#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 616 of 407
Yeah
i see what you mean now
Or define <g^7> as the intersection of all subgroups of G containing g^7,but i digress
Either way, we have a subgroup and it's order is k
We want to find k, so we must see what <g^7> is
Now k can be one of three numbers, agreed?
im sorry im just staring at the problem
it can only be one of those numbers
n itself, 7, and 1 are the only divisors of n
no
Correct
then youd only have 2 subgroups
Yes.
thanks 🙇♂️ sorry im slow today
np!
Now it may be interesting for you to know that a group G of order n is cyclic if and only if for each divisor d of n, it has a unique subgroup of order d
this is uhh
The upshot being that if G's order had factors other than n then it'd have subgroups of those orders
fundamental theorem of finite abelian groups
:)
?
Not quite
its scribbled very roughly in my notes
This is pretty special case, it was actually an exam question i did 
oh damn
Whereas finite abelian groups is longer and requires more technology
this is in the 'easy' set of exam review questions for us
Sure
hmm
But yeah don't worry about the theorem other than that it's cool to know it exists, even just to guide intuition
hmm ok 😄
For example, suppose a cyclic group has one subgroup order 2, one order 3 and nothing else besides itself and the trivial subgroup - what order is G and how would you prove that
i guess itd be 6
yes
you'd just cite this theorem i guess
well without actually citing the theorem i mean
Use it for intuition, but use a similar method to what we just did to actually prove it
In particular, which order is <g^2> where g is a generator
i guess you could just check brute force
Yeah, sure
It's either 1,2,3,6 and do cases to show it has to be 3
But dw about it now aha i gave it just for an example
what is a ground field?
Usually the smaller field in a field extension but depends on the context
You can refine the series to a composition series and that would have the same length so must be the same series
the last line is saying this exact thing too lol
dont we need the converse now
I think the last line is saying if k < l(M) then it's not a composition series
other direction
so it's the converse
wait I didn't get it
we know that all chains have length <= l(M)
the first sentence is saying if k = l(M) then it's acomposition series
agreed
the second is saying if k < l(M) then it's not ?
wait no
so k = l(M) <=> it is a composition series
ah no they want to show every chain can be extended
I should read the actual result they are proving
taking a composition series we see that it has length k
now take a chain of length k
im asking about showing its a composition series chain
iii) says that all composition series have the same length l(M)
but we dont know all chains of lenght L(M) are composition series?
iii) has like .. 3 parts
well if you have a chain of length l(M) that is not a composition series
you can extend it into a longer chain that is a composition series
so you would get l(M) > l(M)
which is a contradiction
how do we know that there cant be an infinite chain
so we cant extend to composition
because we know M has a finite length composition series
and ii)
every chain has length <= l(M)
can this not be done by pigeon hole principle
and being noehterian and having homomorphic doesnt actually matter
are we just assuming every set is finite
even then, isomorphic as sets ≠ isomorphic as modules
wait why
but u is a homomorphism
yeah we can keep u being a homomorphism mb
surjective homomorphism between finite modules is isomorphism
yes, i was disputing:
and being noehterian and having homomorphic doesnt actually matter
yeah keep the homomorphism
if you know these modules are finite, then yes, thats enough
i dont think anyone cares about finite modules
but hey
it works


Hence F_{p^2} and F_p as F_p modules are isomorphic
Check the homomorphism conditions 
You have a chain ker(f)<=ker(f^2)<=… since M is noetherian there exists n such that ker(g)=ker(g^2) where g=f^n now g is surjective therefore any x such that g(x)=0, there exists y from M such that x=g(y). g^2(y)=0 therefore x=g(y)=0 therefore g is injection, so f is injective
I think you're wrong
wat
how can they be isomorphic if they have different cardinalities
they have the same cardinality mod p
What? For a field k, k^m is isomorphic to k^n iff m=n
Otherwise you will have a matrix A with n rows m columns and a matrix B with m rows n columns where n is greater than m such that AB=I
no one who uses #groups-rings-fields can pick up sarcasm confirmed
😂😂
sorry one last meme b4 u guys get to the helping, but the context is modules and these are the same as F_p modules 
well ive tried creating an exactness sequence
but i dont think that is the way here
(dim 2 vect space over field F_p)
I would try to see if I can match ideals of A/a with submodules of M
wdym match
I mean come up with a function
ok
hopefully that preserves inclusion
then that would allow you to carry noetherianness from one to the other
I see,My bad
i dont think that can work tbh
like we wanna consider A/a as A module
and look for injective homomorphism
?
???
maybe i misunderstood ya lol
what does that have to do with showing A/a is noetherian
without injectivity it wont carry the inclusion?
injective morphism from what to what
M -> A/a
but yeah idontthink we can find such a thing
what did u mean?
I said a function from the set of ideals of A/a to the set of submodules of M
because to show that A/a is noetherian you got to talk about ideals of A/a
yea
and you know that M is noetherian, that is, you know stuff about submodules of M
you will say
maybe i need to explicitly /s
"suppose that A/a is not noetherian, Take an infinite ascending chain of ideals. Use the function to get an infinite chain of submodules of M, contradiction"
im kinda iffy about this method tbh
we also know that a = ann(M)
so surely that is nudging us to the direction of finding atleast a homomorphism
if we just had a function between ideals, we dont really know that inclusion is respected
well the point would be to define a function in a way that it has good properties
where inclusion-preserving is basically trivial and uh injectiveness maybe has some actual work to do
hmmm
M=ΣAx_i a=ann(M) equals the intersection of ann(x_i) therefore A/a is isomorphic to a submodule of ΠA/ann(x_i) for any i A/ann(x_i) is a noetherian A/a module.
oh damn i completly forgot that M was finitely generated
but that last part u said
A/ann(xi) why is that Noetherian A/a-Module?
@terse crystal
A/annx_i is isomorphic to a M submodule and any submodule of M is annihilated by a
tysm!!
Does anyone here have examples of transitive antisymmetric relations which are not everywhere reflexive?
reason: I've noticed that A ~ B iff cl(A)≤B for any closure op cl(-) is transitive and antisymm, but reflexive only for closed elements
and I wanted to know how „nonstandard“ examples of Tr/AS relations look or whether every such relation arises from a closure operator
(please ping if responding)
The inverse doesn't exist in H because it's not an integer.
under addition
I thought multiplication is the default operation?
it says in your screenshot that we're thinking of G as a group under addition
the integers with multiplication aren't even a group anyways (for the reason you state)
We use multiplication notation
But that doesn't mean the operation is multiplication
We need to use some notation
welcome to the world of abstraction
where you can use symbols but have no clue what they might mean
I don't think it has to be in the centre of R (anyway that doesn't make sense since a is in R')
It should commute with everyone in the image of R
Reason is that R[x] is a commutative ring and the image of a commutative ring is commutative
For all x in R yes
Moldi
I’m pretty sure the map is surjevtive (this is false but w/e)
I mean I don’t know what the map is from and to
Or well… no
Oh wait
But like
Evaluation into the ring itself
Yeah
I see
I mean it depends on how you defined R[X]
I don’t like it when R isn’t commutative
Right
But if you let cX = Xc
Then you just apply it
And you get ca = ac
And then c is arbitrary
I mean yes
But when R isn’t commutative
It gets dicey as to whether you’ve defined cX = Xc
So does X commute with everything?
If so then you get what you described
Cuz when you do f(cX) = ca
Then this has to be equal to f(Xc) = ac
Idk
I don’t see how the problem is correct unless X commutes with everything
So this is a shitty way to justify X commuting with everything
But it makes me think it’s been defined like that
I just forget if you actually get a ring doing that

usually when you write R[X], X commutes with R
Hi! If i have a free group F(X) of rank = r, how can i express the rank of F(X)^2 = <w^2 : w \in F(X)>?
Maybe Nielsen-Schreier theorem? Idk if F(X)^2 is a subgroup of F(X) or not, but if it is, and i would know the index of it in F(X) then i would have the answer
Then what are you even asking
It doesn't make sense to ask for the rank of something that's not a group
I have this question: Express the rank of F(X)^2 = <w^2 : w \in F(X)> using that the rank of F(X) is r.
Yeah but unless X is a singleton, the set of squares of F(X) is not a subgroup
And you can only talk about the rank of a group, not a set
i know that
but i do not have the set of squares, but the group generated by the squares
Ahh
Oh my bad
I'm guessing you can go case by case to some extent. For example when r = 1 then it is just 1 again. If r = 2 then the group is countable, so rank ≤ |N|, and it's non abelian, so rank > 1, which means rank = 2 immediately

So I think rank will be r itself
Wait I think I just assumed that F(2) surjects onto F(N) when it's that F(N) injects into F(2)

So the finite rank case should be the interesting one
I want to say that we can use the Nielsen Schreier index formula. F(X) modulo that subgroup is a Z/2 vector space and it should be of dimension r I think
i'm guessing that so
Yeah this works
but what would be the homomorphism whose kernel is F(X)^2?
Z/2Z^r? not Z^r/2*Z^r?
Aren't these the same thing
i mean how can you factor out 2Z^r from Z? 
I'm on mobile so I was too lazy sorry
abelianization ?
yeah that's called the commutator subgroup
I don't know if there is a word for rings
oh I didn't see ring
<x> means the subgroup of (Z,+) generated by x, I am not sure what you are calling outputs
you are making the same mistake as earlier today
the operation that makes Z a group is addition
not multiplication
Consider positive integers and R={(m,n): m divides n and m doesn’t equal n}
Empty relation I think
But this is incredibly hurbed
[F(X):F(X)^2] is 2 when |X|>1? Since x_j = x_1 x_1 ^-1 x_j therefore x_j is contained in x_1 F(X)^2
I'm not sure how you're getting that conclusion
How do you know that x_1^-1 x_j is in F(X)^2? @terse crystal
I confused that subgroup with the subgroup whose elements have even length.
Hey guys, I'm trying to prove that there is no homomorphism between Z8xZ2 and Z4xZ4. With some work I've found that I think the issue should lie in the fact that there are elements of order 8 in Z8xZ2 and Z4xZ4 only has elements of order up to 4. From this and some more work I can show that the kernel of a hypothetical homomorphism can't be trivial.
Is the fact that both groups have the same order, but all mappings aren't surjective enough to show that there can't be a homomorphism?
I feel like I'm a missing a small piece, is there any theorem that says something like "homomorphisms between groups of identical order are always surjective" or something?
No, you always have the identity morphism. In other words, for any groups G, H, there's a homomorphism from G to H that sends every element of G to the identity
ah, yeah. I didn't think of that trivial case. So I guess I'm just wondering how to prove there is no homomorphism. I'm not sure where to go from the mismatch of element orders, to showing that no homomorphism can preserve the structure. It makes perfect sense intuitively but something is missing
Well, I'm saying that I'm not sure if your question is correct. It's not true that there's no homomorphism because you have the identity homomorphism
oh... yeah 🤔
is this a question in your book or something?
Maybe the question meant to ask if there are any surjective homomorphisms?
a question in my course's extra problems. Yeah I'm pretty sure the surjective part was just left out
yeah, there are a lot of other homomorphisms other than just the trivial one too
really? I feel like the structure of the two groups isn't that similar
You can take (1,0) in the first group and map it to (1,0) in the second, and (0,1) in the first group and map it to (0,2) in the second
oh yeah, that makes sense. It's not a nice mapping but I can see how you picked out the structures that were needed. Could you instead map (2,0) to (1,0) to avoid the double mapping? it feels better at least.
If you map (2,0) to (1,0), then where does (1,0) go to?
oh yeah, we can't throw away items from the domain in the same way we forgo elements in the codomain, oops 😄
Yeah, this has to do with what you said earlier
about (1,0) having order 8
so that the kernel can't be trivial
yeah, that makes sense. So with your mapping we're still kinda keeping structure in an overlapping way, it doesn't work to just poke holes in the structure to establish a mapping
Right yeah
it could be either or neither. it's just an abstract group operation, and those are commonly denoted like multiplication
I need to know what the operation is because I'm about to show that n1 & n2 are closed under something to prove the first axiom
I'll try multiplication first I think
It doesn't really make sense to ask if an operation is addition or multiplication
It's written "multiplicatively" here by just writing elements next to each other but
When we say the integers are a group, they are a group under addition. We include the operation name but in this problem we are not given that information.
the operation name in this problem is just "the group operation of the group G"
G is an arbitrary group, its operation could be anything
all you need to know is that it's a group
For the problem I posted, what exactly are we intersecting over? I understand $S_1\cap S_2$ but am having difficulties seeing the sets in this problem
bunkermush
it's the intersection of all of the sets of the form xHx^{-1}, where x is in G. such sets are those consisting of all elements of the form xhx^{-1}, for some h in H
Thanks! Thinking about it when falling asleep I noticed that there's not too many conclusions one could draw – adding or removing „reflexivities“ x ~ x still produces a transitive, antisymmetric relation.
So we can classify them by giving a partial order + specifying which reflexivities are omitted.
Either x or h can be in N, correct?
x is in G, h is in H. N hasn't been defined yet
how F-module
any element of E roots a polynomial over F
but we got powers
oh
it means E is a vector space over F
with a finite dimension
THE KOSZUL COMPLEX STAYS WINNING
any hints on this?
i think we should use this
so i just need to show that B is a finitely generated B^G module
are the xi fixed by G?
that would be enougn i think
and another question
A field of characteristic 0
a finitely generated one
why finitely generated over Z?
They are assuming that to get a contradiction
i thought we assuming Char 0 for contradiction
oh wait yeah
let me show the whole thing
Yeah they mean finitely generated as a ring
That implies finitely generated over Z
After you embed Z through the characteristic map
dont get it
how
K is finitely generated by say (x1,x2 , xn)
has char 0
we can embed Z
then how?
Then it's a Z algebra which is generated by those same elements
A Z algebra is just a ring with a ring homomorphism from Z to it right?
Every ring is a Z algebra
oh
so not K = Z[x1,x2,.xn] ?
having it finitely generated over Z could miss out some elements no?
That equality is correct
As long as that's a generating set for A as a ring
how we know for the field K that f(Z) is all our coefficients
I didn't get it. Generated as a ring by some collection {x_a} means that every element is a sum of products of these x_a
You can view any such expression as a polynomial in the x_a's with all coefficients 1
You're thinking of ideals
In subrings you don't take coefficients from the whole ring
ok
alright i think i see it
generated as a ring means:
hm

in the generating set
we also need a 0 and 1 yeah?
what
But like they will always be there in any subring
You don't need to add them to generating set to get those
Because subring generated by something is smallest subring containing it
And all subrings contain 0 and 1 implies the smallest does too
nope
all elements can be broken into sums of 1?
Thats only F_p
okay
alg closure of F_p is infinite
I want to show that Z[sqrt(3)] is a pid
it seems the best way to do thsi would be to find euclidean function
but im not sure how to find euclidean functions
opps this should go in number theory
We need |a^2-3b^2| instead
It's still multiplicative but outputs non-negative integers
Sorry wrong
how we appy nakayama lemma
we saying that m^n is finitely generated A module
and m is in jacob radical of m^n?
m^n = m^(n+1) = m(m^n). m is equal to the jacobson radical since A is a local ring
oh
any ways of writing this cleaner?
Notably this can fail even if the field is finite
Take Fq for q a prime power which is not prime
For instance F4 = F2[x]/(x^2 + x + 1)
Is there a reason you're asking this?
I guess one reason is that if you have a group homomorphism from f: G to H, then you consider the group homomorphism from G to im(f) and this is surjective. So you can kinda reduce the study of homomorphisms to surjective homomorphisms
Is the hypothesis that x is in the normaliser of A? Then by definition xA = Ax and from that you can get the solution p quickly
A = x^-1(xA) = x^-1(Ax) = x^-1 Ax
if i have a presentation of a group G , how can in know if G is trival?
impossible in general https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Word_problem_for_groups
In mathematics, especially in the area of abstract algebra known as combinatorial group theory, the word problem for a finitely generated group G is the algorithmic problem of deciding whether two words in the generators represent the same element. More precisely, if A is a finite set of generators for G then the word problem is the membership p...
Kekw
"mathematics is the study of the impossible" is the kind of phrase that sounds a lot cooler than what it actually means
there's also a quote like "physics is the study of what man can't do, mathematics is the study of what God can't do"
(0 + 0)x = 0x + 0x = 0x

yup everything has inverse
What zoph said. You can find examples of really convoluted presentations with only a slight difference (a power changing from a 3 to a 4 or smth) and one will be trivial while the other will be infinite lol
It’s sad
I wish we could just work with presentations and get everything easily
i was also stuck on this before lol
the additive inverse is crucial
yes
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/134234/transcendence-degree-of-a-field-extension
so i understand the accepted answer for this post, but idk why it proves the desired result - doesnt it just show that B_1 U B_2 is algebraically independent over F? it doesnt yet show that it is a maximal algebraically independent set
dont we need to show that its a maximal algebraically independent set over F to conclude the equality?
<@&286206848099549185>
Given a connected graph and a base point,why the rank of its fundamental group equals the first Betti number of the graph? And why this first Betti number equals the number of edges minus the number of vertices plus the number of connected components (which is 1 in this case)?
Connected graphs are homotopy equivalent to a wedge of circles, by contracting a maximal spanning subtree
@terse crystal
The number of circles is the number of edges not in this tree
Thanks so I understand you saying that the rank equals |edges|-|vertices|+1. Now why this number equals the first Betti number?
Betti number of a wedge of circles is the number of circles
Because the 1st homology is Z^(no of circles)
Did you change the underlying space? I mean given a connected graph X and a base point p, surely π(X,p) is a free group with rank n. Then I can define Y= wedge product of n circles and according to you the first Betti number of Y equals n but X is not necessarily a wedge product of circles so how do I know that the first Betti number of X is also n?
Homotopy equivalence preserves homology groups, and Y is h equiv to X
So we can work with Y
Like once you establish the h equiv, everything is in Y
How do I know that the connected graph X with e edges and v vertices is homototy equivalent to Y=wedge product of e-v+1 circles?
Wait wait I kind of get it. By contracting a maximum tree to a point?
Contracting the maximal subtree is an h equivalence. This is proved in Hatcher I think (definitely in May)
Yep
But what toki is pretty good too
Thanks a lot
I tend to ask algebraic topology questions in both channels 😂😂
I see got it
hello friends in algebra
i learned about free groups in algebraic topology (apparently they will be useful there)
free groups are useful anywhere there are groups 
Hausdorff
S is a set (the alphabet), F(S) is the free group generated by it
Of course it is trivial but how do I do such proofs
isn't that the definition of the elements of F(S)
For me F(S) is the set of equivalence classes of words
Hausdorff
I think we have to use induction somewhere
Perhaps induction on the number of elementary contractions or something like that
elementary contraction?
lemme define
And that definition seems like just "equivalence closure of elementary contraction as a relation"
just nice terminology you can use to make things shorter 
not too hard to see what it would mean
cancelling one thing with its inverse I am guessing?
Hausdorff
yes
x in S union S inverse but yeah
Try this: if a word w can be contracted to both y and y' then y and y' have a common contraction z
This is what one of the steps in the proof of CR looks like too 
Hausdorff
Yes, I am saying that the above lemma will help
it should let you argue, by induction, that w1 and w3 must also have a common contraction
but they are reduced so their only contractions would be themselves
Interesting, this is true indeed
This is just painful case work right
Hausdorff
😵💫
Suppose in x you contacted some pair a'a and in y you contacted a pair b'b (' denotes inverse) then you can write w as
pa'aqb'br
Where p,q,r are arbitrary strings
But one more case
Where a = b or b'
Then w = the above, or you can overlap the 2 pairs in different ways
like a(a'a) = (b'b)b'
I guess it is painful
Not I didn't understand what you were doing lol
It is painful yeah lol
That's why I prefer Analysis
Anyway, let's assume this lemma lmao
this also is not easy
because aa^{-1}b ---> b is a contraction, but aa^{-1}b ---> aa^{-1} bb^{-1} b ---> bb^{-1} b----> b is also a valid way of showing that aa^{-1}b and b are related lol
basically you can also have elementary expansions if any two are related
but we can probably relax this by strictly considering only contractions from words to reduced forms
How are you even typing all that
Looks like pain
yeah lol
I don't see how that's a counterexample though
Like pick any chain that exists between the 2 words and induct on that
It's fine if there are multiple, that won't matter
pick a chain consisting of contractions only
this can always be done
here you can
because w_1, w_3 are reduced
https://www2.unb.ca/~ntouikan/MATH6022/IntroCGGT/html_output/reductions.html use diamond lemma to prove theorem 1.2.2 lol
I think that's equivalent to there being a reduced form
Oh diamond lemma
That's what my claim is called I think
oh neat 
Yeah from this it's just induction 
yup!
🎉
you just need to explicitly construct free groups once and show they have the universal property, and then you don't need to worry about it anymore
it's like constructing the integers as equivalence classes of pairs of natural numbers (where (a, b) is taken as a - b) and the rationals as equivalence classes of (a subset of) pairs of integers (where b is nonzero and (a, b) is taken as a / b)
sure, someone at some point should formally construct them, but once you did, you don't need to think about it anymore
Are there certain criteria for when subgroups of a group ovelap? like do two cyclic subgroups of different order overlap? Do two subgroups of prime order overlap?
I feel like the cyclic subgroups of different order don't overlap, that one makes sense to me
I'm just wondering if I'm missing some more general fact
By overlap I assume you mean have a non-trivial intersection
well correction. The cyclic subgroups of prime order don't overlap
Often Lagrange's theorem is useful for finite groups in doing this
yes, non-trivial intersection
that seems more like what you're after?
yeah I was trying to apply it to just two general subgroups of different prime order, but I'm struggling to see what the intersection could be if it's there
Ah, sure
Well if H,K are subgroups of a finite group G, then H cap K is a subgroup of both H and K
ah yeah, i remember that
hence its order must divide both H and K's orders, so if H and K are of prime order...
oh..
Is there any closed form way to compute the order of an automorphism group for a given group G? I’ve been trying to find some solution with Burnsides that takes advantage of orbits but I can’t find any.
well turns out its a lot easier than I thought, thanks @south patrol !
np :)
i've looked into this a bit, although i'm bad
afaict it's one of those types of things that's sorta manageable for abelian groups and extremely non-trivial and an open question otherwise
that's not even touching infinite groups, which can get really weird i think
part of the difficulty is like
how would you actually define any given group such that you can input it into a hypothetical automorphism-group-order-determining-formula
just plugging in the order of the original group is clearly insufficient
i was thinking you'd have to work with a presentation and try and go from there
maybe that works, i haven't tried that much, but my instincts say it's hard
can you specify it all sufficiently with burnside's lemma? like the data about the fixed points? that's sorta interesting
but anyway yeah probs you can only get anything like what you want for abelian groups
that's actually feasible, although there's some fun corner cases
yeah i suspect that calculating automorphism groups is in general a very difficult question, unless you're looking at particular families of groups (e.g. cyclic groups, finite abelian groups, dihedral groups, maybe symmetric or general linear groups, etc.)
yeah it's almost trivial for cyclic, dihedral, symmetric groups, finite abelian generally is describable, general linear i haven't looked into
hi, so i posted this question here yesterday but it got ignored and i still can't figure it out, could anyone help?
@sullen island I think you're right in saying that you still need to prove maximality
so suppose that B_1 = {x_i} and B_2 = {y_j} are transcendence bases for L over K and K over F respectively (where L/K/F) and that there exists an element, say z, such that B_1 U B_2 U {z} is algebraically independent.
then B_1 U {z} is not algebraically independent over K, so there exists a nonzero polynomial f in K[X_1, ... , X_m+1] such that f(x_1, ... , x_m, z) = 0
im not sure how to proceed to derive a contradiction to prove maximality, this is what i have so far
is this a valid proof?
i understand the idea, im not sure i put it in words correctly though
because it is the intersection of the sets
so the elements in that set must be equal
do i have to specify the index of the x and ys in the set
to make the statement
the intersection just means the elements are in both sets
if the element is in the intersection, then it is in both X and Y
im trying to say that element in X is equal to the one in Y
Ok
thats what i meant with the index
if A = {a,bc} and B = {b,c,d} and alpha \in A and beta \in B, then im looking for the pairs of alpha and beta that match up
Ok so the heuristic picture in my mind for this is that X \cap Y, includes all the pairs of elements and inverses in both X and Y, so they are in X \cap Y, then i am trying to show that that set preserves closure under operation
is that at least correct?
if X is a subgroup, then it includes an element x and x^-1
pairs of elements that are inverses of each other
Ok thanks
So i tried saying that if x \in X \cap Y, then x \in X and x \in Y, but X and Y are groups, so then x^-1 \in X and x^-1 \in Y, hence x^-1 is in X \ cap Y
is this better
Is this enough to conclude that X \cap Y is a subgroup of G though?
Ok
Hmm I don't see why they are taking the minimal length chain. I think you can just induct like this:
For any chain of length n, the 2 end points of the chain can be reduced to the same word.
Induct on n.
I think minimal length makes sure that almost every step is a contraction
There are no unnecessary insertions, I mean
Yeah but I don't see why that matters
In the induction hypothesis you'd want to assume that the 2 end points can be multi-step-contracted to the same thing, not directly contracted ofc
And no contractions also counts as a multi step contraction
Let $k$ be an algebraically closed field and consider the divisors on $\mathbb{P}_k^1$. Let $D$ be a divisor on $\mathbb{P}_k^1$ such that deg(D)=0. Then show that $D=div(f)$ for some rational function $f$.
Proof: Let $[(x-a_i)]$ be all (finite) places where the valuation of $D$ is not zero. Then define $f$ as $\frac{(x-a_i)^{v_{a_i}(D)}}{x^{\text{deg}(D)-\sum_iv_{a_i}(D)}}$. Then $f$ is the required element.
Finitely Many Bananas
Can someone verify if this proof is correct?
There is also this problem:
If $k$ is a perfect field and $\overline{k}$ is its algebraic closure, then prove that the set of divisors on $\mathbb{P}k^1$ is the set ${D\text{ a divisor on } \mathbb{P}{\overline{k}}^1:\sigma(D)=D \text{ for all } \sigma\in \text{ Gal}(\overline{k}/k)}$
Finitely Many Bananas
I don't think that the second problem makes sense
Because places in $\overline{k}$ will, in general, not be places in $k$.
Finitely Many Bananas
Ping me if/when someone answers
I am thinking taking f to be just simply Π(x-a_i)^v_a_i(D) since k is algebraically closed degree being zero implies Σv_a_i(D)=0.
σ(D) is the pull back of D in terms of morphism induced by σ? I think it’s correct if you can prove that k(x)={r from k bar (x): any σ from Gal(k bar/k), σ(r)=r} .I don’t know how to prove it
does this have any nontrivial structure
it isnt a ring because stuff doesnt distribute
Its called a near ring sometimes
You need it to be abelian to say much more
yeah jacobson does consider that case in the text itself
im just a bit lost on what to really write down
Id just prove every ring property you can
ill go with that, thanks!
im asked to formulate the notion of a free nilpotent group of class c, not having seen this before. Is this inductive definition correct? We let $N_1(S)=A(S)$ the free abelian group on $S$. Suppose $N_{c'}(S)$ has been defined for $c'<c$. Then we define $N_c(S)$ to be the group with presentation $(S,R_c)$ such that $R_c={[s,t] : s\in N_{c-1}(S), t\in S}$
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
hmm no that doesnt seem right
wait I don't have to define it inductively 
i can just use $F(S)^i$ 
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
i have no idea how to go about this
sorry for the ping but what book is that?
An introduction to combinatorial and geometric group theory by Nicholas Touikan
We know that given a finitely generated free group G of rank n, G has finitely many subgroups of index m. But how many?
P^1_F should be dimension 1 for any field F so divisors are just cycles of closed points. The points of affine space over k are like in bijection with points of k-bar where you glue Galois conjugates
So I don’t have a proof but this seems really related, I think this might not be a literal equality as sets
As much as it just is like, for every divisor on P^1_k-bar fixed by the Galois group there’s a very very obvious divisor on P^1_k associated to it and the correspondence is bijective or something
Like I’m gonna work on affine space rn, and work with C and R, but the points z,z-bar correspond to (x^2 - z(z-bar)) [note here the divisor we are associating to this latter point is the formal sum z + z-bar]
Or for the real points of R of the form (x - a) the corresponding complex number is just already fixed by the Galois group
What about the valuation at infinity?
I see. That makes a lot more sense
@next obsidian when k is not algebraically closed, what are the places of k? Are they just places corresponding to irreducible polynomials + the place at infinity?
Idk what your definition of a divisor is
I’m working with the definition that it’s a formal Z-sum of codim 1 closed irreducible subsets
But in the dim 1 case this literally just means closed points
And in the affine case I was working with the closed points are maximal ideals of R[x] or C[x] which are either irreducible polynomial over R or are just points of C
My definition is the same as yours
Okay
Idk what valuations have to do with anything then haha
Anyway you can cover P^1 with two A^1’s
So I think you might wanna expand that thought or something
Or maybe just take the k[x0,x1]/~ definition or something I dunno
You know how if k is alg closed, then the codim 1 irred closed subsets are [(x-a)] and the point at infinity [1/x]
For the projective line
I was wondering if there was a good description of those when k is perfect instead of algebraically closed
I dunno
I think the two A^1 things
Is what you want to shoot for
That description of P^1 when algebraically closed
Got it
Follows by covering with like
P^1 minus 0 and P^1 minus infinity
And those are the two A^1’s
And when you expand that out you should get the description you gave
I bet you can do the same thing when k isn’t algebraically closed or sometbinf
It just comes down to evaluating the intersection I think
Alright. I better get to work on it
I need to give a presentation on it in about 3 hours
Bruh moment
Try Galois correspondence maybe? You need to classify all connected m sheeted covers of wedge of n circles upto base point preserving isomorphism
Idk if that's easy or not, but seems easier than doing it algebraically at least
Let A be differential graded algebra
Let M be differential graded module over A
Suppose A the only non zero degree term of A is A_0
then M a differential graded module over A
should be the same as a complex of A modules
oh yeah
i was thinking that it doesn't make sense because d will kill any a in A immediately
but it does work because of the liebnitz rule on A
Thanks. Yeah definitely easier than pure algebraic methods.
I am not sure about what rank-one convexity is. Does it geometrically mean that we are checking convexity for some cross section along some one dimension plane of our space?
A definition I found reads that rank-one convexity, for $f:R^{m\times n} \rightarrow R$ implies:
$$f((1-\theta)\mathbf{X}_1+\theta\mathbf{X}_2) \leq (1-\theta)f(\mathbf{X}_1)+ \theta f(\mathbf{X}_2) \qquad \qquad(1)$$
where $0<\theta<1$ and $\mathbf{X}_2=\mathbf{X}_1 + \mathbf{ab}^T$ which means rank($\mathbf{X}_2-\mathbf{X}_1)\leq1$
Allan_M
My brain is kinda lagging today so apologies for the dumb question:
Let V be n-dimensional complex vector space with basis v1,...,vn. Consider the complex vector space V \otimes V. How does a homomorphism f: V\otimes V -> \mathbb C works? e.g. how can I prove that f(v1\otimes v2 + v3\otimes v4) = f(v1\otimes v2) + f(v3\otimes v4) without additional info?
I mean, we can't add v1\otimes v2 + v3\otimes v4 to become a pure tensor, so how does f operate on this sum?
This is required in the definition of that morphism but most of time it’s omitted
Like elements having the form x \otimes y are generators so you just need to define the image of those elements
Then f(Σ)=Σf is simply omitted
So it requires a kind of a linear extension?
They just don’t say the image of sum is defined to be the sum of image.
They assume that you are clear about it so they don’t bother add that sentence.
Ok great, thanks 🙂
just reiterating on this if anyone has any ideas, it's frustrating me
@wooden ember maybe its true that the homomorphic image of a nilpotent group of class n has at most class n?
oh right and hence nilpotent groups with greater class cannot be a homomorphic image 🤦♂️
thanks lol
I guess the only question is if the class of nilpotent groups with two generators is unbounded
fair
wait so if i have a unique surjective homomorphism from $N_c({a,b}) \to M$ does this mean $M$ has nilpotence class at most $c$?
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
yes this is true
how would i show this 🤔 im struggling a bit
i really dont like nilpotent groups lol im so edgy with them
I mean, you can show more generally that for any surjective map G -> H, the nilpotence class of H is at most that of G
Uh, you do basically the only thing you can do tbh
i may have already shown it
gimme a sec
yeah lmao ive already shown this thought so
easy proof too
big brain fart moment
the surjective map doesnt even have to be unique smg
smh*
but why are two generators important then 🤔
doesnt this apply to just N any nilpotent group?
because if M is a homomorphic image of N then we have a surjective homomorphism from N to M
what's the point of focusing on two generator
maybe because of the fact that we have to find nilpotent groups with two generators with unbounded class
oh right that part
which is easy if we don't look at two generators
but I haven't thought of a two generator example yet
You cant just take free nilpotent groups on 2 generators of any class size?
oh i didnt know this was a thing
so we have to show the normal closure of the set of iterated commutators on two elements is never the free group on two elements 🤔
so that we can take nilpotency class of free nilpotent group arbitrarily big
oh right i realize i never mentioned this was in the context of free groups lol
okay so i am kinda struggling with this easy exercise
Hausdorff
I have provided some definitions here: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4260001/prove-that-x-v-is-an-affine-subspace-of-x-where-v-subset-t-is-a-subspac
doxxed
Your interpretation for what you need to do to prove the first condition seems wrong
You say that you need to show that (assuming some stuff), the sum of 2 differences is in T
But any difference is in T and so is any sum
Lol true
why is that based
does anyone actually call them operations?
or is this just historical cause lang's algebra is getting a bit old
what am i saying that's so stupid lmao

Okay, edited
Can you see?
Hausdorff
That's right
but how do you go about proving these
Looks nasty
If d was known explicitly I could do something, but this is too abstract
Do you have a picture in mind for what affine spaces look like?
If T = X then yes
Otherwise I don't
That is what all affine spaces on T look like 
You don't need to prove that for this problem
You can just sketch this situation in T, then try to generalize the solution you get
on X*
No I mean if T is the vector space over which you are taking affine spaces
Hmm yes
Then all those affine spaces look like T does with its usual affine structure
Okay, let me think
Let $A$ be an abelian group with a filtration $0=F^0A \subset ... \subset F^{n-1}A \subset F^n A=A $, then the graded group is $gr_k A:=F^k A/F^{k-1 } A$. Suppose there are numbers $a,b,c$ such that $gr_aA=Z,gr_bA=Z/2Z,gr_cA=Z/4Z$ and all the others $gr_k A$ are zero. Then how can i know the possible values of $A$?
Or x1
This is vague, but how do I become good at abstract algebra? Ive spent probably 15 hours in the past week working on pretty basic proofs and I cant seem to get them with any consistency.
Just doing modular arithmetic and divisors. I feel like I understand the content, but the proofs are just really hard for me to pin down
i think that the only way is practice
the cosets partition the group https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1357195/show-that-left-cosets-partition-the-group
Gotcha. I am still searching for that revelation that makes abstract algebra make complete sense. It has happened in every math class to me thus far so I was hoping someone would be able to point me to it. thanks
it may be helpful to do lots of examples
I thought I was really bad at algebra for like a quarter, and thought I would just go do analysis instead and now I literally only do algebra
You never know what will make it click, it just took doing problems for me
And also, group theory is only a small subset of algebra. Maybe rings will make more sense for you?
Let $V$ be a finite dimensional vector space over a field $\mathbb{K}$, I want to define $\forall k > 0$ the map:
$$
d^{k} : \bigwedge^{k}(V) \rightarrow \bigwedge^{k+1}(V)
$$
Such that $\forall \alpha \in \bigwedge^{0}(V) = \mathbb{K}$ we have $d^{0}(\alpha) = 0 \in \bigwedge^{1} (V)$ and $\forall k \geq 1, \omega \in \bigwedge^{k} (V)$ and $u_{0}, \cdots, u_{k} \in V$ we have:
$$
(d^{k}(\omega))(u_{0}, \cdots, u_{k}) = \sum\limits_{i=1}^{k} (-1)^{i} \omega(u_{0}, \cdots, \widehat{u_{i}}, \cdots, u_{k})
$$
What I want to verify is if the map
\begin{align*}
d : \bigwedge& (V) \rightarrow \bigwedge (V) \
\omega& \mapsto d^{k}(\omega)
\end{align*}
Is a degree 1 antiderivation with respect to the wedge product of forms, i.e $\forall \omega \in \bigwedge^{k} (V)$ and $\forall \tau \in \bigwedge^{l} (V)$ we have:
$$
d(\omega \wedge \tau) = d(\omega) \wedge \tau + (-1)^{k} \omega \wedge d(\tau)
$$
MisterSystem
We can suppose nice things about the field K if it is necessary
like having finite characteristic or characteristic different from 2
If G has p+1 sylow p-subgroups, they must contain a normal subgroup of index p
Can anyone give a hint
I know I need to prove their intersection has index p
@chilly ocean
Post it here for more attention. See #get-advanced-access if you can't post here
Using structure of finitely generated abelian groups I think $Z \oplus Z/2Z \oplus Z/4Z$ and $Z \oplus Z/8Z$ are all possible A s
Cogwheels of the mind
Can I define Q as Z_(p) module?
Are you talking about Z/pZ or the p adic numbers?
Oh yeah lol
that's what I mean
Yes Q is a Z_(p) module in a natural way
Because Z_(p) is a subring of Q
Hence you can define the multiplication of an element of Z_(p) and an element of Q by just multiplication as elements of Q
We know that for the self-adjoint matrices there's an order A ≥ B iff A-B is a positive semi-definite
is there any characteristic property of orders which arise in such way?
(more generally, self-adjoint operators)
Apparently such order, in general, isn't a lattice, hence my question
This is order theory I guess so I'm not sure if it fits here, but I'm not really sure where it fits
Hausdorff
definitions if you need them
Please recommend me an abstract algebra book which has questions with Solved solutions because I'm facing difficulty in solving problems and proofs and exams are not too far.
i thought the classification of finite simple groups was completed in 1981 but lang here says that as of 2001 the proofs of classification are still incomplete 
classification of finite simple groups was completed in 1981
it wasnt
it was completed in 2004 with a slight error
that error was resolved in 2008
(it didnt take 4 years to fix, it just wasnt noticed for 4 years)
(dumb gap in one of the programs used)
(easily patched up)
a lot of parts of the proof have now been computer-verified so its "probably" correct
but its so massive that an error mightve slipped by unnoticed still
hopefully not.
that would really suck lmao
Yeah imagine the real world impact if they find out that there is actually a simple group of order 10^13 + 1 when they thought there are none 
Any idea what's going on here?
Also is there a better place to learn about affine spaces than this book that I am reading
It seems convoluted
still it would be pretty sad : proofs of this length are only going to become more common in the future so hopefully we can trust them
what are parallel subspaces?
proof checking using lean, coq etc are also becoming more common so I doubt it will be a big issue
Sorry I was busy for a while. So you have that d(x', y") = s+t, so x'+s+t = y, and x'+s is in X'. Converse should be similar
makes sense. should be y''
this question (and next) is from an ongoing exam - don't answer it
which exam?
tag mods
it's a take home exam at my uni <@&268886789983436800>
Thanks for notifying.
Hausdorff
yep, nice
If p iterates over all primes then isn’t m undefined?
The orders of each x_p is a power of p so the least common multiple should be unbounded 
unless we can show there exists p so that A(q) is trivial for all q>p
which is obvious when A is finite
x is an element of the direct sum so x_p is not 0 only for finitely many p
if L: V→ℝ is ℝ-linear, then we know it factors as the composition V→ℂ→ℝ through L': V→ℂ and the real part Re: ℂ→ℝ.
We can see this explicitly by setting L'(x) := L(x)-iL(ix).
Is there any abstract reason for this? I feel like there must be something involving the extension of scalars
what does ix mean?
i (in ℂ) multiplied with x (in V)
Perhaps I should've said that V is a complex vector space
Or x1
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For the second part of the proof, I have been able to show that $d_y^{-1}(t) = d_x^{-1}(t + d(x',y'))$ but we need $d_y^{-1}(t) = d_x^{-1}(t - d(x',y'))$ for the proof to go through. Any ideas how to show that?
Hausdorff
i think i find some presentations for the posibilities of $A$. $\langle a,b,c|b^2,c^4\rangle$,$\langle a,b,c|b^4,c^2\rangle$, $\langle a,b,c|a^2,c^4\rangle$, $\langle a,b,c|a^2,b^4\rangle$, $\langle a,b,c|a^4,b^4\rangle$ and $\langle a,b,c|a^4,c^2\rangle$
Or x1
but i find this supposing that n=3, how can i find the cases when n is not 3?
the classification of finitely generated abelian groups has a dope proof
it's long but the outline is nice (ugly details though)
Could someone describe a use for inverse limits less complicated than something like the Tate group?
Nvm I just got one: apparently the inverse limit of Z/p^nZ with the canonical homomorphisms is the p adic integers
Which I suppose makes some sense actually 🤔
yep, and theres something more general called profinite groups which are also inverse limits, if you wanna look into them
What are those?
its kind of similar to this, you take the inverse limit of some directed system of finite groups
Is it in the case where you have an infinite normal tower and you take G/H_n with the canonical homomorphisms?
yeah thats also a thing, called the profinite completion
it reads as making a group where you only care about the finite quotients
Oh actually I’m being a bigot
(you want the G/H_n to be finite)
I see that the word profinite appears on the next page
the nice thing is if you give these groups the discrete topology then the inverse limit will be compact, haussdorf and completely disconnected
oh nice lmao
the p-adic integers is a profinite group right
and so it has these topological properties too
I see
another application is infinite galois theory
you can view the galois group of an infinite extension as the inverse limit of the finite extensions galois groups
oh are you familiar with galois theory?
I’m afraid I’m not haha
ah i see thats fine
I’ll give it another think once I get properly acquainted with galois groups though
yeah its one of the cooler applications
for reference pierre guillot's local class field theory, ch3 and 4 are a good read on the topic (with p much no prereqs except basic top and galois required) if you are interested in the future
I don’t understand most of it but it does clarify the use of the word limit
ah i see
I’ll probably work simultaneously with it and DF from now on: I was just reading through the group theory section to check if DF didn’t miss anything and it was a good idea as there was a decent amount of stuff I hadn’t seen
to be fair like, you'd probably learn things like profinite groups when learning about their application as opposed to your algebra 1 class right
so i wouldnt be too scared of missing out on stuff like this from DF
Oh no of course
But like for example there was an actual proof of the fundamental theore of finitely generated abelian groups
Which DF left out for later
i see just blackbox that
And the main upshot is Lang didn’t gloss over cat theory
So I got to rethink about some of the stuff in simple cat theoretic terms
I did but it’s nice to see the proof
The proof of the fundamental theorem of finitely generated abelian groups sucks anyways
Whether n equals 3 doesn’t matter at all
Lots of them are isomorphic, you can keep only the 4th and the 5th. And you forgot to add relations such as aba^-1b^-1. The 4th one is the direct sum of Z, Z/2Z and Z/4Z. And I don’t think the 5th one is correct, it supposed to be isomorphic to direct sum of Z and Z/8Z
Like <a,b,c: commutators, a^4,b^2a^-1> is isomorphic to direct sum of Z and Z/8Z
In order to extend L to L’ from V to C . Write L’=L+iH where H is a map from V to R. In order to make L’ to be a C-linear map it should satisfy that L(ix)+iH(ix)= L’(ix)=iL’(x)=-H(x)+iL(x). Therefore H(x)=-L(ix)
this is because gr_kA=0 for k diferent from a,b and c?
Yeah
thanks
I’m working in Dummit and Foote and there’s a question about using the subgroup lattice diagram to find the centralizers of the elements of a group, and I’m not completely following their example. The book says that to find the centralizer of s in D_8, for example, we see that <s,r^2> is a subset of the centralizer because r^2 is an element of the centralizer (which we’ve apparently already calculated), and there’s no other group except the entirety of D_8 for which <s,r^2> is a subgroup, so <s,r^2> must be the centralizer. I’m fine with all of those steps, but for some larger group that we’re not necessarily as familiar with, how would we even know to have checked if r^2 in particular is in the centralizer? Was r^2 chosen because <s,r^2> is the only subgroup other than D_8 containing <s>, or in practice, would I just have to guess and check?
I have a quick question, for a group such a^3=e (e identity), then so does a^-3=e?
Yep @hollow topaz , consider
a^3 = e
(a^3)(a^-3)=e(a^-3)
e=a^-3
Oh thank you
@fossil shuttle Sorry for the ping, but do you happen to know anything about quantum groups and their representation theory at all? I am looking for some references.
Also, if possible, could you give a brief description of what people mean when they say a certain algebra is a ''quantization/deformation'' of another algebra? For instance, what does it mean when people say a Weyl Algebra is a ''quantization'' of the Symmetric Algebra or that a Clifford Algebra is a ''quantization'' of the Exterior Algebra?
If any of you can answer this I’ll give you a big Chmonkey kiss
king cartier
how would you define the nilradical
one of the definition gives you the answer immediately
which definition?
yup
what does closure of topology mean?
i actually mean set
😅
closure of Y meaning, the smallest closed set containing Y in X?
Y also has a topology yeah?
would suggest learning some basic pointset before doing AM
but yes closure of A is intersection of all closed sets that contains A
ive already finished AM
oh wat
wait how

been studying this for maybe 2 months now lol
yeah i like it
short proofs to everything
only the section on completions needs topology
here again, the closure has a topology the subspace topology?
Every subset of a topological space can be given a subspace topology
Unlike algebraic structures 😌
but can topology do anything cool like algebra can
Yes 
Hmm




