maximal ideals have the extra property that they are the biggest
in the sense of inclusion
Right, so what you wanted to prove was just " intersection of max left ideals is right ideal, nothing else?
I’m given that for o(x)=n for x in a group and n< infinity. Also know d is a positive division of n and I’m trying to prove o(x^d)=n/d. Not sure if my proof makes sense though. First said o(x^d) implies (x^d)^y=e and choose y=n/d then x^n=e as given. To show n/d is minimal I did contradiction and assumed there was c<n/d wheee o(x^d)=c. Then o^(cd)=e contradicting the given x^n=e
I feel like I messed up somewhere though since I never used fact that n/d is integer
"First said o(x^d) implies (x^d)^y=e and choose y=n/d then x^n=e as given"
whats the first "implies" supposed to mean?
Wasn’t sure how to phrase it but finding o(x^d)=c means (x^d)^c=e and just chose c
actually u did
when you chose y to be n/d
because the order can't be anything else than an integer
Oh yeah ig u right. I’ll mention that explicitly in write up, but other than that does proof seem valid?
yes
I guess it's okay
How could I make it better
in the last row x^(cd) = e u wrote o^(cd) = e
what do you mean?
U said I guess it’s okay does that mean it could be written better or something. I feel like it could be better so open to criticism
Ohh, I meant it's totally fine 😄
Oh lol thanks 🙌
So, the "then just choose c" is maybe not so good, because you don't choose anything there
How could I phrase it better to show (x^d)^(n/d)=e?
Is there a particular reason you are thinking about rings without identity?
yes, I'm a masochist lol jk jk
I'm a theoretical mathematician master student, and I have a course where we study ring and module theory
maybe make the logic a bit more clear, e.g. "we want to show that o(x^d) = n/d. So we first show that (x^d)^(n/d) = e, and then we show that n/d is the minimal integer...." yadayada
but I'm also just nitpicking 😬
I mean is the course specifically studying rings without identity? that seems really nonstandard
It's enough if you say that (x^d)^(n/d) = e following from the calculation rules in the group
nope, it was just an exercise, usually we assume that our ring has an identity
right yea I haven't seen a single important use for rings without identity in modern mathematics so it's always kinda funny to see textbooks that reference these
yea, sure
not really useful, but interesting
... to see how a single 1 can change the story 😄
apparently rng's are useful in functional analysis from what i hear
yea practically the only interesting examples of rngs I've seen appear "in nature" are things like rngs of compactly supported functions
though in the situations where these things come up, it's not like module theory and the like is used in any kind of serious way
But the point of maths is not to be applicable, so
nG means applicable to math itself
Do you think my question reads as "an inner automorphism of the automorphism group" or "an inner automorphism inside the automorphism group"?
imagine dealing with Lie algebra objects in Set
Thank youuu 😢
aww why sad? 
Does the image of a homomorphism form a subgroup?
yes, the image and the kernel are two "classical" subgroups
Try to prove it 🙂
Ok, let G and H be groups, and f a homomorphism from G to H. Define K = {f(g) | g \in G}, we show that K is a subgroup of H. We see that K is included in H trivially per definition. K is nonempty since f(1) is in K, for any two elements a,b in K, we can write a = f(x), b=f(y) for some x,y in G and we have that ab^{-1}=f(x)f(y)^{-1}=f(xy^{-1}) \in K, therefore K is a subgroup.
Try to prove that the inverse image is a subgroup is a subgroup ! This give a short proof of the kernel being a subgroup
that the image of f^{-1} is a subgroup?
In this context it's called the inverse image (of {1} )
does this work generally in the universal algebra context?
What do you mean by universal algebra ?
well
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Universal_algebra but I dont know anything about that
Universal algebra (sometimes called general algebra) is the field of mathematics that studies algebraic structures themselves, not examples ("models") of algebraic structures.
For instance, rather than take particular groups as the object of study, in universal algebra one takes the class of groups as an object of study.
other than the name 
by category theory it does, but that's like shooting a mosquito with a bazooka
Maybe something like this?
Consider f^{-1}(H), we will now prove that it is a subgroup. We know that f^{-1}(H) is nonempty, since we have that f(1) = 1 \in H and therefore 1 \in f^{-1}(1) \subset f^{-1}(H). Furthermore for any two elements x, y \in f^{-1} we can write a=f(x), b=f(y) and observe that ab^{-1} = f(x)f(y)^{-1}=f(xy^{-1}) and therefore we have that xy^{-1} \in f^{-1}(ab^{-1}) \subset f^{-1}(H). We conclude that f^{-1}(H) is a group
Perfect
what do you mean? What is the "inverse image" of a morphism in a generic category?
Well in a general category you don't have a notion of a subobject
It works with the usual algebraic structures yes (groups, rings, vector spaces, modules, algebra over a ring, ..)
don't you? A subobject is just a monomorphism (or rather an equivalence class of monomorphisms), no?
Oh right maybe
In that case with this definition I don't know what's left to prove
uhhh... lemme jus uh. Confused. prove what?
That the image of a subobject is a subobject
Because there is not a notion of "image" anymore
Oh, I mean't that the preimage (whenever this notion makes sense) of a subobject is a subobject. I guess like this:
\begin{tikzcd}
A \arrow[r, "f"] & B \ & I \arrow[u, hookrightarrow]
\end{tikzcd}
expectTheUnexpected
And so you pullback the inclusion I -> B along f
to get a monomorphism into A
So f is your homomorphism in that picture, and I is a subobject of B. Would the pullback then be the "preimage of I"?
Sound like a reasonable definition but I don't know more !
If I remember well in that case you'll get a monomorphism from your pullback to A right ?
Yes, monomorphisms are preserved by pullbacks in that sense
And actually, if you do all this in Grp for example, then the pullback will actually be (isomorphic) to f^{-1}(j(I))
I just computed it and I find it really fascinating
That's funny

This is my proof that the kernel of a homomorphism f is a subgroup, because it is just the pullback of the trivial subgroup * along f 
Any idea how I might show $S_{4} \cong \hbox{aut}(S_{4}) $?
A proposed isomorphism is given by conjugation $f(g)(\tau)=g\tau g^{-1}$.
I'm not even sure how to show this is injective lol
fajitas
I'm a bimbo and algebra is hard
Try to show that the kernel is the center of S_4
This is equivalent to injectivity?
Yes
For any group G, you have a morphism from G to Aut(G) given by the conjugation
And the kernel of this morphism is exactly the center of G
Well not exactly, because you'll have to show that the center of S_4 is trivial
Ahhh that makes sense actually
What does Sp(4,Z) look like?
what is the multiplicative identity in the group ring ZG ?
1
The group ring is a free Z-module with basis G.
Or, if you want, every element in ZG can be written as a finite Z-linear combination of elements of G
then multiplication is defined component-wise, so the identity of the group is the identity of the group ring
What do you mean
what kind of matricies are they
4x4 integer matrices
Namely those which preserve a standard symplectic pairing on Z^4
Is there a standard generating set
There are some standard generators you can write down sure, depending on how you present the group
hey, sorry to interrupt but I saw a video that said we cant go beyond the complex numbers because there are no algebraic solutions to polynomials that are complex... sooooo what about quaternions?
I think you are talking about algebraic extensions?
field extensions I believe
The quaterions don’t form a field and there’s not really an analogue of Galois theory in that setting
how are there no algebraic solutions to polynomials that are complex?
there are
there are always complex solutions to polynomials that are complex lol
In particular talking about solutions to polynomial equations isn’t as well behaved
thats the fundamental theorem of algebra
Complexes are algebraically closed so every extension is itself is what you are referring to I think.
oh I meant beyond complex numbers sorry
? that still doesnt make any sense
polynomials with complex polynomials always have complex roots
all the roots of complex polynomials are complex
but anyway this is all I needed, thanks
What are you thinking for the generating set? Are you computing generators? I am not sure how to go about that, so what are you doing?
u mean polynomials with quarternion coefficients?
nvm
nevermind
lol ok
how are these two definitions different?
When I looked up Sp(4,Z)and definition for symplectic group it looks like special linear group
if its a free Z-module with basis G
doesnt that mean that every element can be written as a Z-linear combination
of elements of G?
they're not different, I was just being more explicit
So, you have that a in ZG is written as sum_{g\in G} a_g e_g where e_g are the generators and a_g are in Z , finitely many non-zero.
Multiplication is defined on generators e_g e_h = e_{gh}, which is enough by standard linear algebra.
And so you see that e_1 acts as the multiplicative identity of your group ring
(which is actually even a Hopf algebra in Z-mod)
ah okay
@uncut girder if you want a particular presentation you can read
BENDER, P. “Presentation of Symplectic Group Sp(4,Z) with 2 Generatrices and 8 Definitive Relations.” Journal of Algebra 65, no. 2 (1980): 328-331.
But having these presentations honestly isn’t very useful unlike for SL_2(Z)
How did you find that? Google?
Yes lol
The more useful thing is being able to list the conjugacy classes of torsion elements and their characteristic polynomials
That’s also a huge pain to do but that at least gives you more useful information
Idk that there is much you can do with the actual presentation that is very useful
Can someone confirm this?
Say we have F = Z/2Z. Then F(x) = Frac(F[x]) is a countable infinite field with characteristic 2? But then F((x)) = Frac(F[[x]]) is uncountably infinite by a diagonalization and inclusion argument from F[[x]]?
Seems good for me
Let's go
I want to point something out that is incredibly cursed
But it may save you some trouble some day

F((x)) = Frac(F[[x]]) is indeed true where the left hand side is formal Laurent series
So power series with negative exponents, but only finitely many negative exponents have non-zero coefficient
HOWEVER
If A is an integral domain
It is not true that Frac(A[[x]]) = Frac(A)((x))
Oh in my class we defined F((x)) as Frac(F[[x]])
Okay
wdym
The field of fractions
Of formal power series over A
Is not Laurent series over Frac(A)
Ah
I haven't learned what Laurent series are lmao
Literally just
But I shall look into this
Sum_-infinity^infinity a_ix^i
Oh
Except you require there to be only finitely many nonzero a_i for i < 0
Else when you multiply…
Uh oh infinite sums
My favorite
These show up in complex analysis
Anyway, I just want to warn everyone about this now
Because I spent like 8 hours fucking
O no
Screwing around with these things
I feel that
Put this in that like
“Will remember something about it if I ever deal with this” bin
I know we all have it
“Wait… I swear I remember hearing something about this…”
I shall start that list and add it
Lol it seems like they want you to give Zp as the example in the previous problem
Or something like that 😵💫
this is talking about using 6 to solve 5 I guess? But that's not even what it says
like
No it doesn't even with lol
how does "yea some rings have polynomials who have a derivative equal to 0" relate to "oh yea Euclid's Lemma"
_>
Work*
Ye
for 5
you can use fields as well
I used 2x^3 in Z_6[x]
x^5 - a in Z_5[x]
oh lol
yea
anyways
how the fuck does that have anything to do with 6
like ??????????
btw are you sure by previous they mean "immediately previous"?
yea i think they mean 3
yea
you know Zp is an integral domain, so Zp[x] is too.
but is it needed?
if you have a subgroup N in G, and you show that x^{-1}yx \in N for x in G and y in N, can you necessarily conclude that xyx^{-1} \in N?
what if x^{-1}yx=y^{-1} ?
Ok let x' denote x^{-1}, we have that x'yx=y', but then
xyx'=x(y')'x'=x(x'yx)'x'=x(x'y'x)x'=(xx')y'(xx')=y' \in N
I think it's true
Yeah it's true, since inversion is a bijection
Assuming you mean "for all y in N, x in G"
Rather than some particular ones
In your proof i didn't get how
x(y')'x' = x(x'yx)'x'
i think you might need the group to be finite for that
we have assumed x'yx=y' to begin with
so i just replaced y' with x'yx in the parentheses
What do you mean by this? Do some notions of divisibility clash?
Where 
Here
I just said we assume that x'yx=y'
it's a part of the problem lol
oh epic lol
as in if you know for all y and a particular x, then
x'yx in N, then (x'^2)yx^2 in N... and so on, if order of x is finite, we can write x' = x^k, so it'll work out
Who are you responding to, det
this 😶 , without the assumption
oh ok
Is there actually any difference between $\mathbb F[x]$ and $\mathbb F(x)$? I've seen both used to denote field extensions and was wondering if there was anything actually different about them that I hadn't realised.
A Fellow Human
so F[x] is the ring of polynomials over F
while F(x) are all the rational functions
so 1/x would not be in F[x] but it would be in F(x)
for instance
oh
wait that doesnt matter if we're talking about field extensions of nth roots of rationals to Q right
yeah in that case it would be the same
if x is algebraic these two are the same things
thx
wasnt bothered to do gaussian integers gcd computations so i wrote a program for it
what a waste of my time in retrospect
if a homormorphism is injective between two groups of the same order, can we necessarily conclude that it is also surjective, hence an isomorphism?
what is the proof?
obvious
An injection between finite sets of the same cardinality is always a bijection
Informally if the domain of the function has n elements then by injectivity its image has n elemets
And is thus surjective
And a bijective group homomorphism is automatically an isomorphism, meaning that its inverse is also a homomorphism (prove this if you've never seen it)
a bijective homomorphism is per definition an isomorphism
that's a definition you see in group theory yeah
more generally an isomorphism is a homomorphism that admits a homomorphism as an inverse
those are equivalent for groups though
it's a cat theory thing really: in that language bijections are isomorphisms of sets
but just stick to isomorphism = bijective homomorphism for now
What do we get then if the take Frac(A[[X]]) ?
something smaller
for example, for Frac(Z[[x]]), I think you can have only a finite number of primes in the denominators
while in Q((x)) you can have 1/2 + 1/3 x + 1/5 x² + 1/7 x³ + ...
Weird curiosity, but does anybody have an idea how we could prove associativity of (ℕ, +) without using induction by referencing something more high-level?
Addition here is defined inductively via 0 + n := n, s(k)+n := s(k+n)
My idea was to use the left regular representation somehow + then use the fact that function composition is associative.
If λₖ is left addition with k, then the inductive definition of addition precisely ensures that λ₀ = id and λₛ₍ₖ₎ = s◌λₖ
So… doesn't that mean that addition from the left is in some sense a homomorphism from the universal (nil, succ)-algebras (ℕ, 0, s) → (End(ℕ), id, s_∗), where s_∗ is postcomposition with s: ℕ→ℕ?
Ah, that would just be the unique homomorphism due to (ℕ, 0, s) being the iniitial (nil, succ)-algebra by definition
Now the question would be why $λ_k \circ λ_n = λ_{λ_k(n)}$
lux
That's weird
so im really struggling with this one. Ive drawn the elements of O in C as hinted to get a lattice generated by 1 and (1+sqrt(D))/2. So now the idea is to perform euclidian division on gaussian integers, we perform regular division in Q(sqrt(D)) (say a/b) then get the distance d to the closest point on the lattice so that we have a/b = x+y(1+sqrt(D))/2 + wd where w is some complex number of norm 1 and multiply everything by b to get a = (x+y(1+sqrt(D))/2)b + r with r=bwd and if we can get d<1, then |r|<|b| and so everything works out. My issue is in getting this distance less than 1: the hint says the distance should have (1+|D|)^2/(16|D|) as an upper bound but i fail to get this expression anywhere: geometrically ive taken the maximal distance to a point on the lattice to be the maximum distance of an incenter of the iscoceles triangles that make up the lattice to its vertices, and i get max(sqrt(|D|)/3, sqrt(9+|D|)/6) for that
originally i wasnt even thinking in terms of the lattice and just had a/b = x+y(1+sqrt(D))/2 for some x, y in Q and then rounded x and y to the nearest integer but that gave a bound on d of (9+|D|)/16 which only works for D=-3
cause that was more like the proof in the text which did that for Z[i]
it's a really nice exercise and i feel im close but i dont see what im missing
I find the same thing as them by drawing some triangles
I'm not sure what the incenter has to do with anything
A subfield of Laurent series. It’s something about coefficients
There’s some MSE thing about it
How can i show that a $x^3$ an isomorphism from group G to G ,then G is abelain? Any hint .
Algebra
that isnt true in general
that's one of the "write a lot of things until magic happens" exercises
do you have any other facts about G?
like 3 doesnt divide |G|?
oh wait
isomorphism
shit
LMAO
ignore me, im being dumb
yeah just try playing around with stuff
x^e e a power of 3
Can you please just give a starting hint ,so that i can proceed further
if continue applying the iso do we get back to G
it suffices to prove that squares commute with elements in G, i.e. ab² = b²a for all a, b. why?
||(ab)³ = a³b³ since cubing is an isomorphism, so ababab = aaabbb, and therefore (ba)² = baba = aabb = a²b², and if squares commute we can then write (ba)² = a²b² = b²a² and cancel this to just ab = ba||
so that tasks you with proving arbitrary squares commute
to do this, take b²a and write a as the image of some element under your isomorphism
im not sure of the details from here on but that probably works
if you fiddle with it enough
So i have to prove that square commute?
rambling (bit of a tangent),
if G is finite then Aut(G) finite , let f be the iso taking x to x^3 , then f to some power is the identity map id , that is x^e = x , e = 3^o(f), then, o(x) | e-1.
so is G iso to a multiplication group of a finite field?
Is this wrong ?
What are automorphisms from Z/4Z to Aut(N) where N is normal subgroup of order 7 contained in group of order 28?
I remember some fact about homomorphisms from Z/nZ to G having images of a subgroup in G with order n, but this might be for G abelian.
Homomorphisms not automorphisms
N being contained in some order 28 group is irrelevant. There is only one group of order 7 upto isomorphism
Once you know what that group is, things become easy
Sorry I meant what are homomorphisms between Z/4Z and Aut(N)
I think i figured some parts out
For homomorphism f, f(1) needs to have order 4 in Aut(N)
This is also not true in the way you've said it. Homomorphisms from Z/nZ to G correspond to order d elements of G with d | n
Not necessarily 4
It just needs to divide 4
But doesnt f(0)=4f(1)=0 in Aut(N)?
Yes, that only gives you that it divides 4
Order could be smaller
Order 2 elements also become identity when you put an exponent of 4
Oh I see, thanks so much!
I think it’s me being bad at geometry: wouldn’t the max distance of the incenter to the triangle vertices give the maximal possible distance?
How did you go about the geometry?
somehwat basic linear algebra question
that im struggling to understand
given vector spaces U, V, and a linear map A: U -> V, how do i construct a linear map A**: U** -> V**
well I think I'd look at the centre of the circumscribing circle ?
but maybe they're the same for isosceles triangle idk
Suppose P is in U**, ie P takes some f in U* and gives a constant. A(P) needs to take a map g in V* and give a constant. Do you see any ways of taking this g in V*, turning it into an f in U*, then applying P?
Discord and asterisks 🤧
easier jus from A: U\to V, you have A^*: V^*\to U^*c which is the "transpose" and then taking dual again you get A^**: U^**\to V^**
Funky 😌
in matrix-language this is just transpose of the transpose
$\infty \times \infty$-matrices yuss
expectTheUnexpected
but how do i determine where to evaluate that f
What do you mean by that?
well
what is A^* here
like explicitly
yup so A^*(f) = f\circ A
mhm
ok nice so now we have
A^*: V^*\to U^*
so we want
A^**: U^**\to V^**
now lets say you have some \phi: U^*\to F
what would A^**(\phi) be
hmm
oops mb
this is your elements of U^**
yee
so we want to send it to some map
so A^**(\phi) becomes?
(rmb it should be similar)
am element of V^** is simply a map from V^* to F
yup
so A^* maps V^* to U^*
and \phi maps U^* to F
so \phi\circ A^* is yesh
maybe like if you're uncomfortable with it, we can look at how it acts on the elements
Do you think once the current q is done you could roughly indicate how you calculated their value?
so
A^*: V^*\to U^*
for any
f: V\to F
u in U
A^*(F)(u)=F(A(u))
How are you so good at algebra?
I was more referring to the high schoolers on the server who know pretty advanced stuff
Hello Ari 
Old like fourth year phd or prof?
A^**: U^**\to V^**
for any
\phi: U^*\to F
f: V\to F
A^**(\phi)(f) = \phi(A^*(f)) which is in F, probably as good as it gets i think
just got to
be old enuf
to start finding a house and settling down
yeah i think this double dual stuff is making a lot more sense now
it's kinda tricky to like work with but yea
fug, I'll quit. This server is not good for self esteem lel
nonononono
im trying to prove that the functor sending vector spaces to their double duals is isomorphic to the identity functor on the category of finite-dimensional vector spaces

Is this actually serious

