#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 612 of 407
so, for example, you have 1 in <r^2> in <f, r^2> in D8
a chain containing 4 subgroups nested inside each other, beginning with 1 and ending with D8
and all of the inclusion of each subgroup in the next are as normal subgroups
and the quotients are all C2
Yep
btw, so remember how I said the first non-solvable group is of order 60?
Mmhmm
there's this mathematician who has a bunch of numbers as his banner on his youtube channel
and they all have some significance, and people are supposed to figure those out on their own
60 is one of them, and I guarantee you it's because it's the order of the first non-solvable group
Nice
by the way, unfortunately, it is in general very difficult to understand the structure of a group given the structures of a normal subgroup and that of the quotient by it
but we do have a classification of all finite simple groups
My problem is, when you reduce D8 to C2s, where does the information in the semidirect product go?
so this very difficult problem is actually the barrier between our current mathematical knowledge and a complete classification of finite groups
you lose it
these representations are not unique
i.e. the elementary abelian group of order 8 has the same series
well, good luck
you were talking about "proving" this. What would I need to prove?
not so much proving, as making it formal
because right now, you have a vague idea, but you can't express it formally
there's not even a statement to try to prove yet
and I can warn you that what you're trying to do is very difficult, but I don't want to discourage you from trying, cause your mathematical understanding could still benefit from trying even if this approach is a dead end
I think I would want to prove the version of D8 in E16 has is isomorphic to the real D8
the C2 x C2 x C2 x C2 with 1 degree of linear dependence
which I am claiming represents all aspects of D8
well, it's not clear to me what that means
you would agree that D8 =/= C2 x C2 x C2, right?
yeah
I would be trying to prove something like
D8 ≅ (C₂×C₂×C₂) ∪ (C₂×C₂×C₂) ∈ C₂×C₂×C₂×C₂
the split of 2 (C₂×C₂×C₂) is because of the two kinds of cosets
that's not standard notation
∈ stands for inclusion as an element of a set, not a subset
and even if you did mean subset
you can't get D8 as a subgroup of C2 x C2 x C2 x C2
right, because you also have to add in that linearly dependent contraint
D8 =/= C₂×C₂×C₂×C₂
It is like how a circle can be draw in ℝ²
how do you use "linear dependence" to get D8 here?
so going back to this, you see how every element is both in a column and a row?
well, look, I'm probably going to sleep soon
so someone else might pick this up
I'm just gonna watch something on youtube first, probably
thanks for your help 
nice to talk to you
If you are represent the column as a C₂×C₂ group, and the row as another C₂×C₂ group, every element is defined in the two contexts, and is the common factor that makes the two contexts linearly dependent
So an element would be represented by two linearly dependent klien four groups
given the theorem
If S is any set of vectors in a vector space and if M is the subspace spanned by S, then M is the same set as the set of all linear combinations of the elements of S
prove the theorem
If U and W are any two subspaces and if M is the subspace spanned by U and W together, then M is the same set as the set of all vectors of the form u + w, with u member of U and w member of W
i have that so far
am i close? :x
I think you are proving span(the union of U and W)=U+W right? It’s directly derived from the definition
Any Linear combination of elements from the union of U and W is of the form u+w
So it should be union not sum in your picture
?? Almost just definition
i think it's wrong
Are you sure “span of U and V together” doesn’t mean span(U \cup V)?
right
so the union of the span of two lines, for example
is that plane
not the two lines
Well why do u have span(U+V) written then?
The theorem you want to prove is span(U \cup V) = U+V
The theorem ur given is span(S) = {finite linear combos of elements of S}
Huh? Yes that is what U+V means
Or wait what. No U+V is the set of all u+v with u in U and v in V
yes
And you just go ahead check that span(U \cup W)=U+W
I really can’t see what’s the obstacle
but i know that, since U and W are subspaces
their span = the subspace
no?
so from my picture im 1 step away?
U \cup V is not a subspace. U+ V is
sure
Anyway, u just gotta directly apply the theorem ur given about span
In fact, depending on how u defined span, one of these inclusions might be obvious
Namely, if you define span(S) to be the smallest subspace containing S
thats my definition of span yes
my problem isnt imagining the objects
its writing the proof
thats where im weakest
You’ll want to use the definition of span to show that span(U\cup V) is contained in U+V and use the theorem ur given for the other inclusion
If u need a hint lmk
thank you
@potent briar I actually just had a homework problem related to this. This is my first proofs class, so I'm not sure how good the proof is.
i would restate the claim as W1 U W2 is a vector subspace of V if and only if W1 subset W2 or W2 subseteq W1
Can someone please tell me if I’m going in the right direction for this? (Part a). My idea was to take a look at the intersection of the preimage of 0 for all the functions in M and pick one for our ‘c’ but I’m not sure how to show such an element would exist in the first place. I feel like I’m either missing something very straightforward or I’m thinking about it totally wrong. My other idea was to take a look at the quotient map R/M but I’m not sure where to go from there
Here is a hint, ||proceed via contradiction, and show that for every x in [0,1] there is a function f_x st f_x(x)/=0. Now by continuity show that we can even create an open set U_x st x is in U_x and f_x is never zero on U_x. Notice that U_x forms an open cover||
@gritty sparrow proceeding by contradiction makes sense, I’m a little stuck on the open cover part though
Which part are you stuck on, the existence of U_x or showing that it is a cover?
Oh I should have worded things a little carefully, the collection {U_x | x in [0,1]} is a cover, not just some particular U_x
Ok, so since it’s covering a compact set we can find a finite subcover, say U_{x_i} where i goes from 0 to n and we have each f_{x_i}(U_{x_i})/=0?
Yes
Do I make some new function with these f_xi’s
Yes
Just try to create a function that is never 0 for all x. Those sorts of functions are invertible in this ring
I’m thinking just adding them all together
A better idea is to take the square of each function and then add, that way we don’t get any accidental cancellations
Ohhhh ok, so that way we avoid cancellations, we know it definitely stays away from zero, and then we can say (x-c) times this new function would be zero at c and would be in M so we have a contradiction?
The contradiction is that this function is non zero everywhere, so it has an inverse. So when we multiply the two we get that the constant 1 function (the identity of the ring) is in the maximal ideal, which is impossible bc maximal ideals are always proper
That makes sense, thanks for your help I appreciate it
Np
Guys, in relation to abstract algebra 1, what is the book which has the hardest questions?

Looking at the shit narwhal asks here, I would guess d&f
I can’t guarantee that these hvse the hardest questions, but if you want advanced books for abstract alg1 you can try lang’s algebra or Jacobson’s basic algebra
Jacobson has some pretty awful exercises as well but i doubt they are on the level of d&f
I mean, I'm taking aa1 on next semester
And my prof is lunatic, he pass master-level questions
So I intend to start studying it now.

Who is d&f?
Dummit and foote
I see, thanks, I hope they better than elon lages
Trying to understand conjugation as a change in perspective from an intuitive, layman, visual point of view. I'm working off the below example I've found of rotation and horizontal reflection.
I understand why HA^-1 has the reflection along that point, but should then the next A in AHA^-1 be a clockwise rotation after that horizontal flip? Aren't we applying successive transformations which we then have to respect? Is this some sort of notational abuse?
Thanks in advance!
No matter what happens, A is always anti-clockwise rotation
The previous transformations have no effect on what A is going to be, so doing H before A really should change nothing
A will still be anti clockwise rotation
I really don't understand what those pictures are trying to communicate
My guess is that he is acting some group on the pentagon, A is anti clockwise rotation and H is reflection across the line drawn
But I could be wrong
but it says H is a horizontal reflection and the line drawn is not horizontal
Oh, I didn’t notice that
@gritty sparrow Working off an example I've found, which presents conjugation as change in perspective. But the application seems arbitrary. So that's the question: why is H modified by A^-1, but A is not modified by H...
If H is supposed to be horizontal reflection, then this diagram is wrong, H should not be modified at all
@gritty sparrow Thanks for answering. Then defined transformations do not affect each other regardless of order.
But would this still hold true for matrices? If A and H were matrices for example, and the transformations were defined numerically by those matrices?
I've seen this as applied basis change in linear algebra, again with the whole change in perspective approach.
I'm not sure what you're asking but if A and H were matrices you would compute the matrix of AH by multiplying the matrices of A and H
I don’t think I fully understand the question
@gritty sparrow
So, in this particular example, the transformations are unaffected by one another.
But would this still hold true if that octagon was defined by a set of vectors in a 2D plane, and if those transformations were matrices defined numerically?
Would the end result be the same as the above?
I'm trying to grasp conjugation as a change in perspective, and the linear algebra equivalent seems to be the change in basis.
Yes they would be as above
@gritty sparrow Ah, so the example is correct in that case. Then my initial question still stands, but for matrices and vectors.
Why is the final A an anticlockwise when the reflection tranform should change it to clockwise?
Thank you for your input, but since it was established that example is incorrect, it's no longer useful to refer to it. See my last two comments.
what are you learning out of ?
what does it mean that B is an extension of C by A?
having that exact sequence means that B/im(A) = C no?
C is just B but all Im(A) hmm?
thats what that means?
That's pretty much the definition, the existence of such a short exact sequence makes it an extension
I'm guessing it's called an extension of C because it's like taking C, and in place of 0, you put the whole module A and the each element of C becomes a coset of A
i see
if two maps composed are identity
why must they be isomorphisms?
f : A -> B , g: B -> A, fg = gf= 1 for example
g must be fs inverse
and f is g's inverse
mmm
I don't get your question, if gf=1 and if fg=1 then f and g are inverses of each other
But you can't say fg = gf = 1 because they are identities of different objects
1_A and 1_B
ahhh
i actually mean
if they are both identities on their respected objects
why are they isomorphisms
What definition of isomorphism are you using 
are they not isomorphism?
They are
injection and surjection definition
That's the definition of an isomorphism
Hmm I see
Well having a 2 sided inverse implies bijectivity
And similarly bijectivity implies having a set map inverse, which you can then easily prove is a homomorphism
Usually bijective homomorphism is not a good definition though because it mostly only works for isomorphisms between algebraic structures, so it's better to think of invertibility as the definition of an isomorphism
But yeah in the case of rings/modules they are equivalent
how?
Forget about the module structure
ok
This is pure set theory
Whenever you have an invertible map between sets it has to be bijective
yep
Hi : An exercise asks me to prove that if A is an abelian group of order M², and if every subgroups A_m = { P \in A : mP = 0 } of points of order dividing m has order m² with m a divisor of M, then A is a direct product of two cyclic groups of order m. I don't think I really understand the question, I think it's a typo and the author just meant cyclic groups of order M, could anyone confirm ?
Are you asking if A should actually be a cyclic group of order M? @celest mantle
no i'm asking if A should actually be a direct product of two cyclic groups of order M instead of m
Oh yeah that seems like a typo
yup that's what i thought, strange that I didn't find this on the book correction web page, thanks
easy, it's a finite question so use a computer to enumerate all possible groups of order 168

reeeee
this seems like it could have a slick solution
but idk
im trying make it act as automorphisms of an elementary abelian group of order 8 but that hasnt worked
then tried to give it a normal subgroups and maybe reach a contradiction but that hasnt worked either
idk any sylow theory right now so i can't help you
aight
tried constructing counterexamples but that hasnt really worked out either since i havent found motivations for these potential counterexamples
I'm really new to module theory. Let I be a proper left-ideal of the free R-module R, then is I not itself free?
No, in fact it's interesting to prove that if I is always free then R must be a PID, at least when R is commutative
So you can take a ring that's not a PID, like Z[x] for example, and take an ideal that's not principal like (2,x), then this ideal is not free
@narrow marten
@mild laurel thx for the exempel! Another question: if we again have ideal like previously constructed but also finite, then is the basis for the R-module R finite?
Does R not have 1? 
@dusty river yes it does, sorry for late responsen
If we have sub spaces $V_1,…,V_n$ and they are in direct sun, I know that $V_i \cap \sum_{i \neq j}^{n} V_j={0}$ for $i=1,…,n$. Is it necessarily true that $V_1 \cap V_2+V_3={0}$ for examples ?
𝔻аniil
Well then the R-module R has finite basis, {1}
wait is that not true if R is not a domain
nvm it is because 1 can't be a zero divisor
If your bracketing is like $V1\cap(V2+V3)$ then yes, If the bracketing is like $(V1 \cap V2)+V3$ then no.
saketh
Yep I meant the first one, thank you very much
But I'm not sure what the question is
are you asking if having a non principal ideal implies having a basis?
That seems weird because {1} is always a basis, since it spans (r = r • 1) and is linearly independent (if r • 1 = 0 then r = 0)
@narrow marten
Not immediately, have never worked with non unital rings
Unital rings should still count as a counterexample though, because even if you define rings to not necessarily have a 1, you still call it a ring if it does have a 1. Unless the problem specifies that the ring doesn't have an identity, I'd say that a unital ring is a valid counterexample
Sorry, but what exactly is the question, I don’t understand what was written above
I could use some help trying to figure out how to start 59. I am having a hard time figuring out how to relate the order of a group with the order of its elements.
Oh wait, it's because of inverses. I see it now
Okay sure. First off, if G is a group, the identity element e is in said group
Then if the order of elements is 2k, for some natural number (not zero), then there are 2k-1 elements in G that are not e
Okay, well, every element has a unique inverse. But...you can only match all but one elements with a distinct inverse.
So there is some a so that a=a^{-1}
Oh, to cap it all off, this means that aa^{-1}=a^2=e
hm, can you elaborate on "you can only match all but one elements with a distinct inverse."? you're definitely on the right track, thinking about inverses, but i just wanna know how you got a = a^-1 here
at least a little more explicitly
maybe im just misreading
Well, sure. Let's assume that for every b in the group (not the identity of course), that b≠b^{-1}
If this were true, then b,b^{-1} takes up even number of elements.
And if we do this for all elements, we should have an even number of elements....but we have 2k-1 elements that are not e itself, which is odd.
That is where the contradiction is.
Yea, pretty much slimvesus
nice
Yep. Although it seems trivial, we haven't 'proven' that yet. So this kinda also shows that as well.
Here's what I did. Thanks for the moral support TTerra 😁
and this generalises to all prime divisors which is cool lol
i wonder how many other similar theorems work for all primes but are particularly cute for 2... the fact a subgroup of lowest prime index is normal comes to mind
Really? How'd we go about it for 3?
the general theorem is Cauchy's theorem, but the idea is similar
*of index the lowest prime dividing the order of the group
yes, my bad sorry
Cauchy's got a million theorems. Got to be a bit more specific :p
It's called cauchy's theorem
Cauchy's theorem is also a theorem in complex analysis
Have you seen group actions dackid?
The proof I remember uses them
same here.
True. Thank you for catching that
No, not yet.
just wanted to check you actually got it 
Especially when it's the type of contradiction where you assume not p to prove p. constructive logic ftw
I wasn't thinking about partitions here, but I do like that phrasing quite a bit. I'll keep it in mind for the future.
2k-1, but I'm following.
I'm with you.
If I understood it correctly: if R has a finite proper left ideal, then R is not free as an R-module
@narrow marten I hope this is correct
And this is what I think about the unital ring thing
Hmm, what a weird question. That seems like it would never be true
I could see it not being true if your ring doesn't have 1
Like 2Z is not free over 2Z
I think
That's so cursed
Ye lmao
But don't know enough rng theory
to even try coming up with counterexamples for this
Is 2 not a basis? But I don’t doubt there is some weird example, rings without unity didn’t even cross my mind.
Not spanning lmao
Ah, I see
ended up producing $Z_3 \cross \left(E_8\rtimes Z_7\right)$ where the homomorphism definining the semidirect product sends a generator of $Z_7$ to a generator of any sylow 7-subgroup of $GL_3(\mathbb{F}_2)$
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
this isnt simple and has more than one sylow 7 subgroup 
and im pretty sure along with $Z_3 \rtimes (E_8\rtimes Z_7)$ they're the only non simple groups of order 168 with more than one sylow 7 subgroup
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
so that's additional info gained
hmm actually the later might have 3 forms im not sure
not bothered to verify frankly
So elegant


I mean, I don't blame him, I can't either lol
although maybe you're right slim
i've taken 3 differential geometry classes and i still don't know what there is to solve
so vacuously i cannot solve it
@chilly ocean Solve it
no
I kinda regret making this joke because i am being reminded how gross this stuff was
i understand it slightly better now though
that looks atrocious
looks good?
The inductive step doesn't quite fit, you need to show a_1w_1 + ... + a_{n+1} w_{n+1} is in W
in fact i believe your inductive step just shows that the case with n = 2 is correct
but then inductively doesn't it work?
no, because all you've shown is that if you add any two vectors in W you get another vector in W
So its like I need to do induction for every case
Your base case is fine (although I'd be a bit more clear with saying for any $a_1$) but your inductive step should start with smth along the lines of assume for for some $k < n$, $a_1,\dots,a_k \in \mathbb K$, $a_1 w_1 + \dots + a_{k} w_{k} \in W$
I see
or perhaps k instead of n here since n has already been used, but yeah
oh yeah I see
potato
Hey I had a quick question
I’m attempting to classify all groups of order 30, so I am trying to verify which groups are normal and which ones are not. I find N, which is of order 15, is isomorphic to Z_(15), and, by Sylow’s Theorem, P_(2) is my subgroup of order 2, so that, after some playing, I find that we have their semi-direct product Z_(15) \rtimes Z_(2). However, I’m trying to show by Sylow 2-subgroup P_2, which is isomorphic to Z_2, cannot be normal in G. I figured I could something like the class equation and end up with some undercounting issues but I’m not sure how to. Any ideas?
For a ring A and ax in A[x], then if n is an integer is there some rule or justification that tells me n(ax)=(na)x?
I feel like this should be true but I can't seem to find anything in particular in the algebra books I've poked around in that tells me so.
If you accept that ax + ax = (2a)x then it basically follows from induction
I see why ax+ax=2(ax) but not the other way.
I see.
Well wait maybe I don't.
So I guess the thing that bothers me is mixing up the unity from A with x^0 (or whatever we want to call the unity of A[x])?
So is this just a quirk of how people define x^0?
As in, we take x^0=1 where 1 is the unity from A?
usually x^0 doesn't need to be defined
i guess it depends on your definition of A[x]
like formally elements of A[x] are of the form a_0 + a_1x + ... + a_nx^n
I see what you mean now. I thought about in terms of sums of sequences and it clicked.
if A is an abelian group, can you think of any natural abelian group structure on the powerset of A?
like cosets? or does it have to be defined on the whole power set?
There's the group (P(A),+) where B+C=(B-C)U(C-B) I think. But that doesn't seem like what you want.
yeah i guess i want the singleton map A -> PA to be a homomorphism
I don’t think so, bc then |A| would divide |P(A)|
Bc that map is injective so A will be a subgroup
@fossil shuttle
Do you mean which groups are abelian / simple?
Normality isn’t a property inherent to a group, it’s a property of a subgroup
Anyway, any group of order pqr is solvable so none of them will be simple, this is… not too bad to prove but isn’t a simple element counting argument
U guys know the statement thats in every first algebra assignment in the world
like for a in G a^2 = e implies G abelian
is there a cool way to solve this
like I know the symbol bashing way
but i mean. cool 😎
is the symbol bash way just,
(ab)(ba) = a(bb)a = aea = aa = e = (ab)(ab)
so
ba = ab
?
Maybe a succinct way is to note that [a,b] = e for all a,b
But this is not really much better
that is not symbol spam 
Each individual equation with variables
is there a not stupid proof of A_n being simple for n > 4
by "not stupid" i mean
- no unnecessary heavy machinery
- no dumb computational jamming (commutators, sylow, fixed point arguments...)
There as some cool proofs in books
what a helpful answer
im not sure there is, I was having a similar discussion with someone the other day
there are quite a few different proofs but I think most of them have some form of dumb computational jamming
what are the proofs you know of that you dont like?
The only ones I really know involve diving into how conjugacy classes split in A_n
there are a few based on the fact that A_n is generated by 3-cycles
i also know the one from dummit and foote which is kind of nice but i know nami wont like it either
I honestly dont know any slick proofs
wait would this be a proof actually
wait nvm
i think I figured out a different proof for when n is prime
no nvm it relies on existence
ill stop now lol
been working on a problem for 1h only to notice now i messed up right at the start 
on something as stupid as permissible sylow numbers
Can anyone help me with this, for an A-module M define the supp(M) to be the intersection of all f in A such that the localistion of M at f is zero,
You can show that if we have an exact sequence D -> E-> F then supp(E)\subset supp(D) union supp(F)
I think the following should also be true but i cannot show it
Let A->B->C->D and call the denote the map B to C by g
I want to make some kind of statement bout the kernel and cokernel of g having support contained in the support of A and D
the following would be enough
If the support of A and D is contained in some set K, then the support of the kernel and cokernel of g are also contained in K
The definition of support on wikipedia seems to be different
it says it's the set of all prime ideals p such that localizing at p doesn't make the module 0
yeah this is slightly different definition
What do you mean by intersection of all f, f are elements of the ring?
Ok so supp(M) = {f ∈ C[x1,...,xn] | M_f = 0}?
Are you sure it's M_f = 0 and not ≠ 0?
because support usually always has a non zero condition
opps yes sorry you are right
Then if A → B → C → D is exact and B → C is called g, ker g should be a quotient of A and coker g should be contained in D. I think you should then be able to prove that if M ⊂ N are modules, then supp(M), supp(N/M) ⊂ supp(N)
So just establishing a relationship between the support of the module with the supports of its submodules and quotients (I might have written inclusions the wrong way, just check while you prove)
Yep
Yep
ty
damn it doesn't look like supp(M), supp(N/M) ⊂ supp(N) is true
certainly supp(N) ⊂ supp(M) union supp(N/M)
oh no nevermind
Yeah it should be true from what you said earlier about D → E → F
But the proof I had in mind for that sequence used this fact and the fact that localisation is exact 
using that localization is exact only gives that for M ⊂ N, supp(M) ⊂ supp(N)
im not actually sure that its true that supp(N/M) ⊂ supp(N) ?
but this is weird because N/M should be a submodule of N right?
No
If it is then you have a very special thing going on
Namely M is a direct summand of N
You can get a short exact sequence from that exact sequence as
0 → ker f → E → im f → 0
where f is the map E → F.
Now apply the localisation, localisation of E is 0 iff the other 2 are 0
And then use what I said about submodules and quotients
Because ker f is a quotient of D, im f is a submodule of F
If you’re dealing with the usual notion of support in terms of primes, given N < M you have
Supp(M) < Supp(N) U Supp(M/N), maybe you can adapt a proof of this to work with your different notion of support
Yeah same works here
so the support of a submodule is indeed contained in the support of the module
but we cannot say that for a quoitent
If M ⊂ N, N_f = 0 → N_f/M_f = 0 → (N/M)_f = 0, so localisation of quotient is non zero implies localisation of N is non zero, so supp(N/M) ⊂ supp(N)
Did I make a mistake somewhere 
And shouldn't this be an equality
because localisation at p is an exact functor and so applying it to 0 → N → M → M/N → 0, you get a ses, and the middle term in a ses should be non zero iff at least one of the other 2 is?
No, it isn’t an equality in general
It is
Let me think of an example
Oh wait
Support Hurb
Yes

I was thinking about associated primes
Ah
You can get really weird stuff because of embedded primes there
Chmister commutative algebra 😌
But yeah for support I think it’s equality cuz of exactness
sorry yes you are right
I want to prove that if I have a countable group G such that for any finite subset of G, the subset is contained in an infinite cyclic subgroup then G is subgroup of Q. I want to check if the map I defined works. I map 0 to 0. and any element a_1 to 1. Then for any other element say a_2 I find unique positive integer n and integer m such that n a_2=m a_1 and n is minimal. I map a_2 to m/n.
All of them—abelian and non-abelian
Right so which class were you trying to look at first because you originally were asking which ones were normal
I think they’re really tedious arguments imo—least favorite part of group theory imo
And without reference to a supergroup it doesn’t make sense to talk about normal subgroups
Oh right, I was trying to determine which subgroups are normal in G, which is of order 30. By Sylow stuff, I find my single Sylow 3- and 5- subgroups are normal in G (including their inner direct product). What I was wondering if my Sylow 2-subgroup(s) are normal in G.
Yes
Okay
Let’s go
Applying Sylow’s Theorems to both 3- and 5-, how many possible Sylow 3- and 5- subgroups can you get?
Exactly
Yes
Then how do you deal with 3?
We apply the following: H be a subgroup of G and P be a Sylow p-subgroup of H. If P is normal in H and H is normal in G, then P is normal G.
Usually, normality isn’t transitive but this is one of those few instances we have that.
Exactly
But you can’t shove the Sylow 3 into the Sylow 5

Also is this for a class because just from Sylow 5 normal you can classify them all
If you’re willing to use Schur Zassenhaus lol
You know at least one of Sylow 3 and Sylow 5 are normal in G from our earlier arguments.
Yee
Can you construct a group from Sylow 3 and Sylow 5?
I mean ideally you’d want to just bash the two together
But in general that isn’t a subgroup unless both are normal
Unless I’m being dumb and missing something
You need normality in at least one of them to get it to be a subgroup—I think normality follows from both being normal but I’m not sure.
Otherwise, if neither are normal, I think it’s just a…set?
Wait lol right
You only need one to be contained in the normalizer of the other I think
This is like some Second Iso crap I think
Okay right lol
Oh okay
I see right
Sylow 3 is normal in the order 15 subgroup
And you win
Yeah
I’m literally cataloging a series of theorems to simplify my semi-direct products as much as possible lol because brute-forcing it hasn’t been helpful
👀
Because if you assume this thm you necessarily classify them all using semi direct products
Schur Zassenhaus says if N is a normal subgroup of order coprime to its index (so |G/N|)
Oh shit what the fuck
Then G = G/N semidirect N
And so it suffices to classify groups of order 6
Of which there are two
Yes
Z/6Z
And then the weird semidirect
Now this doesn’t mean there’s just 2 options
Cuz like
This bit here
There’s multiple ways to make that
But it does give you the complete list
You just have to like… do cases I guess
When G/N is Z/6Z you can probably just count them
My gut says there’s two semidirect products of Z/6Z and Z/5Z
Because of coprimality
The direct prodict and then one more weird one
Schur Zassenhaus needs group cohomology (okay it doesn’t need it because my TA did make a proof w/o it but it’s like always proved with it)
So that’s why I asked if it’s for a class haha
If it was it’s totally off the table
But wait like
No wait hold up this is dumb you don’t need Schur Zassenhaus
You’re already done
You have an order 15 subgroup right?
By just bashing your two normal subgroups
Like Sylow 3 and 5
Gives you a Z/15Z
Now you have G = Z/15Z semidirect Z/2Z
By just bashing your Z/15Z and your Sylow 2
One of them is normal so it’s an internal semidirect product
And this is way easier to deal with anyway because to classify these you only have to deal with the automorphism group of Z/15Z which becomes Aut(Z/3Z) x Aut(Z/5Z) = Z/2Z x Z/4Z
Also @prisma thunder regarding normal Sylow-2 I realized there’s a really simple counterexample, take the dihedral group of order 30. Then fr^k is order 2 for all k so there’s lots and lots of order 2 elements
Can someone explain why you need to impose a riemannian metric on the upper half space to get a visualization of the group action of SL_2(R)\
SL2(R) is a group, not an action. What's the action we're seeing on SL2(R)?
I might not have the knowledge to answer this, haha
Is this an isometry?
I feel like you don't need a Riemannian metric, I mean you can just do it topologically if you care about a visualization
I mean, this action is super important for modular forms, but you could say that's a consequence of the Poincare metric too
I guess the way that it's motivated for modular forms is that {1,z} and {1,z'} generate the same lattice if and only if one is a Mobius transform of the other
The action $z\to \dfrac{az+b}{cz+d}$
KingArthur
does what we said clear up what you were asking or no @unique berry
hm I'm having a bit of trouble
how do I prove that p does not have an inverse in Fp^2 (or Z mod p^2Z) where p is prime
it's certainly true if you think of some examples, but I just can't think of a way to rigorously prove it for some reason
A zero divisor can never have an inverse

zero divisor?
yea that's what I'm going for
Actually
Can an element only have a left inverse in a ring?
I forget if for groups you require a left and right inverse then use associativity to show they’re the same or if one-side gets you the other. Maybe it’s something like if everything has a left inverse everything gets a right inverse?
oh wow
I did it
wtf this is
so non-obvious but
so simple
thank you
wow
this is interesting
I never would have connected zero divisor with having no inverse

Yeah it's not obvious
but multiplication with a unit u should be an injective function
But this is not true if you have a zero divisor
This is in fact true iff u is not a zero divisor
But there are things which are neither units not zero divisors so not a perfect test
I remember seeing this: "if an element has 2 left inverses, it has infinitely many"
Which is only somewhat related but interesting
And it feels like you could use this to cook up some counterexample
Hmm yeah
Because if everything has a left inverse, then all elements that are left inverses will be right inverses, so you want to show that not everything is a left inverse and that seems very much like a non surjectivity/repeated right inverses condition (even though they're not equivalent)
oh is there? can I have some examples?
2 in Z
I remember doing stuff like this, I forget if you had actual finiteness or like semi-finiteness conditions
Tfw you helped someone with French math hw and it had u deal with “associative magmas”

The more I read Presentations of groups by Johnson, the more I like it
praise Bourbaki

let A be a ring with exactly one prime ideal, say I, then the nilradical is I
Yes
then every element of A which is not in I is unit?
Yes
why?
Because if (x) isn’t all of A then it’s contained in a maximal ideal
Aka I
But then x in I
This is just true for any local ring aka one with 1 maximal ideal
I guess to finish it up, so if x isn’t in I rhen (x) = A but that’s true iff x is a unit
Noo why delete the question i wanted to think about it
Let A be a f.g. algebra over a field k. Let K be its field of fractions. Let A' be the integral closure of A in K. Then A' is f.g. over A as a module.
I know this is true, but haven't been able to prove it myself or find a proof not behind a paywall. Could anybody help?
i copied it just in case
It's not really an exercise, more like a Theorem.
Too hard to be an exercise
I managed to find a proof online, if anyone's interested
If you want to meme really really hard this is because fields are Nagata
If you go onto Stacks Project and look up like “Japanese rings” you’ll find info on it
lol thanks
Is the zero set different of a set of polynomials different from the set of points that are zero on each polynomial? I only ask because I've only ever seen this notated as V(S) to get a variety from a set of polynomials
What
Is the zero set different of a set of polynomials different from the set of points that are zero on each polynomial?
I dunno what you’re trying to ask here
id assume you mean
[\left{x|\forall p\in S\quad p(x)=0\right}]vs[\left{x|\exists p\in S\quad p(x)=0\right}]
ari 亲
we rarely(if ever) use the second one
yo would anyone here be interested in commutative algebra study group?
can it happen that a non-trivial subspace has a unique complement?
my intuition is no but maybe with finite field idk?
I am having a little trouble on part (ii) with the first direction.
Luckily, the other direction is extremely simple.
have you tried contradiction?
The issue I was having is I wasn't able to prove hk was not in H U K. There is no guarantee, but there is also no guarantee it's not.
I have an idea. Let me try something real quick.
I don't think so. If U is a complement of V, then U + v should also be a complement of V for any v in V
yeah but with a field like Zmod2
would you only have one vector outside a subspace of dim 1 less than the space's dim?
think about multiplicative inverse.
No you have 2
Still not sure how this helps
so uhh we want to get a contradiction
so take h \in H\K an k \in K\H. Take a look at hk
Well, this just tells us closure is not guaranteed
what does the ; mean
Ah, we are keeping that hypothesis. Yes.
what is set1 ; set2 mean
Okay sure, hk is in the union. I am in agreement with that
well, then hk has to be in H or K
Agreed
Oh, disregard then
but h^-1 is in H
Ah, so h^{-1}(hk) is in H
what about this @mild laurel, "Show that if M and N are three-dimensional subspaces of a five-dimensional space, then they are not disjoint"
It's called "singular cohomology". Google it
ty
Bam. Thank you very much Ledog
This is wrong.
You assumed hk\in H.
Which may not always be true.
I did WLOG, so the same argument holds if I say hk is in K
Instead it'd just say H is a subset of K
Right, but it could happen that for some pairs the product is in H, and for some the product is in K.
What you proved is the following: For each h,k, either k\in H or h\in K. Do you agree?
There. Fixed
i meant like what the ; means
not the H*
While it is true that you can assume hk\in H, you cannot assume that hk\in H for ALL k. Only for a specific one.
So k\in H holds only for a specific k, not for all of them
Do you see the problem?
The semicolon is used to differentiate between the topological space on the left and the coefficient group on the right
It has no special meaning
Fine...then how do you propose I fix it
If H is not contained in K, and K is not contained in H, then there are elements k\in K and h\in H, so that k is not in H and h is not in K. Now consider the product of those two specific elements
"oh #groups-rings-fields , please tell me what a 2-argument function is"
Hi, guys, in this solution, why it says Euclidean function here? I didn't see any relation here....
When you say Euclidian domain you have to define Euclidian function
Ok...But why do we need Euclidean domain?
It helps us classify the units
Sorry, could you be a little more specific.....I didn't see how it helps us classify the units. I mean if without saying the Euclidean domain, we can still say there exists y s.t. xy = 1 iff |x||y|=1.
How are you defining |x| in that case?
modulus?
You won't have that in an arbitrary ring
But even when you have a subring of C, the modulus need not give you a Euclidean domain
Eg Z[1+√-5] I think
And then you can still say that being a unit → modulus is 1
But modulus is 1 won't necessarily imply unit
so they might be i or something other than 1 when x and y multiply together?
No, if there is an inverse, then the modulus has to be invertible in N right? And the only invertible element in N is 1
Or ok not in N since you're not restricting to EDs
But here the modulus does go to N
So unit → modulus is 1
Converse isn't true in all subrings of C
And if you want to classify all units
You want an if and only if
Otherwise you're just eliminating some possibilities instead of giving a complete characterisation
sorry, what do you mean N here..
Natural numbers
why the modulus x has to be inverse if x is inverse?
This is assuming 2 things: |1| = 1, and |xy| = |x||y| for all x and y. Do you see it?
oh, I see...
So if it is not ED, then |x| is invertible does not imply x is invertible?
Yeah
Thank you!

So B is noetherian as an A-module
but allowed multiplication from B still lets it be noetherian?
All ideals of B are B-submodules, hence A-submodules, hence finitely generated over A, hence finitely generated over B by the same generators
By increasing the set of scalars you're allowed to multiply by, you are only increasing the span
Hi, let $A\subset B$ be an unramified extension of henselian DVRs (i.e. an uniformizer $\pi$ of A is also an uniformizer of B) and $k_A\subset k_B$ the corresponding
residue field extension, which we assume to be finite separable. Is $\operatorname{Hom}A(B,B)\cong \operatorname{Hom}{k_A}(k_B,k_B)$ via reduction mod $\pi$?
I know its true for local fields, i.e. when A and B are complete DVRs, but cant remember if completeness of A and B took any part in the proof. I think all we needed was henselian property? Can anyone confirm? Thanks a lot!
mrvns
h doesn't, but some factor of h is irreducible
Since k[x_1,...,x_n] is a UFD
And that factor cannot be the same as any g_j
No, h is in k[x1,...,xr]
And in this ring it is coprime to all the g_j
So h^-1 in F, which is 1/h, cannot be obtained as a polynomial expression of the y_j's because the denominator of any such element will be a product of powers of the g_j
@novel parrot
are we trying to contradict that F is a field
Yes
ok i think that makes sense
it is (sum (n_i - 1)) + 1
Wtf that is a cheeky little trick with the whole "if each of the n_i were even 1 greater than corresponding r_i then we break this constant I made up"
That's the type of shit they do in graph theory all the time that my tiny brain can't handle lmao
instead try showing that there is a 2 sided inverse homomorphism
well an inverse map, if it exists, is automatically a homomorphism
yea
so you need to show that an inverse set map exists but in this case it will be obvious that it is a homomorphism too
once you've done this, you can quickly see how to show the map is surjective in the "traditional" way too, if you wanted to
hm ok
I am stuck at this problem, "Let G be a finitely generated group, H a subgroup of finite index. Show that H is finitely generated", I mostly tried to look at examples of finitely generated groups to get a feeling of why this is true but it hasn't worked :(, I mean, I haven't (and never expected too) find a counterexample but I'm still unable to see the connection, of course the hypothesis that H has finite index is essential but I can't make a direct connection between the result and that, any tips or anything?
i'm not sure, but have you had a look at previous results on subgroups of finite index? the problem you want to prove might follow from a previously proven result
Think about cosets of H and representatives of those cosets
well, apart from the meaning of H having a finite index, most previous results related to subgroups of finite index are for finite groups, there was a previous exercise that also applied to infinite groups which was Poincare Theorem, but I don't see how I could use that
I will think about that
oh we don't need to show that the inverse is also a homomorphism?
So the definition of an isomorphism is homomorphism which has an inverse homomorphism
but for groups, any inverse function of a homomorphism is automatically a homomorphism
which isn't hard to prove
so yeah here just giving an inverse set map is enough
and here if you've proven the map is a homo then the inverse function is automatically a homo by using g^-1 instead of g lol
dont get this
so sigma has a max
but i cant show that every max is prime
if was x,y was not in a and xy was in a, we wanna contradiction the fact that xy was not in a yeah?
Yeah
"there exist x,y not in a but xy in a" is equivalent to "there exists x not in a such that (a:x) properly contains a"
They are just using this second statement
and the contradiction is that this allows you to write a as a sum of finitely generated ideals so it is finitely generated
ok
What Zoph said it’s probably what you wanna do. I wanted to mention a quick solution if you knew AT. Your group G is the fund group of some 2 dim CW complex with finitely many 1 cells, and a subgroup of index n corresponds to a n sheeted covering of this space, which obviously also has finitely many 1 cells and hence is finitely generated.
That's really neat 
ngl I don't know what this question is asking
what are the possible groups G can be?
i.e. what groups can be the image of a homomorphism from S_3?
(up to iso)
||trivial group, alternating, and the whole subgroup?||
up to 1st iso 
wut
we haven't learned isomorphism theorems
I should probably google them I hear about them alot
ok I thought youre supposed to use them
??
some S_3/ker(phi) maybe I thought is doable
anyway yes spamakin thats correct
they have to be subgroups
hence youre stuck with A_1 and A_2, which are trivial, A_3, and S_3 itself
(you can verify very quickly that there do indeed exist homomorphisms from S_3 to these groups)
this is a corollary of the first isomorphism theorem
but you dont need it to prove this
S2 is also a subgroup but need to be normal right
right
when you say A_1 and A_2 are trivial you mean that they're the trivial group since the identity is 0 transpositions?
aight cool so I do understand this
neat
and the group used as the codomain of phi can't be anything with more elements than S_3 cause then phi may not be a homomorphism?
well to clarify
the group used as the codomain of phi can have more elements
but they wont be in the image of phi
since theres "not enough" elements of S_3 to map into them all
for example, we know theres a group homomorphism from Z_2 into itself, but we could also regard this as a homomorphism Z_2 into any group that has Z_2 as a subgroup, but the homomorphism is just defined to only map into the Z_2 part
so the codomain is the larger group but the image is just Z_2
I am working on some problems and I have no idea how to do this one
can someone please help
This isn’t abstract algebra 
what channel do you think i should put it in?
wait then what is phi?
I'm confused
cause it says that phi maps from S_3 to a group G
but then it says "list possibilities of phi(S_3)"
consider the map $\varphi: S_3 \to S_4$ given by mapping each element to itself
Namington
the codomain of this map is $S_4$
Namington
but the image of $\varphi$ is only the $S_3$ subgroup
Namington
@barren sierra
yes
got it
there are infinitely many options for the codomain
hey! im taking a group theory class and were doing field extensions and im a bit lost, if anyone is around who could explain it?

fkjahsdf lol im just kinda lost, rn trying to find the degree of an extenion
what extension?
im kinda confused on how to approach it
4
Do you understand the definition of the degree of an extension?
lol i think thats where im getting stuck
i dont quite understand the definitions and so working from there is a mess
It might help to go back and review that and clear up your confusions about that first
It's hard to do a problem containing a definition that you don't really understand yeah
any good resources for trying to understand this more?
Whatever your class uses is probably the best thing to do
ah ok!
Dummit and Foote is a pretty standard algebra book that has Galois theory too
ooo nice! i think my multi teacher recommended that for some fun reading (ive been using the art of problem solving textbook so far)
they have their group theory class! doesnt seem to get taught that often but its been really interesting
Oh interesting, they've grown a lot since I took their classes way back when
anyways, I can also talk a little bit about the degree of the extension too if you think that would be helpful
very very possible! although group theory seems to be the last class they go to, which is kinda unfortunate for trying to do more abstract algebra things
yea! that would be really helpful
seconding d&f, I think their field stuff section is really good
yeah so, if F is contained in L and both of these are fields, do you see how you can consider L as an F-vector space?
yea that makes sense
The degree of an extension is just the dimension of L as an F-vector space
ahhhh ok wait that makes sense
so for your question, you can just calculate this directly
but another useful fact is that
if F is contained in L is contained in K
and we let [L:F] be the degree of the extension L over F and so on, then we have that [K:F] = [K:L][L:F]
So the degree of the extension is multiplicative in some sense
ohh interesting
It'd be helpful to look at a proof of this fact from somewhere, but the proof is pretty intuitive
you just take a basis for L over F and a basis for K over L and multiply all the things together and you get a basis for K over F
ooo nice!
but those ideas are all you really need to solve your problem
I'm not even sure how to proceed with question 2. Can anyone help me guide through it?
Hint: ((ab)^n)a= a((ba)^n)
When you want to prove that |g| = n in any group, you have to show 2 things:
g^n = 1
and g^k is not 1 for any k<n
just try doing these, it should be straightforward
The intersection of <a> and <b> is {1}, therefore (ab)^r=1 implies that a^r=1=b^r
S_3 is a counterexample
Anyone feel like helping me with a little abs. alg. exercise I'm stuck on?
regarding external direct products
Post it, we can only tell if we can help once we see it 
So I came a couple weeks back asking for a hint but I'm still stuck... I'm going to post the exercise and what I've written so far...
what i've written so far may be in the complete wrong direction but ty whomsoever helps me with this
I've done every exercise in the book up to this point... just been really stuck here with this...
My suggestion is work with small examples
the book is Gallian's Contemp. Abs. Alg., for reference
And you will be able to see how to find the subgroup
You just need to extend that pattern
No need to do it so abstractly
You are suggesting I try to find such a subgroup for some values of m,n,r,s?
Yes
Okay, so suppose I set m & n. Then it becomes find an element of the set {Z_r ⊕ Z_s | (r|m),(s|n)} that is guaranteed to be a subgroup of Z_m ⊕ Z_n?
Umm I can't parse that
An element can't be a subgroup
But I'm saying take some small values of m and n let's say 4 and 6
And some r and s which divide them, say 2 and 3
Now can you explicitly figure out a subgroup like this?
Think of what the direct sum of Z4 and Z6 looks like
And what it looks like for Z2 and Z3
(might be helpful to think of them as arranged in a 4x6 grid)
oh like a grid huh... so a subgroup in the grid model is a subgrid?
In this case yes
That is the intuition
Try and use this to get hold of a subgroup concretely, then prove that it is a subgroup
hmm... so then my brain goes:
I can go about trying to find a subgroup of Z4⊕Z6 that is isomorphic to Z2⊕Z3 by asking myself "What is some group which is isomorphic to Z2⊕Z3" and then showing that it is a subgroup of Z4⊕Z6?
I can answer to myself "Well, I can consider some other hypothetical group Z_a ⊕ Z_b such that Z_a is isomorphic (≅) to Z2 and Z_b ≅ Z3" (because I know from previous exercise #16 that this works) and so long as it is a subgroup of Z4⊕Z6 I am done? So I wonder "What's isomorphic to Z2?"
except now i'm feeling it going awry again
Z_2 is very easy to recognize up to isomorphism
its a group with 2 elements, an identity and another element
so that other element must be its own inverse
hence, if you have an element that is its own inverse
that (alongside the identity) gives a subgroup isomorphic to Z_2
I still feel you are working too abstractly. Here you can literally just list the elements of the group (at least in your head) and see what you can find
say... Z2 = {{e,a},*}
a set {e (for identity}, a (that self-invertable element)} with an operation *
am i then just interested in those operations?
like the first other one that comes to mind is the flipping group F.
that is, the group which flips a square
Can you identify any elements of Z4 ⊕ Z6 which are their own inverse?
To start with, what are the elements of this group?
ok one sec
elements of Z4 ⊕ Z6 are 2-tuples, so
(e,e), ofc... then elements (e,g) for g in Z_6 and then also elements (g,e) for g in Z_4
except, for instance, we have (e,g) = (e,g^3) for g in Z_4
You also have (g,h) for g in Z4 and h in Z6
And what's the group operation?
element-wise composition
Yep
So now try this
With this concrete description in mind
hmm do you know how to represent Z4 using integers?
Like it is the group {0,1,2,3} under addition mod 4
you can't represent Z4 with only integers was what I was about to say
but yes
right so
sorry go on
Ye so let's use that notation
Similarly for Z6
And can you now say what you meant by (a,g) using these?
okay so we have Z4 = {0mod4, 1mod4, 2mod4, 3mod4}, sure
Yes
i mean the order
|e| = 1 right?
Right yeah
Yep
So you've found an element of order 2 in Z4, which immediately tells you that Z4 has a subgroup isomorphic to Z2
Do you see this?
so by a^2 i mean (0mod4)(0mod4) = 0mod4, (1mod4)(1mod4) = 2mod4, (2mod4)(2mod4) = 0mod4, and (3mod4)(3mod4) =2mod4. that is, those elements that are guaranteed not to be of order 4.
oh uh
Hmm I see, but not all of those elements have the same order



