#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages ¡ Page 610 of 407

Ledog casually exposing the fact that he is a cat
when $\alpha$ is a single cycle take $\alpha=(a_1,a_2,a_3,a_4...)$ and $\beta=(a_1,a_2)...$ then $\beta\alpha\beta^{-1}\alpha$ is necessarily smaller because $a_1$ is fixed
đittle âarwhal â
(as long as you make sure beta only permutes elements that alpha does)
if you write $\alpha$ as a product of disjoint cycles you should be able to do the same thing
đittle âarwhal â
this is the way I showed that A_n is generated by 3-cycles over some exercises
first you show that $A_n$ has no subgroup of index $<n$ for $n>5$
đittle âarwhal â
then you show A_n is generated by 3 cycles by proceeding by induction
Yep, that proof also came up whilst I was googling
the way to do that is to take $A_{n-1}$ embedded in $A_n$ and to adjoin a cycle that permutes $n$, and then noting that it cannot be a proper subgroup of $A_n$ by what we just showed
đittle âarwhal â
ah okay i see
what's wrong with P = (2,1+sqrt(-5)) ?
oh I misread the question
I thought it was asking about showing V tensored with R/P has rank 1
so suppose we have an extension A -> B of dedekind domains and that p in Spec(A) factors into prod q_i^r_i in B
and that the extensions k(q_i) | k(p) are all finite separable
if B/pB is a finite etale algebra over k(p), say the direct product of k1, ..., kn
can we show that the r_i are all 1?
my thought here is that like
Moffz
but im not really sure how to use this to show that the r_i are 1 unless you know that the q_i correspond to the k_i
and that they and have the same degree
each k_i should correspond to a subfield of B containing pB i guess but im not really sure how that helps
Hmm well finite etale algebras decompose uniquely up to isomorphism iirc...
I already was đ
Second attempt 
Let $G$ be a finite group and $\rho$ a one-dimensional representation of $G$. Denote $N:=\ker \rho$ and we know that $G/N=\mathbb Z/n \mathbb Z$. Take another irrep of G, $\sigma$ and observe $\text{Res}_N \sigma$. What can we say about $\text{Ind}_N^G (\text{Res}_N \sigma)$?
RiesZ
we need a ring homomorphism from A to A[x] yeah?
but the only one i see is the trivial map?
oh wait nvm
are you doing the first 4 chapters of AM simultaneously 
@scarlet estuary do you recognize this result / know anything about where itâs proven or anything else really? I was told the proof is by k-theory magic. I might not be remembering all the assumptions so if you know it when something is Noetherian or whatever else thatâs probably the statement Iâm looking for.
A ring A, M a finitely gen projective A module. Then M^(x)n free for some n is equivalent to M^(+)m free for some m
If M is a fg proj module, for any n, you can find a fg projective module P such that M (x) P^(x)n is free
kinda
i kinda like AM
i learnt a bit from dummit and foote
but theres just too much info in dummit and foote
for me
typo in part 3 i think
what should it be
sp < sp' makes senseig
Seems correct to me. x is in S_p(0) iff some element of A - p annihilates it â the same element of A - p' annihilates it so it is in S_p'(0)
ya
no
Youâre using that theorem that says if an ideal lies over a maximal ideal then itâs maximal
Youâve just localized to make it so n and nâ lie over the same maximal ideal
n cap A
I mean really itâs in A_p
so n'c is in B
You have a map A_p -> B_p
And you have n,nâ in B_p
They both lie over m the maximal ideal of A_p
No itâs in A_p

uh
Youâre just pulling the ideal back
I mean A_p even injects into B_p
So itâs a set theoretic intersection with A_p
n\cap A_p = nâ\cap A_p = m
So n and nâ are maximal and then they have to be equal
m = pA_p
Itâs the extension of p inside A_p
n and nâ are qB_p and qâB_p respectively
Because q and qâ lie over p you see that q and qâ both donât intersect A\p so that qB_p and qâB_p are actually prime ideals
Because q and qâ contained p, qB_p and qâB_p will contain pA_p
Thus qB_p\cap A_p is an ideal containing the maximal ideal pA_p, and is thus equal to it
Likewise for qâB_p
Now qB_p and qâB_p are both maximal because they lie over a maximal ideal in an integral extension, but one is contained inside the other so that theyâre equal
Now since qB_p = qâB_p by that correspondence for primes inside a localization you have q = qâ
Sometimes category theory is extremely based
Namely I had a moment yesterday where I proved for the first time that Z/a tensor Z/b is Z/gcd(a,b)
And I did it without ever looking at a proof for this before
And I did it a different way than I think most people do
Can someone help me?
what are your thoughts/what have you tried?
also this kind of thing belongs in #proofs-and-logic
This from a grad algebra course tho đŚ
question still stands
produce some original thought and try the problem, or else no one is going to help you
@latent anvil itâs your silly proof lol
Iâm pretty sure Shamrock did this same proof just to see if he could once
I donât mean silly in a condescending way to be clear
Or actually Iâm not sure if this is exactly what he did
Similar vibes?
He did some bullshit with a lot of adjunction and showed they represent the same functor
IIRC
Yeah I think the method was a little different tho
I donât think he ever explicitly defined a new functor?
Vidja
Gaim
Yeah. If you want you can say it as like the universal properties of free groups mod relations
I just defined it for clarity
Chmonkey
FWIW itâs probably good to just prove that R/I (x) R/J = R/(I +J) if youâve never done it before
Itâll come in handy at some point

I guess this is actually a special case of M (x) R/I = M/IM
My proof involved the pontryagin dual
Tf
This feels like it should be similar
A short proof that Hom(Z/nZ, Z/mZ) = Z/gcd(n, m)Z:
Lemma: if A is a finite abelian group, A is isomorphic to its dual Hom(A, Q/Z)
Proof: Since Hom sends finite direct sums (in the first argument) to finite direct sums, wlog by the classification of finite abelian groups A = Z/nZ
Yeah, I think I used a specific dual whereas you used all possible duals
oh wait, I was spending all this time relating the hom and the tensor
Fight between the two meme proofs, which is better
-_-
My computation of the actual tensor is just what Alex said, R/I tensor R/J
And good
As is Brendanâs
My proof is also correct
Yeah but
Your proof is âI wanted to see if I couldâ at best
The one I give is good and should be the proof given in a good algebra class unironically
Disagree
Chm I only think in terms of universal properties
but also, we're proving things which are very different
Calling it good is disingenuous
I could not write down the explicit iso
I spent a big chunk of time relating Hom and tensor
Okay nvm
Yoneda gives you the explicit iso
If you wanna unravel crap
Yoneda is so based
I just think knowing tensor rules is good
I'm a big believer in knowing isomorphisms
Because your life can be saved by them
Also I stopped gaming because I tilted
Yeah Sham this is true
Agree but
I proved this bc i had never proved this tensor rule
A good algebra class
Yes
And then youâd GG
And have you peofe@many of them this way :)
*prove
A good algebra class would have already done Fourier theory and pontryagin duals
Just use right exactness
A good algebra class would assume you know the tensor product
So thereâs no reason to do any of this

You also literally don't need to do Ext stuff, it's easy to compute Hom(Z/nZ, Q/Z). I was just trying to maximize meme potential
Tfw
Actually hold up
I disagree that Brendan you were computing a different thing
Yeah?
I was proving they coincide
Or is that only for the higher ones?
And then at the end has a line about what Tor0 is
Chm we literally just computed them
and both got Z/gcdZ
That abstractly Ext and Tor coincide
So if you did that first
You were computing Tor0 actually
But I forget if that holds for the 0-th groups
So it does hold for the 0th order groups
Yeah

Except for Ext(Z, -) maybe?
I don't see how it follows from the Z/nZ case
Wait sorry I meant Ext(-, Z)
Okay shamrock going offline hf with algebra
hf
I'm a gamer
Oh have fun
I was trying to figure out how the word âifâ fit in there

I am addicted to 
I use it too much
I
Am so confused
That yâall donât think this proof is the correct way to approach it
-_-
At least as a first pass at tensor Product of abelian groups
?????
If youâve like touched tensor Hom which you should
Because it follows from an easy tensor product rule so you should just do that one, the tensor product rule is more succinct and more applicable to a variety of situations
If you can do a universal property way to do that
What if you donât know / have that one
Then you should prove that and then use that
Thatâs I think the âcorrectâ approach
I mean itâs the same proof to do that
To develop a general rule and then apply it
I mean I donât care how you prove the tensor rule if you can do it with universal properties and representable functors go off
I just think youâll run into an issue adapting the proof because you said âBezoutâsâ
And that wonât work always
I mean maybe thatâs just computing nZ + mZ
ÂŻ_(ă)_/ÂŻ
I donât think using representable stuff is the right way to do stuff if thereâs a more low tech way to do it in general tho
Is it not a cool proof of the general tensor rule then?
I mean idk the regular proof of that
Just i donât think thatâs what id as a prof show if I was gonna prove it
You just show M (x) R/I = M/IM
That follows by right exactness
Like
Right exactness
Feels more high tech than what I did
But maybe Iâm braindead for thinking that?
You used hom tensor adjunction
Right exactness follows directly from that
Left adjoint means right exact so idk not really
Like if I wanted to demonstrate how you can use representable functors to do stuff this is a reasonable example
If I was just showing the tensor product for the first time I wouldnât adopt that approach to thinking about it because most people arenât ready to do that I think
Theyâre going wtf is t3ns0rZZZ
And then Iâd just do the M (x) R/I = M/IM thing
The first way I would introduce tensor to someone is via tensor hom
Thatâs how iâd motivate it lol
I just donât think the avg person who is at a point theyre just learning a tensor product is that comfortable with functors
You come from a different background which makes that not the case
Or bilinear
Yeah
Bilinear is how I would go and then youâd eventually show hom tensor to get right exactness
And then Iâd use right exactness to derive a lot of properties
Failure of the education system đ
Lel
I think ppl confuse âbestâ way with âthe ultimately cleanest wayâ with most appropriate for the time
Fair
You see it when ppl try to help ppl all the time here in the channels
Someone is like help how do I prove __
And someone is like lmfao sheaf cohomology is 0 bruh
And theyâre like âwhat the fuck is a sheafâ
Or something like that
Yeah but this isnât what Iâd show someone first learning it unless I knew they had brain worms
I mean sure
Idk 2 many thoughts for 1 time
I should be thinking about commutative rings
coooooooooommutative ring theory
I checked if you follow them
Because I thought this was a new Shamrock account lol
lmao nah its not me
In a talk, the speaker stated without proof that it's possible to extend the $p$-adic valuation on $\mathbb{Q}$ to a valuation $v_p:\mathbb{C}\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$. Does anyone know of a proof of this fact?
Phorphyrion
the algebraic closure of the p-adic completion of Q is an algebraically closed field of characteristic 0 with the same cardinality as C, so it is isomorphic to C
and of course there are many isomorphisms possible (basically as many as field automorphisms of C)
so that gives many different extensions of the p-adic valuation to C
well how do you define a valuation on the algebraic closure of Q_p?
I'm reading something that says if {x1...xn} are roots of an irreducible degree n polynomial over Qp, you can just pick vp(x1) = ... = vp(xn), = vp(x1x2...xn)^(1/n) and you know that last one because x1x2...xn is in Qp
oh nice thanks
I have a bit of a question
let a be some eigenvalue for f: V \to V for any V veector space
so if dim(ker(f - a*I)) = n
does it mean that the minimal polynomial of f must contain (x -a )^n
or could it just have some (x - a)^k where k < n
Anything in between should be possible
For example the minimal polynomial for I is x - 1, even though the kernel of (I - 1I) is dimension of the vector space
On the other end you can come up with matrices whose minimal polynomials are higher powers using the Jordan form
oh wow
alright, ty
yea idk why I thought there's an upper cap
it's probalby to do with this one assignment problem I'm doing that caps the power
Hmm it may not be capped by n actually
It would be capped by the maximum k such that ker ((f - aI)^k) â 0
This condition gives n 1x1 Jordan blocks
So in all, those n dimensions only contribute a single degree to the minimal polynomial
The ker((f-aI)^k) gives a kxk Jordan block with degree k minimal polynomial
And if there are multiple such kernels, the highest power will be the degree of (x-a) (since the minimal polynomial is the lcm of the minimal polynomial of each Jordan block)
im pretty lost with this one, all i can think about is that we've shown before that there a no such groups of order less than 100 so we can assume |G|>100 and then to write |G|=p^a * m with p^a<100 and m>= 100
where G is a minimal counterexample
but I really dont know what approach to take
Im thinking I need to show G has a simple subgroup of non prime order <100, then it must be non-abelian, contradicting minimality of G
nah probably being too restrictive
Spamakinđˇ
I am stuck on this how many part
Idk about the number of homomorphisms but notice ${i^n | n \in \mathbb{Z}_4} = H$
T0lgi01
it's the number part tripping me up
so Homomorphisms preserve neutral elements and inverse elements
I guess there aren't many choices for f(1) for 1 in Z_4
since f(1+1) = f(1) + f(1) you can get all f(1), (2), f(3) from just your choice for f(1) and therefore the entire homomorphism
f(1+1) = f(1)f(1) *
You can talk through mute? 
fix a generator for G, then send it to any generator for H
Yeah I used + as any operation I hope you dont start adding the complex numbers
gives 3 homomorphisms
and then there's the trivial homomorphism
which sends everything to 1
It need not go to a generator of H
But deciding where a generator of G goes decides everything
isn't it 8
because you can send one to anything
since all elements of H have order dividing 4
disregard my earlier answers cause i had the misconception they had to get sent to an element of the same order oof
got confused between homo and iso
Easiest way is taking all 64 functions and checking them for homomorphism :))
there are 256 functions
oh yeah 4^4
anyway narwhal wtf is that problem you posted
ikr
its very 
and why are you studying this kind of group theory 
im certain the fact that 10000 is the square of 100 is helpful
since we did it for groups less than 100
just use feit thompson 
lmao no
just prove feit thompson 
self study through all of dummit and foote
and i really liked this chapter
bruhhh
oof
iirc the proof is like 300 pages 
i enjoy it so far
groups 
rings, fields 
this chapter introduced a simple group of order 168 and the connection with the fano plane is so satisfying
groups of lie type seem really cool to study
but i agree ring and fields seem cooler
im almost done with groups after these exercises i only have one more small section on free groups
and then to rings i go
You are literally gonna be like that one swole arm and one thin arm meme
i do plan on looking at a more advanced group theory text at some point
probably wont happen ill loose interest before i finish dummit and foote
doing some research on finite group classifications and having to look up the definition of a sequence

and go do something else
groups appear later in the fields but are actually interesting
so i dont suppose any of you have an idea for my problem then 

the next problem shows there are no simple groups of order 420 lmao
this is why group theory is useful
lol yeah everytime I go buy groceries I use that fact, its very useful
I suppose it's just taking all odd numbers whose prime factorisation have two primes with power >= 2 and check they cannot be simple because the rest is covered by other theorems (?)
the last part is the hard part lol
actually thats a lot of number isnt it
just check every case 
that's basically what i did for groups less than 100 lol
i proved lemmas for a bunch of different forms and took a few special cases aside
that was hell lol
but now i know the only non abelian simple group of order less than 100 is A5
worth it
next highest is order 120 iirc there aren't that many
now i know the only non abelian simple group of order less than 100 is A5
na it's 168
it is that ez
XD
ig ill wait till i can harass an intellectual like chmonkey on this
or ill post on stackexchange later
https://groupprops.subwiki.org/wiki/List_of_simple_non-abelian_groups_of_small_order
This has all the ones up to order 8000 I wonder how they expect to solve it
good luck on all the other exercises
danke
my module theory class had an extra exercise to classify all rings of small order
where small was upto 7, but optionally included 8
haha
This wiki is 3 orders of magnitude above that
wait how do you do that

Use the characteristic map from Z into whatever ring
So the only ring of prime order p is Z/pZ
and the only interesting cases are 4 and 6
For 4, you have Z/4Z or Z/2Z is contained in it
if it is the latter case, then adjoining x and quotienting by a quadratic is the only option
and you can work out which quadratics give isomorphic quotients
6 case is pretty similar, 8 is somewhat hard but you can figure out a pattern for p^3

but once you know the Z/nZ that is contained you just adjoin variables and quotient by some stuff and you just have to work out what stuff
what year you in @dusty river ?
noice
isn't MSc just generic
and you specialize in PhD?
at least the one I am doing is
specialize in second year
when writing thesis
will decide then 
Oh okay here you specialize when applying, there arent any courses every msc student has to take
Quick question, is the ideal generated by 7 both prime and maximal in Z[x]?
I proved that its prime, so my assumption says its maximal cause it is irreducible
no, irreducible doesnt imply that the generated ideal is maximal
counterexample: ||your example lol||
or like x in Z[x] is irreducible, but (x) is not a maximal ideal
I got what you meant lol
Another question, how would I Reduce $$I = x^{37} + (100! + 1)x^9 + (2^{201} - 2)x^3 + 101!$$ ? to show that Q[x]/I is a field? I assume I have to use Eisenstiens criterion but the manipulation of it is not clear to me
freshzak187
eisenstein works 
I assumed so lol but idk how to apply it
hints are
no transformations are needed, it is directly applicable
and there is only one prime which can divide both the degree 9 term and the constant term
too high and you don't divide the constant term, too low and you don't divide the degree 9 term
After that it is just verifying that the eisenstein criteria are met
stronger hints: ||wilson's theorem, fermat's little theorem||
its a packed problem 
it does for a PID which Z is (EDIT: disregard, I didn't notice it was Z[x])
(edit: disregard this) Assume I is an ideal of Z properly containing (7), let x be some element of I - (7), since 7 doesn't divide x and 7 is prime, by Bezout's identity you can write 1 = 7a + xb for integers a, b, meaning 1 in I, and therefore I = Z
LMAO I just noticed we were talking about Z[x]
my bad
Anyone here into Group Representation Theory?
are there any concerns regarding the last implication?
That's definitely a lot more clear
Couldn't you also just multiply the original xy = yx by x on left, y on right to get between the two statements
No, because we are not assuming that xy=yx in the second implication
I just mean $xy = yx \iff xyy = yxy \iff xxyy = xyxy$
potato
Ah, I see what you mean. That would have been quicker for sure.
yeah, a lot of algebraic equalities (especially early group/ring theory) can be proved with iffs and clever manipulation
and imo don't be scared to just multiply stuff through
For sure, I just didn't see it
Like a crappier version of what I did would be say like
yeah nws!
like to say suppose (xy)^2 = x^2 y^2. Then xyxy = xxyy, so yxy = xyy by multiplying on left by x^-1 and so yx = xy etc
I am gonna hold out though because my proof still gets the job done, but now I know about these tools for the future; that way I can discover these things on my own next time.
Part A
The last argument works just by rearranging: $xyxy^{-1}x^{-2}=e$ iff $xyxy^{-1}=x^2$ iff $xyx=x^2y$ iff $yx=xy$ (step by step)
đittle âarwhal â
Oh I misunderstood this is your answer isnât it
Well yeah it works
But yeah potatoâs answer works better
Anyone đŚ @upper pivot
in a ring, if 1+a is unit, then a is nilpotent?
Not necessarily. Take -1 in Z
There is a similar condition for the Jacobson radical which is probably what you are thinking of
If 1+ab is unit for all b then a is in the Jacobson radical
yes, i want to prove radical jacobson is in the nilradical in a polynomial ring
Itâs probably just easier to use the definition as being intersection of maximal and primes in that case
You can characterize nilpotent and unit polynomial based on their coefficients
yes, a polynomial is nilpotent if all his coeficients are nilotent
and a polynomial is unit if his first coeficient is unit and the others coeficients are nilpotent
So if for a polynomial p, 1+pq is a unit for all q, then you have to prove that p is nilpotent
This follows from those 2 statements
Ah I see why you wanted this
Well you can avoid it by choosing q such that nice things happen
i think q=0, then the first coeficient of pq is 0 and 0 is nilpotent
Yeah that just tells you that 1 is a unit then, which doesn't give anything
q=x
What does that tell you?
Or x1
Let $p(x)=a_0+a_1x+...+a_nx^n$ in the radical jacobson of A[x] then $1-p(x)q(x)$ is unit for all $q(x) \in A[x]$, taking $q(x)=x$ we have $1-xp(x)=1-(a_0x+a_1x^2+...+a_nx^n)$ is unit , then $a_0,...,a_n$ are nilpotent and $p(x)$ is nilpotent, so $p(x)$ is in nilradical
Or x1
Yep nice 
thanks
asking this again in case someone can answer it now, any hints on approaching this question?
probably just more of the same thing that you did for order < 100 ?
but for order <100 i basically went through a lot of different forms of order and took a few special cases apart
definitely not the way to do this one, the order is too big
the fact that 10000 is the square of 100 must be important though: im thinking the fact that you can write |G|=ab with a<100, b>=100 must help
(and we can assume |G|>=100 since we showed it is true for <100)
where G is a minimal counterexample
G is a counter example so it must be simple, G/H isnt defined?
or do you mean coset space
i dont use that notation
uuuh
I cannot count past 100 so larger simple groups are uncountable and we know from model theory that ever uncountable simple group has a countable simple subgroup 
you saw nothing 
lmao
that's what they said yesterday 
yeah the problem looks like it wants to inflict maximum pain on the reader
i refuse to believe there is no elegant way to do this
other than feit-thompson lol
just prove the feit thompson theorem smh
too fast for you
I am getting too old now I am slow and half of what I write is nonsense
Just do proof by likely existence of elegant proof from presence in d&f smh
haha
Are these song lyrics
the zef song
i thought the bigger brains would know but i guess not
use sage or smth ez
i think ill ask on stackexchange in the end
will let yall know if i come across a nice proof
check all cases with a computer like a chad
i wish your username was true then id have a vacuously true result
lmao
Bruh use the classification of finite simple groups

btw did you figure anything out regarding that question i asked yesterday
Oh sorry, I didnât think too much about it
lmao it's fine was just wondering
But here are some thoughts I had:
You canât just quotient the ring C[[X]] by the maximal ideal containing a power series t to get roots, because the equivalence class of X still might not be a root. Once I noticed that I basically stopped thinking about it
Not much progress I suppose
ill understand that once i study more ring theory lmao
i dont get thisd
ive understoof
taking a max in Bp, contracting it will give the max in Ap (p exteneded) and then contracting it will give just p
but how will inverse beta give q that contracts to p
Youâre just pulling the ideal back along both ways
If you contract q into A
Itâs the same as if you contracted n into A_p (giving m) and then contract that into A giving p
ok
This the one you're asking about?
That's just in an intro group theory course?
It's an exercise from D&F 

I think your mute isn't working
And what okay D&F I know you want to bore the reader but yike
Ledog may not be silenced 
ok so suppose I have a set G with an associative operation
and suppose that for all g, h in G
I know there is a solution to the following two equations
g * x = h
and x * g = h
so if I have g = h
I know there are solutions for g * x = g and x * g = g
so identity for g
but how do I know that for different g
such an x isn't different?
My goal is to prove that G is a group
so I know that there is a solution to
x * g = g
y * h = h
how can I show x = y (cause identity is unique)
so you want to show that there is at most one identity element? what would happen if you had more than one, and tried to multiply them together?
well the thing is
doesn't that only work with left and right identity?
how do I do this to show that left identity is unique
@topaz leaf
The group axioms tell you that there exists some e such that eg = ge = g for all g in G right? You can use this to show that if xg = g, then x = e and similarly, y = e
honestly, not sure rn, i don't have a notepad to scribble on đ¤ˇ
I don't know that it is a group
that is what I am trying to prove
Oh I misread
I don't think this is possible. You can definitely have sets G with associative operations that have different identities for each element
I don't think I mistyped above but just sending the question here again
the "show first" imo is misleading
cause I think you have to have unique left and unique right identity
as a preliminary
Ah I see what you're saying now
and that's where I'm stuck
(x * g = g) and (y * h = h) => x = y
that's what I need to show
at least I think I need to show it?
No, I don't see why you need to show that first
If you show the hint is true, then if xg = g, then the hint says that gx = g too. Using the hint again lets you show that x = y
if gx=h and h=xg have a solution for every g,h then you can take h=g so gx=xg=g, this is, x is the identity
and if you take h=e, then gx=e=xg, this is, g has inverse
@barren sierra
yeah zoph is right the hint says "for some g and h" if you had to show first than there is a left inverse and a right inverse it wouldn't have said that
now if I wanted to prove what he hint says I would get g * e1 * h = g * h = g * e2 * h, so to deduce e1 = e2 from that I would like multiplications to be injective
not sure how to get that though
are there polynomials which are not unit in A[x] but are units in the ring of formal power series?
yea exactly
the issue is
I don't think we can say that if h =/=g
then h * e_1 = h and g * e_2 = g => e_1 = e_2
why not?
fun fact: all finite simple groups are actually just the prime cyclic ones
yes. i.e. (x+1)(1-x+x^2-x^3+x^4-...) = 1 in Z[[x]]
Read my other message, you can derive that from the hint
I agree with Zef that I'm not sure how to prove the hint though
I'm so lost
hint says "if we have left and right identity, show they're the same"
which is easy
however
I can't do that
without showing unique left and unique right identity
if h =/=g then h * e_1 = h and g * e_2 = g => e_1 = e_2
If you show the hint is true, then if xg = g, then the hint says that gx = g too. Using the hint again lets you show that x = y
Oh that's what you're saying
now you see where I'm stuck?
Yes I agree that showing the uniqueness of left identity is one way that you can prove the hint through
It basically boils down to what Zef said though, you need to know that the solutions to the equations are unique in general
Is there some assumption that G is finite here? Because I'm not sure this statement is true otherwise
no there isn't
this is the full question
okay i'm back - what progress have you made?
none cause my question hasn't really been answered
I've answered the whole question assuming we have unique left and unique right identity
however I do need to prove this assumption some how
which was my original question
thanks for the edit 
lol
Assume you have some number of left identities (l_i) and some number of right identities (r_j)
then l_i = l_i * r_j = r_j
(where the left equality holds because r_j is a right identity, and the right equality holds because l_i is a left identity)
so all left identities are equal to all right identities is unique
ohhhhh
ok so that's how I proved l_i = r_i
but extending that reasoning is slick
ok cool
i feel like that guy that's just walked in, scribbled a couple of lines on the board and saved the day
đ
So I take it this is the reasoning:
- there is some right identity for some element g (same for left)
- there is at least one right identity that works for all elements g (same for left)
- all these right and left identities are equal
I don't see how this logic is enough. The question is whether a left inverse for g and a left inverse for h necessarily have to be the same right?
inverse? or identity?
Identity sorry
i haven't done that yet (not sure if @barren sierra has either) but i suspect you can show this using properties i) and ii) give in the question
well doesn't this show that they necessarily have to be the same?
my statement is true if l_i (and r_j) are left (right) identities for ALL elements
so I think @mild laurel is asking about step 1 to step 2
yea
and i think you can show that using properties i) and ii) given in the question
Yeah idk I feel like this isn't true
The properties basically say that left multiplication by any element g is surjective and so is right multiplication by g
If you replace surjective with injective, then the statement isn't true since you can take the positive integers under addition and this isn't a group
yea
idk if I agree that it isn't true but at the very least there is nothing saying that we have an identity that works for all elements
Okay nvm, maybe this works. So if you assume that xg = g, then for any h, you know there's some y such that gy = h. So if we take xg = g and multiply both sides on the right by y, you get that xh = h. In other words, x is a left identity for all elements
And you can do a similar thing for right identity, and then apply what Zain said
ohhhh
ok
well I mean if I know there is a left identity and a right identity that works for all elements
I don't care about elements that are an identity for only some elements
I mean, this is how you show that an identity for some elements is an identity for all elements
yeah, going from step 1 to step 2
how does 5.13 work?
how is Ap integrally closed by 5.12
what are they letting ring B be?
S is being A- p and A-m i guess?
Yeah
A is integrally closed in K
C is the image of A in the inclusion from A to K, you can just all it A to make this easier to see
The integral closure of A in K is itself
Therefore the integral closure of A_p in K_p is A_p
K_p = K = field of fractions of A = field of fractions of A_p
So A_p is integrally closed
Yeah, it's like you've already inverted all non zero things, so adding formal inverses to any non zero things (and then quotienting by reasonable relations) now is not gonna have an effect because they are already all there
It will only have an effect if S contains 0
because then you are inverting something that hasn't yet been inverted
right yep
and
those fp and fm mape
maps
are from Ap into Ap/Am right
trivial
maps
but here I said it is easier to just think of C = A and A sitting in K
so really f is just identity when you view it like that
and you are localising and localisation of identity is identity
ok well we don't a priori know f is identity
but f is inclusion into integral closure
so fp is not Ap to Ap/Am
it is from Ap to integral closure of Ap in K
yeah
i didnt understand what you said
embedding of A into its integral closure inside K
ok
but we know integral closure of Ap and Am is Ap and Am
then fp is the embedding of Ap into its integral closure inside K
we only know that when proving b â a or c â a
You are saying that Ap is integrally closed
that is the hypothesis in b
right now I am assuming none of a,b,c
I am just doing in the main set up
ok
f is embedding of A into its integral closure in K, then fp is embedding of Ap into its integral closure in Kp = K (this is exactly what 5.12 says but I have used embedding instead of actual having things be contained in each other, but it works out exactly the same)
ok so i understand that Ap is integrally closed iff it maps onto the closure in K
ok got it!

Quick question. So there is a question that asks me to prove that the rest and quotient of the euclidean division of two polynomials A, B in Z[X] (with B unitary) are also in Z[X]. The hint stated to do induction on deg(A) for deg(A) >= deg(B) (the other case being trivial).
But since B is unitary..
and Z[X] is a ring,
can't I consider the quotient Z[X]/(B) ?
then [A] = [R] (R being a representative of degree less than that of B), so A-R is in (B), i.e. A - R = QB with Q in Z[X]
and then conclude by uniqueness ?
Am I missing something here ? Is there something stopping me from doing so ?
Why does R exist?
B is unitary
so [B] = 0
wait ?
why wouldn't it exist ?
if : $$ B = \sum_{k=0}^{b = deg(B)}{a_k X^k} $$
Der Gegenstand ist einfach.
then since B unitary, : $$ X^b = \sum_{k=0}^{b - 1}{-a_k X^k} $$
Der Gegenstand ist einfach.
so basically we can always have R by replacing the X^k for k >= b in A with the above expression
and its degree would be less than that of B
Yeah sure, but this is basically the same as the induction proof
So there's no real need to go through the whole R/(B) stuff
I see
:", I was actually struggling with the induction proof so that's why I resorted to this, but now I can also see how to do it with induction
thanks !
i can imagine that x^n = phi
but not 100% sure
like $\phi^m + \cdots + a_n = (x^n)^m + \cdots + a_n$
ActiveChapter
because phi is a map we need to actually input something make it equal to the RHS
You're right
And there is something like that in A[x1,...,xn]

Well ok so the equation you wrote isn't exactly what's happening
since phi isn't x^n, but multiplication by x^n
ye
what you want to prove is that if a polynomial in phi is 0, then the same polynomial in x^n is 0
and the way to turn a map given by a polynomial in phi into a polynomial in x^n is to evaluate it at a point (a polynomial in phi is really an endomorphism of A[x_i's])
ok so its gonna be 0 for everything in A[xi]
yes
makes sene
it is the 0 map\
x is the root of the minimal polynomial
the x_i are all the conjugates of x (i.e. the other roots of the minimal polynomial)
if you expand out (t-x1)*...*(t-xn) then you get the minimal polynomial, right? well, each coefficient a_j is just sums and products of the terms x_i
that's what the sentence says, yes
but ehmm a_i is in a yes?
the statement says "x is algebraic over the field of fractions K of A"
edit: i think i misread
x was integral over a in A
but that also implies its algebraic over the frac field
or am i misundertstanding
so then my next question is why/how are we using 5.14 to show a_i is integral over a
ah no, a_i come from the minimal polynomial over K

but the last part
is it lying is rad(a) or rad(a^e)
5.14 says r(a^e)
nvm got it

uhh
i didnt get it
so we take an x in B
x is integral over a so satisfies a polynomial with coefficients in a
xi are the other roots
in L
so why is min poly of x different
"The coefficients of the minimal polynomial of x over K are polynomials in the x_i""
if the min poly was different, how do we know it will be in x_i
- Clearly x is algebraic over K.
- Let L be an extension field...
- Each x_i satisfies the same equation....
- The coefficient of the minimal polynomial....
- Since A is integrally closed....
@novel parrot which statement are you struggling with
part 4
the min poly for x in K
is not the same one as the initial relation over a right?
x is integral over A, and K is the the field of fractions of A
so the min poly [of x over A and of x over K] should be the same, no?
so coefficients are automattically integral over a by what you said now?
thats confusing me
i made a small edit, are we still saying the same thing?
yes
but if thats the case
then im confused
$t^{n} + \cdots + a_1 t + a_0 = 0$, $a_i \in \bold{a}$
ActiveChapter
i don't think so
but then you wouldn't need 5.14
have you got a supervisor or a friend or someone else to ask about this?
nope not right now
okay
let me know if you manage to figure it out
what's your question again ?
so x satisfies a polynomail over the ideal a in A
but over the quotient field, we have a min polynomial for x and its conjugates
firstly, why are these conjugates also satisfying the same integral dependence polynomial over ideal a in A
is the min polynomial for x over K the same as the integral dependence polynomial for x?
@celest mantle
nvm i figured it out
i think it just comes from the fact that the minimal polynomial of x divides all polynomials that admits x as root, so P(x) = pi(x)Q(x), and then you do the trick with the conjugates
yes
thanks though đ
so what's the tl;dr?
so we got x in B which is integral
consider the min polynomial for x in K
they arnt necessarily the same
but in K, the min polynomial for x will divide that integral dependence for x
so each x_i is integral over a
so coefficients of min polynomial are too
then rest follows by previous result
i see
do you happen to know an example for this?
alrighty 

@novel parrot may i ask your background? (nth year undergrad etc. etc.)
going to start my phd in a few weeks 
i had a few years off though so i'm still a lil rusty
group theory (/group representation theory if you've heard of that)
in a nutshell, group representation theory looks at studying groups by looking at group actions on vector spaces
are you asking why this is true
Bp2 is the extension of p2 in B, which is the integral closure of A in B because B is integral over A, hence the radical of Bp2 (which of course contains it) is the integral closure of p2 in B
So y in Bp2 is in the integral closure of p2 in B, hence integral over p2
B is integral over A
so by definition the set of elements of B integral over A has to be all of B
nvm

sorry i gotta question
how does showing that
prove it
p2 is a contraction of prime in Bq1
yh
Then they are inducting
i mean if you have an arbitrary $\mathfrak{q}_1 \supseteq \ldots \supseteq \mathfrak{q}_m$ and $\mathfrak{p}_1 \supseteq \ldots \supseteq \mathfrak{p}n$ then you'll get $\mathfrak{q}{m+1$ by just ignoring the first $m - 1$ terms of each sequence and the last $n - m - 1$ terms of the chain of ideals in $A$
Moffz
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p2 being a contraction of a prime ideal in B_{q1}?
how having a prime in Bq1 contracting to p2 shows that a prime in B will contract to p2
prime ideals of the localization B_q1 will be prime ideals of B contained in q1
đŽ
yah
god
okey
my bad
the thing is i knew that at the beginning then got confused
just think of quotients cutting out all prime ideals that dont contain an ideal and localization cutting out all prime ideals not contained in the ideal
so if you want to go up you take quotients
if you want to go down you take localizations
but in localizations
(i mean in general like going up as in passing from an ideal to some ideal containing it and going down as passing from an ideal to some ideal contained within it)
What do you mean by that
Like
like its image under the localization map A -> A_p





