#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 615 of 407
ah I see
You can’t rule out the identity plus 32 order 3 elements
At least not with this proof
No, because there's no non-trivial morphism from Z5 to Aut(Z7) = Z6 and no morphism from Z7 to Aut(Z5)=Z4, which is what you'd need for a semidirect (and not direct) product
Ye, ty
Shut the up?
I'm not sure I've seen this.
I mean
I didn’t expect you had
I just don’t know there’s a good proof without more machinery
Either Sylow or the classification
schur zassenhaus go brrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrr
Ah okay. Well, this case by case proof was definitely helpful.
if you dont assume abelian, it again reduces to showing that there are no nontrivial semidirect products
It asks if your proof works, and it doesn’t
No it does not
:(
Because 2 does divide 32
Tfw
I think that's why they chose that number, to make the readers cry inside
Here's a fun problem
assume you have an inverse system of sets
such that the cardinality of the images of all the structure maps are uniformly bounded
Shut upppppppp
prove that the inverse limit is a finite set
Isn’t the inverse limit in set just like
what does uniformly bounded mean here?
An explicit construction as a quotient of a product
This seems like it’s just an annoying thing to show there’s finitely many equiv classes
There is some N such that the image of each map f_i has cardinality less than N
there's a slick way of doing it

here's another fun problem
let p,q>0
p odd
show that S^p x S^q is parallelizable
structure map refers to any map within the inverse system right? Or are they the maps from the limit to something in the diagram?
the maps in the inverse system
but this also implies that the maps from the limit have image bounded by N
as they factor through the structure maps
Here's another one
Let f: C ---> C be a nowhere 0 continuous function
show that f = e^g for some function g
you can also just look at f/f' and say its analytic so the derivative of some g so that f is e^g
o sadge
@hidden haven if you want a hint, replace the inverse system with a nicer one
here's another fun one
let G be a finite group
assume G admits an irreducible faithful representation over C
prove that the center of G is cyclic
yeah
I swear I did this before
Swag
The center embeds into the matrix group in the diagonal yeah?
Or something like that
you need to prove that
there's a way to do it without using matrices
I believe it
I forget if this was the same problem I did that
I don’t remember the rep theory part of my class very well
Z(G) embeds into the automorphisms of the representation
the rep is irreducible, so the automorphisms form a division ring
over C
finite dimensional
so it is C
Hurb
as C is algebraically closed
I used that a lot
Fucking when
I have never been dealing with division rings
But okay you haven’t only dealt with commutative stuff for
194939294939 years
I remember there was a problem like
assume V is a finite dimensional vector space over an algebraically closed field
let I \subset Aut(V) be a subalgebra
such that V is a simple I-module
prove that I = Aut(V)
or something like that
I think I had to use Schur's lemma (automorphisms of a simple module is a division ring) multiple times to do this
how do you do the inverse system problem? 

?
oh I thought that was just a dual of directed system
ok fair enough any directed poset
choose better notation
the solution doesnt change
let me think
it's the set {a_{\alpha}: f_{\beta}(a_{\beta}) = a_{\alpha}}
ok so I think you are replacing each set with the image of everything before it right?
and then it must eventually stabilize
that's the right idea
replace each A_{\alpha} in the directed system by B_{\alpha} = intersection of the images of all the maps to A_{\alpha}
oh intersection
yeah and now all the structure maps are surjections
right
try proving it
because the limit also has to map to the sets where those things are not identified right?
hmm alright
The arrows in an inverse system go n+1 to n right? just want to confirm
yeah
I think I might still be confused with the definitions though
1 ← 2 ← 2 ← 2 ← ... should be an inverse system where n means the n-element set and the maps between 2s are all identity. Then this stabilizes at 1, so the claim is that 1 is the inverse limit?
2 is the limit
oh eventually as in going to the right 🤦♂️
ye
:petthecat:
my roommate took a bunch of quals this week so I have a large collection of problems lol
I was wondering where you were getting so many of them
what are quals anyway I hear a lot about them
theyre a bunch of exams that you need to pass
otherwise they kick you out of grad school
phew that's nicer
damn
If your derivation means k-derivation then any k-derivation from R’ to R’ has the form d mapping a polynomial P to Σ (partial derivative of P with respect to x_i ) multiplied by d(x_i) and d is an extension of R iff you choose n symmetric polynomials as d(x_1),…,d(x_n) respectively
By structure of finitely generated abelian group, the only abelian group of order pq is the direct sum of Z/pZ and Z/qZ which is isomorphic to Z/pqZ
yes I know that's just the cotangent bundle
and that's also not true about choosing n symmetric polynomials for what I was asking, I gave a counterexample
the equivalent question in terms of restrictions is how to find k derivations k[x,y,z]->k[x,y,z] which when restricted map symmetric polynomials to symmetric polynomials, but may map nonsymmetric polynomials (such as each indeterminant) to anything.
I've actually done some work since and have begun to answer my own question using localizations
for a glimpse of higher order derivatives, the laplacian is a good example of an operator with the extension/restriction property I have in mind, while not being a derivation
My bad. d(x_i)=P_i doesn’t necessarily need to be symmetric. It just should satisfy that any permutation g of {1,…,n} P_i(x_g(1),…,x_g(n))=P_g(i)(x_1,…,x_n)
I thought it implies being symmetric but it doesn’t 😂
yeah for example in 3 variables dx =x, dy = y, dz = z works, and each elementary symmetric polynomial is an eigenvector with eigenvalue the (total) degree
this is also true of any number of variables with the derivation mapping each indeterminant to itself
I see. It satisfies the above equation indeed
P_2(x_2,x_3,x_1)=x_3=P_3(x_1,x_2,x_3)
it's a nice condition for determining which derivations restrict, but not illuminating on the question of extensions. Starting with a derivation on the ring of symmetric polynomials, the cotangent bundle is defined similarly under isomorphism by partial differentiation of elementary symmetric polynomials, so if you know where each elementary symmetric polynomial is mapped, can you determine whether or not it has an extension?
I've figured this out for 2 variables, almost done on 3. It comes down to linear algebra over localizations of k[x,y,z]
it's also highly constructive and I'm wondering if there's some magic to generalize the way I'm creating a basis
I see I see so we need to find d’(x_i) such that d(e_i)=Σ(partial derivative of e_i with respect to x_j) multiplied by d’(x_j)
If d can extend to a d’
I've written some notation for partial differentiation of a symmetric polynomial with respect to an elementary symmetric polynomial that might be helpful here
So it’s a linear equation with the matrix A where A_ij=e_(i-1)(x_1,…,x_(j-1),x_(j+1),…,x_n)
I'm a little lost with the formatting of underscore
Oh so d has extension if and only if (d(e_1),…,d(e_n)) this vector with all elements being symmetric polynomials, belongs to the {linear combinations of columns of A ie (1,x_2+…+x_n,…,x_2…x_n) ,…, (1, x_1+…+x_(n-1),…,x_1…x_(n-1)) with coefficients being polynomials}
Well I'm definitely working with that same vector (...d(e_i)...)
I haven't been looking at it with a matrix though I'm still a little lost
One way of such linear combinations gives one extension. By defining d’(x_j) to be the coefficients of that linear combination
Are you working through Gallian?
Anyone follows Dummit Foote?

how do exact sequences exist
as in like
0 -> G_1 -> G_2
if thats the case then,
G_1 is a subset of the kernal of G_1 -> G_2, implying G_2 is 0 and is 0, so it must be 0 -> G_1 -> 0?
The image is 0
?
There’s only one map from 0 -> G_1
And the image is gonna be the trivial sub-thing
Idk if these are groups or modules or whatever
Uh…
isnt image meant to be every possible output
What
No that’s the codomain…
The image is the elements which are mapped to by elements of the domain
The only element which is mapped to by anything from 0 -> G_1 is 0
Because the first is a singleton snd 0 has to map to 0
oh.
i read wrong apparently ive thought image was all possible outputs for like
10 months
Bro…
💀
ah i see now
i thought image would be G_1 itself
but since 0 is the domain then the image must be {0} since (assuming 0 is {0}) 0 gets mapped to 0 in G_1
the image is G_1
that makes a lot more sense.
In the example I assume there are only two elements in U right?
How can I make sure there exist such coprime orders d1' and d2'. The German version even says you can use u1 and u2' = u2 ^(d2/gcd(d1,d2)), but u1 and u2' order is not neccessarily coprime to me.
yeah I dont think they are coprime because order of u1=d1, order of u2= gcd(d1,d2), coprime only if d1 and d2 coprime
Oh ok so rather like, first find powers of u1 and u2 such that their orders are coprime and to those apply the german argument
Suppose that u1 and u2’s gcd is n
Then n divides the order of u1, so let k be |u1|/n
Now u1^n has order k
Now k and the order of u2 share no factors
Because you basically ripped the gcd out of the order of u1
If you don’t believe that k and the order of u2 are coprime, write the order of u1 and u2 as a product of primes using the fundamental theorem of arithmetic
The gcd is gonna be the product of the primes they share, then when you raise u1 to that order you end up with something whose order is that divided by the thing you raised it to
do you mean |u1| order of u1?
Yes
I think this is similar to my first idea
I made the bad example: let u1^4=1 and u2^8=1
we just construct u1'=u1^4, so order of u1' is 1.
and 1 is coprime to any number.
so it doesnt matter what u2 is, its order is coprime to u1.
ANd then I apply the gcd trick thing to construct my alpha.
G has an abelian tower G=A_0>=A1>=…>=A_n={e}
And next the author replaced G with A_i/A_(i+1)
Clearly A_i/A_(i+1) is abelian and finite
they never assume that G is abelian, only that it has an abelian tower
It said "it suffice to prove that G is abelian ...."
???
I already answered. you are considering A_i/A_(i+1)
that if G is finite, abelian then it admits a cyclic tower
yeah they pick a nonabelian G with an abelian tower
then say that if the result is true for abelian groups then they can apply it to all the quotients
which then makes the result true for a nonabelian group with an abelian tower
(I don't remember, what's the difference between a finite groupe with an abelian tower and a solvable group ?)
Ohh now I understand what you mean
It took me a second
The solvable group has an abelian tower that ends with {e}
Burnside theorem has to be known guys ?
Has to be known for what
hello friends
i would like to see if my thinking is in the right direction
let me post my problem
MetalNinja27
So
i was thinking that if H is a proper subgroup of G then there is an element in G that is not in H
call this element m, maybe
so then we can try generating a new subgroup $\langle H, m \rangle$ (this might not be the right notation ill check later)
MetalNinja27
so we have two cases
this new subgroup is either going to generate G or it isn't
then in the case that this new subgroup generates G
H is the maximal subgroup of G containing H?
and then in the second case if this new subgroup does not generate G, i.e. is another proper subgroup of G, we can repeat the same thing by finding another element of G and generating another subgroup until we generate G, but we just take the one subgroup before G is generated
poorly worded but i hope this makes sense
oh please ping me if you have feedback thank you
This is not necessarily true if you just test a single element m
If you check all, then this would be true
The idea is correct, but the problem is that you may not generate G even after arbitrarily many steps
So for example, in the additive group of rationals <1> is contained in <½> in <¼> ...
i am confused
yeah i can see in the case for infinite groups this might not terminate
for sure
okay
Yeah so to be more formal, you can say that you extend the group at each step until you can't extend it any more by any choice of m
And then it must be maximal
ah okay
I mean not that different from what you said lol
Yep
but more like to take as many elements of G that are not in H and keep forming larger subgroups until i can no longer take anymore (no longer guaranteed by G being finite)
or something
where no longer means that if i took any more elements this subgroup is G itself
ill keep thinking of ways to improve the wording
but thank you for the advice
Yeah pretty much
Phrase it in terms of pigeonhole or sometbinf
This problem was posted days ago here: Prove that <x, y | x^2 y^2> is not isomorphic to the free product of C2 and C2
Or rather "prove or disprove"
Is the first the fundamental group of a space of relatively simple description?
well, part c) doesn't really make sense because inverses are not defined in those cases. For part d) think of how the trivial group injects into any monoid, and how any monoid has a surjection to it.
well I'm thinking of preimage, not inverse
but preimage is not a map from B to A
yep
or more generally even from P(B) to P(A) and we can restrict this map to B by the inclusion of B into P(B)
yea
monoids
trueee
alright for c
so one direction i suppose H is <x^p> for p dividing n
can i just choose p to be the smallest prime dividing n
and so the order of this subgroup is going to just be the largest divisor of n and so its maximal
or am i not allowed to do tht
okey
but it wont work for any prime dividing n tho will it
It will
When n is composite
You kind of get these different pillars
I mean they aren’t all disjoint
Put the tops are
But*
oh
Like take Z/6Z
A maximal subgroup
And look at 3 and 2
not The maximal subgroup
Yes
okay excellent i understand now
If there’s a unique maximal subgroup then you’re cyclic of prime order (for finite groups, I’ve thought about the infinite case and don’t think I came up with a conclusion)
What is C_2? Z/2Z? Anyway I think <x,y| x^2y^2=e> is neither abelian nor finite
Is Q(√5) sometimes referred to as the golden field?
and in the other direction if i suppose H is maximal, i can write H as <x^k> for some k and to show that its prime i can suppose via contradiction that its not prime and show that there is a subgroup of G containing H that isnt G or H
Yes, it is.
And yes, it is neither abelian nor finite. But neither is the free product <x, y | x^2, y^2>.
I computed the abelianizations of both and they turned out to be isomorphic to C2 x C2.
So it is x^2 , y^2 not x^2y^2?
These are two groups. Call the first G and the second K. Prove that G and K are distinct (G is the free product).
Yeah, you can also just consider the order of the quotient group: A normal subgroup M of G is maximal iff G/M is simple, so we need the order to be prime. Now the order of G/H is k, if H = <x^k>.
So G=<x,y|x^2=e=y^2> K=<x,y| x^2y^2=e> G and K are not isomorphic but their abelianization are isomorphic to Z/2Z*Z/2Z?
Yes (if you mean Z/2Z x Z/2Z)
Now G is the fundamental group of the wedge sum of two projective planes
It'd be interesting (but not necessarily useful) to find a simple space whose pi1 is K
The abelianization of G is the direct sum of Z/2Z and Z/2Z but is the abelianization of K too? I calculated It’s the direct sum of Z and Z/2Z
Well, K^ab has 2(x - y) = 0
Oh, my bad
You're right
That proves it then, G =/= K
its the supposed bilinear form associated to the supposed quadratic form
i'm trying to prove the above is a quadratic form on R^2
is z some fixed complex numebr
i assume so
write $z = x + iy$ and let $f(c,d) = |cz + d|^2$, then $f(c,d) = |(xc + d) + iyc|^2 = (xc + d)^2 + y^2 c^2 = (x^2 + y^2) c^2 + 2xcd + d^2$
goblin shamrock
let $a = x^2 + y^2$ and $b = 2x$, so $f(c,d) = ac^2 + bcd + d^2$
goblin shamrock
the associated bilinear form is defined by $2 B(v,w) = f(v+w) - f(v) - f(w)$. if $v = (c_1,d_1)$ and $w = (c_2, d_2)$ then \begin{align*}f(v+w) &= a (c_1 + c_2)^2 + b(c_1 + c_2)(d_1 + d_2) + (d_1 + d_2)^2 \ &= a (c_1^2 + 2c_1 c_2 + c_2^2) + b(c_1 d_1 + c_1 d_2 + c_2 d_1 + c_2 d_2) + (d_1^2 + 2d_1 d_2 + d_2^2) \&= (a c_1^2 + b c_1 d_1 + d_1^2) + 2 a c_1 c_2 + b(c_1 d_2 + c_2 d_1) + 2d_1 d_2 + (a c_2^2 + b c_2 d_2 + d_2^2) \&= f(v) + 2 a c_1 c_2 + b(c_1 d_2 + c_2 d_1) + 2d_1 d_2 + f(w)$. hence $2 B(v,w) = 2 a c_1 c_2 + b(c_1 d_2 + c_2 d_1) + 2d_1 d_2$. is it clear that this map is bilinear?
goblin shamrock
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
rip
the associated bilinear form is defined by $2 B(v,w) = f(v+w) - f(v) - f(w)$. if $v = (c_1,d_1)$ and $w = (c_2, d_2)$ then
\begin{align*}
f(v+w) &= a (c_1 + c_2)^2 + b(c_1 + c_2)(d_1 + d_2) + (d_1 + d_2)^2 \\
&= a (c_1^2 + 2c_1 c_2 + c_2^2) + b(c_1 d_1 + c_1 d_2 + c_2 d_1 + c_2 d_2) + (d_1^2 + 2d_1 d_2 + d_2^2) \\
&= (a c_1^2 + b c_1 d_1 + d_1^2) + 2 a c_1 c_2 + b(c_1 d_2 + c_2 d_1) + 2d_1 d_2 + (a c_2^2 + b c_2 d_2 + d_2^2) \\
&= f(v) + 2 a c_1 c_2 + b(c_1 d_2 + c_2 d_1) + 2d_1 d_2 + f(w).
\end{align*} hence $2 B(v,w) = 2 a c_1 c_2 + b(c_1 d_2 + c_2 d_1) + 2d_1 d_2$. is it clear that this map is bilinear?

ty
not sure about this one
Having a lot of trouble proving that for a finite group G, there is a left transversal of H< G which is also a right transversal (without combinatorical theorems like Hall's Marriage theorem)
made an MSE:
G is the disjoint union of subsets HxH for some x from G. Each such HxH is disjoint union of subsets h_1xH for some h_1 from H also is disjoint union of subsets Hxh_2 for some h_2 from H . Now all those h_1xh_2 are what you need
There are infinitely many commutators I think. The length of words can go as large as it can
That doesn’t really help for a proof though: plus I’m look for finiteness in the generating set not in the group itself
It’s generated by commutators
x^ny^nx^-ny^-n has length 4n so there are infinitely many commutators
That doesn’t show it’s not generated by a smaller set though
So maybe we need to show that any commutator isn’t the multiplication of other commutators
That’s not true though
Wait I think I got it
Consider the canonical homomorphism from F=F(x,y) to F/[F,F] =Direct sum of Z and Z mapping x and y to (1,0) and (0,1) respectively
There exists a 1-1 correspondence between element of [F,F] and closed path in lattices of Z*Z with starting point and ending point being (0,0)
Suppose that [F,F] is generated by finitely many elements then
I don’t even know why F/F’ is Z direct Z
any element of F/F’ has the form x^iy^jF’
xF’yF’=yF’xF’
🤔
Then any closed path is the composition of those finitely many paths therefore bounded which is a contradiction since you can take a closed path large enough
Oh right
I’m stupid
Okay can you explain the 1-1 correspondence part
Nvm I get it
Except why are endpoint at 0?
For example xyx^-1y^-1 means you start from (0,0), go right, up, left, down, then as a result you returned to (0,0)
x and y represent going right and up respectively
Oh wait éléments of [F,F] are the ones in correspondence I misread
Okay I see that
Now there’s just the final part left?
Oh no I see
It’s a very neat argument
It’s often that to argue about free groups we appeal to geometry no?
Probably, using algebraic topology
Yeah there was another answer using covering spaces
But I haven’t figured out why that map mapping elements from F’ to {paths whose ending points are still (0,0)} is surjective but it doesn’t effect the proof since you can find a path being large and being an image at the same time
Yeah but I think it’s surjective
Any path that is closed corresponds to an element in the kernel of the canonical homomorphism I think?
Hence the set of closed paths is a subset of the image of F’
(And so equal)
And [a,b] behaves kind of like a parallelogram
If I come across a riddle involving paths in ZxZ I’ll be sure to think about F/F’
Yeah
So any closed path can be divided into small parallelograms which corresponds to decompose an element of F’ into multiplication of commutators
Lol
I feel like I’d really enjoy alg top
Me too. A lot of interesting stuffs waiting.
Let $L$ be a finite separable extension of $k$. We know that $|Hom_k(L, \bar k)| = [L : k]$. But why it also that $|Hom_k(L, k_{sep})| = |Hom_k(L, \bar k)|$?
Lejoon
This should be stupid easy
This doesn't assume that H is normal right?
Is the image of the morphisms L \rightarrow \bar k inside k_{sep}?
chapter 10 of Rotman’s algebraic topology contains lots of stuffs about covering space. I just thought if you are eager to know covering space it’s okay to start from that chapter. Previous chapters don’t matter anyway
For any r from L, homomorphism f from L to k bar. The minimal polynomial of r is also the minimal polynomial of f(r) which is separable
Gonna be honest, I have no idea where to go with this.
All I know is that if we look at integers (under addition), m and n, then the intersection of <m> and <n> is <mn>.
But that is only a specific example.
Use lagranges theorem
Haven't talked about it yet
{e}. Since the intersection is also a subgroup whose order divides both orders of <a> and <b>
So no, we cannot
And it’s not mn but the LCM of m and n I think
This is using Lagrange
😂
Well you know it has to be cyclic
Since it’s a subgroup of both
And the order of a cyclic group is the order of its generator
Okay, can we step back a bit. Yes, both of them are indeed cyclic, and so the intersection ( a smaller set) is also cyclic.
But the order of a subgroup of a cyclic group must divide that of the cyclic group
Complete from there
Lagrange is simple in the case of cyclic groups ig
Oh wait, I also proved last week that the intersection of two subgroups is a subgroup
That's useful
Yeah
So as you said it’s cyclic
And now write it as generated by a^i=b^j for some i,j
The orders of these elements must divide those of a and b
But those are coprime
Okay, let me get back to you. I'm going to see what I can do on my own first (not really paying attention atm). I have ideas.
Okay cool
never mind, it makes sense to me now, thanks
So I got to this part of the proof and I am having a hard time showing that the function is surjective.
I know I'm basically there, I'm just having a hard time putting it into words
if gcd(n, k) = 1 there exist a and b such that an+bk = 1
so if you mod both sides by n
Then bk is congruent to 1 modn
How does that tell us g^b is mapped to g?
Oh, so that's basically g^(bk)=g
yes
then you can find explicitly which element maps to g^r for every r in {0, 1, ... n-1}
Is this necessary? I'm pretty sure I'm almost done. This seems a bit excessive
Oh it's assumed that G=<g> right
because g^b is mapped to g, for every g^r g^(rb) is mapped to g^r
□
anytime gcd shows up think about linear combinations
I believe this does the trick
For each y, I found an element in the domain so that y=f(x)
looks good
because it's onto let G = <g> then there is h = g^m s.t. h^k = g
then h^k = g^(mk) = g
i.e. mk = 1 mod n
conclude (k,n) = 1
Please stop answering with full proofs. I would really appreciate you not do my homework for me.
he's using the order of g^k is n/(k,n)
I prefer linear combinations that's all
Well, more or less.
I just don't like being in a position where it feels like I'm just copying what you said.
That's why I tend to refuse that kind of help because it feels dishonest.
On the other hand, the mod arithmetic you have done definitely comes in handy. Although, I have a bit of trouble identifying when I could use it.
Any pointers on recognizing these things?
Mod arithmetic always comes in handy for cyclic groups
Since integers mod n represent all the cyclic groups up to isomorphism
I'm not sure whether cyclic groups are denoted Zn because they are isomorphic to Z/nZ or because cycle in German is Zyklus but yeah
one nice point
(m, n) = 1 also means can find a, b s. t. am+bn = k for any k in Z.
Ah true. Speaking of, Bezout's Lemma feels a bit like the Cauchy Schwarz Inequality: the use of it is unclear, and when you do use it, it seems like a magical fluke.
Of course, it's not, but I'm having a hard time 1) recognizing when to use Bezout's Lemma, and 2) how to actually make it useful
idk which textbook you're using
if it's some established thick volume like dummit and foote it's got tons of exercises
and people crowd sourced a solution manual for it basically
it is a bit harder to find now but look hard enough and you'll find it
then you can just blast through the exercises and check your solutions
I'm using Joseph Gallian's, but I do have Dummit and Foote
What chapter of Gallian are you currently at?
We finished cyclic groups and we are starting on permutation groups
oh I think @oak grove has actually just started that chapter too
Sweet! The good news is I learned a bit about permutation groups when I was trying to read Dummit and Foote.
So I have an edge w/ that, that's for sure
But that was very early in my math education when I was still trying to figure out how to read math books and write proofs. :p
So we'll see how much I remember.
Oh, yea
well we don't have a book
so idk if chapter is fair
we have an exam on wednesday im kind of dreading but whatever happens 🤷
honestly basic probability is harder than anything in AA
anything?
hmm maybe not anything
You and I are having very different AA experiences Jan :p
I think my class might just be easy
That's fair. My prof always tries to push us a bit by giving us some tough questions.
i think my teacher is afraid to 
although we had a question on this last HW that sorta looped me
Out of curiosity, do you remember what it was?
What is A_n?
A_n is the subgroup containing all even permutations from some symmetric group
I guess thats a horrible definition
if you take some S_n then A_n is the subgroup with all even permutations of that S_n
Oh boy. I get the feeling this is gonna come up in our homework too.
Either that or something harder
probably harder
So how'd you do it ?

Good answer xp
im still workin on it
Ohhhh, disregard then :p
but i think the pathway i had at first sorta works
well its interesting that it seems like uhh
well it needs to be generalized
like im pretty sure if you exclude the trivial symmetric group
which makes this trivially true
s_n has an equal number of even and odd permutations
so uhh
idk lemme spend a minute on it here
itd be nice to get the correct answer to a problem today
considering i think i got like 30% on my probability homework
Sure. Btw, can you give an example of what the set A_n looks like?
Say, for S_4
yea, its sorta large
I am having a hard time conceptualizing it
the order is n!
Well, that was a mistake 😆
s_3 is easier
Sure, S_3
do you know cycle notation
(1,2,3) something like this? So 1->2->3->1
its (), (12), (13), (23), (13)(12), (12)(13)
yea
then A_3 is (13)(12), (12)(13), and ()
Wait, why are (1,3) and (1,2) separated by a paranthesis in 5th element?
theyre 3 cycles
(123) and (132)
writing them as 2-cycles helps get the order out more quickly
well imo
idk if theres a faster way to get it
maybe you just know by inspection
but it should be clear that those are the two 3 cycles, both going one orientation/direction
So how does (13)(12) translate to (123)?
1 goes to 2, 2 goes to 1 which goes to 3, and 3 goes to 1
But doesn't 2 go to 3, not 1?
it goes to 1, then to 3
1 is the only place theyre not disjoint
so (12) sends 2 to 1
then 1 gets passed to (13)
Oh, I see. It's just function composition
which i guess is how it usually happens? or idk
its a tactic we saw
(1234) = (14)(13)(12)
there must be other ones
well i guess you could pick any ordering as long as you do it right
(21)(24)(23) etc
Alright, I'm with you.
So (123) is an element of S_3
So the elements of the permutation groups are these cycles?
yea
well i guess theyre uhh

idk this is where im probably not rigorous enough
S_3 i am almost certainly wrong but would be any permutation of 3 elements
so (123) is encoding 123, 231, and 312
everything of that direction of shifting
I know these permutations are functions. So really the elements of the group are the functions
And is (123) the identity element here?
no, () is
Oh, it's just (), got it
Dackid so every element of Sn can be written as product of 2 cycles. An is the subgroup containing element that can be Expressed as even product of those
odd order means no element of order 2
Ah true, because the order of each element must divide the order of the group.
also every group of even order contains an element of order 2
although this is not relevant here
The first claim is not confined for cyclic groups, but the 2nd one is.
take S_3 then, H could be all the odd cycles in S_n
Ah true!
then it wouldnt be a subgroup of A_n
right
and itd be odd order
H could be (12) (13) and (23)
oh but it wouldnt be a group 
Oh, A_n doesn't mean it has even order 🤦♂️
not always, but i think theres only one case where it doesnt
if S_n only has ()
otherwise S_n is even order, then half of its elements are even, which is an even number of elements\
Wait, so hold up. If we look at (12)(13) for example. This takes 3 elements to map back to the identity.
So this has odd order and is in A_n
idk im more confused than when we started talking about this
the alternating group isn't about the odd or even-ness of the order, it's about the parity of the permutation in a different sense
every element in Sn can be expressed as a product of transpositions
Well, I think I have it.
count the number of transpositions to determine whether it is odd or even
it is not related to the order of the element
okay
i think the confusion comes from this:
a cycle is even if it has even length (and/or is of even order - same thing)
a permutation is even if it is composed of an even number of even cycles
e.g. (12)(13) and (123) are both even permutations
So going back, how would we write (12345) as a product of two even cycles?
(15)(14)(13)(12)
(145)(123)
Okay perfect. I know how to do this now
im confused about this question again 
For starters, given (123...n), it can be written as (1n)(1(n-1))...(13)(12)
no the other way around (1n) goes first
Ah, my bad
Since there are n-1 pairings, this has even order if n-1 is even
Which implies n is odd if n-1 is even.
And actually, that's the gist of it. Just have to generalize it for cycles of the form $(a_{\sigma(1)}...a_{\sigma(n)})$.
dackid
sigma?
You can just say a_1 to a_n. I don't actually think sigma (the permutation function) matters in the subscript here.
But yeah, I believe this solves the problem
im confused about what they said about permutations and cycles
so we have that the order of every element is odd
since every element is a permutation, and it's odd, it must have possible to write them all as an odd number of 2 cycles?
So let's generalize it. If we take any element in H, say (a_1,...,a_n), it can be written as (a_1 a_n)(a_1 a_(n-1))...(a_1 a_2).
But this is an n-1 number of pairings, where n is odd
And we know n-1 is even, so the number of pairings is even.
Which means that element is in A_n

Also yeah, I played hypocrite a bit. I know.
but doesnt a permutation being odd mean that you can write it as an odd number of even cycles
This needs to be added
every permutation can be expressed as a product of disjoint cycles
Now we have all elements are of odd order
So take any element s and write it as a product of disjoint cycles
the order of s is the lcm of the orders of the disjoint cycles individually which means it is a product of disjoint cycles of odd order
and that means the length of these cycles are odd
As long as they've learned to express it as a product, is it really necessary? Again, seems excessive
im just trying to track the hint about oddness and what it means about the elements in H
based on the distinction you made about the order of cycles and permutations
sorry, that zain made
note that (12)(345) has even order

oh, sure
then that definition is wrong that i have in my head
no wait why does it have even order
True, so I did not cover every cycle. :(
google here i come
Every 2 cycles (12) gets back to the identity, and every 3 cycles (345) gets back to the identity
The first time they are both at the identity is the lcm of those cycles which is 6.
our definition doesnt make a lot of sense from class
"if a is even every decomposition of a into 2-cycles has an even # of elements"
if a is an even permutation*
Well, H is of odd order-> no element has even order.
Remember the order of an element is how many times you have to operate it with itself to get e.
all we know is odd order means even permutation from the argument above
but even order doesn't mean anything
sure, H is odd -> every h in H is odd
thats a statement about the order of permutations
so every permutation in H has an odd order
So if x^n=e and n is the smallest positive integer which is true, then ord(x)=n
Order of an element is precisely this.
So if we say an element has order 3, it takes three times to get to the identity.
right
In this case, the operations are functions. So for (123), 1->2->3->1. It takes 3 operations for 1 to get back to 1. So the order of (123) is 3
It is indeed
But A_3 does NOT mean the order of the element is even
A_3 does not say anything about the order
so "even permutation" doesnt mean "permutation of even order"
It means this
Correct. Based on what y'all said, an element is in A_n if there is an even number of pairings that make that element.
Again (123)=(12)(13) is even since there are two pairings
geez what a mess
there are so many other words in the english language they could have chosen
On the other hand, (12)(345) can be written as (12)(35)(34) which is an odd number of pairings.
okay
So it is not in A_n
i dont really understand this definition
of elements here means # of k cycles right
where k is even
It's literally this idea, but generalized.
No, the number of 2 cycles in the decomposition
thats the same thing isnt it
No, the elements are the function composition.
(12)(345)(67) is an element in itself.
which would be even but not even order
well it is even order
but it would be even i mean because it has 4 2-cycles
I meant to say even, went on autopilot xp
you could have fooled me lol
im considerably lost atm
i need to write some stuff down
I have a question. Mind if we switch over to it while you think about this more?
yes please do
I need to prove that for n>=3, U(2^n) is not cyclic
Honestly, I need a starting point. U(n) is a weird group and is tough to think about for me.
Btw, if the notation is not consistent, U(n) is all the positive integers less than n that are relatively prime.
U(n) is under multiplication modular n
Lol, definitely not xp
I assume you mean that are relatively prime to n?
the typical notation for that would be (Z_n)*
but cool
Yes that is right
2^{n-1}
Which is just all odd elements, and also the number of elements in U(2^n)
I'm definitely with you so far.
I'm just not sure where this takes me
Lol, nice xp
Well, I guess the first step is to assume it is cyclic
OK so there's some conclusions you can draw about p-groups but there must be some more elementary way to do this...
I can share my notes if you'd like to see the toolbox I have available to me
Ohhhh, well this is interesting.
All elements of U(8)={1,3,5,7} have order 2 (except identity)
Woah woah woah, definitely not in my toolbox
Why?
use the order formula
Ah true
now if an element has order 2 let it be k then k^2 = 2^n* something + 1
also (a+1)^2 = a^2 + 2a + 1
if this is enough hint
this is also where the n>=3 comes in
I'm not entirely sure where this is leading, but it seems like progress, so that's nice.
But no, I am not sure where this is going
Maybe an extra hint would be nice
so the way I phrased it is not very good
I want to solve x^2 = 1 mod 2^n
there's one obvious solution that isn't 1
-1
so find one more
Oh shit! You right!
I think your hints are pretty useful iteribus. I'd use this as a bit of a heuristic and use it to find candidates order 2 :)
Although it seems we've gone separate paths still
Well, actually hold on. We found 'an' element of order 2, but we didn't necessarily show it is unique
we want to show it isn't unique actually
Yea, that's what I mean. My b
we want to show we have more than 1 so it is not cyclic
spoiler (don't view dackid xd; for iteribus) ||not sure what you're thinking iteribus, but (2^(n-1) ± 1)^2 = 1 mod 2^n :) iis that what you did?||
So we just need to show that there exists another element that is not 2^{n}-1 where that holds.
yes
1 has order 1, so that doesn't cut it.
Make 1 a perfect square or 2^{n}-1?
so the square is k* 2^n + 1
make this an explicit perfect square by adding or subtracting something that still makes it = 1 mod 2^n
yes
Ummm, here is something
I wonder what the nice way is to show the actual isomorphism
True true. I guess my only issue is that this is bigger than 2^n
k = 1
well that doesn't matter anyway ye if the square is bigger
Seems like 3 always has order 2^(n-2) and then I suppose <3,2^(n-1) -1> must generate the group right? idk
some nice link to nt here apparently from wiki aha
it's Z2*Z2^(n-2)
yeah
So why does n>=3 play a role here?
if n = 2 what is 2^(n-1)-1
Oh, duh :p
the case n = 1 will be left as an exercise
I don't know, that seems too hard xp
i think i figured out my problem 
sweet.
The way my notes did the parity of a permutation actually used determinants which has advantages and disadvantages i guess lol
Thx for the help! This was also some good practice with modular arithmetic. So thanks for that.
this is a very interesting problem
unfortunately I don't remember much from number theory or it would've been easier
Hey, you've taken number theory. I have not. So this is a new way of thinking for me.
Number theory feels like magic sometimes.
look Fp is perfect
||sorry for being cringe ><||
Does a subgroup share the same binary operation as the group that it is a subgroup of?
Because the general linear group is a subgroup of the affine group
And the operation on the affine group is composition, but for the general linear group its matrix multiplication
(but this could be because this general linear group is invertible linear operators and not the definition that uses nxn matrices)
This is the definition of subgroup
You’re a subgroup of a group if you’re a subset where the operation restricted to this subset actually produces a group
It doesn’t make sense to talk about say for example R\{0} under multiplication as a subgroup of R under addition since the operation is different even though set theoretically the former is a subset of the latter
Here R is the real numbers
right and R\ {0} doesn't have an identity element anyway.
Ah ok thanks
I mean that’s a proof it isn’t a subgroup
I have another q
But it kinda is tangential to the point I was tryna illustrate
If you have an identity which is the composition of 2 things (in a group that has composition as its binary operation), then is the identity shared between all of its subgroups, and would each of the 2 things being composed be in the group
Wat
so if $a\circ b$ was the identity for a group under composition, then would $a\circ b$ also be the identity for the subgroup
Marikyuun
yes
Idk why you’re using \circ but yes
And would $a ,b\in \text{the group}$?
Marikyuun
yes
it only make sense for a and b to be in the group
Like a and b are elements of your group
otherwise the operation doesn't apply
So they are in your group yes
Yep
And just looked up what a group is
I’d recommend just
Picking up an intro book on algebra
And just read maybe the first bit about groups and subgroups
Ive just been going through the coursebook
I think it will clarify a lot of these questions
So I tried to make this if and only if proof into one big argument. Can someone check to see if this is alright. I don't think I see any problems here, but I want to make sure.
Woah, good find :p
So this is insanely pedantic but I’ll only say it because you chose to do symbolic logic
You need another for all y in G predicate or w/e before there exists t in Z
I mean this is totally just pedantry but if you’re gonna do one like this I think it makes it a little clearer
Oh sure, that's not a big deal at all
It looks right to me
It also puts gcd(n,k)=1 in one line, so I am more than happy with that change xp
The only thing I’m unsure how you’re justifying is the equality in the second to last bit
With the order of <a^k>
But I think it’s probably just via
Order of a^k in terms of order of k and order of g
Oh sure. I can clarify. It also equals n because it is the same set as <a>
Oh yeah
Consider the function given by… be a surjevtive map
Anyway the only qualms I have are non mathematical in nature
Ah yeah, I just need to write let instead of given
The logic goes through
I use iff
\iff
I think it’s the right way to handle stuff like this
Arguably you can like
Separate each line
Use a like \align*
Then put \iff at the start of each line
How's that?
better?
Hmmm, I agree. Not sure how to fix that while keeping the iffs to the left of each line though.
Yeah
You will do it like
The part to the left & \iff blah blah\\
& \iff next line \\
& \iff
I would type an example but I’m on my@phone lol
is xy is in q
x is not in q
y^n is then, so y nilpotent in A/q
what about x
how would x be nilpotent
if y is not in q, x is nilpotent. If y is in q, x is not necessarily a zero divisor in A/q (as y is zero)
alright, got it ty 
when it says all their powers are primary
is that for every i
i can only do it for p_n
ok
for this: x in SP(0), x/1 = 0/1 so yx = 0 y is not in P, but yx = 0 (inP) so x is in P
that works?
yes
nice
i found another solution online that was alot longer
after doing this, Sp(0) would actually be P?
nvm
(reposted from #help-8 because I don't know why I asked this there initially, I think I'm just dumb):
I'm trying to figure out how to use Macaulay2 to calculate S-polynomials, and for some reason I can't find the correct command. For instance, I might do something like:
i2 : f1 = x^2 * y - 1
i3 : f2 = x * y^2 - x```
What I'm trying to do is find S(f1,f2) as defined on page 85 of *Ideals, Varieties and Algorithms* by Cox, Little and O'Shea 4th edition using a Macaulay2 command. I've tried just doing
```i4 : S(f1,f2)```
But that didn't work, and I can't think of what else it could be.
Well having an order 7 subgroup means the group hs order a multiple of 7 right?
So the generator has order 7k
And we know k > 1
Then what’s the order of g^7 when g is the generator?
i believe you but what is the justification for the first part
sorry thats a dumb question, i got it
There's a nice generalisation of this actually, lol, which i can share in a second
the order of g^7 when g is the generator 
just n/7?
where n = |G|
or is that dumb
oh you mean a different generator
k in chmonkey's notation
k isnt |G| i dont think
It isn't
oh youre saying n/7 = k
im sorry i dont follow the relevance of g^7 here
Well it's sort of to force us into finding the order of the group. We don't know much about G's structure, but we do know it has order 7k, where k is the order of g^7
So we need to find the order of g^7, equivalently the size of <g^7>
But we can work out what that is from the given information
Nah don't worry, feel free to ask
n=7k with k > 1 seems to me say like
Sure
we'd expect 4 subgroups
1, 7, some other prime, and then G itself
im being sloppy but i hope thats clear
Well why another prime?
🤔
In fact, the lack of there being another subgroup of prime order tells you something important.
prob Z/49Z right?
don't spoil it
we havent gotten to that
I know the answer, I'm guiding jan...
well the damage is done
lol
Well er
maybe weve gotten to it but whatever that is we dont use that notation
Anyway, consider <g^7> again
we know it's a subgroup of G and it's either trivial, the whole of G or order 7
Use process of elimination
since we know its a generator of some subgroup
since 7 is a divisor of the order of G
okay
oh this is special about cyclics right
No





