#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 611 of 407
ah
unless im unclear, i think youre referring to a prime ideal properly containing p right
yes
makes sense
such an ideal is going to contain some s in A - p yeah
and then the image of s under the localization map is a unit

So its the opposite of quotienting
exactly
Spamakin🎷
is that correct?
Yes
dope
let $\varphi : A \to B$ be an epimorphism of rings. what can we say about $\varphi$? can it be decomposed into a composition of localizations and quotients?
goblin shamrock
inspired by @maiden ocean
thoughts: let $I = \ker \varphi$ and let $S = { x \in A : \varphi(x) \text{ is a unit } }$
Poggers
goblin shamrock
oh
this is an MO question
i read this trying to fix the proof 
oh nice
sorry i got disracted
ahh the geometric pov
i should have considered this
your question was about $B \otimes_A B \cong B$?
hmm
goblin shamrock
let $Y = \mathsf{Spec} A$ and $X = \mathsf{Spec} B$, we're saying that the diagonal map $X \to X \times_Y X$ is an isomorphism
hmmm
goblin shamrock
assuming that the map $X \to Y$ is a monomorphism?
goblin shamrock
hmmmm
oh wait maybe this is category theory
it totally fucking is lmao
@maiden ocean let $\mathsf{C}$ be a category with pushouts and suppose $f : A \to B$ is an morphism in $\mathsf{C}$. Then the canonical map $B \amalg_A B \to B$ is an isomorphism iff $f$ is epi
goblin shamrock
for the direction we care about, assume $f$ is epi
goblin shamrock
[\begin{tikzcd}
A & B \
B & B \
&& C
\arrow[two heads, from=1-1, to=2-1]
\arrow[two heads, from=1-1, to=1-2]
\arrow["id"', from=1-2, to=2-2]
\arrow["id", from=2-1, to=2-2]
\arrow["\beta"', from=2-1, to=3-3]
\arrow["\alpha", from=1-2, to=3-3]
\end{tikzcd}]
goblin shamrock
by contemplating this diagram we see that $\alpha = \beta$
goblin shamrock
since they agree when precomposed with an epimorphism
kevin buzzard malding rn
so we can get a map $B \to C$ by using $\alpha = \beta$ and the diagram commutes
lol
goblin shamrock
does he like labeled diagrams?
kevin buzzard doesn't like. he just dislikes.
seems right
It’s unlikely to be an isomorphism since the kernel is the ideal generated by elements of the form $b\otimes 1 - 1 \otimes b$
Cogwheels of the mind
im guessing we take C = B otimes_A B?
and let alpha and beta be the inclusions in the first and second coordinate
ah sure
for epis yeah
wym?
I was showing that B satisfies the universal property of a pushout of A -> B and A -> B
well yeah lol, that's the point
this shows that A -> B epi implies that the map B \coprod_A B \to B is an isomorphism
because B satisfies the universal property of B \coprod_A B
Right yeah i see
sorry i initially thought of this for pullbacks & schemes and so while dualizing back to ring I kind of forgot to explain what I was doing lol
but yeah this is just category theory
I knew the epimorphism of ring thing hahaha
Owned!
Chmonkey flexes on a HSer again!
I haven’t learned that far but I know that H^i (X) is a linear space over F_p
Therefore π induces a linear map from H^i (X) to itself
Yes. the linear map between cech cohomology groups induced from morphism between algebraic varieties
Got it
Thanks!
Also, if anyone would be interested in reading through Serre's Rational points on curves over finite fields, let me know.
Does anyone have an idea on what to do here?
Suppose you have an $\mathbb{N}$-graded Noetherian ring $R$ with $R_0 = k$ a field and let $m = R_1 + R_2 + \cdots$ the irrelevant ideal. If $R_m$ is an $n$-dimensional regular local ring then $R$ is a polynomial ring $k[y_1,\ldots,y_n]$ where the $y_i$ are homogeneous of positive degree.
So I can take $n$-generators for $m$ because $R_m$ is an $n$-dimensional regular local ring, and then it’s easy to show that these generators are algebraically independent over $k$ so we can write $R = k[y_1,…,y_n]$ but the issue is the generators of $m$ don’t need to be homogeneous. I don’t think any homogeneous ideal necessarily has a minimal generating set by homogeneous elements and so I’m kinda unsure what to do lol.
Chmonkey
I am thinking that you can choose those homogeneous y_i having degree 1 since any linear basis y_1+m^2,…,y_n+m^2 of m/m^2 over A/m where A is a regular local ring with maximal ideal m ( in this case A=A_m and m=mA_m), y_1,…,y_n are generators of m
So maybe you can just cancel the monomials of degree greater than 1 in those original y_i since monomials of degree greater than 1 are contained in m^2
This isn’t true, m isn’t generated by stuff in degree 1
That’s an additional assumption you need to impose (commonly imposed by say Hartshorne for stuff involving Proj)
As an example you can quite literally just take a polynomial ring and weight the different variables differently. So like k[x,y] with x in degree 1 and y in degree 2. Then y is a monomial of degree 2 not in m^2
Yeah I am wrong
Wait if you have some generators of m, then replace those generators with their homogeneous parts or even with their monomials then they still generate m
Like replacing x_1+x_2 with x_1, x_2
Eventually there will be n elements remained
I’m not sure how you expect the number to stay the same?
Or to be able to reduce the number of elements
When you take an inhomogeneous element and add in all its homogeneous parts you might increase the number of generators
How do you go back down?
Any set of generators y_1,…,y_k of m, y_1+m^2,…,y_k+m^2 span m/m^2 over A/m then choose the basis from them
Using Nakayama
Yeah I used it earlier to lift generators in the first place
I just forgot that’s a vector space LOL
So it does it automatically for you
LOL
I was trying to like
Do the homogeneous crap up in R
But over A/m it’s just linear algebra
☠️☠️
Thanks, I was going crazy lol
😂
I was like
Writing down realllyyyy messy stuff to try and like reduce to homogeneous stuff manually
And it seemed impossible lol
Way too many coefficients
Yeah…
we dont really need the sequence to be exact?
any module homomorphism is enough no?
or is it to keep the assencidng chain in M
Im 99% sure module hom is not enough but wait for moldi or chmoke
You need exact for the <-
M' → M could be trivial, then a chain in M' gives rise to the trivial chain in M but that doesn't tell you anything about the original chain
Similarly M could be the trivial module inside M", in which case chains of M" pull back to the trivial chain in the trivial module which again tells you nothing
So you don't need the whole sequence yeah, but you need either the thing to sit inside M via injection into M or be a quotient of M by having some surjection from M
exactness is roughly telling you that M decomposes into M' and M'', which is kinda why you need it. you can think of weaker conditions ofc
i didnt understand
so if we had f : M -> N
any module homomorphism
M_1 < M_2
then f(M_1) < f(M_2) is true ?
surely ... ?
No, different things could map to the same
So M_1 could be {0}
M_2 = ker f
Both have 0 image
also if you have a chain in N
but since M2 contains M1, f(M2) has atleast the image of M1
Yeah I'm saying strict inequality need not remain strict
there is no reason it is induced from a chain in M right
oh
So even if the image of a chain stabilizes
like as moldi said, take a trivial map
How do you deduce that the original does too
then non-trivial chains are not induced by the map right
so the condition that image of alpha = kernel of beta is required ?
No
This
Injection into M or surjection from M is enough
M is noetherian → all submodules and all quotients of M are noetherian
And the theorem is also saying that the converse holds
For the converse you need both conditions together, so there you'll need exactness
If you are more comfortable, you can remove exact sequences and take it as M' ⊂ M, and M" = M/M'
That's really what a short exact sequence says by first isomorphism theorem
The theorem is a little stronger than the converse, bc it speaks of a particular submodule quotient pair
True yeah
ah im confused
do we have this
From the exactness at M' and at M"
The map M' → M is injective
M → M" is surjective
oh righty
are just a injection and surjection enough? couldnt you map the 0 module into M and then surject it onto the 0 module
Yeah, submodules of M and quotients of M are noetherian if M is
In your example 0 is both
And is noetherian regardless of whether M is or not
For the converse you need exactness
yeah right sorry misread what u said
why is surjection enough
like beta: M -> M'' is surjective
so an infinite chain in M''
how does the inverse give an infinite chain in M
if M1 < M2
why does it remain strict if surjective
how do we know that M2 - M1 will not just be sent to 0
Correspondence theorem for submodules in a quotient
M" can be identified with M/ker surjection
So taking inverses is an injective map from set of submodules of M" to submodules of M
you mean M/ker is isomorphic to M''
?
and thats injective
i can see it working if thats what you meant
Isn't that what I said 
Identified means isomorphic but you treat things as equal by abuse of notation or whatever
just trying to be clear 
for converse why do we need both conditions?
if an infinite chain in M, sending it back to M', it will stabilize there, and then it would also stablize in M then?
Here is an example, see where your logic goes wrong: Let M be some non noetherian module, let M’ be 0 and M’’=M
M’ is noetherian obviously, but M is obviously non noetherian
You can come up with similar sort of constructions to show that M” being noetherian does not imply M is noetherian. You need both
Let both the chains be stable after N, say. Now taking x in L_(N+1) we see that beta(x) is in beta(Ln). So we can say that x-l is in ker(beta) for some l in Ln. but now ker(beta)=im(alpha) so x-l=alpha(m). where m is in alpha^-1(L_n+1))= alpha^-1(Ln) . But that means alpha(m)=x-l is in Ln hence x is as well
Idea is that Ln's intersection with each coset of M' in M looks the same as the intersection with M' itself (or is empty). Thus knowing which cosets it intersects + how much it intersects M' is enough
For any function f: A → B, between sets or any kind of structure, if X is a subset of B, f inverse(X) is defined to be the set of things in A that map to X

a->A->A/a
dont get that last part in bold
i understand everything else but not how it implies its larger than or equal to k
i dont know
do y mean l(Mk)
that is 0?
oh nvm
atiyah mcdonald making me feel real dumb lol
that's how you know you're reading it right 🙃

is there not an overlap of 1 module here
$M'=M_0 > \cdots > M_n = 0$ and $M'' = N_0 > \cdots > N_m = 0$
ActiveChapter
wouldnt N_m overlap with M_0
wouldnt beta inverse on N_m = alpha on M_0
nvm figured it out
bruh proving there were no simple groups of order 420 was actually kinda hard
dude weed lmao
imagine caring about pure finite group theory
420 = 42 * 10 = (21 * 2) * (2 * 5) = 2^2 * 3 * 5 * 7
then Sylow stuff
looks like there are enough prime factors you should be able to force there to be enough sylow p groups to contradict group size
I feel like you need a lot more than just Sylow stuff to do this
if H is subgroup of (Z/nZ)*, but H is not equal to (Z/nZ) *, I know with lagrange that |(Z/nZ) *| = sumNumber * |H|, with sumNumber > 1...does that mean every strict subgroup is max half as big always?
damn thats sick. If I can only proof one element of (Z/nZ) * not being in specific H, and I know atleast half of the elements are not in H xd
thats important for ma rabin miller prime test
just looked up the problem and people did it using sylow
it's not an easy sylow though
you show there's no element of order 14
then consider the normalizer of a sylow 7 subgroup
and show it must have an element of order 14
what's the problem?
show there are no simple groups of order 420
ah
it's done but it was interesting to see it wasnt basic sylow
yah
15*(7-1) is sadly only 90
not there yet
n2 could be many things, all we really know is n2 >= 3
We know that |N_G(P)| = 420/15 = 28
where P is a sylow 7
n3 could be 4, 10, or 28
so n3 >= 4
n5 could be 6 or 21
n5 >= 6
just counting up the total number of elements in the 3,5,7 sylows is way too small
i did say not basic 
I didn't disbelieve you!
Just want to work through all my options from simplest to least simple
of course, id do the same
We could act on the 7 sylows by conjugation
plus no information is useless
god i hate sylow
that was me once
he created his theorems so that grad students could struggle on algebra quals
i now love sylow
We could act on the cosets of the normalizer of the 7 sylows
Er no
We just did that
also sylow theorems are great
I haven't done a problem like this in years
feel rusty
this one may not be the best one to start on then haha
hahaha
Okay I seem to remember some trick with like
Normalizes of intersections
But the 2 sylows are small...
like, if P, Q are 2 sylows then they're abelian so P \cap Q is normalized by both P and Q
So N_G(P cap Q) contains P and it contains Q
But that's still only like, order 8 at worst
hmm
I know a trick in the case that n2 = 3
But I don't see why that would hold
what's the trick if i may know, im not familiar
If |G| = p^k m, p and m coprime, and G has exactly p+1 sylow p subgroups, then their union has cardinality p^(k+1)
huh interestin
You can use this to show that, if k ≠ 1, G is not simple
is the proof of that complex?
It's tricky
Doesn't use machinery but it's not super easy
Well like machinery beyond standard sylow stuff
ill think about it at some point then
wait but the m is useless here:isnt this just saying the union of sylow p subgroups is p^(k+1) when the sylow p subgroups have order p^k? That doesnt sound right
So I guess I can assume n2 >= 5
Yeah it's just saying "let p^k be the highest power of p dividing |G|"
that really doesnt sound right, i mean the size of the intersection of sylow p-subgroups can vary
weird
Yeah haha it's extremely not true in general
yeah lmao
slightly confused about how it forms a topology
because union of closed sets are closed only if, the sets were ideals?
Oh you're wondering how (iv) is sufficient when it's defined as V(E) for any subset E?
You can show that V(E) = V(I) where I is the ideal generated by E
(since "ideal generated by E" is the same as "intersection of all ideals containing E")
ah okay thank you
Oh right, that's what (i) says
Okay back to sylow
I'm thinking
Let P be a 7 sylow
also since people were talking about finite groups - i often see problems solving problems by letting a group G act on a set S (often the Syl_p(G)) and considering the induced homomorphism G -> Aut(S) and doing stuff with that that often seems like black magic - is there anywhere in particular you can learn that stuff from or do you just need to have seen loads of tricks from experience lol
little bit of column A, little bit of column B
tricks from experience i think
yeah sure
Dummit and foote has a good section on sylow tricks
yeah it's the chapter im on
but I mostly learned by doing guided problems
i mean i've seen a bit from Artin and yeah just little things like er
it's a really good section
lol someone did showing S_6 only non-cyclic group order 6 using it as well even
oh thanks i'll have a look at that
What's the section number narwhal?
why do i forget the sylow proofs every time i do them lol
So I said |N_G(P)| = 420/15 = 28 I think
too many similar but slightly different group actions :p
yes
you can do a lot by just left multiplication and conjugation
ye
ive never really used other actions
also 4.5 it seems
Wait
has proofs and then loads of tricks
3 doesn't divide 28
lmfao
I'm so fucking bad at math holy shit
Okay so N_G(P) contains a 2 sylow Q
oh wait!
hmm
this is on the right path
How many 2 sylows does it contain
Either 1 or 7
I don't know the normalizer is simple, is the problem
in fact it can't be
By burnsides lemma
it's not simple 
yeah
Oh lmfao that too
but also by burnsides lemma
I think my proof is pretty good too
The real thing I want to know is if n2 can be 1
Oh in that case it's a direct product
wait...
It's a semidirect product of a 2 sylow acting on a 7 sylow anyways
PQ is
yeah
Cool
So how does C4 or C2×C2 act on C7
Aut(C7) = (Z/7Z)^* = Z/6Z
So a potential C4 action factors through C2 anyways
the only nontrivial map C2 -> C6 sends 1 to 3
3 being uhh
6 in Z/7Z^×
So the only way for C2 to act nontrivially on C7 is by x |-> x^-1
Ofc
sorry was busy getting my ass kicked by an old man
this is good but wont get you anywhere without another piece of information
which requires a different approach to get
Yeah
Thinking
I mean the most important bit rn is whether the 2 sylows are cyclic
Maybe not actually important
But that's the vibes
Okay, so here's another tack
I wanted to know if n2 = 1 within N_G(P)
this is true iff N_G(P) is commutative iff Q acts trivially on P
So does the 7 sylow commute with the 2 sylow?
in a topology can we have a set be open and closed?
yes
i see
sorry im taking a break to catch up on the drama in #「ivory-tower-emeritus」
I'll return to this problem in a minute
ooo drama
the zariski topology is very very bad
why
it will almost never satisfy the axiom "{x} is closed for every point x"
damn
by points u mean the primes in X?
yes, those are the points of the space Spec A
so why are they not closed?
try figuring out which points are closed in $\mathrm{Spec} \mathbb{Z}$
goblin shamrock
as an exercise
okay 
the points will be contained in themselves no?
(2) in spec Z
V(2) = (2) no?
super confused rn
but um 0?
closure of A is intersection of all closed sets containing A (hence 'smallest' closed set containing A)
it does exist
yes
say C is a closed set containing {(0)}
C = V(I) for some ideal I
the fact that (0) is in V(I) means I is contained in (0)
so I = (0)
so V(I) = evertything, since every prime contains 0
This seem simple enough, but I can't seem to figure it out right now, I might've taken too much downers
so suppose A is some abelian group
and the direct sum of A with B is isomorphic to A
then inductively, we can say that about the direct sum of A with any finite number of copies of B is also isomorphic to A
can we conclude this about A with countably many copies as well?
yeah lol
vibes are a yes
thinking
hmmm
okay so
say we have $\varphi : B \oplus A \to A$ an iso
goblin shamrock
then $\varphi \circ (\mathrm{id}_B \oplus \varphi)$ is an iso $B \oplus B \oplus A \to A$
and so on
goblin shamrock
we have these subgroups iso to B in A
are they like, nested?
no, I don't think so
no no no
they're part of different direct summands
we can define a map from the infinite direct sum into A
right?
like, call our sequence of isos $\varphi_k$
goblin shamrock
defined inductively by $\varphi_{k+1} = \varphi \circ (\mathrm{id}_B \oplus \varphi)$, I guess
goblin shamrock
It's gonna be a chain of subgroups, each a proper (assuming B is nontrivial) subgroup of the previous, and each isomorphic to A, with a complement isomorphic to B
so we can define a map from the infinite direct sum into A
B^n
right?
that's what I'm thinking
by saying like, send the nth copy of B to the nth of these complements
I think it works if you get really nitty gritty about the isos
so does this split?
so I also thing this is true for a reason like this, but I can't make it formal rn
but the reason I'm doubting it
is that I think I used it to show something that someone on mathoverflow said is false
but their counterexample is too involved for me to work through
can you link it?
here's the link
Sorry, how does this cause problems with your question?
so the idea is, suppose A is isomorphic to A (+) Z^2, then it should be isomorphic to A (+) Z^2 (+) Z^2 (+) ..., which is in turn obviously isomorphic to A (+) Z (+) Z (+) Z (+) ..., and adding another copy of Z to the last obviously doesn't change it
which would imply that the situation OP is asking about there never happens
but people in the comments supposedly provide examples
which are too complicated for me to follow
no, we never get that A is iso to A (+) Z
we get that $B \cong B \oplus \Z$ where $B = A \oplus \left(\bigoplus_{i=0}^\infty \Z^2\right)$
goblin shamrock
this B is isomorphic to A
because A + Z^2 = A, and according to the statement we were thinking is true, this implies A = A + Z^2 + Z^2 + ...
I can try to understand the counterexample if you want?
sure, go ahead
not sure if you should be studying the zariski topology if you havent done regular topology 🤔
this is a very complex counterexample
more so, any other open set will be equal to the union of a collection of X_f's
i mean i dont know anything about the zariski topology but it seems rather involved
then nvm me
yeah i just need to understand the topological definitions
most things you learn in a topology course totally fail for the zariski top anyways
like
if you spend 90% of the time on hausdorff spaces or manifolds or cw complexes or whatever
that won't help you herer
a collection or all of the X_f's ?
@urban acorn I wonder if there's a simpler example for your problem then the MSE thing
hmm
the Zariski topology doesn't quite describe the topology of a geometric object the way the topology of something like a sphere does
but there is probably an analogy to be made
hmm i don't know if I agree
I would say it describes the topology of a geometric object but not the geometry
but maybe this is just preexisting ag brainworms
it's kinda like the topology you get when forcing polynomials to be continuous
sort of, although this is the one for affine schemes and not varieties
so was it that any other open set will be equal to the union of all the X_f's or just some of the X_f's?
in practice, when your space comes in a natural topology, even more functions from your space are continuous, and so the Zariski topology is weaker than your natural topology
just some of them
specifically, all of the X_f contained in that open set
okay 
how so?
oh im blue now lol
there are two things which are called the zariski topology
hahaha
one for affine schemes and one for varieties
but yeah they defined it with algebraic sets
right, that's the one for varieties
eyy you're active now
why give them the same name 
they're kind of the same thing
they're the same idea really
@novel parrot you can think of this as like the only in d&f, but we add an extra point for each irreducible algebraic set
but they're weird points
like the (0) in Spec Z
they're "generic points"
and, also, it works for all rings instead of just finite type reduced rings over an algebraically closed field
but if you think about say, $A = \mathbb{C}[x,y,z,w]/(xy-zw)$
goblin shamrock
this is some irreducible 3d surface in C^4
er, the coordinate ring of such a surface
call that surface $X = {(x,y,z,w) : xy = zw}$
goblin shamrock
we can give X the zariski topology, the algebraic set thing you were talking about
but there's also a map $X \to \mathrm{Spec}\ A$
goblin shamrock
do you know what the nullstensatz is?
yes
points
sure, they're of the form $(x-x_0, y-y_0,z-z_0,w-w_0)$ where $x_0 y_0 = z_0 w_0$
goblin shamrock
so we have this map $X \to \mathrm{Spec}\ A$ sending a point to the corresponding maximal ideal
goblin shamrock
and this is a bijection onto the set of maximal ideals
in fact, it's a topological embedding
so you can think of $\mathrm{Spec}\ A$ here as just the surface $X$ with the topology we're used to from dummit and foote, but we've added in a bunch of weird extra points
goblin shamrock
i seee 
like, there's a surface ${(x,y,z,w) : y = zw, x = 1}$ contained in our space
right?
goblin shamrock
yes
(in fact this is isomorphic to A^2)
well, this corresponds to the prime ideal $(x-1)$ of our ring
goblin shamrock
this is prime but not maximal!
oh
and so in $\mathrm{Spec}\ A$, we get this point which is not closed
goblin shamrock
sorry, a point of the spectrum is closed iff it's maximal
this is an exercise ig
but still
the closure of that point $(x-1)$ in $\mathrm{Spec}\ A$ is this point along with every point which lies on that surface
goblin shamrock
so ${(x-1)} \cup {(x-1,y-y_0,z-z_0,w-w_0) : y_0, z_0, w_0 \in \mathbb{C}}$
goblin shamrock
i dont think im ready for this ive lost track
sorry haha
I got too excited
the important thing is what I said at the start about the nullstensatz
i understood that part how we get the extra points
when you're focused on quotients of polynomial rings over an algebraically closed field, Spec A is just the algebraic set defined by A but with extra points
one extra point for each irreducible algebraic subset
okay back to sylow
or wait all groups are abelian had a problem
but that problem seemed too hard
I have an idea for a direction on it
so for an abelian group A and a subgroup U, say that an A,B-appearance inside U is a subgroup of U isomorphic to A with complement in U isomorphic to B
if no subgroup U is specified, we assume U = A
so then A = A + B precisely when A has some A,B appearance (inside A)
and A = A + B + B precisely when A has some A,B appearance inside A, and then another A,B appearance inside the previous one
so the idea is to construct a group that has arbitrarily deep chains of appearances, but no infinitely deep chain of appearances
Here's a different problem I thought of which I feel like the solution to could share ideas with what we need, and it's probably easier.
If an abelian group contains a copy of Z^n for all n, must it contain a copy of Z^\infty?
I want to say that Q/Z is a counterexample to that statement
Or maybe, this depends on whether you mean direct sum or product by Z^\infty
presumably direct sum
esp. since the direct sum would be a counterexample otherwise
yeah I meant direct sum, so you're right, Q/Z is a counterexample
I decided to retire from math for the day, I'll just watch some youtube and try to sleep, then I'll think about this problem tomorrow
thanks for the help though
Is there a simple description of the units of Z[w], where w = exp(2pi i/p), p prime?
Let K = Q(w). I was thinking maybe I should calculate the field norm and see when it equals 1, but the ring of integers of K is usually larger than Z[w], so maybe that's just a necessary condition...
So basically Z[x]/(x^p-1) ?
You need to remove the (x - 1)
I'm not sure what you mean by this
but I suspect the units in that ring are just the obvious roots of unity
The coefficients give more freedom here. For example you can have things like -w, where w is a third root.
ohh, I see
I wasn't paying attention last time, this actually isn't a counterexample. Z^n in my question referred to the n-fold direct sum of Z, not the cyclic group of order n.
which Q/Z can't contain because it's a torsion group
oop im the tired one ig
This seems fallacious: Take the subgroups G_n ~ Z^n. The inclusion maps into G are "compatible" and so it extends to a map from the direct limit to G, and this is an embedding.
At any rate, every element of the direct sum is in G_n for some n, so this is reasonable
is the inclusion Z -> Q epi in the category of rings that might not have a unity?
the main catch seems to be that given f:Q->R, f(1) might not be a unity, but looks like it is one for the Im(f) subring?
just being wary of manipulating invertibles in the usual way in absence of a unity
ah apparently there's a cute zig-zag proof
$$f(a/b) = f(1/b) f(a) = f(1/b) g(a) = f(1/b) g(ab) g(1/b) =$$
$$= f(1/b) f(ab) g(1/b) = f(a) g(1/b) = g(a) g(1/b) = g(a/b)$$
mniip
Ey guys, help with a type of problem
If 'im being given a group of transformation preserving some object, like an hexagon or other form (like, "pentagonal base prism whataver) and i find the order of it thorugh the orbit-stabilizer formula, how do i show isomorphism to stuff like the direct product of a symmetry group and integers modulo n?
A particular case would be this. G is a group of order 20 that preserves a right prism (prisma?) of pentagonal base. How do I show isomorphism to the tiedral group of 10 elements and integers modulo 2?
I assume it's just the automorphism group of that object
Oh wait a prism
I was thinking a pyramid
Then yeah any symmetry of the prism is either a symmetry of its base, a flip between the two pentagonal faces, or a product of these
The former are D5 while the latter is Z2
To see that it’s a direct product (as this only shows every element can be viewed as a product of both) you need to show the two are normal in G and have trivial intersection
But that part comes out pretty obviously
In general, the idea of semi direct products and the Schur Zassenhaus theorem can be helpful for these sorts of problems
"Schur Zassenhaus " 
Ahh alright, this is the part i was missing
ActiveChapter
how do i show that
you could try demorgan's law
ive tried
Try putting the definitions of X_I and X_f into words
which inclusion are you having trouble with
going from right to left
so if P is in the union
P doesnt contain some f
thats correct?
ye
isnt it some f
it is
So X_I is set of all primes that don't contain I. X_f is set of all primes that don't contain f. A prime doesn't contain I iff there is some f in I that the prime doesn't contain
This gives both directions
ok
and is what I meant by try to put the definitions into words
is the prime condition necessary?
No it should work for any set I guess
and now, what about part 5?
where are you stuck with that?
the question, i need to show that if X is contained in a union of open sets, then its also contained in a finite collection of those open sets?
ok
ok dont really understand the hint
which part
X < U X_f for some f's in the ring, are we saying that these f's form an ideal
and its the unit ideal
no
To prove that every open cover has a finite subcover, it suffices to show that every cover by basic open sets has a finite subcover. Those X_f's are just some arbitrary basic open sets
You have to prove that the f's generate the unit ideal from the fact that X_f's cover X
You know how to explicitly write the ideal generated by some set in set builder form?
no
hmm ok so suppose I gave you a singleton {a}
what is the ideal generated by this set
in a ring R
Ra
just doing the same with elements in S
no 
Right, so try to work from the definition of "ideal generated by S"
ie smallest ideal containing S
What elements must it contain?
hmmm 1
Yeah
But you can say a lot more
well not 1 lol
0
I am not talking about the set in this particular case
ok
So the ideal generated by S must contain all finite R-linear combinations of elements of S, right?
yes
Need it contain anything more?
yes
what? 
yes i agree
nice 
Right but it will be exactly that
ideal generated by S = set of all finite R-linear combinations of elements of S
easy to check that this is an ideal
yup
So now you know that the {f_i} defined above are such that 1 is in the ideal generated by them
so you know that 1 must be of that form
havnt proved that yet
hm
ah ok yeah so you have to deduce that from union X_fi = X
well X_fi's are all subsets of X right
yh
alrighty
so theres no prime that contain every element
so it has unit
and 1
correct?
yeah no prime contains all the f_i
still dont know how we know that the generating set is finite
yes
wait no
i dont know why its finite
this
infinite linear combinations don't make sense in an arbitrary ring anyway
you can't talk about convergence
oh okay
Closure
closure how?
topological closure
S with a bar over it means S closure, ie smallest closed set containing S
for the Zariski topology
And the definition makes sense because intersection of closed sets is closed
ok
a neighbourhood of a point x is an open set containing x (or a set containing an open set which contains x, depending on who you ask :p)
okay 
Second definition is superior so if you want the first one make sure to say open neighborhood or I'll shoot 

You’ll have to kill me then
Although actually almost any time I use it, it doesn’t matter whether I say open nbd or nbd
💦 🔫
Since I usually just want a property to hold on some open around each point or sometbinf
ngl i got worried answering that question because of differing terminology lol
do we even need the boolean ring condition for the first part?
i dont think so but just confirming
X_2 in Z should be a counterexample
Or any X_p for non zero prime really
They're not closed
but i think ive done it without using the fact that prime ideals are maximal
and not using x^2 = x
Xf is equal to V(A-f) ?
This says "a prime ideal doesn't contain f iff it contains everything other than f"
bruh dummit and foote just gave me two consecutive exercises that were each near identical copies to previous ones
not very professional
It's a test to see if you are still awake
That is a theorem in artin so I think it's true xd
the proof of this is so neat
Bit stuck on showing that if $G$ is simple of order $p^2qr$ then $|G|=60$ (so $G\cong A_5$). All the solutions ive found online use theorems i havent proved yet like burnside's transfer theorem
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
there should be a proof using only sylow theorem machinery but im struggling to find it
Without giving me the answer of the exercise, is the V^n supposed to be V tensored with itself n times?
Or is it a direct product?
It's direct product
Thanks, although then I guess the universal property for tensors won't help much
Hmm or perhaps it will
It’ll help you define the map
Yeah I think I got it now
Bashed my head for a few hours trying to find a map to the tensored product
I have a question about cosets in group theory. Is this the right channel for it?
yes
speak of the devil, my question is actually about representing non abelian groups with abelian groups lol
lol
you might be the perfect man
well, ask ahead
I'm specifically interested in the symmetries of the square
As you know, some subgroups are not normal, so produce different left and right cosets
There are two sets of conjugated subnormal cosets, but let's focus on these two subgroups
(does the notation make sense to you so far?)
Yeah, I think I can make sense of the notation
I don't know what you mean by "subnormal cosets"
but I do understand which two subgroups you are referring to here, and they are indeed conjugate
the subgroups that are not normal in the dihedral group order 8 are 2-subnormal, but it is not an important detail
I don't know what "n-subnormal" means, I don't believe that's standard notation
is it the size of the orbit of the subgroup under conjugation?
(in which case being normal would be precisely "1-subnormal")
I think that is right, but I'm not sure. It isn't necessary for my question about cosets, is it okay if we circle back and discuss that later?
So these would be the left and right cosets of subgroup 𝐻={𝓮, 𝓯}
so my first question is, can I reduce each of those cosets to the C₂×C₂ Klein four group? I know I'm losing some of the stucture of the group, but I have a plan to get it back 
idk what you mean by "reducing those cosets to a group"
I mean forgetting the dihedral relations of the coset, and treating each as just part of the klein four group
specifically, you lose the rotation
If you start with an element of the left coset, and apply 𝓻𝓻, you will not end up at the same element, but in a klien four group, if you apply any action twice, you will get back to where you started:
(0,0) + (0,1) + (0,1) = (0,0)
does that make sense?
okay, so I need to ask a couple questions about your notation
over here, the arrows show that the rotation is counterclockwise, but then in the square "r" is seen rotated 90 degrees clockwise from the identity
it looks like what you're trying to do here is obtain klein four as a quotient, but this wouldn't work
and I'm not sure in what sense you would get klein four from here
how do you define multiplication of these cosets? because multiplication of representatives doesn't work
Imagine the square is like a combination lock with an arrow pointing to the selected value
okay, but this feels a bit backwards (pun absolutely intended)
r is what is needed to take the part labelled r to the identity, instead of what is needed to take the identity to the part labelled r
I see what you mean. I could redo the pictures another way if that would help
nah, it's okay
I tried a few ways of visualizing the group and this is the way I liked the best
but there are a few options
so I'm not sure how you're trying to obtain a group structure on the cosets of <f>
you labelled them with elements of C2 x C2, but didn't explain how you get that labeling
if multiplying one coset with another just means picking an element out of each and looking in what cosets the product of your elements lands, then it's not well defined in this case
we care about normal subgroups because they're the case when this works
i.e. if you tried this with <r^2>, then I'm pretty sure you would get C2 x C2 as a quotient
right, this is not a quotient
okay
but I am trying to achieve something similar
because a quotient is the same thing as a left or right coset of a normal subgroup
but these are not normal
personally, I don't think there's an interesting group structure to be found in the way non-normal subgroups sit in your group
if you think you can "see" something there
try to formally define how you multiplied these cosets
I can redraw these left and right cosets as columns and rows, where the intersection is in the normalizer {𝓮, 𝓯, 𝓻𝓻, 𝓯𝓻𝓻}
and then I can add the left and right cosets of that second subgroup {𝓮, 𝓯𝓻𝓻} into that table, which is a conjugate of {𝓮, 𝓯}
now I've made something that is like a quotient, because it is closed under left and right actions
but I have never heard of people talking about something like this
The columns are left cosets and the rows are right cosets
okay, so you noticed that the left cosets (which aren't also right cosets) of H2 are the same as the right cosets (which aren't also left cosets) of H1, and vice versa
no, they just overlap
how do you get this quotient-like-but-not-a-quotient group out of this?
yeah, okay
I still don't see this?
because it accounts for both left and right cosets, like a quotient does.
my claim is, if you reduce each of those 4 cosets into klien four groups, you can faithfully represent the dihedral group
with only C₂ groups!
you know how in computation, all of math can be reduced to 1s and 0s? I'm trying to do something similar for the dihedral order 8 group by reducing it to cyclic 2 groups
it's not clear what you mean by "represent" and "reduce" here, you have to make this formal
and by the way, some math can't be put on a computer
:0 really?
like, you can't represent arbitrary real numbers on a computer
you can't program in those properties?
most types of real numbers that one actually works with in practice are computable
like you can model rational numbers on a computer, you can even model all algebraic numbers, and like do arithemtic with them
you can also model arbitrary computable numbers, which are numbers whose digits have an algorithm for computing them, and you can do arithmetic with those, but equality is not in general decidable
I can appreciate the subtleties of pure math. At the very least, computers are an incredibly powerful tool for mathematics, even if they have to approximate some things
sure
I know quantum computers might be able to do different kinds of math
well, there's a thing called a decomposition series
tell me more
all groups can be in some sense "reduced" to simple groups, which in the abelian case are the prime cyclic groups
most non-abelian groups that you know of are reduced to abelian groups, and those are called solvable groups
the first non-solvable group is of order 60
so the dihedral group order 8 is definitely solvable
and it's done just with quotients, no weird quotient-like-but-not-quite-quotient objects
yes
not yet, they aren't 
the solution for the dihedral group order 8 can be represented in an elementary group order 16
so what you need to try to do is make it formal
you mean "elementary group order 16" as in C2 x C2 x C2 x C2 ?
yes
with 1 degree of linear dependence
the 1 degree of linear dependence is because some of the left cosets are not the same as the right cosets
again, I've never heard of such a thing
but I'm very sure it works for at least the dihedral group order 8, and I expect more groups
what would D8 (in terms of order) normally factor into? C2 x C2 x C2?
and then you could reconstruct D8 from the 3 C2s with the semidirect product?



