#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 613 of 407
right
like, when i first saw this exercise, i thought "this looks easy enough" but now here i am sooo confused.
What I'm hinting towards is that if H_1 is a subgroup of G_1, H_2 of G_2, then H_1 ⊕ H_2 is a subgroup of G_1 ⊕ G_2
So what you should try to see is that Zr is (isomorphic to) a subgroup of Zm, Zs (to) a subgroup of Zn
And so Zr ⊕ Zs is (isomorphic to) a subgroup of Zm ⊕ Zn
So in exercise 16 I showed that G_1 ≅ G_2 and H_1 ≅ H_2 implies that G_1 ⊕ H_1 ≅ G_2 ⊕ H_2.
Nice that is being used here
In this
Yeah I can feel that
Since here you don't actually have subgroups, but only isomorphic to subgroups
sure
hmmmm
so say
so say G is isomorphic to some subgroup H of some other group K. that is let G≅H for some H<K where K is a group. okay.
Can someone give an example of a genus 1 (smooth, projective etc.) curve over F_5 or F_7?
And a genus 2 one too
how can you have a curve over a finite field? o.o
i'm so close to throwing in the towel on this one. 😢
Ok so {0,2} is a subgroup of Z4 isomorphic to Z2
{0,2,4} in Z6 is isomorphic to Z3
And now this statement
And you can try and see why I chose those as subgroups specifically
i had an intuition that 4 and 6 were the interesting case as i was going to use those in a question before you proposed them. no i have a "feeling" for it sure
Yeah I chose them because they are small numbers which aren't prime, so have non trivial factors
okay so {0,2,4} < Z6 and also {0,2,4} ≅ Z3 because 3 elements and elements in {0mod6,2mod6,4mod6} are all either order 3 or the identity
is that what you're saying?
oh h
oh uh
ok one sec
to show {0,2,4} ≅ Z3:
Define ϕ from {0,2,4} to Z3 such that for a in {0,2,4}, we have ϕ(a) in Z3 where ϕ(amod6) = (a%2)mod3 (aka a modulo 2 or even "the remainder of the quotient of a with 2"). this gives ϕ(0mod6) = 0mod3, ϕ(2mod6) = 1mod3, and ϕ(4mod6) = 2mod3.
then show that the operation is bijective and operation-perserving
would be next
right?
4%2 = 2 ?
just define phi by decreeing what the images of 0,2,4 are, there is no need to find a fancy formula
oh lol whoops sorry
then you check that it is bijective and compatible with the group operations
sorry brain went fart. i just mean a/2
oh lol
ok so then I can go:
Assume ϕ(a) = ϕ(b) for a,b in {0,2,4}. ϕ(a) = ϕ(b) ⇒ ϕ(amod6) = ϕ(bmod6) ⇒ (a/2)mod3 = (b/2)mod3 ⇒ a = b. that gives injectivity.
You can also just read off an explicit inverse for example (ngl I would be tempted to say its just obviously bijective lol)
but yeah, sure
Surjectivity:
Let g in Z3. Then 2g is in {0,2,4} and ϕ(2g) = (2g/2)mod3. perfect.
Right
I meant over the closure of those fields
m1/m1m2 is an A/m2-module
and finally a,b in {0,2,4} implies ab in {0,2,4} implies ϕ(ab) in Z3 and so ϕ(ab) = (ab/2)mod3 = (1/2)(amod3)(bmod3) = (1/2)ϕ(a)ϕ(b) WHAT
whoops i meant 2
it's also an A-module I guess
A/m modules are also A modules because A/m is an A-algebra
what are the operations of your groups
element-wise composition
just define a.(m mod M) = am mod M
my coffee keeps getting cold because i take so long to type this 😢 lol
Well right now you are talking about Z3 and Z6
So element wise doesn't make sense
is this a theorem in the book
And you are talking about integers mod n, not functions so composition doesn't make sense
so my ϕ is no good right?
you're using concrete groups so you want a concrete operation, not an abstract "it's just group composition lol"
By what zef said. More generally an A-algebra B is a homomorphism A → B. A B-module M is a homomorphism B →M
There's an obvious A-module structure on M by composing these 2
Wait why are you dividing stuff

so you have defined phi : {0;2;4} -> {0;1;2} by phi(x)=x/2 but then you are stuck you don't actually know what the operations are on Z6 and Z3 ?
from {0,2,4} to {0,1,2}
an A submodule is a A/x submodule just be restricting the scalars yeah?
A submodule of A/x module?
okay yeah so ϕ(amodb) = (a/2)mod(b/2) is fine and all except i am finding that ϕ in this case is not operation-preserving?
i mean take a submodule of an A-module
you don't actually know what the operations are on Z6 and Z3
you check what the operations are
Z is not a Z/2Z module even though it's a Z module
o.o
At least not in any non trivial way
how
by looking back at when you were told what groups Z3 and Z6 are
um back to my question, m1/m1m2 is a A/m2-Module, how do we know its also an A-module
i dont really get what you said
It's an A-module originally lol
you're doing things the wrong way what I would do is first show it's an A-module with the obvious definition then show it's an A/m2-module by checking m2 annihilates stuff
It's a quotient of an A module by an A-submodule
oh right
But still you can use the same argument if you want. A/m2 modules are A modules by this
if m1/m1m2 was noetherian as A/m_2 module why also as A module?
Being an A/I module means being an A module, but not the other way around (unless I is contained in the annihilator, first isomorphism theorem)
A-submodules of an A/m module are also A/m submodules
because when you are an A/m2-module, sub-A/m2-modules are the same as sub-A-modules
A-submodule ?
All respect has been lost
R-vector-space-sub
A -> A reduction of I like that u mean?
R-vector-space-dom
Didn't get you
by applying the first iso theorem
we can see that A/I is isomorphic to a submodule of A, (A- module)
is that wt u meant
ok nw
ty @hidden haven for your help
i'm still a little stuck but i think i'll get there now
I'm back 😌
Do you see this @novel parrot
Yeah I was just saying how first isomorphism theorem is relevant
Say I have a group G isomorphic to Z_r ⊕ Z_s. So g in G look like ( g_1 modr, g_2 mods), right?
Yep
How?
isomorphically
Z doesn't contain a copy of Z/2Z
so (g_1 modr, g_2 mods) must be in Z_m ⊕ Z_n whenever r|m and s|n, right?
i mean it contains the elements
of A/x
but not the structure
Yes but not isomorphically
ok
Yes
But that embedding will actually not give you a subgroup
...uhhhhhhh
Do you see why?
so how do A/m1 module become A module?
gimme a sec
End(M), for an abelian group M, has a ring structure with pointwise addition and composition. With this, an A-module M is exactly an abelian group M, with a ring homomorphism A → End(M) (which defines the scalar multiplication)
Try proving this equivalence
It's extremely useful because now you can use stuff you know about ring homomorphisms to study module stuff
It's similar to how an A-algebra B is exactly a ring B with a homomorphism A → B
Yes
i dnt understand why this is needed
Because once you have this, you have also a homomorphism from A to A/m. Then a homomorphism from A/m to End(M) allows composition to get a homomorphism A → A/m → End(M), which is an A module
(g_1 modr,g_2 mods) is in Z_m ⊕ Z_n whyyyyyyyy
definition of Zm and Zn
it feels like (g_1 modr,g_2 mods) and (g_1 modm,g_2 modn) have nothing to do with each other.
ill try this
whats r and s
r and s are defined by the fact that r|m and s|n.
The exercise in question is "If r is a divisor of m and s is a divisor of n, find a subgroup of Z_m ⊕ Z_n that is isomorphic to Z_r ⊕ Z_s."
but wait
If r | m and s | n, then is it true that Z_r ⊕ Z_s < Z_m ⊕ Z_n?
Yeah they don't have anything to do with each other, I assumed that you meant that you are interpreting the 1,2,3 in mod r as 1,2,3 mod m
start with a few small m,n and r,s and look to generalize it
But you can embed Zr into Zm when r | m
Recall the example of Z2 in Z4
What was the embedding?
ok so r | m implies Zr < Zm yes?
And the one of Z3 in Z6
Yes
just take the elements that have order r and s
r | m implies Zr < Zm (and similarly for s,n)... so if Zr is automorphic, which it is, we're done? that seems like a copout.
I'm sorry my thick head isn't getting this folks. I really appreciate all your help though.
where did you find that "automorphic" word
Zr isn't exactly a subgroup of Zm, it's isomorphic to one, and you have to identify which one
Then every group is automorphic via identity lol
but this?
it is
This lol
but u want a subgroup of Zm that is isomorphic to Zr
I still don't know what is Zn and what is the group operation on Zn
Jade you should start with saying what it is precisely, and then write down all subgroups of it
"If r is a divisor of m and s is a divisor of n, find a subgroup of Z_m ⊕ Z_n that is isomorphic to Z_r ⊕ Z_s." or was that like sarcasmish-type joke?
that's kinda difficult for an abstract n
o_o um ok let's see
And then you can say what exactly the pattern is
but for real, jadeejade I remember you being confused at what were the group operations on Z3 and Z6, and unless I missed something during lunch, I haven't seen you dig out the definitions and write what the operations are
Z1 < Z1, okay. Z1 < Z2 and Z2 < Z2, okay. Z1 < Z3 and Z3 < Z3, ...right?
Pardon? like the definitions and operations of Z3 and Z6?
oh i thought they were asking about the ⊕
how do you do the direct sum notation symbol btw?
we weren't doing the direct sum of groups problem back then I think
it's a unicode character idk
do you have a definition of Zn anywhere
this is the only exercise i've been talking about this whole time as far as i'm aware
this is exercise 19 in chapter 8 of Gallian's textbook Contemporary Abstract Algebra
oh in the book the definition of Zn is
The set Zn = {0, 1, . . . , n - 1} for n >= 1 is a cyclic group under addition modulo n.
a million times yes
right
that's the group operation
right
is this in the donald atiyah book
so back then you used the wrong one
... the wrong operation for ab?
well either you read it as multiplication and gave up, either you didn't remember that composition was addition mod n and gave up
uhh one sec
wait so are you saying that my logic wrt the operation-preserving property of ϕ was marred by mixing up addition with multiplication?
well you never looked at the operation that was supposed to be preserved
what is 4 composed with 4 in Z6 ?
(4)(4) = 2mod6
and we prefer to write that as 4+4 = 2 mod 6
sure
and is phi(4+4 mod 6) = phi(4) + phi(4) mod 3 ?
yes
then it's good
Not sure, but you can also turn A/m modules into A modules by defining a•v = am • v as zef said
you can check 0+0, 0+2, 0+4, 2+2, 2+4 if you want
you will find it does preserve the group operations
so your phi is an isomorphism from ({0;2;4} , addition mod 6) to ({0;1;2}, addition mod 3) = Z3
lemme go have a look on the subgroups definitions
This is doing exactly the general thing if you notice, the map from A to A/m is a ↦ am, and then we do the homomorphism of scalar multiplication
and ϕ(2+4 mod 6) = ϕ(0 mod 6) = 0 mod 3 with ϕ(2 mod 6) + ϕ(4 mod 6) = 2 mod 3 + 1 mod 3 = 0 mod 3? cool!
OKAY AWESOME so my ϕ does work in general?
The idea behind this is: "multiplication by an element a" is an endomorphism of the module M
ahh ok
and it is isomorphic to Z3
but !
when we say "Z3 is a subgroup of Z6"
there is potential for confusion
well yeah i'm confused right now lmao
after all, Z3 = {0;1;2} with some other operation
not as much as when I got here though!
and {0;1;2} can be understood as a subset of Z6
sure
but we don't want to say that {0;1;2} is a subgroup of Z6 because that's false
so when we say Z3 is a subgroup of Z6
we always mean
Z3 is isomorphic to a subgroup of Z6
your phi is an isomorphism from Z3 to {0;2;4} with addition mod 6
{0;2;4} is a subset of Z6 that makes it a subgroup of Z6
so Z3 is isomorphic to a subgroup of Z6
so what you're saying is
and that has less potential for confusion than "Z3 is a subgroup of Z6" that can be interpreted as "{0;1;2} is a subgroup of Z6"
Z3 < Z6 can only be resolved through this ϕ
that is otherwise it would necessarily just be a subset
like the elements of Zm can't be understood modulo n without invoking this structure
yeah
but do any of the elements of Zm ever "change" if you change the modulo/modulation?
or map anywhere i guess you'd say
sorry if i'm being vague
well in this book the elements of Zn are defined as the numbers 0 to n-1
sure
other books would define Zn in another way
the element would be equivalence classes of numbers
and then you would have Zn is actually disjoint from Zm if you look at them as sets
how much does changing the modulo/modulation change the structure of the residues?
or how can i quantity/qualify that
I'm not sure what that's asking
so then the elements "0" "1" and "2" in Z3
are not the same as the "0" "1" and "2" in Z6
so there is less potential confusion when saying Z3 is a subgroup of Z6
it automatically means Z3 is isomorphic to a subgroup of Z6
because Z3 wasn't a subset of Z6 to begin with
technically
and this ϕ is unique in constructing that bridge, and ⊕ inherits that structure?
in what chapter is the ⊕ exercise
right lmao
chapter 8. the whole chapter is just on ⊕ lol
exercise 19
well google won't let me read that far
so when we say A is a subgroup of B, most of the time we are talking about some isomorphism
the whole pdf for edition 8 is online somewhere, which is the edition i'm using
and not necessarily some actual inclusion
also sometimes there can be several isomorphisms possible
so it's always nicer to know which one we are talking about
that's interesting
you could have had psi(0) = 0 psi(2) = 2 and psi(4) = 1
oh so ϕ is not unique?
in general?
it would just be messier to write it out?
sometimes*
so in fact, when someone says "remember that Zn is a subgroup of Zkn, blablabla", you should always write "remember how we have phi : Zn -> Zkn defined by phi(x mod n) = kx mod kn, is an injective group morphism, blablabla"
so there can be lots of stuff said implicitly
sure. ok so i have my group that is isomorphic to some external direct product of residues of Z modulo whatever.
i know that so long as this isn't the trivial case that this group exists and is not trivial
I got a pdf for 7th edition
probably good enough.
a maths professor of mine who specialized in Galois groups and something else that he connected them to told me to do every exercise in this book years ago so i am and yeah lol
yeah, 17 in yours
is there an exercise saying that if r divides m then find a subgroup of Zm isomorphic to Zr ?
the book is pretty much a book of exercises but yeah the reading material is rather sparse
ch.4 ex.47 "Let G be a cyclic group of order n and let H be the subgroup of order d. Show that H = {x in G | |x| divides d}."
i've already done Ch.4 Ex.47. I'm quoting it as a result we can use.
just read dummit and footes algebra book
lol

as in classify all simple groups of order <= 10000 ?

and yeah lol it doesn't say ANYTHING except the definition of direct sum and the chinese remainder theorem though it doesn't say it's chinese remainder theorem
the book is only for the exercises
it doesn't even say "if H is a subgroup of G then H + K is a subgroup of G + K"
which is occasionally useful
We also have Ch.6 Ex.53: "Let a belong to a group G and let |a| be finite. Let ϕa be the automorphism of G given by ϕa(x) = axa^-1. Show that |ϕa| divides |a|. Exhibit an element a from a group for which 1 < ϕa| < |a|."
I'm not sure that's going to be relevant
well what i mean is the converse of lagrange's theorem is not true
so yeah if I were you I would prove "if H is a subgroup of G then H + K is a subgroup of G + K"
but yeah no i checked them all, nothing
at least, before this point in the book
forgive me for not having a fancy (+) key on my keyboard
is fine
well i mean I have what I think is a very useful result that G ≅ G ⊕ {e_H}...
for both directions
that's a later example
it even quotes the exercise in question
oh wait is that in ch. 8?
It's a set with a topology and a commutative group operation such that the 2 group operations: multiplication and inversion, are continuous
and it also assumes that " if H is a subgroup of G then H + K is a subgroup of G + K" has been already magically absorbed by the reader
for each divisor, eh?1
u mean 2 set operations?
or like
hm
whats inversion
x ↦ x⁻¹
G x G with the product topology
A function is continuous if the inverse image of every open set is open
Yes
And the continuity of the group operations with respect to that topology is a compatibility condition
Z_m ⊕ Z_n having a subgroup isomorphic to Z_r ⊕ Z_s if r|m and s|n is like saying Z_m ⊕ Z_n has a subgroup isomorphic to Z_r ⊕ Z_s if <m/r> ⊕ <n/s> < Z_m ⊕ Z_n???
im not really familiar with topology 
Compatibility between the 2 structures you've put on G
wtf your book does morphisms after isomorphisms ??

I think that's actually somewhat standard
isomorphism is more of a fundamental concept imo
like, two things being equivalent
am i right?? o.o
hmm maybe
I'm not sure what " <m/r> ⊕ <n/s> < Z_m ⊕ Z_n" means and if it's equivalent with "r divides m and s divides n"
That seems so backwards dude…
Like you have to explain what it means to be a group hom to get an isomorphism yeah? It’s not just an invertible map
So why not introduce the maps which respect the structure and then say if it’s invertible it’s an iso
Like idk, even showing the inverse of a hom is always a hom is nontrivial and you need to know what a hom is to show that
yes, it's part of the definition of an isomorphism
an isomorphism is a function which satisfies .....
you just dont label the first part as a "morphism" until later
An arrow with 1 arrow head is simpler than an arrow with 2 arrow heads 

so what are we taking the closed sets as?
let me guess, you also think that abstract algebra classes should define magmas, loops, and semigroups before groups
God no
because those structures have a subset of axioms of a group
Those are trash
If r|m and s|n, then <m/r> ⊕ <n/s> < Z_m ⊕ Z_n and <m/r> ⊕ <n/s> ≅ Z_r ⊕ Z_s so we are done.
what's the order of H there ?
is it cyclic ?
I just think talking about what maps exist first makes more sense
Closed sets are sets whose complements are open
wait it says order d already
A topological group doesn’t have a fixed topology
isomorphisms between groups are operation-preserving bijective maps
oh
Like, it isn’t “we take these to be the closed sets”
It’s the choice of group structure with a choice of topology
And they have to play nice
A better definition is operation preserving invertible maps 
ok
Example, give any group the discrete topology it’s now a topological group
But that’s not very interesting
idk what discrete topology is lmao
Every set is open
Everything is open
It makes every map from it continuous
And therefore everything is closed 
You can also take the indiscrete topology
Then everything that can be not open is not open
the noisy topology
is this my answer for 8-19?
Anyway let’s hop to topology to talk about topological groups more
that was super hard to read but yeah
The question you originally posted?
yes
Looks good 
I kept thinking there was a > missing
my brain trying to match brackets
and I was like "no wait this is the subgroup generated by stuff thing and this one just says subgroup"
"it actually makes sense"
Good enough for me.
Thanks everyone. 😄
how did y'all get to be so good at this stuff?
😛
lots of tears
Speak for yourself 😎
Practice
I really appreciate this help. I don't really have anyone in my daily life that has much clue about this advanced stuff. Even those that are supposedly good at math ha
Remote learning or self study? 
This is self-study.
I have a mathematics minor from university.
but i consider mathematics to be essential for personal development
engineer by trade
that book tells you so little in the chapters
use dummit and foote instead 🙂
and then "here, have 80 exercises"

your only about 50 pages in dummit and foote
I enjoy the problem-solving process. That is the most important part for me. The subject matter is a bonus hah.
I promise I'll take a look at it.
Wut
you will enjoy dummit and foote alot more and learn more!!
I'm excited that I'm almost through the Part on Groups though
I messed up
ok ok I'll take a look at it right now
gah paywalls
ok maybe later
dummit and foote is the best algebra book
even with all the extra words
still the best
Are the tensors in physics just elements of a tensor product?
I've seen talk of rank n tensors though so I'm not sure
arnt tensors in physics just n dimensional vectors
like how in python u can put a list inside of a list n times lol
idk but in programming they call those tensors i think

Depends lol in physics for me tensors were introduced like this, being multilinear maps V x... x V x V* x... x V*->F, in first year, and then later on there are restrictions on how they transform ig
Yeah
they are sections of tensor products of the tangent and cotangent bundles ?
I see
This professor was a string theorist so his stuff is a bit more normal lol
Well mathematical
Well, compared to the maths taught by less mathematical physicists and looking at it from a maths perspective lol
Yes
BRITISH
I am a brit oof
In constant awe the English manage to get their own language wrong

I agree math makes more sense lol
zed
😔
Yeah they’re based on the BRITISH ENGLISH
Zed zed top
then why did you say based?????
Ok lol
sometimes I call it that ironically though
Oof
O K
If it was like
Some dumb European country
Then smh
No place to speak
European country tierlist:
America > everything else
ok
🇺🇸
Haha America isn't in Europe stupid American
That’s because Europe doesn’t matter enough

I think Australia gets a pass to be cool
They’re kind of like the Australian America
someone else did that last time smh
Can't even speak the language they claimed to have invented 😎
Curious!
Okay okay okay so hear me out ok
If the English speak the right thing English
Why does every other country learn English like an American
OWNED
If this isn’t true then stfu
Not even true
Those countries learning British English aren’t even learning English
Wtf
I just got a notification from Adobe acrobat on my phone

stupid american
:(
Half of the world learnt American English because MS Word defaults to American English.
British English is called that because it's the British version, but the American version is called English because it's the original
tensors are a generalization of scalars/vectors/matrices. they are basically just rank n transformations on elements of nm-space kinda


Why am I cursing these hallowed lands of #groups-rings-fields with shitposting, that belongs in #point-set-topology
Oh so you admit saying america > Britain is a shitpost? owned
Isn't #point-set-topology for weebs and degenerates
No #point-set-topology is the hangout place
Anything about Britain is a shitpost
Shitposting can be correct
Gotem
Some claim that Rudin was just an elaborate shitpost
it was
The Weil conjectures were shitposts that happened to be true
and were predicted by Nostradamus
Huh
if anyone has a problem with this feel free to meet me outside of the next AMS conference on the west coast lmao
This feels nothing like the math tensor lol
this is inspired by what i learned from Dr. Rabin, a high-dimensional manifolds type dude
Also on the topic of tensors, when would mathematicians talk about tensors having to satisfy certain transformation rules - is that in a diff geo context?
gosh more than just diff geo i'd imagine
In diff geo you have exterior products which are multilinear maps but alternating 
yeah
I just find it weird physicists imposing certain rules, even just like how vectors transform, sometimes
But idk outside of that I've only seen tensors as the tensor products, not individual tensors as maps
Yes
thank you
If it has a non-zero vector, that'll span the entire space
yeah
i am having trouble understanding the dual space of a vector space
i know the definition
but am i supposed to be able to visualize all the linear functionals somehow?
no
depends on the vector space
say we have an element x of a vector space X of rank k. then we can associate any tensor T with dimensions n₀ × ... × nᵢ × k to the left of x to get an element y with dimensions n₀ × ... × nᵢ × 1.
latex looks better than unicode 
Tx = y
Finite dimensional vector spaces are easy examples. Linear functionals on an n-dimensional F-vector space V are just 1xn matrices
Because they are linear transformations from V ~ F^n to F once you fix a basis of V
The infinite dimensional case is also similar. You're just choosing an element in F for each basis element
ok ok but wait i haven't gotten to transformations on my book
whoa
ask Halmos
Do you know what a basis is?
yes
ok i gotta get back to real work now. anyway thanks everyone.
a linear funcitonal is a homogenous function from the space to the field
that's it isnt it
Ok so a functional on V is the same as just a function from a basis B of V to F
Because if you give me a function from B to F, it can be "linearly extended", uniquely, to get a functional on V
Not sure what homogeneous means here
And conversely a functional gives you a function from B to F by just restricting it to B
These 2 are inverse bijections
And so it's sometimes easier to just think of a functional as a function from a basis to F
But I think it will be clearer once you read about linear maps
Because they're just special cases of linear maps
And knowing about linear maps will give you vocabulary to talk about this easily
ok thank you
homogenous means T(av + bw) = aT(v) + bT(w)
a, b scalars, v, w vectors
Right that's what linear is too
Except linear maps go from vector space to vector space instead of vector space to field
The right side still makes sense in a vector space
we did define already an isomorphism
which is a map from V to W that is linear
linear maps go from V to V?
Isomorphism is not just a linear map from V to W
It's an invertible linear map
Or a bijective linear map
yeah ofc
For part (a), isn't every finite field isomorphic to some F_p?
maybe it suggests p prime so you could look at F_p^2 or something like that
Finite fields are 𝔽_{pⁿ}, not just 𝔽ₚ
what is the different between the bracketed red part and part c
isn't this subgroup mentioned in C literally Cayley's theorem?
yes
u prove it with part a and b
and first isomorphism theorem
how does A_o become a subring of A
A_0A_i < A_i for everyy i so it can "handle" multiplication from every A_i
but then what
I dunno what this is lol
A_0A_0 is a subset of A_0
ook
So you can multiply elements and it stays in A_0
take a homomorphism, f: G -> H, G/Ker is isomorphic to Im(H)
so in ur case, kernel is 0
so G is isomorphic to the image on S_G
and images are subgroups
what is G / Ker(f)
They are exactly the same lmao
In fact the stuff in red brackets is more general because (c) restricts it to finite groups for some reason
is there any other example of graded rings except polynomial rings?
is there an obvious one that i dont know
thats just summing everything except A_0 ya?
in algebraic topology there's something called the "cohomology ring"
you can associate it to a topological space
maybe an easier example is the exterior algebra generated by a vector space.

Or tensor algebra too I suppose? 
yeah.
i dont know anythign about any of those
so the tensor algebra is like the polynomial ring except variables don't commute.
Tensor algebra should be easy since you know what a tensor product is
but what are the subgroups
so you have like, "polynomials" of the form xyzyzyx
In number theory the space of all modular forms is a graded ring.
they'd still be the homogeneous "polynomials" of degree n, like in the case of polynomial rings
the exterior algebra over k in variables x1... xn is also like the polynomial ring except that instead of multiplication being commutative, it's anticommutative in the sense that x_i * x_j = -x_j * x_i
this could be slightly wrong
ActiveChapter
so any x in A is actually an ordered pair yeah?
i dont really understand homogenous
yeah, sure, you can think of it that way. or it's a formal linear combination of ordered pairs
every element is a finite sum (n_1,x_1) + (n_2,x_2) .... + (n_k,x_k) where n_1 < n_2 < ... n_k and x_k \in A_k
something like that
and (n,x)+ (n,y) = (n,x+y)
except that we impose the law (n,0)=0 for n, where i guess 0 here denotes the empty sum.
you might not see it written as an ordered pair but you can always give an isomorphism to another module where the elements are actually pairs
ok ...
a homogeneous element is a sum with only one term, so just (n,x)
it's a ring, so there's an addition and a multiplication law
the multiplication law is required to satisfy
(n, x) * (m,y) = (n+m,z )
for some z depending on x and y
the actual elements of A are just (x1, x2, ... , xn, ...) where x_i is in A_i and multipliying two of these ordered pairs we get another pair that has its points in A_i
its like that right?
but errr multiplication isnt defined on the subgroups?

where do i have measure theory channel
well if this works for measure theory what is the K set there
A group is binary operation which is associative with an identity and such that every element has an inverse, they want you to show that the only ring where the multiplication has these properties is the zero ring
in a non-trivial ring, the best you can ask from multiplication is that the non-zero elements form a group
ie you have a division ring/field
that problem is asking for something slightly stronger: you want everything (including 0) to be invertible
Broke: field
Woke: division ring
in algebraic topology there's something called the "cohomology ring"
you can associate it to a topological space
if you're not referring to the poincare connection idk
what you're referring to
the cup product makes the direct sum of groups $H^\ast(X; R) = \bigoplus_{i=0}^\infty H^i(X;R)$ into a (graded-commutative) ring
goblin shamrock
for R a commutative ring
or alternatively, the wedge product of differential forms makes the direct sum of de rham cohomology groups of a manifold into a ring
they're isomorphic so it doesn't really matter
ye and the isomorphism is poincare lemma or theorem or whatever
It's de rham's theorem
The poincare lemma is that the de rham cohomology of a contractible manifold is zero
ok sorry I'm still stuck on this
I do not get how normality / kernals would help me answer this
I have an answer
G = the identity permutation, A_3, or S_3
but I just said that and gave examples of valid homomorphisms
not sure how I can leverage normality or the kernal of phi
the image is isomorphic to the quotient group G/ker(phi)
haven't learned isomorphism theorems

what did they expect from u 
I've learned about quotient groups in my intro to proofs class
but we never covered it in this class
uh
like what isomorphisms and homomorphisms are

I've learned what a normal subgroup is
and I know what a kernal is
Just choose any three elements of order 2 of G (not necessarily different) then map (12),(23),(13) to those three elements respectively
the identity, the alternating group, and S_3 itself
this is gibberish to me
never learned order

tf is ur class doing
The order of an element g of G is the smallest integer n such that g^n=1. If no such n exists we say the order of g is infinite
well if Ker(phi) = {id} then we only have that phi(id) = id and so everything else must map to a non-identity element
and vise versa if Ker(phi) is S_3 then for all s in S_3 we have phi(s) = id
ok
i will take it from here
ty 😭
yes you are correct
so have you shown that if the kernel is trivial group the map is injective
then we have isomorphism?
that intuitively makes sense
6 items map to 6 items injectively so it must be surjective etc.
now in reverse when the kernel is the whole group the image is the identity, which u got yes
that ends two cases
now to deal with A_n
wait
I mean we are mapping into the image, which makes this always surjective
We don’t need a finiteness condition
I mean I answered the question but here's how I answered it
I know trivially mapping phi(s) to the identity is a homomorphism
i can't read i thought it was from S_3 to S_3 but kekw
the identity function is a homomorphism
what john said is good
actually wait
Oh my bad, I thought you needed to classify all φ but it’s φ(S_3) not φ… spamakin is right just calculate all normal subgroups of S_3 and take quotient. The only non-trivial one is A_3 I think
uh
at first glance im not seeing it immediately
im still kind of thinking about how to do A_3
There’s no need to think so hard about this, just think about what the size of The quotient
he doesn't have first iso
this is gibberish to me
So do you know what quotient groups are yet?
from my intro to proofs class but hasn't been covered in this class
I see
so in theory I am to solve this without that
Yeah sorry I’ll let metal guide then
wait 😭 john don't abandon me im still thinking too
im lowkey working out the problem with spam tbh
but i have suspicions
product of two odd permutations is even right
yes
you might be able to use this fact
This will directly giv you what@you need
so what will end up happening is that
id = phi(odd*odd) = phi(odd)*phi(odd)
uh


is this right
That’s correct metal.
so one homomorphism is
phi(a) = a if a in A_3 and phi(a) = id otherwise?
That would not be a homomorphism, no, you meant the other way around
what
S3 is a pretty small group, honestly just check what the homomorphism has to be
Wait wait so find normal subgroups, set those as kernals, identity transformation the rest?
By testing it out on all elements
right but I learn nothing from this
I am confused and just doing this solves my problem but still leaves me confused
I mean you learn nothing from this problem in general IMO cause you have no tools
Like it would give you insight if you could use first iso or whatever
But as it is right now it’s kind of just a computation problem
I mean ok the only think interesting about isomorphisms and kernals that I have learned
Here I meant when the kernel is A3 in particular
is something similar to lin alg and solutions
so if we have phi(x) = g
the set of all solutions x to this is 1 particular solution + any element in ker(phi)
is that what first the isomorphism theorem is?
Hmm not exactly
Yeah that’s the main insight, everything after that is computations
and define the rest of the function as just mapping an element to itself if it isn't in the kernal?
I mean it’s not a map to itself so that doesn’t exactly make sense right
lemme word it better
the process is
find some normal subgroup N of S_3
define phi: S_3 to S_3 such that
phi(n) = id if n in N
phi(n) = n if n not in N
?????
This is not a homomorphism then.
hm
What I’d say is, force your kernel to be something and see what falls out
And the@map is not@in general going into S3
right but it's up to isomorphism right?
so arbitrarily I can pick G as subsets of S_3
What I’ll say about A3 is that every odd permutation differs by an even permutation from each other
No.
and everything else is just isomorphic?
I was careless. You need to divide the problem in several cases. Case 1 G has no element of order 2, then the answer is {1}. Case 2 G has elements of order 2 and there doesn’t exist two elements of order 2 of G such that their multiplication has order 3 then the answer is {1},Z/2Z. Case 3 there exists two elements of order 2 of G whose multiplication has order 3 then the answer is {1}, Z/2Z and S_3
You wont have the image@be a subgroup necessarily
You are annihilating everything@in the@kernel yes
But elements in the kernel also interacts with everything else right
For example take a map from Z whose kernel is 2Z
You cannot describe this image as a subgroup of Z
right
(The image is called the quotient)
What are you talking about . S_3/A_3 is isomorphic to Z/2Z
But yeah so as I said
He said “up to isomorphism”
.
Of course the image is a group
It’s obvious from context I mean it’s not a subgroup of itself…
OIC
@hidden haven just made this as a thank you gift 🙂
This is pretty good lol
Nice
don't understand most of it though 
There's just too much to learn. 
is this just asking me to show that the images of Z under each ring's initial homomorphism are isomorphic?
is it referring to this sorta definition? "The characteristic is the natural number n such that nZ is the kernel of the unique ring homomorphism from Z to R"
I'm not sure; I wasn't given any definition in class
I think that's the definition that the problem is referring to. Use this definition to show that characteristics of isomorphic rings are the same
the things are indeed equivalent, since Z/ker(i) = Z/nZ = im(i), so if im(i) = im(j), then Z/nZ = Z/mZ so m =n (up to a sign). conversely, if m = n, then nZ = mZ and so im(i) = im(j)
It's true that if there is an injective homomorphism between finite groups
then that homomorphism is an isomorphism?
No. An injective endomorphism would be an isomorphism tho
Ye
another way to do it is to use the uniqueness of the initial homomorphism (which is pretty much what your argument uses when you say Z/nZ=Z/mZ implies nZ=mZ). If R,S are your two rings, and phi:R->S the isomorphism, then you could have said phi∘i is a ring hom Z->S, which by uniqueness of the initial hom implies j=phi∘i. This gives us ker(j)=ker(phi∘i), and ker(phi∘i)=ker(i) because phi is an isom.
imma have to go through and prove and disprove those
This is just a fact about functions between finite sets
Also, a counter example to what you asked would be the unique map {e} -> G for any G != {e}
How/why is the curve y^2=x^3+1 a projective curve?
Doesn't a projective curve mean something that arises as roots of a homogeneous polynomial?
Yes you need to homogenize it first
y^2=x^3+1 is an affine curve
The corresponding projective curve is y^2z=x^3+z^3
Isn't that a surface?

I was thinking of A^3
Yee
Arigato
@prisma ibex Won't homegenouzing the polynomial also introduce one extra rational point?
(0:1:0)
It will yes
The affine elliptic curve is the projective elliptic curve minus the point at infinity (which is the identity for the group law on the elliptic curve)
So when we say that we need to consider the rational points on the curve y^2=x^3+1
Do we include the point at infinity?
It depends


