#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 614 of 407
Usually papers will be a little annoying about conflating the two but it’s usually possible to figure out which one is meant from context
Usually elliptic curve means the projective one, while names like affine elliptic curve or punctured elliptic curve are reserved for the affine one

One last question. Is the function field associated to this curve just the fraction field of k[x,y]/y^2-x^3-1?
yes
Since D+(z)=spec(k[x/z,y/z]/((y/z)^2-(x/z)^3-1)) and the function field doesn’t change restricted on a non-empty open subset (therefore dense)
What's D?
different symbols perhaps, principle open subset
Hi, I don't have colleagues to talk to right now but I want to know if the following proof is sound and I'm not using any wrong theorems for Sylow-groups. \
\
I want to show first that any group of order $15 = 3 \cdot 5$ is cyclic. From the Sylow theorems, there can only exist only one 3-Sylowgroup and one 5-Sylowgroup as 1 is the only number of the form 1+3k or 1+5k that is a divisor of 5 or 3, respectively. Since 3 and 5 are coprime, the Sylowgroups only have the neutral element in common. Now, there are exactly $15-3-5+1 = 8$ elements which are not inside a Sylowgroup. Taking any element from these 8, they must generate a cyclic subgroup whose order must divide 15, so either 1, 3, 5 or 15. Since it's not the neutral element, the order cannot be 1. It can also not be 3 or 5 because any subgroup of order $p^n$ must be a Sylowgroup and we chose these 8 not to be in one. Hence it must generate a cyclic group of order 15, the group itself and the group must be cyclic. $\Box$.
\
\
The above proof can be generalized a bit for groups with order $n = pq, p < q, p \nmid q-1$ since there are $pq - p-q+1 = (p-1)(q-1) \neq 0$ elements that aren't in either Sylowgroup. \
\
Also a group of order $21 = 3 \cdot 7$ doesn't have to be cyclic because it may have 7 3-Sylowgroups ($7 = 1 + 2\cdot 3$) (and you can actually construct it but I'm not interested in that)
T0lgi01
If a module is finitely generated
are all submodules finitely generated then also
or is this generally not true
I don't think that's generally true, let me look for an example
Maybe there's extra assumptions on your thing?
pid is probably enough for that to be true
i see
actually, wdym?
for this
is A a noetherian ring? 
yes
ok cool
finitely generated modules over noetherian rings are noetherian
and submodules and quotients of noetherian modules are noetherian
oh

thanks
why does the fact that x_s annihaltes K and L mean we can remove it from A?
This is what zef and I were telling you about yesterday 
If you have an A-module M, and ann(M) contains I, then M is also an A/I module
where the scalar multiplication is given by [a]*x = a*x
lmao
How did you guys memorize all the module stuff? I find I just can't get it to stick
or you can verify this as an instance of the first isomorphism theorem using what I said about modules being homomorphisms into end(M)
You can get some intuition for many of the results. For others, knowing nicer language sometimes helps a lot 
what does the brackets mean
oh
coset of I
in End(M) you mean endomorphisms as abelian groups ?
yeah
Nicer language? Sorry if I'm interrupting oof
cat theory but also just knowing some language/results/equivalent ways of phrasing things from other fields can help
yep
contain
alrighty
thats what I said lol
i was just making sure 
R has only 4 elements so you can just brute-force who is in R* and then brute-force that statement
or you can also give an explicit inverse for 1+2r
as a polynomial in r
yeah
or their equivalence classes
well in the sum you recognize all the P(M,t), P(L,t), P(M,t)*t^ks, P(L,t)*t^ks, except maybe a finite number of missing terms
wdym
you start with $\lambda(K_n) - \lambda(M_n) + \lambda(M_{n+k_s}) - \lambda(L_{n+k_s}) = 0$
Zef Klop 🍃 🌿 🌻
yes
you multiply by t^(n+ks)
$t^{n+k_s}\lambda(K_n) - t^{n+k_s}\lambda(M_n) + t^{n+k_s}\lambda(M_{n+k_s}) - t^{n+k_s}\lambda(L_{n+k_s}) = 0$
Zef Klop 🍃 🌿 🌻
you sum with respect to n
it means $\sum_{n \ge 0}$ of that expression = 0
Zef Klop 🍃 🌿 🌻
ok
$\sum_{n\ge 0} t^{n+k_s}\lambda(K_n) - \sum_{n\ge 0} t^{n+k_s}\lambda(M_n) + \sum_{n\ge 0} t^{n+k_s}\lambda(M_{n+k_s}) - \sum_{n\ge 0} t^{n+k_s}\lambda(L_{n+k_s}) = 0$
Zef Klop 🍃 🌿 🌻
ok
you replace $\sum_{n\ge 0} \lambda(K_n) t^n$ with $P(K,t)$
Zef Klop 🍃 🌿 🌻
ok
$t^{k_s} P(K,t) - \sum_{n\ge 0} t^{n+k_s}\lambda(M_n) + \sum_{n\ge 0} t^{n+k_s}\lambda(M_{n+k_s}) - \sum_{n\ge 0} t^{n+k_s}\lambda(L_{n+k_s}) = 0$
Zef Klop 🍃 🌿 🌻
same with M
$t^{k_s} P(K,t) - t^{k_s}P(M,t) + \sum_{n\ge 0} t^{n+k_s}\lambda(M_{n+k_s}) - \sum_{n\ge 0} t^{n+k_s}\lambda(L_{n+k_s}) = 0$
Zef Klop 🍃 🌿 🌻
the two sums left are like a sum for a P(M,t) or P(L,t) except the first k_s terms are missing
you can do a change of variables to get
$t^{k_s} P(K,t) - t^{k_s}P(M,t) + \sum_{n\ge k_s} t^n \lambda(M_n) - \sum_{n\ge k_s} t^n\lambda(L_n) = 0$
Zef Klop 🍃 🌿 🌻
there are missing terms to recognise P(M,t) and P(L,t) so you add them and remove them
$t^{k_s} P(K,t) - t^{k_s}P(M,t) + \sum_{n\ge 0} t^n \lambda(M_n) - \sum_{0 \le n < k_s} t^n \lambda(M_n) - \sum_{n\ge 0} t^n\lambda(L_n) + \sum_{0 \le n < k_s} t^n \lambda(L_n) = 0$
Zef Klop 🍃 🌿 🌻
then you recognise P(M,t) and P(L,t) again
$t^{k_s} P(K,t) - t^{k_s}P(M,t) + P(M,t) - P(L,t) - \sum_{0 \le n < k_s} t^n \lambda(M_n) + \sum_{0 \le n < k_s} t^n \lambda(L_n) = 0$
Zef Klop 🍃 🌿 🌻
all those leftover is just a polynomial that you call g(t)
it's still there ?
should there be t^ks there?
no they were absorbed in the change of variable
I replaced n+ks with n
maybe I should have used a new variable name like m
so its summing starting at ks
you turn $\sum_{n\ge 0} t^{n+k_s}\lambda(M_{n+k_s})$
into $\sum_{m\ge k_s} t^{m}\lambda(M_{m})$
why is this so big
ok
Zef Klop 🍃 🌿 🌻
how are we applying the inductive hypothesis tho
how is it not ??
if s=0 the product is empty so it is 1
and a polynomial is in the form of a polynomial divided by 1
R[X] is the ring of polynomials in the indeterminate X with coefficients in the ring R
R[X]* should be the ring of invertible polynomials
I have a question as well
the polynomials P in R[X] for which there exist Q in R[X] such that P * Q=1
sorry still slightly confused: $P(M,t) = \frac{P(L,t) - t^k_sP(K,t) + g(t)}{1-t^k_s}$
ActiveChapter
then we cann apply to P(L,t) and P(K,t)
got it
I am trying to solve (b)
I have this
but I am not sure how to finish the first inclusion
that w maybe not be same
x may not be equal to y
ok, so assume w_1,w_2 in W such that x = v_1 + w_1 and y = v_2+w_2
yeah that works
if you want to show that v1+W is included in v2+W you have to show that for every w1 in W there is a w2 in W such that v1+w1 = v2+w2
Oh yeah, just as $v_1 + W \subseteq v_2+W$ and $v_2 + W \subseteq v_1+W$
Mns98
I think your converse is needlessly complicated
hum
if you're closed under multiplication you can multiply things by -1
and then if you're close under addition you can make a + (-1) * b to do a - b
oh wait I was thinking about ideals
it also depends on whether you work with rings with unity or not
but to be a subring you need to contain 1, be closed under addition, taking opposite, and multiplication
but saying closed under substraction is like saying closed under addition and taking opposite
what does the book say exactly ?
it seems mighty suspicious that they don't talk about addition/subtraction so maybe that one is implied by something else
well additive subgroup implies it's closed under addition/subtraction
so your book is correct
in the converse of this proposition, it says it holds for every N module
But in the proof
they take specific N modules to prove it
they are doing 4') => 4)
they can pick N to be whatever they want at any time
if you do 4) => 4') then you would need to have a proof that forall N, the sequence is exact
how do we know that there isnt another N

so you are asking what happens if from 4') you can deduce a contradiction ?

:/
the first part of the proof where they show that v is surjective because v bar is injective
ah I haven't actually read the proof besides "next take N = M/Im(u)"
I don't know how they do that
that's not what it looks like to me from what they wrote
but maybe I haven't thought about that proof much
yeah and then they do something else
no
then they show the next part of exactness
but my question is - How do we know that there isnt some other N, that makes v not surjective
but N depends on v
we show that if (forall N, the sequence (4') is exact) then the original sequence (4) is exact
the collection of A-modules that N can be does not depend on v at all
but we only see that 4) is true for specific N?
- does not have an N appearing anywhere
but we use a specific N to show that exactness
and that's perfectly fine
do you know how it follows that v is surjective ?
was that explained somewhere earlier ?
ive done this theorem before
but always had this issue with understanding it
logically
but it follows because take N= M/im
follows from there i think
Or maybe M’’/im?
yeah take f to be the projection from M'' to M''/im(v)
you apply the exactness of the sequence (4') with N = M''/im(v)
Yes i just didnt want to give away the whole thing :P
if f is nonzero then f°v is nonzero because °v is injective
but f°v is 0
so f must be 0
and so M''/im(v) = 0, and so im(v) = M''
yeah
but i mean
if N was an arbitrary A module
we cant show that v was surjective
v does not depend on N
You are choosing a specific N
For the express purpose
Of showing that v is surjective
Which you can do because you know (4’) is exact for all N
v is fixed. Given to us by god. It does not change. It is one specific function
and if v were not surjective then for N = M''/im(v), the sequence (4') would not be exact because v bar would not be injective
so it would be false that (4') is exact for all N
we should be able to take any A module and show that v is also surjective then
No
If you take the A-module 0
You get absolutely nothing
Some A-modules will give you useful info
And some will give you trash
But it doesnt matter because we are assuming that (4’) is exact for ALL A-modules
forall x, (P(x) => Q) is logically very different from (forall x, P(x)) => Q
you are confusing the two
So we can pick the A-modules which are convenient to us
That’s a good way to get right to the core of the issue zef
i see, we have the second case yeah?
yes
if I have an integer n and I know that forall prime number p, p divides n
then n = 0
so it's true that (forall x, x divides n) => n=0
but forall x, (x divides n => n=0) is super false
and I can prove that (forall x, x divides n) => n=0
by picking some x that's larger than |n|
then I get n = 0 or |n| >= x > |n|
so n=0
it's the same kind of proof
I picked an x for the express purpose of showing n=0
I don't need to look at what happens for the other x
and I agree it can be feel mind-boggling at first
like, my x depends on n !!
because I want it to defeat n

So we know it for every N, the sequence was exact
so then if N was something, whatever we deduce about v and u must be true for allN
yea?
yeah
because we have irrational faith that ZFC is consistent and you can't prove a contradiction inside it
or if you assume that (4') is exact forall N and derive that v is both surjective and not surjective
then it must be false that (4') is exact forall N
in fact if you go, pick N = N1 and assume (4') is exact for N1 and show that v is surjective, and then pick N = N2 and assume (4') is exact for N2 and show that v is not surjective, then (4') must have not been exact for one of N1 and N2
one of the assumptions must have been false
ok
hey! im super stuck on this problem:
C5 means cyclic with order 5?
take 1 to be identity, all automorphisms act the same on it
and count the rest
do commutative diagram mean
u'f' = fu
etc
the homomophisms to get to one module composed are the same
no matter what "path" u take
like that?
ahhh gotchaa
ring of all units
thats right
is the ring finite or infinite
yeah i doubt it
but consider the map from R into R of the form x -> ax for some a in R
An L-structure where L has no relation symbols 
Group of units
the set of units is not a subring
To expand on this slightly, it is a set with some special constants, and functions from some power of it to itself.
Eg groups are (G, *, 1), 1 is the special constant and * is the function from G x G → G (you could remove 1 from this "signature" since it's determined by * anyway)
Rings are (R, +, *, 0, 1)
Example for what he says about relation symbols: ordered sets (S, ≤) are not algebraic
It follows from the fact that the map x -> ax is surjective
That map being surjective means that 1 is in its image, so there exists some x \in R such that ax = 1
That isn’t a ring, it’s a group
The operation on it will be multiplication, units are not closed under addition

There’s no need to apologize
I just wanted to clarify that you don’t have a ring structure
Only a group structure
what's R
isnt it given explicitly for you already 🤔
are you having issues with the first or second equality
yeah you have to show that those two groups are isomorphic
it shouldn't be too hard to come up with a map form R* x Z into the other thing
think like what are the elements of R* x Z
how do they multiply
into {uX^k : u in R* , k in Z}
yeah, shockingly, 0 is not an invertible polynomial
may want to figure what it is first then :)
Let $R$ be a commutative ring and $K$ its field of fraction.. If $f,g \in R[x]$ such that $f$ is primitive and $f \mid_{K[x]} g$, why is it that $f \mid_{R[x]} g$?
Mr.Hahn-Banach
I tried lining up the coefficients, but I'm not seeing how to get that implication
This is Gauss’s lemma
I think you wanna show first that the product of primitive polynomial is primitive
And then you do some shit from that
wht to do after the hint?
hmmmmmmmmmmmmmmm
i guess all i need to do is show a tensor M is aM
honestly i'd prob just do it directly and try to write down an iso
idk how helpful tensoring would be since you don't know if M is flat or not
yeah maybe that's enough then

i'm not sure what this means
If, in the set C of all complex numbers, addition is defined as usual and multiplication of a complex number by a real number is defined as usual, then C becomes a real vector space
which are scalars and which the vectors?
the scalars are R and the vectors are C
ok thanks
Bet
0[x] moment
Can anyone help with 4?
do you understand the hint
the columns (and/or rows) of every matrix in GL_n have to be linearly independent. you can pick p^n - 1 vectors for the first column (or row) , since u just can’t pick the zero vector. how many choices are there for the second column (or row)?
(i say row in parentheses because u can use either rows or columns. i just prefer columns)
there are p^2 - 1 suitable choices for the first row in GL_2(Z/pZ)
are u doing this for GL_2(Z/2Z)?
I have to compute GL_2(Z/2Z) first then do GL_n(Z/pZ)
u have to compute GL_2(Z/pZ) first
lol reread the question
just refer to this hint
2 choices for second column ?
for GL_2(Z/pZ), there are p^2 - 1 choices for the first column.
the second column just can’t be a scalar multiple of the first column.
so there are p^2 - p choices for the second column after u have chosen the first column.
where are u getting those from?
you said two choices. I'm not sure where you are getting that. So I assume you are talking about a 2x2 matrix
and from there assume I mean 2 pivot points
In GL_n(Z/pZ) first you have p^n-1 choices of the first row, (any non zero vector in (Z/pZ)^n) next you have p^n-p choices of the second row (there are p vectors being linear dependent with the first row which you shouldn’t choose) next you have p^n-p^2 choices of the third row….go on and on
they mean choices for the columns. So e.g. if you want |GL_2( Z/3Z )| there's the following choices for non-zero vectors: (0,1), (0,2), (1,0), (1,1), (1,2), (2,0), (2,1), (2,2). That's 3^2-1 = 8 possible choices. Suppose we picked (1,2). Then the second column can't be a multiple of (1,2), so any vector other than (0,0), (1,2) or (2,1) (=(2,4) ) works. That's 3^2-3 = 6 possible choices, so |GL_2( Z/3Z )|=8*6=48.
if we go with our choice of (1,2) then e.g. (1,1) is a valid choice for the second column, giving the matrix
(1 1)
(2 1)
(too lazy to LaTeX rn)
a matrix is invertible iff the columns are linearly independent
Over a fieldddddddd
Reposted from questions, I'm having some trouble with this question
I just tried to show some facts about an additive homomorphism, but I have no clue how to show that the homomorphisms are limited to just that
Like I was thinking trying to prove by contradiction, something like suppose \varphi \notin \Phi and show its a homomorphism
but like there's nothing much I can show for \varphi except it's not of the form \varphi(x) = nx lol
bφ(a/b)=φ(a/1)=aφ(1)
Hm... Suppose I have a group G that is a subgroup of another group H and also that G is isomorphic to some other group K. Does this say anything more about how H and K relate?
It says that there is an injective homomorphism from K to H, of course you may not consider this as “saying more”. Other than this, I don’t think we can say much.
you mean surjective from H to K, right?
No
If you want an example of a situation where a surjective homomorphism is impossible, consider Z as a subgroup of Q. There is no surjective homomorphism from Q to Z
I think there doesn’t even exist non-zero homomorphism from Q to Z since nf(1/n)=f(1)
i'm almost up to homomorphisms...
specifically k is the (A, k)-bimodule
Construct morphisms from $(M \bigotimes_A N)_B$ to $M_B \bigotimes_B N_B$ and the other direction respectively then prove that are the inverse to each other: $(m \otimes n) \otimes b$ mapping to $(m \otimes b) \otimes (n \otimes 1)$ and $(m \otimes b) \otimes (n \otimes c)$ mapping to $(m \otimes n) \otimes bc$ respectively
Cogwheels of the mind
but like how do we know this?
use the bimodule isomorphisms given in AM to simplify the right side in the equation I wrote (if you want to follow that solution)
ex 2.15 in AM
but isnt $(M \bigotimes_A N)_k = k \bigotimes_A (M \bigotimes_A N)$
ActiveChapter
yes
Coldilocks ✓
This will eliminate one of the k's after applying the isomorphism in 2.15
tensoring by k is an extension of M,N A-module structure yeah?
Yeah it makes them into (A,k) bimodules
but k doesnt contain .. A ?
k is an A-algebra
k = A/m
x in m isnt in k tho?
Then tensor_A with k
I already sent the answer I don’t know whether you want to take a look
Of any A-module becomes a k-module by scalar multiplication on the k coordinate
i dont know about morphisms
That just means homomorphisms
Sorry homomorphism
In this context
extending scalars turns A-modules into new k-modules
M -> M tensorA k
and restricting scalars says that a k-module is already a A-module
yes
you multiply by f(m)
but f(m) = 0
because f is quotienting by the maximal ideal m
so uh you want to start with a k-module M, then restrict then extend ?
no
i see
Given an homomorphism of ring A—>B and an A module M then B tensor M becomes a B module by b(b’ tensor x)=(bb’) tensor x
you have a map from M to k tensor M given by x -> 1 * x
got it 
injective?
dear gods no

In this example extending by scalar of k quotients your M by mM 
And this map in this case is not injective
(kernel is mM)
yeah that
You might want to explicitly work this out lol
Yep
Harder part is to prove the converse 
You actually asked some questions about the converse kind of question before
hm
And once you have this kernel you use first isomorphism theorem to get that M tensor_A A/m is M/mM
Which is mentioned in the problem
oh i just used excersise 2
to show that
but now im thinking if i did it correct or no
i just tensored with M and first iso thm
Right yeah
uncrop
why do we still have A under tensor
ah yeah
we still have multiplcation by A and also B yeah?
well back then you only that M is an A module
so what else can you take tensor products over
wdym?
what would you have wanted to write instead of A
B
you only know that M is a A-module
What does _A represent in the tensor? 
you need M to be a B-module for tensor_B to be possible
It doesn't mean that your result is an A module
multiplication is defined over A?

It means you are staying the universal property of tensor product with A-bilinear maps
tensorA takes two A-modules and returns a new A-module
i see
The universal property of tensor products talks about factoring A-bilinear maps for some ring A, so in fact you don't just have 1 tensor product, there's a notion of tensor product over each ring
And the relations that you quotient by in the construction depend on the ring too
ok
And in the case of the problem, you have k which is a (A,k) bimodule
So you can do k tensor_A k and k tensor_k k
ok
The latter gives just k, the former gives a non trivial quotient k/mk
I think it's also k
Wait yeah lmao
oof bad example
Since mk is 0
But take R and C
C is an (R,C) bimodule
C tensor_C C is C again
But C tensor_R C is 4 dimensional
Over R
over R
i see
nice


What do you mean
The only 0 vector space over any field is {0}
But where is that even being used 
tensoring with a field makes it isomorphic to a vector space yeah?
or rather is a vector space
so we can multiply the two dimensions
Yeah tensoring with a field which is an algebra over the original module makes it into a vector space over that field
And tensor product over k of 2 vector spaces over k gives you their direct product
No sorry
But I mean
Dimensions get multiplied
yea
They get added in direct product 
in the question we can just multply the dimensions right? or no?
Yes
we are not doing direct products here .. yea?
Yeah
ok good
😌
Yes

Is the structure of k[X, Y]-modules much more complicated than that of k[X]-modules? I mean do we have anything similar to the structure theorem?
You have to ask a specific question. Anyway, k[x] is a pid while k[x,y] is not
I did! Reread the last part.
By the structure theorem I mean the one for f.g. modules over PIDs
I see. Structures of Finitely generated modules over PID and dedekind domain are so beautiful.
I still haven’t found anything about structure of finitely generated module over k[x,y].Is there even any theory about structure of finitely generated modules over rings of dimension greater than 1?
I wonder..
if you restrict to projective modules, there are theorems on this
lookup the quillen-suslin theorem
No, for any nonzero a, M = R/(a) is a finitely generated R-module with aM = 0
I see, thanks
ok
for the backwards
if m/d != 0 then there doesnt exist a xm = 0 where x is in D
a contradiction
that works yeah?
wasn't there a theorem which said something like "if we have two short exact sequences and three maps between the terms, and two of the three maps are isomorphisms, then so is the third one"
what was that called
THE SHORT FIVE LEMMA
there we go
is it true that $\langle x_1,...,x_n|x_1^2...x_n^2\rangle * Z/2Z=\langle x_1,...,x_n,x_{n+1}|x_1^2...x_n^2x_{n+1}^2\rangle$?
Or x1
<x1, ..., xn | x1^2...xn^2 > means the quotient of the free group on x1 through xn by the normal subgroup generated by x1^2...xn^2, right?
yes
I can't see why this would be true, don't see any natural inclusions of the first group on the left into the last one. n=1 feels like a counterexample but also feels like it would be hard to prove the it is
They have isomorphic abelianizations?
I have a slightly funny definition of support
but i want to want to know if there is relation between
say N nd M are an A-modules
and moreover M is an N-module
can we say something like the support of M bust be in the support of N?
I mean
Yeah
Legit just Supp M < Supp N
Wait
M is an N-module??
Is N an A-algebra?
Maybe i should just say precisely the situation i have just to make sure i haven't abstracted away in correctly
I mean you can’t have a module over a module
i think so
A is C[x1,..,xn]
i have the inclusion of A into M
and the inclusion of A into N
This doesn’t mean anything with regards to N being an algebra
If you want to consider M over N in any fashion you’ll need N to be a ring
and algebra is just when we can also multiply things
oh okay yes
N is ring sorry
yikes
In commutative algebra being an R algebra is equivalent to having a ring map R -> S
In the noncommutative case it’s a bit trickier
and yeah everything is commutative
Anyway, if S is an R-algebra any S module is canonically an R module
If the ring map is f:R -> S
You let rm = f(r)m
Then f(r) is in S so f(r)m makes sense
Then you could ask questions about the support of M with respect to S or to R
this makes sense i think ive seen this before
And since S is also an R-module
You can ask about the support of S with respect to R
So now you can compare Supp_R(M) and Supp_R(S)
and the support the non zero stalks
Umm yeah
If you want to think about it that way
I’m surprised you’d like to think about it that way tho haha
sorry the main reason im having trouble is because
my situation is cohomology rings
but with a bigger base ring
and the definition of the support is more concrete
The set of all total functions $\mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ with vector addition defined as $f+g= x \mapsto f(x) +g(x)$ and scalar multiplication defined as $kf = x \mapsto kf(x)$ is a vector space. Many of the properties that make this algebraic structure a vector space are inherited from the underlying field of real numbers. Is there a theorem/principle about inheritance of properties of algebraic structures?
The principle is just that
Maps from any set to an algebraic structure inherit that usually
JohnDark
By just doing everything on the codomain like u noted
You can replace the first R with literally any set and it works
Maybe there’s a universal algebra way to make this precise
But it works for pretty much any structure you can think of
Ring, group, module, vector space, fucking magma
I realize that but I would like to make a short proof that $\mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ is a vector space. Proving all 10 axioms is quite tedious.
JohnDark
I would like to prove at least the majority of them in one or two batches
Use the trick textbook authors use, the proof is obvious by inspection…
Yeah like
Just write down that everything happens in the codomain so any sort of formula you need to hold will hold
That’s all the axioms are just identities
And they hold for things in the codomain so they hold for each x which is all you need
If that’s not good enough idk, either look into universal algebra or prove them all 1 by 1 ¯_(ツ)_/¯
Thanks!
Also, maybe a more “theoretical” way to view this is by noticing that Homs preserve limits and most algebraic structures are just some commutative diagrams with products which are limits. So this sort of thing may work in any category with internal hom functors (I haven’t thought through this fully, but it seems legit)
Fair enough
Struggling with this notation a bit
In Chomsky and Shutzenburger's algebraic theory of context free languages
can anybody help me with what (8) means?
its a formal power series... why are they having relation in a tuple along with the character like so:
<r, f1>f1
what does that mean? Does anybody know?
<r,f1> is just some integer, so basically this is a formal sum of the strings f_i with some integers as coefficients
Maybe as an example, if maps a to 5 and aa to 10, the power series is 5a+10aa
okay, so they're abusing the fact that you can dovetail two integers here and not specifying how?
oh wait
nvm
i get what you're saying I think
Nice
Yes exactly
is that notation you've seen before? lmao
jotting that down as the millionth way I've seen notation for a relation 😆
No lol, it seems very weird. Also, I think r is a function not just any relation. This looks like some alternate notation to r(f1)
"For F a field and J an ideal of F[x], J has a unique monic generator", this is false for J=<0> right?
Since <0>={0} and the zero polynomial is not monic.
If you think of 0 as x^(-infty) it is monic
Hmm
Is that something people commonly do?
I know very little about polynomial rings.
No not at all
Sometimes people do define degree of the 0 polynomial to be -infty
To make degree additive
Yeah that was kinda why I thought it might make some sense
But not a standard thing at all
Would you even need it to be -infty for that rather than picking a negative integer?
Yeah because multiplying by x should not add 1 to deg 0
Ooh yeah I can see how that would be awkward
Only numbers stable under finite addition would be ± infty
Stable meaning?
a+infty=infty
Oh gotcha
Are split exact sequences preserved by all additive functors?
(specifically: extension of scalars from R-mod to S-mod)
My gut feeling says yes because being a section is preserved by functors
but the exactness may get lost
Yes
Since u’u=1, vv’=1 vu =0 u’v’=0 uu’+v’v=1 then apply F on them you still have those equations
So do you mean the property that they are chain complexes is still preserved and then we use that 0 → A → B → C → 0 chain complex + inner arrows split implies exact?
(inner arrows split means B → C splits, A → B retracts)
Yes. (u’u=1, vv’=1 vu =0 u’v’=0 uu’+v’v=1) implies that u is monic, v is epic, im u =ker v
Is my proof of the following correct?
Claim: $F$ a field, $A_1, A_2$ not squares in $F$, abbreviate $\alpha_i = \sqrt{A_i}$ and look at the field $F(\alpha_1, \alpha_2)$. Then $DEG = [F(\alpha_1, \alpha_2):F] = 4$ is $A_1 A_2$ is a square in $F$ and otherwise the degree is 2.
Proof: $F(\alpha_1, \alpha_2) = F(\alpha_1)F(\alpha_2)$ is the composite field of two quadratic extensions over $F$, so $DEG \leq 4$. Since $F \subset F(\alpha_1) \subset F(\alpha_1, \alpha_2)$, we must have $DEG \in {2,4}$.
If $A_1 A_2$ is a square in $F$, then $\alpha_1 \alpha_2 \in F$, so that $F(\alpha_1, \alpha_2)$ is spanned by 3 elements, hence $DEG = 2$.
If $A_1 A_2$ is not a square, then let us assume for contradiction that $[F(\alpha_1, \alpha_2) : F(\alpha_1)] = 1$. Then $\alpha_2 = a + b \alpha_1$ with $b \neq 0$, which after massaging becomes $\sqrt{A_1 A_2} = \alpha_1 \alpha_2 = -\frac{1}{b}(a - A_1 - A_2) \in F$, and hence $A_1 A_2$ is a square in $F$, namely $A_1 A_2 = b^{-2} (a - A_1 - A_2)^2$, contradiction. Hence $[F(\alpha_1, \alpha_2) : F(\alpha_1)] = 2$, and so $DEG = 4$.
expectTheUnexpected
the α1α2 I got is (A_2-a^2+b^2A_1)/2b, apart from this I think it’s correct
right, the a should be squared, oops. Thanks 🙂
What if F = Q, A1 = 2, and A2 = 2/9?
once you add sqrt(2) to Q, A2 also becomes a square, so we only need a degree 2 extension in order to give both of them roots
He accidentally reversed the order of 2 and 4 in his statement
oh okay
continuing the discussion over in #advanced-analysis
@hidden haven so what does it mean for two elements to be separable?
Their minimal polynomials over the base field don't have repeated roots
You can ignore this condition here - everything is separable over Q
over any char 0 field in fact
is the definition of a flat module
a module such that tensoring with an injective map will remain injective
i didnt understand this at all lmao
if 0 -> A -> B -> C -> 0 is split exact by a section C -> B, then B decomposes as the direct sum of A \oplus C and the map A -> B has a retraction (the projection onto A), which will also be preserved by the functor. That extra information is part of what you need.
it's easier to present this as "additive functors preserve binary direct sums"
Yes
The two are equivalent only because tensoring is already right exact
The failure of tensoring to be exact is only in that injectivity might not be preserved
i see
tensor product is right exact, so exactness of 0 → A → B → C → 0 implies exactness of A o M → B o M → C o M → 0 for every module M. But if M is flat then A o M → B o M is also injective and we would obtain exactness of 0 → A o M → B o M → C o M → 0
oh sorry it has been already answered
Thank y'all for all the different viewpoints on thhis.
I got a problem with infimum?
Is there an ordered set where all of its subsets with cardinality strictly larger than the cardinality of integer to have the infimum undefined
probably best to ask in the #advanced-analysis or #foundations channel
I'm going a little bonkers on this necessary/sufficient condition for a problem... hopefully someone can help me...
this is where im at:
Provided that my condition that G ⊕ H is cyclic is correct (that is, both necessary and sufficient), I'm having a lot of difficulty understanding how to arrive at that as a necessary logical conclusion.
...To the point where i'm starting to suspect that G ⊕ H is cyclic is not the condition I am seeking at all.
I've filled 3 sketch pad pages in addition to this partial sketch of an answer. Apologies for the terse write-up.
I reposted over in #help-2 for if this is a bad place to inquire. Also, I'm not looking for an answer; more just a little nudge or a bit of cheeky guidance. Thanks.
Just to clarify, is the question asking for a necessary and sufficient condition for groups G and H to ensure that for all g in G and h in H this condition is satisfied, or is it more like we have fixed G and H and the question is asking for necessary and sufficient conditions on elements g in G and h in H such that the condition is satisfied? My interpretation of the question is the second one, but I think your interpretation is the first.
Also even in the first case, I think there is a counter example. If we let K be the klein 4 group and Z/3Z be the cyclic grp on 3 elements, their direct sum has the property that for any elements g and h the condition is satisfied (ie <(g,h)>=<g>+<h>)
Oh uh
I don't think the "necessary and sufficient condition" can talk about G and H because G and H can be whatever they want when it doesn't involve <g> and <h>
so the question is really about <g> and <h>
and uuh those kinds of exercise are kinda lame
because you never know what kind of condition they want
<g,h> = <g>+<h> if and only if <g,h> = <g>+<h>
proof : trivial qed
okay usually you want an equivalent condition that talks about simpler concepts
Let G and H be finite groups and write (g,h) for elements in G ⊕ H. State a necessary and sufficient (both simultaneously) (logical) condition (ie hypothesis) for the conclusion <(g,h)> = <g> ⊕ <h>.
Idk if that cleared anything up but
Yeah this definitely seems like it should be the second interpretation I was talking about
I wouldn't interpret it in either of those ways tbh...
How do you interpret it?
reflexivity of bi-implication...
I interpret it like this I suppose? I can attempt to expound upon my perspective more though.
Using sentential logic, "Let G and H be finite groups" (logically) implies "Let G be a finite group" and "Let H be a finite group." "Let G be a finite group" implies "There exists a group G" and, you could say, a little lemma, such as "If there exists a group G, then it is finite" and "There exists a group G", to proof it.
But before I go any further...
...Is this what you're trying to ask me?
And "(g,h) in G ⊕ H" is always true. But all it means is that elements of G ⊕ H can be represented with (g,h).
Then the way I believe is the appropriate method to formulate a (single) necessary and sufficient condition for any sort of logical conclusion would as follows:
First, write H for the hypothesis and C for the conclusion of a conditional statement "H implies C."
Then, "H implies C" has a truth table it is associated with which represents the boolean values of True and False (in a grid) under each of the combinations for H and C thereof.
Now, I posit that a condition H is sufficient for conclusion C if and only if H implies C. Informally, I might say "A condition H is a sufficient condition for conclusion C if and only if for (every variable hypothesis) H => C," even if it looks a bit weird when I write it like that.
Furthermore, I posit that a condition H is necessary for conclusion C if and only if C implies H.
Does that all make sense?
Yes, I get what necessary and sufficient means, but I feel like you might be being overly formal here
it is a disease
Ok, so what do you say about the actual ambiguity here
idk how to do the "necessary" part
because you chose a condition that is not necessary
bro what is H and C, that is where the ambiguity actually is
It feels like you tip toed past the question I asked in a way
in which part?
H is a group, or it is "the hypothesis", or even it is my guess of "G ⊕ H is cyclic."
The hypothesis
Or, for the "necessary" part, it could be seen as the "conclusion" in the dual.
The problem doesn't state a hypothesis...
I'm sorry, are you asking me to define what the English word "hypothesis" means in a sentential-logic sense?
yeah so looking at the second thing I wrote in this reply, Is this not exactly what you mean @hot lake ?
but jade said that it was not what she meant, so that is what I was asking for, what she means by the question exactly
it's find a predicate f(G,H,g,h) such that "forall finite groups G and H, forall g in G and h in H, ((<g,h> = <g>+<h>) <=> f(G,H,g,h))"
...I'm not sure that is the approach my book is going for.
But if that helps saketh understand, cool.
Oh! wait now I understand, predicate yes
Is this not what I said in my reply? It is certainly what I meant
so yeah I guess your second interpretation
but at this point I wanted to make it precise
and your first interpretation was having forall g,h in the LHS of the equivalence ?
the first interpretation was having a sentence on the rhs that did not depend on g and h
this one? 1st interpretation seems right actually sorry
essentially a sentence with free variables only G and H
I mean the sufficient and necessary condition could hypothetically be on g or h I suppose but yeah.
which i believe is what Zef was saying with the predicate formulation
ie my ("base fact") necessary and sufficient conditional could be, like |g| is relatively prime to |h|.
Sure, this implies stuff about G and H, but that requires proof.
yeah, that is exactly the sort of sentence I think they are looking for in this question
that the orders are relatively prime
yes see my counter example
oh the Klein group one?
I provided groups such that the direct sum is non cyclic, in such a way that for all elements that condition is satisfied
yeah that one
I do not know what the Klein 4-group is really. Z/3Z terminology is fine though.
Okay but here...
oh klein 4 group is nothing more than $Z/2Z \oplus Z/2Z$
oh lol
saketh
my book must hate its readers
now hold up. you're saying <(g,h)>=<g>+<h> for K ⊕ Z3, but K ⊕ Z3 is not cyclic, correct?
yes
ah and that's why i can't prove the "necessary" part
yes
Okay. I'm happy now. Thank you!
Np
datorangeguy
derivations being maps $d : R \to R$ satisfying the product rule $d(fg) = gdf + fdg$
datorangeguy
I know of constructions such as $(x + y)\frac{\partial}{\partial z} + (x + z)\frac{\partial}{\partial y} + (y + z)\frac{\partial}{\partial x}$ which are defined over $R'$ but map symmetric polynomials to symmetric polynomials
datorangeguy
and similarly summing permutations from S_n over some polynomial symmetric in n-1 indeterminants, attached to the remaining nth partial derivative, will always work
R is all polynomials, R' are the symmetric polynomials?
other way, e_i are elementary symmetric polynomials in R
so R < R'
I have partial derivatives with respect to x_i are derivations defined over R', as are any R'-linear combination, but the right combination may restrict to a derivation R-> R
Super elementary proof, for some reason my brain cannot figure it out. Probably because I've been staring at a textbook for the past like 5 hours lol. Direction is appreciated.
Assume that a group < G, ∗ > has the property that if a ∗ b = c ∗ a, then b = c. Prove that G is
Abelian.
b(ab)=(ba)b for all a and b by associativity
DUH
Thank you lol. I knew there was some super small thing I was just not thinking off
After staring at my book for so long I think I just need a break lol
Yeah after a long time studying, it becomes really easy to mess up
Hey guys, why does the subgroup test on arbitrary subgroup elements a,b need the presence of ab^{-1} and not a^{-1}b^{-1}?
I was just wondering why the subgroup test only has one of the elements inversed, and if it matters
Try proving that something’s a subgroup using both things
One of them will work, the other will not
I think the issue comes that you won’t know e is in H
yeah, I feel like there is a hole somewhere but I can't see it
that makes sense
hmm
So the first part of 20 is pretty easy. <x> has 35 distinct elements and since G has order 35, x must generate G.
The 2nd part is what intrigues me. Is this still doable if all x satisfy x^33=e instead?
Why does <x> have 35 distinct elements?
Sniped

I think the case with 33 is like 10000000 times easier
Actually sorry, there that is not the order of x. My bad
I was a bit hasty there
Chmonkey prime
I’m like Grothendieck!
33 fails like
Okay, well one thing I do know for sure is that every x has order d where d| 35
5 is a fake number
Can we back up a bit. It seems I still need to figure out the first part
Honestly this is such a trash way to do this but
My brain instantly goes to the classification
Abelian is really important here but without just going to the classification idk a good argument for it lol
Wel
Okay I came up with one
Lol
So
How much hint
Do you want?
Or rather I’ll just lay out some facts
What are the possible orders for elements of G?
7,5 and 35
Oh true, but that's far less interesting. But fair point
But it’s very important for the rest of the argument haha
So what happens if you have an element of order 25
35*
Then my pseudo proof from before actually works :p
Yup
So let’s assume one doesn’t exist
So now you’re stuck with 7,5,1
Can you get a contradiction if you have some combination of these as well?
What are we contradicting here?
No element of order 35
Which is equivalent to just
Being cyclic haha
So we’re gonna show a non cyclic group can’t exist
Oh... That is kind of the point isn't it. :P
So anything come to mind?
Hmmm, a bit stuck
Either 5 or 1
Ah, cuz g^2 can't be e
That too
What about 7
So then we just have 1
Hmm,(hg)^7=e, this can't happen. Because g^7=e, but h^7 does not
So the only other possibility is 35
But!
That’s bad yeah?
So as a side note:
What you showed holds more generally
The fact the only possible orders are 5,7,35 helped but
You can show in general if gh = hg and the order of g and h are coprime
Then the order of gh is the product of order of g and order of h
You cannot weaken any of those conditions
And it isn’t true that the order is always the lcm, you really need coprimality
Oh, that's useful
So
That’s something you should prove sometime
But you don’t need
To for this application
Anyway so you can’t have an order 5 and an order 7 element
So you’re either all order 5 (and identity)
Or order 7 (and identity)
Let’s just assume order 7 for now okay
This again isn’t possible, but can you see why?
No, I don't see this one as clearly
Now consider the sets
{x,x^2,…,x^6}
Over all x of order 7
Each of these has exactly 6 distinct elements yeah?
And all of them are order 7
Yes
These sets partition the 34 elements
Because if two of them intersect
They’re actually equal
True
No, it most certainly does not
And then that has the same situation.
The partitions for order 5 would be {x,x^2,x^3,x^4}, but 4 does not divide 34
I knew what I was trying to say :p
Okay haha
So…
This group can’t exist
You’re outta options
Unless you have more than one order 1 element 
Which is obviously just impossible lol
Very true.
This is a nice case by case proof. Out of curiosity, is there a different way to approach this then cases?
sylow
Although this was helpful. I seriously need to think about all these nifty partitions
Anyway the same thing might work for 33

It is true that the abelian group of order 33 is gonna be cyclic
can't you take some semi direct products of Z5 and Z7?
to get a non abelian order 35 group
nope
But idk if the numbers work out so that this proof works
there is only one 5-sylow and one 7-sylow
