#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages ¡ Page 617 of 407
Question about exercise 2. So is that product supposed to be a sequence, like (12),(13),(14), up to (1n)?
Or the dots just some other transpositions?
So the former?
uh no so they are saying product of (transpositions of the form .....)
not products (of transpositions) of the form .....
or I don't understand your question 
Ohhh, so basically all elements in that product are of the form (1 k) for some k<=n
yes
Hmmm
but they may be in any order and with repetitions
Okay, so I could use some help seeing why.
For instance, what would (23) look like?
(12)(13)(12) I am guessing
ye
try to think of the first position as your hand and the remaining positions like the places on a bookshelf
this is like saying that you start with a book in hand and at each step you are exchanging the book in your hand with any book on the shelf
at the end you can get to any permutation on the shelf and any book in your hand
đ
Okay, so I think I see how to do this. First break an m-cycle (i_1...i_m) into transpositions of the form (i_1 i_m)...(i_1 i_2). Then we can decompose those transpositions into (1 i_1)(1 i_k)(1 i_1) for each k
And that should do the trick
yep, nice
Thanks for the help Moldilocks!
Also, I am pretty sure we can simplify this further by showing any transposition can be written in that form
isn't that what you asked earlier? 
(ij) would be done in pretty much the same way as (23)
Precisely. And that would be enough for the proof since all permutations are products of transpositions
So I'm struggling a bit on #3, part 1.
I'm just struggling to figure out how to even begin to go about it
If sigma and the m-cycle are disjoint, it's easy. The issue is when they are not
suppose the m-cycle be Ď
then if Ď(i)=j then
$\sigma \pi \sigma^{-1}(\sigma(i)) = \sigma(j)$
Ryuzaki
But, does that deal with the issue. What if j is not any of the i's?
when $\pi(i)=i$ then conjugation gives $\sigma\pi\sigma^{-1}(\sigma(i))=\sigma(i)$
Why does that mean pi(i)=I? I'm a bit confused
either pi moves elements in its cycle representation or it fixes them
lemme edit what i wrote lmao
đittle âarwhal â
It doesnt matter if pi o sigma are disjoint: we take an element i in {1,2,...,n} and consider pi's action on it. Then conjugation gives us an action of sigma o pi (i) on sigma(i) : we dont care if sigma and pi are disjoint or not
If you will, you can split ${1,...,n}$ into the image of $\sigma$'s restriction on ${i_1,...,i_m}$ and its complement. For an element $a_j$ in the image we can write $a_j = \sigma(i_j)$. Then applying the conjugation we send $a_j$ back to $i_j$, increment it to $i_{j+1}$ and then send this to $a_{j+1}$ through $\sigma$, so that $\sigma(i_j)$ got sent to $\sigma(i_{j+1})$. For an element not in the image, the inverse $\sigma^{-1}$ sends it to an element not in ${i_1,...,i_m}$ so that $\pi$ does nothing, and then applying $\sigma$ again changes nothing to the input.
đittle âarwhal â
So sigma(i) is fixed, got it.
(the increment is mod m but you get the gist of it)
Yea, I see where this is going. Thanks for the help. I wasn't thinking to use the function sigma for the argument.
The other part is really easy, I won't need much help with that
Maybe I'm stupid but
Prove or disprove: $(\mathbb{Z}_8,+,\times) \cong (\mathbb{Z}_8, \oplus, \otimes)$ as rings where $a \oplus b = a + b + 5, \ a \otimes b = 7ab + 3(a+b) + 2$
čçš (Shi Zeng)
I haven't done the calculations, but one way would be to figure out how the additive groups are isomorphic, and then check if this extends to a ring isomorphism
okay so i think this isnt true but i may be spewing total bullshit
I mean, you know that 1 is a generator for the group on the left, so figure out what the generators are for the group on the right and map 1 to those generators
so you can check that the additive identity in the second group is 3 while the multiplicative identity is 2. Whatever $4\in (\mathbb{Z}_8,+,\times)$ is supposed to be mapped to (say $x$) it must satisfy $x\oplus x = 3$ which forces $x=7$. Then whatever 2 gets mapped to (say $y$) it must satisfy $y\oplus y=7$ which forces either $y=1$ or $y=5$. Both of these can be shown to not satisfy $y\otimes y\otimes y = 2$, which it should
đittle âarwhal â
unless ive made calculation mistakes i believe this works, or im having a complete misunderstanding
just check the intermediate calculations cause i could have made a mistake somewhere
even if it works this is ugly
but i guess so is the question
Okay, so I am close. My only issue is case 3. I am not sure what that is telling me.
i wouldnt proceed in this way personally
and i must admit im not sure how you worked though case 2
If it's Z(S_n) then both equations (ij)B and B(ij) must give the same outputs
sure but B(i)=i doesnt guarantee B(j)=j
The second case for ((ij)B) was just if B(i)=I.
But (B(ij))(i) is always B(j)
i guess where im getting at is im not sure i see what you're tying to achieve
are you trying to reach a contradiction
or force conditions on B?
We need to end up showing case 1 and case 3 are impossible.
Case 1 is easy, since I doesn't equal j
||so for case 3 suppose B(j)=i, B(i)=j, and now consider the transposition (i j'). Then letting B conjugate on this you get (B(i) B(j')) = (j B(j')) =/= (i j') so B is not in the center||
this is why the n>= 3 is important
What do you mean by conjugate?
Oh, so we are doing that. Ah okay, this makes sense. BTW j'is not j right?
Ah, the only way they would be the same is if B(j')=I, which it doesn't
or maybe i misunderstood what you meant here
If B(j')=I, then (j,B(j'))=(i,j)
So we do need j' to be distinct (like you mentioned)
oh okay in that sense yes
because you found a transposition with which it doesnt commute if you assume case 2 is true, hence case 2 is false and so it doesnt commute with our first transposition
yeah
So the only possible case ends up being case 2, which is precisely the identity (since this needs to be true for every I and j)
a condensed argument would have started with conjugation straight away: then you just say B(i j)B^-1 = (B(i), B(j)) = (i j) iff B(i)=i, B(j)=j or B(i)=j, B(j)=i. If the former is true for all transpositions B is trivial. If not then the latter is true for some (i j) but then B(i j')B^-1 = (j B(j')) =/= (i j')
it's the same though
Perfect. Thank you so much for the help
it's quite useful to think of centralizers and centers in terms of conjugation
since conjugation gives inner automorphisms you shift the perspective of your problem
an isomorphism from G to itself
so like a permutation but on a group: it also preserves group structure
dont worry about it if you havent heard of them yet though
dont want to confuse you or anything youll see it eventually
Ah, that makes sense
buh
So that's why you kept saying o instead of or :p
yeah haha
why do we change things up when D is congruent to 1 mod 4?
like sure with (1+sqrt(D))/2 we still get a subring but why did we do this in the first place?
the field norm can also be defined appropriately without having this so i dont understand where a complication might arise
you're asking how checking the congruence of D mod 4 is useful to know the ring of integers of a quadratic extension of Q ?
im asking why it's essential to define our extension differently when D is congruent to 1 mod 4
when you're trying to determine the ring of integers of a quadratic extension, you get to a part where you have to check when u² - dv² is in 4Z for u and v both integers, where u = 2a and v = 2b, where a and b are rationals such that x = a + bsqrt(d) is an element of the ring of integers
so you check that if d = 2 or 3 mod 4 then u² = 2v² or 3v² mod 4 and you get easily that u = v = 0 mod 4 so u = 2a and v = 2b gives you the thing you want, a and b are integers and we're happy
but if d = 1 mod 4 then its slightly different, you have to check for parity (when v is even there's no problem, but if he's odd then u² = d mod 4 and as d is squarefree you get that u² = 1 mod 4 and d = 1 mod 4)
is there a deeper reason for why this is the case?
it's a little unsatisfying to hear that it just turns out to be annoying when you works things out formally
surely there's a more fundamental reason to such a special case
The ring of integers of a extension of Q is supposed to mimic Z inside Q
When youâre congruent to 1 mod 4 you get extra elements that are integral over Z
You can define the ring of integers as the set of elements that satisfy a monic polynomial with integer coefficients, and then prove that the ring of integers of Q(sqrt(D)) take this form
not sure what you mean
The idea is that (1 + sqrt(D))/2 now satisfies the relation like x^2 + x + k
An integral element satisfies a monic polynomial over the base ring
Or something like that uh
I canât figure out which polynomial it satisfies uhhh
i think it's quadratic
so just square it
do the elementary algebra
Okay
and try to express that as a linear combination of the previous powers
Itâs x^2 - x - (D-1)/4
yeah, I remember something like that
The point is the ring of integers is supposed to the be the stuff in Q(sqrt(D)) which satisfies a monic polynomial over Z
This is almost like saying âtake everything algebraic over Zâ
so why do solutions to a quadratic monic polynomial in $\mathbb{Q}[\sqrt{D}]$ act like integers for $\mathbb{Q}$??
đittle âarwhal â
Itâs the integral closure of Z in that extension
This is a number theory thing
Youâd have to ask like Zoph as to why they are useful but these are a central object of study in ANT
Since Z(sqrt(D)) is contained in Z(1 + sqrt(D)/2), you get into the theory of things called orders, and the ring of integers is the maximal order. Non-maximal orders you get bad properties that we don't want in algebraic number theory. Things like the set of (fractional) ideals isn't a group anymore and so for this reason we usually care about maximal orders
I mean, you want solution to monic polynomials in general, its just that Q(sqrt(D)) is only degree 2 so you only need to look at quadratics
i feel like DF made a mistake introducing this without context in the section "Basic definitions and examples" of the part on rings
wdym
you mean since we extend with a sqrt these can only be solutions to quadratics?
can you ELI5 (5 years undergraduate) what's an order?
basically yeah
but can Q(sqrt(D)) be explicitly constructed as solutions to certain quadratics?
like the subset of solutions with rational coefficients or smth
wait nvm every solution to a quadratic lies in some Q(sqrt(D)) right
Uh, there are a lot of equivalent definitions. Maybe the easiest is that its a subring R of the ring of integers O_K such that the quotient O_K/R is finite
The easiest examples are things that this question is pointing to
can you give me a definition not referring to the ring of integers?
cause you kind of used it to motivate the ring of integers
Z[1+sqrt(5)/2] is the maximal order aka ring of integers in a number field, whereas Z[sqrt(5)] is a non-maximal order
Yes this is true. I mean, you can define Q(sqrt(D)) as being isomorphic to Q[x]/(x^2 - D) so they're kinda solutions to certain quadratics
An order of a number field K is a subring of K that is a finitely generated Z-module (abelian group) such that you can pick generators for the order that are also a basis for K over Q
i think i just need to keep going or ill get confused lol
I mean I don't think you're really supposed to understand why these things are the way they are at this point. They're just nice examples of rings
btw since from context I'm picking up that you're starting to read about rings in dummit and foote
here's a nice motivation for not-necessarily-commutative rings with identity:
they're precisely the things that act on abelian groups
im listening
kind of like how groups act on "things", rings act on abelian things
meaning you can add two actions by adding them pointwise using the abelian structure
isnt a ring action like a module or smth
precisely
and a field action is a vector space right
so why does a ring acting on an abelian group bring about non-commutativity
thing if the ring of linear operators on a vector space
a vector space under addition is an abelian group
so something that acts on a vector space is in particular a ring
right
but obviously, since "a * b" is interpreted as "b then a", it may depend on the order
fair enough
that's not different from when considering arbitrary groups
by the way, there's one definition which - when considered over Set produces monoids, and when considered over Ab produces rings (unital, non-commutative)
what extra structure do we get by considering the set of linear operators on a vector space as a ring instead of a group
i never really understood the use for adding stuff in GL_n(F)
isnt the main point of transformations to compose them?
what do we get by adding them
GL_n(F) isn't an object I typically think about, so I don't have an example of it being considered as a ring being useful right now
but I'm sure someone here does
commutative rings are way nicer, and they're highly relevant to algebraic geometry and algebraic number theory
I mean, adding functions pointwise is pretty important too
that's fair
@wooden ember by the way, here's a neat short proof that every element of C satisfies a degree 2 polynomial over R:
{1, z, z^2} is a 3 element set over a 2d real vector space, and thus must be linearly dependent
wait, what is happening... how do define addition? whats the sum of T and -T?
you can't
we mean
add singular matrices to the mix
Mn(F)?
i have no clue what you are trying to show or what the proof is saying 
oh yeah oop we do lose invertibility
formally the statement being shown is that given any complex number z, there are real a, b, c, not all zero, such that az^2 + bz + c = 0
yes
right so since its 2 dimensional we must be able to write z^2 = az + b
yep
so z satisfies that polynomial
yep
but arent a and b in C?
oh nvm we identify C with R^2
so the coefficients in our linear combinations are from R
yeah
that's pretty neat yeah đ
This is connected to the idea that everything in Q(sqrt(D)) satisfies a quadratic polynomial over Q
I mean, the proof is the exact same, you just need to figure out why Q(sqrt(D)) has dimension 2 as a Q vector space
i see
well i mean its easy to see every element can be uniquely written as a+bsqrt(D) so cant we just identify every element with (a,b) so that we identify Q(sqrt(D)) with Q^2?
yes
no
lmao
I mean, as groups, Q(sqrt(D)) is equal to Q^2, but not as rings
as Q-linear spaces
which is what we care about
because we're looking at the dimension over Q
ok sure
so this is valid
I guess what you had in mind though had to do with the construction as Q[x]/(x^2 - d)
how does Dummit and Foote define Q(sqrt(D))?
simply as {a+bsqrt(D)}
^
keep in mind this is just the first chapter on rings
yeah, and showing that your definition of Q[sqrt(d)] is equivalent to the one in the introductory examples in dummit and foote is really what "seeing why it's 2 dimensional" is about
oh okay sure
Usually, in field theory, we define Q(sqrt(D)) as the smallest field containing Q and sqrt(D)
since this makes it easier to define things like Q(sqrt(D), cube root of(N))
right
@wooden ember by the way, for any field F with Q as a subfield of F, and x in F such that x^2 - D = 0, you can uniquely embed Q[sqrt(d)] into F fixing Q and sending sqrt(d) to x
so it's "the smallest field containing Q and sqrt(D)" not just in the sense of subfields of C or something, but in a more universal sense
i suppose that makes sense
"universal" is kind of a pun here
is there actually a universal property at play here?
uniquely makes it sound like there is
wait dont answer
hint: a(n identity-preserving!) ring morphism F -> R with F a field is the same thing as an embedding of F in R
we have a canonical map from Q[x] to Q[x]/(x^2-D) and one from Q[x] to F by sending x in Q[x] to x in F and extending it to a morphism: this one has kernel x^2-D so it factors through to an injective map?
i must admit im a little confused at the quotient by x^2-D: it's an element in Q[x] so i dont understand how we can quotient by it
are we taking a quotient by the set of all its multiples?
yeah, this looks right
yes
the way you would say this is we're taking a quotient by (x^2 - D), the ideal generated by x^2 - D
for a commutative ring, the ideal generated by one element is precisely the set of multiples of that element
right yeah i remember now: ideals are the analogue of normal subgroups in rings right?
yes
i see that makes more sense
ideals are precisely the objects you quotient a ring by
so the kernel of my map Q[x] -> F is (x^2-D) yeah
and now i see that it still factors through
they're the preimages of {0} under ring homomorphisms, and they behave "like 0"
oh, yes
kernels
I just wanted to be clear that we're looking at the additive identity
cause before I came across rings it wouldn't have been obvious to me a priori that we'd look at the additive rather than multiplicative identity
yes
but I don't have much of an intuition for rngs
so don't trust what I say about rngs
anyway, the analogy between a normal subgroup and an ideal also holds in that there's a description of ideals "from the inside", not in terms of maps
right
like how normal subgroups are defined to be subgroups fixed under conjugation, where it is not immediately obvious why that would be what kernels are
lemme try and see if i can figure out what it would be here
but the one place where the analogy is misleading is that ideals are not in general - and in fact almost never are - subrings
oh damn
you want subrings to contain your multiplicative identity, and there are no interesting ideals that do that
there's one ideal that does that, and that's the entire ring
i see
multiplicative identity?
wait so ideals are smaller in a sense than normal subgroups right? Cause if i take x that gets sent to the identity in a group homomorphism then <x> isnt necessarily its normal closure but for ideals <x> is precisely the kernel
what would <x> be?
in the first case the cyclic subgroup generated by x, in the second the ideal generated by x
those concepts are somewhat analogue no?
yes, but it's somewhat misleading
oh wait yeah no
because you might as well define "(x) in a group" to be the normal closure
the same way you define "<x> in a ring" to be the ideal generated by x
by "ideals is all multiples of x" you mean multiples by elements in R or the cyclic additive group generated by x?
the former
yeah okay i was mislead
so xR is not R in general đ¤
you can maybe even think of multiples by elements of R in this particular context as loosely analogous to cojugation in groups
which is very different to groups
yes, because rings are not invertible
for once, 0 can't ever be invertible unless it's equal to 1 and is the only element in your ring
and then if you require everything else to be invertible you get a field, which is an extremely special case of a ring
but, for example, in the ring Z, the ideal generated by 2 consists of all the even numbers
by invertible you mean is a unit?
yes
if x is a unit than (x) is all of R
ahhh
and there's the difference between xR and Rx right? left and right ideals?
heard that before
I was talking in the context of commutative rings so far
fair
I'm not used to thinking about ideals in non-commutative rings
are some of the things we've said so far invalid in the non-commutative case?
i thought (x) was ambiguous for non-commutative rings
no, (x) is unambiguous
there's still a notion of an ideal that's not left or right?
so in non-commutative rings, some sets may be called left-ideals, and some sets may be called right-ideals
and then "ideals" so to speak, those sets that are the kernel of some ring homomorphism, are precisely those sets that are both left and right ideals
for example, some elements of xR might not be in Rx but are definitely in (x)
okay, assume (x) = ker(phi), phi some ring homomorphism
phi(x) = 0 since x in (x)
so phi(xr) = phi(x)phi(r) = 0phi(r) = 0
oh i see
and
phi(rx) = phi(r)phi(x) = phi(r)0 = 0
so ideals always swallow under multiplication
they're not just closed under multiplication - meaning if both elements are in the ideal, the product is in it too
they absorb
they swallow under multiplication - meaning if either element is in the ideal, the product is in it too
that's the only intuition i ahd about ideals haha
and also they're additive groups
because obviously phi is also an additive group morphism so its kernel is also the kernel of a group homomorphism
hence a subgroup
so Rx lies in the ideal and xR lies in the ideal but (x)=/=Rx=/=xR
but then how is (x) a left and right ideal
so, in the commutative case, the following are enough to classify ideals:
a set S is an ideal if:
- S is an additive group
- for every x in S, r in R, rx is in S (that is, S swallows under multiplication)
i see
and I think in the case of a non-commutative ring you just decide from which direction to multiply by r in the definition in order to define left or right ideals
and it's obvious that (x) - being an actual ideal and the kernel of a homomorphism - satisfies both properties
by this argument from earlier
yeah
ideals are sets that behave like zero, like how normal subgroups are sets that behave like zero
so if (x) is both a. left and right ideal can we say there exists y in (x) such that (x) = yR = Ry?
oooh
that actually makes a lot of sense
i never saw the act of conjugation like that
I believe we can't, but I don't know enough about non-commutative rings
like, i'm not even 100% sure if I didn't miss a technical requirement here
that's fine
this is stuff ill see anyways but its nice to get another perspective and an intuitive head start
yes, like how the identity absorbs conjugation in groups, and 0 absorbs multiplication in rings
but let me connect this to something from earlier:
remember how R-modules are "ring actions" of R on abelian groups?
well, R is an abelian group under addition
and so R acts on itself by multiplication
so R is an R-module
right that makes sense
so then this is an action of R on itself that ideals absorb
just like how conjugation is an action of G on itself that normal subgroups absorb
so does multiplication by an element of R give Inner automorphisms of R?
sad
the analogy doesn't extend that far
except multiplication by 1 
i was thinking with all this in mind, is there some sort of concept of a set being quotiented by a normal subset under some action, where namely this is a subset fixed during an action of G on our set?
cause here normal subgroups and ideals arise from actions of groups and rings on themselves
this is probably stupid but im just wondering if there's some extension
there are "quotients of sets", but there are no "normal subsets" generating these quotients
quotients of sets are equivalence relations
yeah i do know that
i jsut thought there might be some way to make a set interact with subsets fixed under a G-action
i suppose the main problem is the set doesnt have some notion of an identity
any group homomorphism phi : G -> H gives a normal subgroup N of G such that phi is just an embedding of G/N in H
any ring homomorphism phi : R -> S gives an ideal I of R such that phi is just an embedding of R/I in S
any set map f : A -> B gives an equivalence relation ~ on A such that f is just an embedding of A/~ in B
yeah, something like that
the equivalence relation here is just a ~ b iff a and b are in the same fiber right?
yes
makes sense
i.e. if f(a) = f(b)
does this extend categorically then?
I don't know
but that's a good question
there are also quotients on topological spaces, given by an equivalence relation on the underlying set
there are module quotients
apparently you can take quotient categories but that's not quite the same thing haha
(and so in particular vector space quotients)
dont understand what's going on but it seems there is such a generalisation
through "internal categories" and "coequalisers"
anyways thank you very much for this discussion @urban acorn it gives me a good intuitive head start
I enjoyed this discussion very much as well
guys i think i have a good one:
If $(\alpha_0, \alpha_1, \alpha_2, ...)$ is an arbitrary sequence of complex numbers, and if $x$ is an element of P (polynomials), $x(t)=\sum_{i=0}^n\xi_it^i$ write $y(x) = \sum_{i=0}^{n}\xi_i\alpha_i$.
Prove that y is an element of P' (dual space of P), and that every element of P' can be obtanied in this manner by a suitable choice of $\alpha s$.
put your dollar signs around the math part
yea
what is ${\xi}_i$ here?
are P polynomials in complex coefficients considered as a vector space over C?
oh okay xi_i are the coefficients of the polynomial x
the \xis are the coefficients yeah
the notation confused me
the book is from the 40s
well an element of P' is the same thing as a linear map P -> C which is the same thing as a choice of f(x^n) for every n
and alpha_n here is just where x_n goes
because the x^n form a basis
it's all pretty straightforward
and wow where did you get a math textbook from the 40s?
i mean the print is new
it was written in the 40s
i think it's a fairly well known linear algebra book
author name?
finite dimensional vector spaces by halmos
yeah, that sounds a bit familiar
ok so i didn't understand
I think it was like an OG canonical treatment of linear algebra
you need to show the following:
1. y(a + b) = y(a) + y(b)
2. y(l * a) = l * y(a)
this shows that y is a linear transformation P -> C
i.e. an element of P' by definition
okay, so now you want to prove that every element of the dual space is in that form?
well, the powers of x are a basis for P
so any element of P' is completely determined by where it sends those
and whatever choice of where to take those, it immediately translates to your choice of the alpha_i's
can i prove that there is a 1:1 correspondace
between the polynomials
and the "suitable choice of alphas"
I don't think that's gonna help you here
this book looks more like a reference than a textbook suitable for learning
and it doesn't seem to be in sync with the modern focus on linear maps as opposed to vector spaces themselves
i actually find the prose quite witty and fun to read
well, that's nice
it is from the 40s after all
so its infinite dimnesional?
yes
i dont understand this
if the dual space is the set of all linear functionals, there are presumably an infinite amount of these?
it's a basic fact of linear algebra: Given a basis A for V, a linear transformation from V to W is freely determined by where it sends A
yes, there are
argh
i haven't seen transformations yet!
in previous questions everyone's like just take the determinant lol
but i can't ahaha
from a modern perspective it's unthinkable to learn about dual spaces before seeing transformations
take it up with halmos hehe
no, I don't blame halmos, because he wrote the book in the 1940s
wait ooh
so it's saying that ever element in P'
is of the form y(x)
thats nuts how do i prove that
the preface does say "Frequently exercises are stated as soon as the statement makes sense, quite a bit before the machinery for a quick solution has been developed. A student who tries to solve such a "misplaced" exercise is likely to appreciate and to understand the subsequent development much better for his attempt."
there's a seemingly simple problem that for whatever reason I can't solve, it's algebraic geometry but I feel like it fits here much more than in #point-set-topology:
Consider k[x1, ..., xn] as functions k^n -> k. Prove that the ideal of functions that are zero at the point (a1, ..., an) in k^n is precisely the ideal (x1 - a1, ..., xn - an).
Isnât this like nullstellenstaz or something
yes, but I can't use nullstellensatz for this, because I need it for the way there
I think I figured it out.
For every polynomial p, I think I can show p has the same I-residue as a constant by induction on the degree of p.
and then I think that would prove k[x1, ..., xn]/(x1 - a1, ..., xn - an) is isomorphic to k so (x1 - a1, ..., xn - an) is maximal
which takes care of the hard-to-prove direction
clearly it's enough to show that a homogenous polynomial of positive degree n has the same I-residue as a polynomial of degree at most n-1
and then clearly it's enough to show that a monomial of positive degree n has the same I-residue as a polynomial of degree at most n-1
so the monomial is $p = c\prod_{i=1}^n {x_i^{m_i}}$
Ab
and $j \in {1, ..., n}$ is such that $m_i \neq 0$ since this monomial is non-constant
Ab
then consider $q = p - c(x_j - a_j)\prod_{i \neq j}{x_i^{m_i}}$
q is the difference between p and an element of I, and thus has the same I-residue
and it's of degree n-1
so, I have 2 questions:
- Can someone verify the proof I came up with is correct?
- Is there a more enlightening proof of this particular fact? This kind of just seems like bruteforce.
Ab
OH, OKAY, I don't know how I missed this
I found an intuitive explanation for why this is true
adding xi - ai to the ideal allows us to replace xi with ai everywhere, so we can replace everything with constants, and show every polynomial is (equivalent to, up to the ideal) a constant
dackid
I got what I need. Ty
So I need to figure out how many elements of order 4 and 2 are in S_6.
I am not too sure how to tackle this
Being a vs automorphism is stricly stronger than being a group automorphism, so yes
is f(x) := det(x) a valid homomorphism from the general linear group of nxn matrices under matrix multiplication to the group of non zero real numbers under multiplication?
yes
Nice
ive got no idea where to put this but i got an idea that id like to hammer out that has to do with the lucas numbers pascals triangle and f(x,y,n) = x^n + y^n
if anyone would like to discuss this new idea in mathematics voice, @ me
I'd love to iron it out with a second perspective
Hey so can someone help me with this?
Let $A$ be a ring, $M$ be an $A$ module, $I\subset A$ be an ideal, and let $N,N'$ be two submodules of $M$ such that $M=N+IN'$. If $N'$ is finitely generated, then show that there is $f\in A, f\equiv 1(\mod I)$ such that $f\cdot M\subseteq N$ and $M_f=N_f$
AidenM27
And what role does N' being finitely generated play here?
Not sure how to prove the final converse here: id want to say that any subring is of the form Z[fw] for some f and then the conclusion follows easily but im not sure how to show that
Here w is sqrt(D) when D = 2,3 mod 4 and (1+sqrt(D))/2 when D= 1 mod 4
id imagine the idea is the same as showing the only subgroups of Z are nZ but i dont remember how that goes either 
oh i think i might know what to do
I'm having some trouble coming up with an equivalence
V_1 is the sign representation and V_2 is the standard representation of S_3
The most natural map is $$\lambda \otimes v_2 \mapsto \lambda v_2$$ but it is not intertwining
AoiKunie
Hint:|| Nakayama' lemma (that should answer your question about why finitely generated is relevant||
Oh yes indeed, I used a related result to get that, or rather got that with the aid of some classmates. Thanks a bunch though!
How is it not intertwining?
If V1 is the trivial representation then your map seems perfectly fine to me 
V1 is the sign representation
If we call it $$\pi$$ it acts by $$\pi(\sigma)\lambda = \text{sgn}(\sigma)\lambda, \lambda \in \mathbb{C}$$
AoiKunie
So the map doesn't really work for 2-cycles
if I want to show $2+\sqrt{3}$ is a unit of infinite order in $\mathbb{Z}(\sqrt{3})$ can I just argue that the euclidian norm of $2+\sqrt{3}$ isn't 1?
đittle âarwhal â
or can I not use such a norm since we're working in $\mathbb{Z}(\sqrt{3})$ and not in $\mathbb{R}$
đittle âarwhal â
would i have to first give an explicit embedding, then construct the euclidian norm, and then show it's multiplicative?
or do you think its reasonable to skip those steps
or i could just generalize this since it works for all D>0 and then we automatically get that the gorup of units has infinite order in the ring of integers of $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{D})$
đittle âarwhal â
Depends on definition of Z(â3)
Is it defined as a quotient or as a subfield of R or C
defined as {a+b\sqrt(3)}
Are you sure it's Z(â3) and not Z[â3]
And yeah that looks like subfield
Or subring in this case
Because you're doing this addition in C
Unless these are defined to be formal expressions with the obvious relations
oh yeah we write it $\mathbb{Z}[\sqrt{3}]$ but yesterday.i saw that people answered by notating with () and used [] notation for polynomial rings so I assumed that DF was using deprecated notation
đittle âarwhal â
Round brackets mean subfield generated by whatever, square brackets are for subring
They also sometimes denote polynomial rings modulo some relations on the new variables 
i see
And what is V2, is it the irreducible 2-dimensiobal representation?
Yes
This comes down to writing a linear transformation $\phi:V_2\to V_2 $ such that $\phi(\sigma v) = \text{sgn}(\sigma) \sigma \phi(v)$
radiateur-man
I'd say try to write down explicitely this condition for the matrix of phi and find out what phi can be
Hint: ||V2 can be thought as the plane x+y+z=0 in C^3, with the obvious action of S_3. Take as a basis (1,w,w^2) and (1,w^2,w) where w is a third root of unity. Write matrices for the generators of S_3 in this basis and figure out what the matrix for phi has to be.||
a = x+y, b = xy, and the whole thing = x^n + y^n
this way of writing it is meant to encapsulate writing x^n + y^n in terms of a and b
it might be useful because it has fermats last theorem vibes
you can write x^n + y^n in terms of a and b with a polynomial for any n, but the coeffecients in that series of polynomials were patterned enough that i decided to write it in a general form
that general form was as follows
where you remove all the terms that have a negative power of a
(it might be interesting to just consider the infinite polynomial without this rule)
And now an actual question
is there a better form to write this in? right now there is a product operator nested in a summation
also if anyone knows anything even tangentially related to what im doing here that would be great
How is this abstract algebra
honestly i put this here because i thought abstract algebra might help but i wasnt sure how
would you know a good place to put this
its very general
its like what do i do with this
i meant simpler form
what makes you say that?
sure, but i meant like what that ive said makes you say combinatorics
this mostly started with me tryin to look at x^n+y^n in a different way, so that i could do algabra and number theory
but i dont have enough experience to know what to do at this point, and so i came here
alright
We don't really know the goal, so I don't know what we can say about finding the expression. As for finding a simpler way to write that expression, are you just looking for neater notation?
the neater notation is x^n+y^n
lmfao i was waiting for someone to say that
i got the direction i came for
I want to eventually apply the equality in other math
though now that i think about it abstract algebra was not the choice if i wanted that knowledge
and moldilocks yeah a neater notation would be cool if it exists
This seems like such a specific case that I am guessing that you'd have to define the notation yourself
but maybe try asking some physics people, they know how to handle ugly notation 
occasionally partake 
nah still doing random stuff
Why quick, is it like a prof asked you a question in class 
no
(2) and (3) in Z
its the otherway around
my intution is no
I >= IJ
IJ in I cap J
which is in I
So thats my intution from set theory
Ye
I know it is false generally
and true when
uh idk when its true tbh
oh uh rarely my intution says
It's true only if J is (1) I think 
Ah true
<e><e> = <e>
In domains I maybe? 
hmm yeah in domains should be i think
cause if IJ=I then for each i we have ij=i for some j
and so j is identity
Neat
if I maximal and J,K subset I. Is JK subset I when?
im thinking right
when I =JK only
wait rip
ok ic
in general u dont care for just subsets
cause u can make them into ideals right
isekai discussion goes in #point-set-topology thanks
imma ask in like 69 minutes about pullbacks and pushforwards before I get isekaied
in topology and geometry
ok, you're getting re-zero'd. have fun dying
isekai is japanese for "other world", its like a genre of mostly escapist/wish fulfilment fantasy japanese media
well yeah thats part of the point of isekai
watching cartoons ABOUT touching grass
watch re:zero though its good
99.9% of isekai ranges from "plain trash" to "trash thats also a crime in some countries" though
mushoku tensei...
Given ideal I is maximal and a,b in R.
If ab in I then assuming for ideals J,K subset I, ab in JK implies I in JK implies I = JK implying ? Im trying to remember if maximal then prime and I am missing one step
why is there math discussion in my anime channel
wtf is that implication chain
also yeah thats unreadable lmao
its also wrong
If ab in I then assuming for ideals J,K subset I, ab in JK implies I in JK implies I = JK implying ?
im gonna spring this on people
Telescoping in, ab in JK
force them to make sense of it
ab in I has that ab in JK
millionaire did you sign a deal with a demon that every second word from each of your sentences is deleted
);
btw showing maximal implies prime w/o quotient
book has that exercise
I think I learned it a year ago
and I have to use absorption somewhere
So are you saying that you need help with showing that maximal ideals are prime?
without quotienting at all
oh uh
I assume a or b in J which is a subset of I
and then without loss of generality
if a in J
then ab in I implies b in I
otherwise that would mean I subset J
and i think thats gas
juice gogo we winning
No clue what you said but you seem happy 
What are I and J
How
If a in J
and b is in J
wait a second
a in J
and ab in I
doesnt this mean that b is in I
by absorption or something
#groups-rings-fields-testing channel when
b could be anywhere in the ring
If a is in I
ab will be in I
That's what absorption means
Ok
So we assume a in J and b in R-I
ab is in J by absorption
but we also have that ab in I in our hypothesis
Trying to use maximality
That talks about ideals outside I not ideals inside it
Yes I but if we take a or b to be outside I then trivially a and b are inside I because its saying that all ideals containing I are either equal to I or the entire ring.
Like If I choose J containing I
but I guess im not considering case where J is neither inside or outside
and just intersecting
If a and b are outside I then they can't also be inside I assuming existence of a maximal ideal in some ring and consistency of math 
Word đĽ
I meant if we assume they are outside with our given hypothesis of I being maximal and ab in I
I meant with our*
oh epic
Ok so you making me see clearer now
because we can have an ideal that intersects I but neither contained or containing I
So I should start with assuming a in R-I
Yes, but I don't know how that is relevant 
So you want to show that ideal is prime
You take elements outside it
And you prove their product is outside it
I assume a and b are in R-I
Yes
no im confused lol
their product cant be outside I
thats contradicting the hypothesis
How
An ideal I is prime if ab in I then a in I or b in I.
We assume
I is maximal
a and b are not in I
And prove ab not in I
So just contradicting?
a and b not in I implies ab not in I is contrapositive of statement defining a prime ideal?
Yes
Oh nvm this isnt contradiction
Contrapositive yeah
I can't figure out what that means 
like The next step would be assuming a belongs to an ideal J where I strict subset J
yea thats why I thought it was a bad idea
well uh
I was thinking something faulty again
I gotta sleep but I'll give a hint before leaving
||consider the ideals I+(a), I+(b), and their product||
oh
(I+(a))(I+(b)=(I+(a))(I)+ (I+(a))(b)=I+(I(a))+(I(b))+(ab)
ig not helpful
I+(a) contains ab
similar with I+(b)
i want to show ab not in I
so I+(a) not in I?
I+(a) is R
no false
that would be if ab in I
ok
i folded and stack exchanged it
this makes me feel so bad..

Quick question
Let $M$ be an $R$-module and let $\phi: M \to R$ be a homomorphism. If $R$ is a PID and $\phi$ is non-trivial, prove that there exists $x \in M$ such that
$$M \cong Rx \oplus \mathrm{ker}(\phi)$$
eM
Normally, I figured the proof would be similar to the structure theorem for finitely generated modules over PIDs but here, our M isn't necessarily free.
I think you can just the first isomorphism theorem?
How would I write the quotient into a direct sum that's sensible? If M is cyclic, then I can see it but I'm not seeing off the top of my head.
I don't really know what you mean by cyclic. You look to show that M/ker(phi) is generated by one element
I mixed up the placing in my head if M is cyclic. There's really nothing to show for that.
Generated by one element?
Hmmm.
Generated as an R-module by one element more specifically
0 â ker phi â M â im phi â 0 is exact and it splits because im phi is a free R module
I don't think this suffices, unless you show splitting in some way
Is thinking of this in terms of exact sequences the way to go?
Been a while since I've done that but not bad.
It's convenient here certainly since this is immediate from the splitting lemma
But you could do everything without ses
So a surjective map f: M â N implies M = g(N) â ker f, if you can construct a map g: N â M such that fg = id
yeah ur right mb
Think of g as the natural inclusion into the direct sum, f as the projection
So it should be somewhat obvious that this is a necessary condition. Sufficiency is also a short proof
@prisma thunder if you know what a projective module is, free modules are projective. M -> R surjects onto the image which is an ideal, but any ideal is isomorphic to R as an R-module, because a principal ideal is isomorphic via R -> (x) given by multiplication by x
Now you have M -> xR surjective and this splits because xR is free, so projective
Then you get M â xR (+) ker phi
This observation that any direct summand of a rank 1 free module is itself free gives a very clean proof that any finite projective module over a PID is free
You basically use this fact and induction on the rank of the free module youâre a direct sum of
If anyone wants to see it here it is lol. My friend wrote this up and learned it from his friend
I guess this is slightly stronger since it says submodules of free modules are free. It ends up being equivalent in the end but you donât have to assume the module is finite projective, just a submodule of a finite free module
We are assuming (A,m) is a Noetherian complete local ring. Why can we take a system of parameters starting with p when the residue field has characteristic p? I think it has to do with the fact that p is in m, but I canât figure out how that means you can take a system of parameters with p
Oh, A is also a char 0 integral domain in what Iâm struggling with
no, phi*^-1 is P(spec A) â P(spec B), P means power set
I mean I have just given you the domains 
but like this isn't directly induced by phi itself
What book is it?
I think the main point is that p is not a zero divisor (obviously) or more specifically it isn't contained in a minimal prime ideal. so ht((p))=1 by krull's height theorem. Then you select an element of m that is not in any minimal prime ideal containing p by prime avoidance. now you get (p,y2) and this ideal has height 2 again by the height theorem. So you can keep doing this argument until you get an ideal (p,y2,...yn) of height n. This has to be a system of parameters as any minimal prime containing it has to have height n, so that means it must be m itself so this ideal is m primary.
This argument is in matsumura's commutative ring theory ch5 sec 14 thm 14.1
in part 4
is it asking to show homeomorphism between Y and V(Ker phi)
but a prime in B is a prime in A not containing Ker phi
A prime in B will map under phi* to a prime containing ker(phi)
first of all im(phi) is A/ker
yea
but in any case prime ideals in A containing ker(phi) correspond bijectively to prime ideals in A/ker(phi)
this is the correspondance theorem
oh right ok
so you understand the question now, right?
yes but now im questioning my understanding of quotients
wait
so
any ideal in A/ker contains 0, and 0 = ker so contains ker huh?
and if it was in ker, its the same as 0
you really shouldn't write stuff like 0=ker, but I think you have the right idea. the point is that an ideal I in A/ker contains 0 so phi^-1(I) contains phi^-1(0)= ker(phi)
Ah you mean like cosets
yep
ok then it's cool

Wait how did you solve it? I thought if such f exists then it belongs to ann(M/N) right ? But if I let A=Z, I=2Z, N be the direct sum of n copies of Z with index {1,âŚ,n}, Nâ be the direct sum of n copies of Z with index {n+1,âŚ,2n} . Then M/N is isomorphic to Z^n as Z module, whose annihilator is zero I think.
OH DUH. I was thinking you could do something like this but concluded height n doesnât tell you anything đ¤Śââď¸
Commutative Ring Theory by Matsumura
it has been exposed that chmonkey's hands are in fact not chair arms
Those are just a little attachment to help me turn pages
But I is an arbitrary ideal, not contained in Jacobson radical
The statement is IM=M then M=0 where I is contained in Jacobson radical and M is finitely generated right?
I donât understand how Nakayama Lemma was used since nothing about Jacobson radical was mentioned
When was Nakayama ever used?
My bad I am too sleepy⌠now every Japanese name looks like Nakayama to meâŚđđđ
âŚ
@gritty sparrow is there any chance you understand the proof of 26.10 in Matsumura
I think I almost understand it, I just donât get how the rank of Omega_L/k is calculated to be 1 from the given computation of it
If a prime ideal contains a finite product of ideals
Then it must contain one of the ideals
Im not too sure how to see this
I can see that for since the product of ideals A_I in our prime ideal P, that elements of the from a1a2âŚan are in P
And we can use the prime ness to get that some aj is in P
If none of them are contained in P, you can pick an element in A_i - P for all i
Hmm

Okay this makes sense
Oh and then
Call such an element b_i
The product of b_I should be in P
But my primeness
Yeah
yep
Oh okay yeah
It's A ⊠(B complement)

You can strengthen this to the intersection of finitely many ideals
Look at Atiyah-MacDonald I think itâs in the first chapter
It has that plus prime avoidance, two super useful theorems
Inclusion is a partial order on sets so yes?
Ye
IDK where to really ask this, but is my intuition right about distinguished triangles being a kind of generalisation of exact couples for spectral sequences
If R is an integral domain, and every prime ideal is principal, then R is a principal ideal domain
Here is a proof
But I am struggling to see where R being an integral domain is used
Hmm
Is the last line showing that M is generated by a single element, contradicting the assumed non-principality?
Being an integral domain is part of the definition of a PID
The above just shows that all ideals are principal
No. Verdier's definition was probably motivated by the way things work for derived categories; i.e. to construct some sort of formalism that describes when you can get an "LES in cohomology" from a triple.
Derived categories are not abelian, so the usual SES to LES thing doesn't make sense
Yeah I got corrected in another discord, shift operator and all
but if you have an exact triangle, then all of the "usual" functors from the derived category give you long exact sequences
Anyone know a good method for representing a group with permutations?
The group I specifically have to do is <x,y : x^7 = y^6 = e, xy = yx^3>
I started by representing X = (1234567)
But frankly... not sure how to go about y. I know it's got to be some sort of 6-cycle, but I don't know how to set it up to follow the group's rules
Please ping me with any advice!
how does one show that like
in an integral domain an element r isnt the product of arbitrarily many noninvertible elements
sry not rly sure how to phrase this
Do you want a technique for a specific ring and specific element or are you trying to show that this holds for any nonzero element in any integral domain?
Because it is not true in general
probably some integral domain with a norm here
any noninvertible element r
noetherian
not rly sure why it isnt true in just an integral domain
do u have any counterexamples in mind
make a huge change to this example sorry
instead consider the subring of Q[X] which is given by polynomials of constant coefficient an integer
now X=2x2x2x2x..x2(X/2^r) is what we need
I'll be deleting the faulty example if that is ok with you
ok i might need some time to digest this
im a little confused
it seems like ur definition is circular?
in what sense
they are multiplication
I edited the ring to make things a little more clear sorry
this is very unfortunate i thought that result was gonna be true
but u said that its true for noetherian rings?
Actually I'm not 100% sure in that case either
for noetherian rings I can say this much: you can't have an infinite sequence of factorizations each of which is made by taking the previous factorization and splitting an element
but there is still the possibility of a collection of factorizations which are not related to each other in this way where an element has arbitrarily large factorizations
group theory đĽľ
So if A(x) (nonzero) is in Q[x] and (x-a) is in (R-Q)[x] is it possible for A(x)(x-a) to be in Q[x]?
It seems like it would be a contradiction.
Since a sum of a rational with an irrational is irrational likewise for a product given that the rational is nonzero.
So my thinking with A(x) is it has at least one nonzero coefficient hence by the thing about rationals/irrationals I mentioned above A(x)(x-a) should also have at least one irrational coefficient. :/
Let A(x)=a_0 +a1x+âŚ+anx^n
I think I just saw it lol
Let i be the smallest number st a_i is nonzero
Nice
DootDooter
What is a_n+1?
I meant a_{n-1}-aa_n
My point is that the coefficient of i will be a_ia which must be irrational
Seems like that would be the coeff of the leading term of (x-a)A(x)
That is not the leading coefficient
Ah dang
Sorry if I'm being confusing I was meaning to say this is the leading coeff of (x-a)A(x)?
Oops I had a typo
a_n is still the leading coeff
You might want to pick an example of A(x) to understand what is happening
Yeah I think I'm being dumb and missing the coefficient I want by one lmao. I'm pretty sure I get what you're trying to do though
Also to be a stickler, x-a is not in (R\Q)[x] because the coefficient of x is 1 which is rational, so you may want to rephrase that as just a is irrational
Oh shoot, thank you for pointing that out.
I donât see how to use Henselâs lemma here
A_0 here is a complete regular local ring
You can take for granted that a_n in m_0 from the fact a_n in x_1A
m_0 is the maximal ideal of A_0
I can use Henselâs lemma to show that a_n-1 is in m_0 but I donât think I can go further
If I can show that x^n-1 + ⌠+ a_n-1 is irreducible I can do it inductively, but I donât think this is true in general
Why change the polynomial?
As in if there exists any a_i for i<n that is nonzero mod m then the polynomial reduced mod m is reducible
Which is a contradiction by henselâs lemma
I wasnât making it work because I was struggling to show (x^n,x^m +âŚ+a) is (1) in a polynomial ring over a field
Then finally I realized I can just look at the radical and then itâs easy as shit
đ
you could also say that x^i has divisors only powers of x and x^(n-i)+...+a_i can't be divided by any power of x that is greater than 1 right?
Yeah that works too
what is hensels lemma?
suprenum of two elements is just the larger one yea?
yes, you can easily prove that

i will take it as definition
because algebra
what does distributive mean?
over the other
it's not necessary that a and b are comparable
