#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 618 of 407
an upper bound is somethign that is divisible by both 6 and 9, so by 18. and so 18 is actually the sup
whats divisor lattice?
m <= n iff m | n
poset with all binary sups and infs
from what set?
what
poset is partially ordered set
sup and inf of any 2 elements exist
So i had a problem in category theory (which is trivial, but I don't know much about category so can't solve it)
It says find a category where product of rings is a universal object
I saw definition of Universal objects but i dont dont clearly understand what they actually are
@summer falcon #category-theory
Oh
what does it mean for ^ distribute over the other?
same thing as * distributes over +
ok
Hi everyone. I'm practicing some problems for my abstract algebra class, and I have a quick question. I'm running into a few questions involving Aut(U(n)). I know that Aut(Z_n) is isomorphic to U(n), but I don't know what I can say about Aut(U(n)). If there is a fact about Aut(U(n)), I will certainly try to prove it myself, but I'm not sure what I should attempt to prove. I'm basically wondering if there is an isomorphism between Aut(U(n)) and another nice group and then I will attempt to prove it. I'm just not sure what that isomorphism is, so I'm not sure what I should prove. Does that make sense? Thanks!
are you asking if Aut(U(N)) is isomorphism to anything?
This seems tricky as U(n)'s structure depends on properties of n
Like there almost certainly isn't one universal thing thing for this I believe (in the sense of oh Aut(U(n)) is a member of this family)
What sort of questions were coming up?
yes exactly. Once I know what isomorphism to look for, I can try to prove it. But I agree, it does seem tricky. The problem I was doing where this arose was the following: write Aut(U(25)) in terms of Z_n \oplus Z_m. I know a relation from Aut(Z_n) to U(n), but I need to get out of the Aut(U(25)) in order to use that.
25 not 35 hold on let me edit it
Ah, okay, well this is somewhat easier as |U(25)|| = φ(25) = 20
for example
i.e. we've already narrowed it down to two possible groups
Perhaps that's the sort of thing they had in mind...
phi(25) = 20, not 4. phi(25) = 5^2 - 5^(2 - 1) = 25 - 5 = 20
my bad, yup
but still, we're dealing with U(n) here, not Aut(U(n)). Also, what does CRT mean?
chinese remainder theorem
I haven't learned that
but yeah, we've not shown it's cyclic so that doesn't apply yet
oh sure, interesting
the idea is that if n,m are coprime then Z_(mn) is isomorphic to Z_m x Z_n
that fact I have been given, yes. They didn't call it the chinese remainder theorem, but if that is what it is, then I do know it
ive never used the chinese remainder theorem for anything
Really? The Chinese remainder theorem is awesome.
now, I do have formulas to turn Z_m \oplus Z_n into U(k). They gave a few in the book. I suppose I could turn that U(k) into Aut(Z_k), and then I would have to show Aut(U_s) is isomorphic to Aut(Z_k). I wrote s to avoid confusion with the n in the direct product
I remember you have done AM exercises which use it 
lol really
lol i forgot but there is a theorem from gauss that kills this i think lol
but yes let's not just nuke it yet
Z_m ⊗ Z_n is the 0 module I think it was
But basically you can show that U(25) is cyclic
and then you can just use the same theorem once more to find Aut(U(25))
messing with bilinear maps was confusing
:)
CRT is elementary number theory
given m and n coprime, there are x and y such that mx+ny=1
This is just another way to say CRT
lol
wait, what theorem are you referring to? So yes, I could show U(25) is cyclic. I'd write out all of the terms and find the generators. But what does this tell me about Aut(U(25))? Am I missing something?
i never called that chinese remainder theorem
Well CRT is more general because you can replace 1 with gcd(m,n) and Z with any PID
well if U(25) is isomorphic to Z_n, then Aut(U(25)) is isomorphic to U(n)
yes I also called that the Bezout identity. The one listed above
I really think about the chinese remainder theorem as a homomorphism between rings
C_n being a cyclic group? Sorry I haven't seen that notation. Or is that the complexes?
Sorry, i use that notation for Z_n
Before this server the only bezout I'd heard of was bezout's theorem from AG 
ok, no problem, I just wanted to make sure
But yeah, you get that? Now you just need to find said n
which mx + ny = 1 defines that the ideals generated by m and n are homomorphic to the parent ring which has the identity.
Well, we know n = 20 as we mentioned before
So all we need to do is show U(25) is cyclic
yeah this is how i learnt it
so if U(25) is isomorphic to Z_n (yes n is clearly 20 from Euler-phi), then we can say Aut(U(25)) is isomorphic to U(20). I will have to prove that to convince myself of it, but it can certainly try that on my own. It will be a good exercise
and then the one from elementary number theory is just a corollary of that
Sure
I'm not actually sure off the top of my head how to show U(25) is cyclic, but yup
You have to use CRT plenty to prove the structure theorem for modules over PIDs
I wonder if I can even say if U(n) is isomorphic to Z_(phi(n)), then Aut(U(n)) is isomorphic to U(phi(n)).

havnt learnt that yet
I can just write out the terms and find a generator. That will show it is cyclic
Oh well that is just easily true from the theorem you had earlier that Aut(Z_n) is isomorphic to U(n)
So yeah
oh. Is it useful for studying tensor products on modules as well?
And yup, good idea
I don't think so but I haven't worked with tensor products much beyond the first 5 chapters of AM
Oh yeah, that is true. That is a good fact to know then. Alright, I think I'm good to go. Thanks for your help!
Which book is AM? I have only read Dummit and Foote
what makes PID modules better than normal ones
atiyah mcdonald
but AM is so much better than dummit and foote
Nice thanks! I am always looking for new books to read.
depends on where u are in dummit and foote
like if u are past chapter 9 in dummit and foote
i recommend switch to AM
Isn't AM com alg so for different purposes?
I have read quite a bit of Dummit and Foote. The only section I haven't really touched is 15+
ohh chapter 15 is the worst
But I find chapter 14 is pretty tough already lol
galois theory in DF is done very good
I understand the automorphisms, but it is challenging to understand the proofs.
Still working on it
Yeah, I love that chapter actually
but chapter 13 has little problems
and then chapter 14 has like 40 problems each section 
what do you mean?
oh, you mean the problems in the end lol
I thought you meant it has issues
yeah end of section
I am not sure... I haven't read artin
just by looking at contents page of artin
df and artin look similar
but df has some extra stuff
commutative rings
Artin has ring theory
yeah but not stuff that DF has
i dont think atleast
but artin has group representation
ohhh no DF has group representation too
but the last section
DF even has category theory
While proving quotient group of a cyclic group is cyclic
They are saying $Ha^{n}=Ha....a$\$HaHaHaHa..=(Ha)^{n}$
I want to confirm that last step is beacuse H is normal so Ha=aH thats why
$HaHaHaHaHa...=(Ha)^{n}$
Algebra
I don't think so
looks like just (Ha)^n expanded out
like just the definition of ^n
wtf am i looking at hahahaha
haha
HaHa
Laughing in Math
I think i made a mistake i should ask for
$Haaaaaa..a=HaHaHa..Ha$
Algebra
Yes this is how multiplication is defined in the quotient group, and requires normality of H to be well defined
Lmao DF has like a 8 page appendix on cat theory and it really sucks
If you learned category theory from D&F rip to you
In 8 pages you can barely cover the most basic definitions and examples
That really doesn't count as having cat theory lol
It would be like saying this book defines a ring homomorphism, so it has commutative algebra

how do find what group this is isomorphic to
i tried messing around with the abc=e and acac=e but im left with a mess
what groups are there
not familiar with that notation
is a,b,c order 4,2,2?
and abc = e
acac = e
it's a list of stuff that are e
right
its supposed to be isomorphic to some familiar group
maybe Zn x Zm n Zo but not commutative obviously
so not sure
rsrs = e
-> acac
i dont know for sure
or maybe two groups
how many elements in ur group?
ok true with the acac
would it be 16 elements in the group bc we have a^4 b^2 and c^2 ?
what about symmetric group in combination
maybe
but is there not more than 16 elements
in ur group
ababababab ...
we could multiply ab forever?
from which
maybe not. only if its multiple for 4 of a
(ab)^n=c^(-n) so ab of order 2 because c is?
ab = c^-1 so abab = c^-2 = e
yes ur right, mb
So you automatically know a and b don’t commute ig
i dont feel like it could have some part of symmetric group bt idk
Not necessarily
cac^-1 = a^-1
Might be able to do some semidirect product construction
And similarly bab^-1 = a^-1
So maybe $Z_4\rtimes (Z_2 \times Z_2)$
must be related to D8 in some way
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
how about D8 and F2
Or something around those lines
What’s F2
Z/2Z sorry
Yeah but clearly they didn’t mean that
a^9b^11
I’d think about this more but I have a class recording to watch for tomorrow and it’s almost 22:00
Gl
Z_4\times (Z_2 \times Z_2)
so let a=(1,0,0) order 4
b=(0,1,0) order 2
c=(0,0,1) order 2
abc isnt necessarily identity though right
thanks for your input! and see yaa
semidirect product symbol
oh
im struggling to understand what an algebra over a ring is
there are two definitions
one being that B is an algebra over A if B is the image of A under some ring hom
the other is that B is an A-module equipped with a bilinear operation A x A -> A
im confused as to how these definitions are equivalent
also i cant think of any concrete examples
not image, but codomain
R/I is always an algebra over R
C is an algebra over the reals which are an algebra over the rationals which are an algebra over the integers, all by means of the inclusion homomorphisms
The idea is that B is a module over A which is also a ring at the same time, and the 2 structures are compatible
This is the concrete realisation of this while the other definition is saying the same thing abstractly. You can try proving that both are the same
instead of saying bilinearity of that operation, you can try writing down all the equations that that gives
and this will give you the algebra axioms similar to the usual form you see group or ring axioms in
im confused as to how an A-module can have an operation A x A -> A tho
like the elements of the module are not elements in a
*A
similar to how a set S can have an operation S x S → S to give extra structure
It is a new operation that is being added to the already existing operations of the module
im confused tho bc ur not doing anything to the elements of the module
wait hold on
that is incorrect, it should be B x B → B
because you are adding a multiplication to the A-module B which makes B into a ring and the bilinearity says that this B is then a ring with module addition and new multiplication, and that this new multiplication is compatible with scalar multiplication by elements of A
it is A-bilinearity, which means that it respects both addition and scalar multiplication by elements of A
bilinearity says exactly that the new operation distributes over addition
A-bilinearity says a(mn) = (am)n = m(an)
this is what compatibility means
ok its a little confusing bc the operation is multiplicatoin right?
like in the case of a quotient ring
multiplying the representatives
is the bilinear map
ok the quotient ring example def helps for understanding
im still confused as to like
how it relates to being the codomain of a ring hom tho
i mean for a quotient ring its the natural projection
but what if its not surjective
Look at the other examples
The algebras induced by inclusions
since any homomorphism may be broken into a surjective map then an injective one, all algebras would be formed by inclusion of a quotient of A into B
(first isomorphism theorem)
Also for the first definition, keep in mind that B is not an algebra in that case, but the algebra is like (B, that homomorphism)
different homomorphisms induce different algebras
eg Z[x] → Z[x] could happen by identity or x → 0
both give non isomorphic algebras
one of them being finitely generated as a Z[x] module and one of them not
How to calculate Gal(k(x_1,…,x_n)/k) where x_1,…,x_n are algebraically independent. I mean automorphisms of k(x_1,…,x_n) that is identity map restricted to k. What should the image of x_1,…,x_n look like ? I only know that when n=1 the image of x should have the form (ax+b)/(cx+d)
i dont think theres a simple way but you could construct it as say a tower of normal field extensions but then you only know that your group is some extension of galois groups so nothing much
I see. Thanks
if i have a quotien map $\pi:A \rightarrow A/I$ and an idea $J \subset A/I$ then is it true that $\pi \sqrt { \pi^{-1 }J}= \sqrt J$ ?
Or x1
yes
sqrt(J) = intersection of primes containing J
Let's change notation a bit
say your ideal is J/I and J> I
then sqrt(J/I) = intersection of p/I where p is a prime containing J
this is defined as intersection pi(p) for p primes containing J
then this is the same as pi(intersection p) cuz intersection commutes with pushing stuff through functions
and now intersection p = sqrt(J)
(note that J = pi^-1 J/I)
thanks
Doesn't algebraically independent imply transcendental? In that case isn't that just an automorphism group rather than Galois group?
yeah… turned out it’s quite complicated, cremona group
So never mind
Any ideas how to do this?
formal power series can only be taken on commutative rings right?
cause DF only says ring but you dont get a commutative ring out of it if R isnt commutative itself
well if R isn't commutative then R[[x]] isn't commutative, but it's still a ring
since you have a presentation for D12 already, you just need to find the ways to pick r,s in G such that r^12 = s² = (rs)² = 1
i.e. r map to x and then what about s
means
so it true no
yes but it's just that x³ is a weird name for 1
what's the reason that the notation for formal power series is R[[x]]
i think that is for diferentiate it from the polynomial ring R[x]
i'm wondering if there's any meaning to the notation tho
You get it from R[x]/(x)^n taking an inverse limit and inverse limits add an extra [] didn’t you know
by the second isomorphism theorem
(S + I)/I is isomorphic to S/(I \cap S)
im kind of confused as to why its not just isomorphic to S/I
if we take an element s + i in S + I
then in the quotient that immediately just becomes s + I
I might not be a subgroup of S
not sure if im correctly understanding the definition of a graded ring
is R_mR_n = {x + y | x in R_n, y in R_m}
?
bc they're just groups right
so they dont have a well-defined multiplication
or is it multiplication
RmRn = {xy | x in Rn , y in Rm}
it's multiplication from R
R is a ring
if you forget about multiplication and look at R as an additive group, it decomposes into the direct sum
but also, multiplication from the ring has to take elements from Ri and Rj to some element in R(i+j)
ah okay that makes sense
ok back to my previous question about like the second isomorphism thoerem
what does an element of (S + I)/I look like?
because an element of S+I is going to be s + i
but then the i is killed by quotienting so that just becomes
s + I
Yes, you just need to add all the elements of I to S so that taking the quotient actually means something
But S+I/I ={s+I| s\in S}
So it's the same thing
ok
so the product of homogeneous elements in a graded ring is homogeneous
but not necessarily the sum?
the sum of nonzero elements from different graded parts of R won't be homogeneous
can someone clarify for me why exactly the permutations of polynomial solutions is important in galois theory and proving abel-ruffini theorem? the set of polynomials forms a ring and is commutative in multiplication so i don't understand why changing the ordering of the factorization would make any difference
Any field F whose characteristic is 0, consider this polynomial f=Π(x-x_i) in K=F(x_1,…, x_n) now f is also a polynomial in E=F(t_1,…,t_n), and in E f=x^n +Σ(-1)^k t_k x^(n-k) where t_k are elementary symmetric polynomials.
And there exists a radical extension tower E=E_0 <= E_1 <=…<= E_m such that K is contained in E_m if and only if the Gal(K/E) (which is isomorphic to S_n) is solvable
I think any algebra text book has it . I read Jacobson
Hey, I was asked to prove that for a ring A, nil(A)+U(A)=U(A), but this seems trivially false, since no nilpotent element is a unit. Just want to check if I am being stupid, or if the question is wrong, thanks!
If you are asking whether {x+y: x is from Nil(A) and y is from U(A)} = U(A) then I think it’s correct
Since any x from Nil(A) y from U(A), x+y=y(1-(-y^-1 x))=y(1-t) where t=-y^-1 x is also nilpotent
And 1-t has inverse Σt^k
k from 0 to a large enough integer
hm I have a thought
let f:G \to H be some group homomorphism
if G/ker f is isomorphic to G, what does that actually say about ker f?
like I know that G/ker f is isomorphic to im f, but still
G will be infinite or ker f will be 0
Hmm idk much else you could say, maybe you'll get even stronger infiniteness conditions on G than just cardinality, something like rank maybe
A very trivial example of ker(f)/=0 would be g= Z^|N|
and ker(f) being some copy of Z
Maybe you can say that G ≈ G ⊕ ker f through the splitting lemma somehow, but I'm not able to finish this argument
In this case I'd imagine you could say that G must have infinitely many summands isomorphic to ker f
hm I get that if ker f isn’t 0, G has to be infinite
like, hand-wavily
something like inf/finite = inf
but idk how to rigorously wrap my head around that
Not necessarily
let G=Π{G_j: j is from N} where all G_j are Z. Then we have a homomorphism from G to itself mapping (x_0,x_1,…) to (x_0,x_2,x_4,…) clearly this is surjective
Kernel has also infinite rank
If G were finite and ker f non zero then G and G/ker f have different cardinalities
right
I don't think this happens nvm
But can't see counterexamples
I think I have one
consider Z/2Z\oplus countably many copies of Z, and take Z/2Z\oplus2Z as the normal subgoup (sitting in the first two factors)
orz
G\oplus(ker(f) has a different two torsion subgroup (Z/2Z\oplusZ/2Z) hence they are not isomorphic
what is orz?
I see
Thanks! for some reason I was reading it as a union of sets
Only the bottom is relevant for my question, but I attach the rest for context
The problem is that I cannot show that the left hand side of 6.23.a is intertwining, $$\pi_W \circ \pi_V^{*} : End(V) \to End(W)$$
AoiKunie
I have and exercice which asks me to find all the equivalence relations over Z such that for all x, (x,x+2) is in equivalence relation. My idea was to look at 2 different partitions of Z (first one containing all pair number subset and all even number subset and second Z it self). Clearly equivalence relation defined on these partitions verify the condition (x,x+2) in R. But, how am I sure that there is no other partition which verifies that? Should I suppose that one subset of a partition has some even and odd numbers at the same time ?
Is there a concise but clearly written book on rings and modules
I am trying to follow Prof. Berchards lectures on ring but he moves fast and skips a lot of the details
i still can't understand this one problem ugh
||all odd numbers must be in the same position||
You need a space after \xi

come on
If $(\alpha_0, \alpha_1, \alpha2, ...)$ is an arbitrary sequence of complex numbers, and if $x$ is an element of P (polynomials), $x(t)=\sum_{i=0}^{n}\xi_it^i$ write $y(x) = \sum_{i=0}^{n}\xi_i\alpha_i$.
Prove that y is an element of P' (dual space of P), and that every element of P' can be obtanied in this manner by a suitable choice of $\alpha s$.
vik
ok
i've been trying to understand this problem and its potential proof for a few days now
note: i'm not supposed to use transformations to solve it
Is y in P' clear to you by verifying linearity
I did verify that y is in P'
but it might be wrong
i think it was a dumb way of doing it
uhm how do i do new lines
$y(x)=\sum_{i=0}^{n}\xi_i\alpha_i$
$y(\beta_1 x_i + \beta_2 x_2)=\sum_{i=0}^{n}(\beta_1\xi_i + \beta_2\eta_i)\alpha_i$
$= \sum_{i=0}^{n}\beta_1 \xi_i \alpha_i+ \beta_2 \eta_i \alpha_i$
$= \beta_1 \sum_{i=0}^n \xi_i \alpha_i + \beta_2 \sum_{i=0}^n \eta_i \alpha_i$
and then
$\beta_1y(x_1) + \beta_2y(x_2) = \beta_1 \sum_{i=0}^n \xi_i \alpha_i + \beta_2 \sum_{i=0}^n \eta_i \alpha_i$
vik
thats proves that y(x) is a linear functional right?
Yeah, only that last statement would be
$y(\beta_1 x_1 + \beta_2 x_2)= \beta_1 y(x_1) + \beta_2 y(x_2) $
As the last statem
ok but that's easy
Yep
how do i prove that all elements of P' have that form
if i understand correctly the sequence of alphas could be anything
with repeated elements
etc
Show that each basis element goes to a particular number
basis element? 1, t, t^2, .. ?
Yeah
Yep
is this telling me there is a bijection from P to P'?
State the existence of the apha_i and since each poly is a linear combination of basis el you get the some from the linearity of y
ie. Each y is fully described by the aphas
ooh right
but
how do the different elements of P' differ
y is just one
because it's one particular choice of alphas?
how would another y be written
i mean, all elements look like y(x), but they have different alphas because they "come from different polynomials"?
if so how do you know that all the y(x)s cover the entire P'
Fix a basis of P
y works because it's arbitrary
any linear functional takes a basis element to a number. You then give a label to each of those numbers
ok maybe the next exercise help me understand a bit more
You mean partition ?
yes lol
If $y$ is a non-zero linear functional on a vector space $V$, and if $\alpha$ is an arbitrary scalar, does there necessarily exist a vector $x$ in $v$ such that $y(x) = \alpha$
vik
Hm not sure to understand then… partition is composed by disjoint subsets of A such that its union is equal to A. If one of subsets is all odd numbers and another one is subset with all even, then equivalence relation defined on this partition verifies (x,x+2) for all x no?
so you know all even numbers are in the same equivalence class and all odd numbers are in the same equivalence class. You just need to count the number of partitions that make this happen
and check that all of them do satisfy the given condition which you pretty much showed just now
so a partition gives an equivalence relation with that property iff all odd numbers are in the same equiv class and all even numbers are the same equiv class
So for example@partition X={{odd numbers}, {even numbers}} is ok, right?
The second one is juste a partition containing Z it self
Alright. And to do that I can show that there are only 2 possible equivalence classes for first partition and only 1 for second 1?
I dont see how that proves it
The set of equivalence classes forms a partition if I’m not wrong
Or another way would be to consider the first partition and modify the first sub set by considering there there exist an even number and the same with another one but with odd
Is it correct?
yeah equivalence relations are equivalent to partitions, they each give rise to each other in a unique correspondence way
Or probably show that equivalence class of even and equivalence class of odd it’s union is disjoint
yeah, basically consider the situation where ||one of the sets in the partition contains an even number and an odd number. Either this situation happens or it doesn't, and the 2 cases both give you a unique partition||
Nice, thank you very much
Got it?
no
You can't choose a specific transformation
It has to be true for an arbitrary one
So y a nonzero linear function on V, that means there is a nonzero scalar β and a vector v in V such that y(v) = β
Now you are given a scalar α, can you give me a vector which is mapped to α?
Also this belongs in #linear-algebra probably
I guess depends on content
@potent briar
what part of the definition of linear functional helps here
"A linear functional on a vector space V is scalar-valued function y defined for every vector x, with the property that (identically in the vectors x1 and x2 and the scalars a1 and a2
y(a1x1 + a2x2) = a1 y(x1) + a2 y(x2)"
@nova plank what if the vectors aren't made up of scalars?
v isn't a scalar
It's just a vector
alpha and beta are scalars
Read my description of the problem carefuly
And think how you can manipulate y(v) = beta, so that the output is alpha
yeah but
why does
"y a nonzero linear function on V"
imply that
"that means there is a nonzero scalar β and a vector v in V such that y(v) = β"
the question is precisely whether you can get all scalars from one single functional
isnt it
The zero linear functional is the functional that sends every vector to 0. So if the linear functional is nonzero, it must send at least one vector v to something that is not zero
Does that make sense?
yeah sure
Okay, so the vector is v and the nonzero scalar it gets mapped to, I call beta
Now you have to show this is enough to guarantee that every other scalar gets mapped to as well
So for an arbitrary scalar alpha, you have to find a vector maps to alpha
is the direct sum of noetherian rings noetherian?
you mean direct product?
ideals of R x S look exactly like I x J, so that just translates the problem to each component
so it should be true right
every ideal of R should be finitely generated
and every ideal of S should be finitely generated
so the ideals I x J should be generated by the pairs of generators
of which therea re finitely many?
yeee, but enough to say generated by {(r, 0)} and {(0, s)}
ah right

first without loss of generality by replacing b with |b| we can assume that b is positive. Then just split into 2 cases, one where a is positive and one where a is negative. Both of these cases should be easy
why can we replace b with |b|
because |b|^2 =b^2
If you aren't comfortable with that, you can split into cases for b as well, I just wanted to avoid that because that sounds annoying
yea no I'd rather not
I'll try to show this and then move from there. Thanks
cool
what stops an arbitrary module from having linearly independant elements
what
what exactly do you want an explanation for
I just have a question on equivalence classes and partitions, please. Given an equivalence class R we can construct all possible equivalence classes on it. Then, the union of equivalence classes forms a partition X.
So from equivalence class I can come up to a partition.
But, given a partition X( same as before) and use an equivalence relation R’={(a,b) in AxA : exist Y in X s.t {a,b} in Y}over this partition, is R’=R ?
are you asking why not all modules over rings have a base?
Exercise: Look at the proof that every (for this issue's sake, finite dimensional) vector space has a base, and find where the fact that F is a field is used. (this happens by dividing by a scalar, with the argument that it is non-zero so we can divide by it by doing scalar multiplication by its multiplicative inverse)
Example: Z/nZ as a Z-module
Yes. Assume 2 elements are related in one and show that they are related in the other
And you would probably also want to show that this process, starting with a partition and ending at a partition yields the same partition
If you are trying to show a correspondence
Because you want to show that these conversions are inverse to each other in both ways. One isn't enough
hmm i c
Thank you!
Hi, i have an exercise in which we have to consider k[x1, ..., xn]/I(V) where I(V) = { f \in k[x1, ..., xn] | \forall x \in V, f(x) = 0}. Though, as I'm reading and learning algebra on my own, this quotient ring really seems hard to understand, i don't really see what it looks like...
is it like the ring of polynomial functions on V or something ? as I(V) seems to be the kernel of phi : f -> f(x)
yes it is exactly the ring of polynomial functions. You are identifying 2 polynomials iff they define the same function
alright thanks 
If we have a set A and a set of all partitions of A, can we construct all the possible equivalence relations over AxA by using equivalence relations over all partitions of A?
I.e {set of all equivalence classes over AxA }= {R_1,…,R_n,..} with R_i equivalence class of partition X_i of A
maybe im misunderstanding, but i dont think you need any relations on the set of partitions at all. Equivalence relations on A stand in bijection to partitions of A by R -> A/R
oh wait do you actually mean equivalence relations on AxA and not on A, i.e. relations R being subsets of A^4?
So if I understand correctly, the left set here should be the set of all equivalence relations on AxA, and the right set is the quotient of the set of partitions on A by some fixed equivalence relation
but then cardinality wise this cannot work
left set has size of number of all partitions on AxA, i.e. |A|^2-th bell number
right size is at most number of partitions on A, i.e. |A|-th bell number
Right set is juste : R_i={(a,b) in AxA | exists Y in X_i : {a,b}in Y}
So set of all equivalence classes R_i over a partition X_i
So I was thinking about equakity {set of equivalence classes over AxA}={R_i | R_i equivalence class over partition X_i of A}
oh now i get it
Sorry for confusion
But I guess it might hold from my last question which was answered by Moldi
Just wanted to be sure
As we can come up from equivalence class R over AxA to a partition X of A and from partition X to an equivalence class R’ (which is one over partition X) and we have R’=R
hello friends
i have a question about a definition
so earlier in the text he defined composition series and said that the factors are simple
this definition doesn’t say that? so i can’t assume Gi+1/Gi are simple groups, right?
or does “chain” mean composition series
pls ping me too
@obsidian sleet this definition doesn't say that the quotients are simple but
you can without loss of generality assume that they are
it's not difficult to show that every chain can be "extended" to a composition series by adding more intermediate subgroups inbetween until all quotients are simple
nope
dont think they need to be simple
yeah no they dont need to be simple
here you just need a normal tower not a composition series
right
although as I said earlier, you can assume that they are simple without loss of generality
yeah sure
but it tends to be nicer to be general when you dont see that in the definition
i actually hadnt seen your answer lmao
so pretty useless for me to answer too lol
Can you consider a ring endomorphism as a module homomorphism?
I'd like to make sure the notions coincide, bc I'm looking at the preimage of an ideal being an ideal, and want to prove its finitely generated
Todd
Perhaps a slightly different question may be helpful for me then. Consider $R$ as a module over itself, where $R$ is Noetherian, and consider the quotient $R/I$ as an $R$-module. Noting that the ideals of $R/I$ are submodules, is it true that the preimage of a submodule $N$ that is an $R/I$ ideal is an $R$-ideal?
deathcode
I'm trying to prove quotients of Notherian rings are noetherian
I can't imagine a situation where the above fails offhand, but the only other way it could happen is if the image of a subring of $R$ is an ideal in $R/I$
deathcode
It is I think
but I didn't know if that changes bc $\varphi$ is a module homomorphism
deathcode
We only learned to prove noetherian-ness in the case of modules, so I'm trying to view it as a noetherian module over itself
yes
I thought that was the case, but the prof is kinda omitting like, a lot of details on things
Hell, when introducing modules he just handwaved "the usual axioms", which is fine if you know what a module is, but like, ¯_(ツ)_/¯
He thought the previous course lmao
last term was ring/field theory
then group theory
this is technically our only commutative algebra course, and its half CA and half AG
its also our only AG course
perks of an engineering college I guess
Does this check out?
Sick. Not the hardest proof, but I haven't done a ton of algebra in the past 4 months
I dont think this is incorrect but fyi its much easier to just prove that the image of a Noetherian ring under a homomorphism is noetherian
or to just use the correspondence theorem (any chain of ideals in R/I will have the form I_1 + I subset ... subset I_n + I subset ... and we know that the chain of the I_j must be stationary, hence so will this chain)
Yeah I did it that way initially, and may go back, bc I do use that property during the proof
I also considered just showing the quotient map is order isomorphic on ideals
By order isomorphic do you mean that the bijection of ideals of A containing I with ideals of A/I is order preserving?
Yeah
Are you sure you cant assume that? its a pretty key property for lots of proofs
But that is only if the ideal contains I
But what about ideals coprime to I
I mean they'll be trivial in A/I because I + J contains 1
This may help clear that up
We had this too
that definition only says ring is noetherian iff R is a noetherian module over itself, not the normal "all ideals are fin. gen."
R-submodules of R are exactly the ideals
Aren't subrings also submodules?
oh shit
Idk, I thought that there could be some submodules that are not ideals and are subrings
i mean
ah fuck i see
Yea
Time to rewrite this proof, but a lot simpler now lol
Hello, what is the difference between integral domain characteristic and its underlying ring order?
Characteristic of a ring is the number of times you have to add one to itself in a ring to get 0. (If you can never get 0 then the characteristic is 0). The order of a ring is just the size of the ring itself
hello friends
i am completely dead inside
i do not understand this
i showed that 1 2 3 were equivalent to each other
and then that 4 of course implies 1 but then to show 1 implies 4 is so weird i don't understand it
i did what the hint said and i think i got to the point where M is abelian (it may be wrong how i did it tho) but
i think that's where i am
but then idk how this induction works
idk whats happening
why did i even prove that M was abelian
pls ping me if you have advice for me ty
I believe that he now wants you to quotient G by M, then as |G/M|<|G| we can use induction to get a chain of the form given in (iv) in G/M. The preimages of these groups along with M should be the required chain (well that is just what I'm thinking, I haven't checked this properly)
if i have a quotient group A/B=C and i know what is B and C, how can i find the possibilities of A?
without more info, you can basically say nothing. For example let B=Z, C=Z/2Z, we can have A=Z or even A=Z \oplus Z/2Z by embedding B in various ways
Does a simple extension require the elt being adjoined to the field not already be an elt of the field?
My textbook has an exercise asking to prove any two simple extensions in R are isomorphic. But I don't see why I can't just pick 1 and i from C to get R(1), R(i) as a counterexample.
Can someone give me some intuition as to why this is well defined?
If you want a definition that doesn’t have this weird caveat for char 0 it’s the generator of the kernel of Z -> R 😎
It motivates why there’s isn’t a “char ♾ “ for me at least
Just, do the definition of a ring homomorphism
And then see if the results are equal mod 6
You‘ll end up with some expression like
(Sometbinf in a,b,c) =?= (something else in a,b,c)
And then you just can plug in thevalues for c and see if they’re equal
And then I’m stuck
Mac
Mmm, use \
Mac
I think my advisor gave me an incomplete problem:
Let C be an elliptic curve and let D be divisor of degree 0 on C. Let O represent the identity point of the elliptic curve. Prove that there exists a unique divisor Q such that Q - O = D (mod Prin(C))
The existence of this seems easy as we can just define Q to be D - O
And the uniqueness seems to be untrue unless we assume something about it (for example, unique up to an element of Prin(C))
From how he said it, this seems to be a classic problem so I was wondering if anyone knew what the correct version of it was
maybe he wants Q to be supported on exactly one point
so prove there exists a unique point Q such that Q - O = D (mod (Prin(C))
You can find square root of -2=4 in Z/6Z right?
How
?
2,4
For b use the fact that Z[sqrt(-2)] is an Euclidean domain, so find an element of kerf whose norm |a^2-2b^2| is minimal
Oh that’s what you meant
Okay I’ll try that
Thanks
That might be correct
We can pretty easily conclude from this that $l(D)=l(-D)$
Finitely Many Bananas
lagrange
gg
momento
indeeb
ye
my class threw so many useless corollaries at us this week i forgot the important one rip
oh that all prime groups are cyclic?
this is a cute q actually cause you have to apply lagrange twice
isn't lagrange just cosets anyway
How can I describe this property in the language of abstract algebra?
Here $P: \mathbb{N}_1 \to (\mathbb{N}_0)^{\vert \mathbb{P} \rvert}$
JohnDark
P - is a canonical map from natural numbers starting with 1 to the infinitely-sized tuple of exponents in the unique factorization
and $\mathbb{P}$ is the set of primes?
Ab
Exactly
$\lvert P \rvert$ is the cardinality. $ \lvert \mathbb{P} \rvert = \aleph_0$
and you're looking at it like the fundmental theorem of arithmetic says that N_1 under multiplication is equal to (N0)^|P| ?
JohnDark
@urban acorn I do
that's a very good level of understanding of the fundamental theorem of arithmetic
since you asked for an abstract algebraic way to describe this relationship
N_1 under multiplication and (N_0) ^ aleph_0 under pointwise addition are both objects called monoid
and they are said to be isomorphic as monoids
meaning there's a 1-to-1 correspondence between their elements such that the monoid operation on one side of the correspondence is exactly the same as on the other side
and this formally encapsulates the fact that they have "the same structure"
monoids are not commonly studied in abstract algebra, since there's not really much interesting about the structure of monoids the same way that there is - say - about the structure of groups - which are special cases of monoids that don't include this one
@urban acorn Thank you a lot! That's a really good answer, which can help me understand it better!
i should point out that these are not isomorphic monoids... a natural number can be written as product of finitely many primes. so your "vectors" should only have non-zero entries at finitely many places.
like think about it (N0)^P should have cardinality more than 2^P which is already uncountable
for things like this people use the notation
det
huh i never viewed the fundamental theorem of arithmetic algebraically like this
pretty neat
so is this $\bigoplus_{p\in\mathbb{P}}\mathbb{N}_0$?
yea
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
oh yes, that escaped my eye, indeed you need this caveat on the monoid
i.e. it's the direct sum, not direct product
In linear algebra course we showed that each subgroup of Z is of the form kZ. To prove the statement we considered H subgroup of Z and claimed that H=nZ with n a minimal element in Z. I’m not sure to understand the main idea of taking the minimal element to show the statement. If someone could clarify it, please, I would really appreciate it’
if you look at any difficult number theory problem, you'll notice it involves both multiplication and addition, and the way they interact with each other.
this is because obviously N with just addition is simple enough, and the fundmental theorem of algebra describes N with just multiplication in terms of the former
it's a minimal positive element
cause you can keep taking smaller negative elements except with the trivial subgroup
it is in general a useful fact that every non-empty subset A of N contains a minimal element
that is an element x of A such that no element of A is smaller than x
that holds for arbitrary non-empty subsets
Alright, thank you
it's called the well-orderedness of N
and it's actually equivalent to induction
here's a way to think about it:
induction can be justified using well-ordering of N by saying "consider the set of n where our statement fails, then consider the minimal such n"
then the induction hypothesis clearly gives us a contradiction since the statement must hold for n-1, otherwise n wouldn't be the minimal such n
@warm holly exercise: prove the other direction of the equivalence; that is prove the well ordering of N using induction
Nice, thank you very much for help!
Solution: ||The statement is "if A (some subset of N) contains n, then A contains a minimal element." For the base case, when n = 1, then 1 is clearly a minimal element. Now assume our statement holds for any value smaller than n, then any set A containing n either contains a value smaller than A, in which case we apply to induction hypothesis to obtain that A has a minimal element, or not, in which case n is a minimal element.||
But if we wanted to prove the statement for n<0 we could take a maximal element n in Z ?
But if we take minimal for n>0 then for -n would a maximal in negatif
So I think it might work
I'm not sure what you mean by "prove the statement for n < 0", there are not always minimal or maximal elements for subsets of Z
like all of Z has no minimal or maximal element
but we're proving that all subgroups of Z are of the form kZ by using the well-ordering of N
because you just look at the minimal positive element of your subgroup
note that n is in a subgroup iff -n is in that subgroup, so the negative elements of the subgroup are just a reflection of the positives
Yes I was talking about element in H sorry
are you at EPFL 
cause i had that exact same lesson today 
holy fuck if im correct you're also in my mentor group 
Tanish
whether or not you are it's an incredible coincidence
Yep
Hi, i have this question. The Question Let (G,$\star$) be binary algebraic structure .G=Z and a$\star$b=0 for a,b $\in$ G? Show that it is a group?
I know a group must satisfy the property of associativity, has an identity and an inverse. But, i am not sure how to check if it has an identity and an inverse under the defined operation a*b=0. How can i check if it has an identity and an inverse?<@&286206848099549185>
joseph2531
i think you are onto something... is there an identity?
@sharp sonnet i think it does not have an identity but, i am not sure
So let me get this straight: set wise G is Z (integers) and it has a binary operation * such that for all a,b in G, a*b = 0?
yes
That’s not a group though: for any hypothetical e as identity, e*a = 0 so we can just take a=/= 0 for a contradiction
Or is there something I’m missing
what is g? Its acting on vectors and positive integers?
Sn for one of the examples then a few different ones
oh wait duh i see, its a group action
$g^{-1}(g(i))= i$ for any $i$ which gives $$z_ie_{g(i)} = z_{g^{-1}(g(i))}e_{g(i)} = z_{g^{-1}(j)}e_{j}$$
for some j in {1,2,3}
kxrider
How to show that D4 has only 3 subgroups of order 4?
I didn't remember how to prove, but I think it would help:
,tex $P_1=\langle a\rangle$
$P_2=\left{1,ba,a^2,ba\right}$
$P_3=\left{1,ba^2,a^2,b\right}$
RaD0N
$D(4)=\langle a,b: b^2=a^4=1,, ab=ba^{-1}\rangle$
RaD0N
Correcting: $P_2=\left{1,ab,a^2,ba\right}$.
RaD0N
in an ordered non-trivial ring
is 1 > 0
like is that always true?
cause like suppose it wasn't, then 1 < 0. But if 1 < 0 we have that the multiplicative identity flips the sign of an element x and in general x =/= -x
is that logic false?
yea
but the logic looks sus
direct proof: ||0<-1 implies 0<1 but oops||
wdym
you probably meant to say in general x and -x cannot both be positive
ah
right right I see
ok cool
is this enough?
oh I also should show order for product is maintained right?
if I show those am I good?
amogus 
and this yea
say it was reducible.. and 3 = xy was a non-trivial factorization
what can you say about N(x)?
is there really an element of that norm?
yup
but what really are the elements of norm 3 in Z[sqrt(-5)]?
yea
exactly!
there are no elements in Z[sqrt(-5)] which have norm equaling 2 or 3!
yee
a^2 + 5b^2 = something
is pretty restrictive
if you know that there are no elements of norm 7, then there can't be any non-trivial factors of 7 inside Z[sqrt(-5)]
and all we need to know to find out that there are no elements of order 7 is by checking all small values of a, b in a^2+5b^2 = 7 which is pretty simple
like b = 0, doesn't work. |b| = 1 doesn't work. |b| = 2 is too much.
4+sqrt(-5) is similar as it's norm is 21 and we already verified that there are no elements of norm 3 or norm 7
Hi! Can someone give me some hint about the solution of this problem?
Assuma that Z(A) = 1. Show that every extension of A by X can be embedded into the direct product Aut(A) x X.
Well Z(A) = 1 implies that Z(Aut(A)) = 1. Is this helpful?
what is Z(A) ?
the center of the group A
If Z(A) = 1, then since G/Z(A) ~ Int(G), you have G/1 ~ G ~ Int(G) @plucky flicker 
this is probably helpful
an element isn't isomorphic to another
, rings (or groups are).
But you can simply check it's a morphism by hand.
Ig you want a ring morphism, so you need to check 1 is sent to 1, that f(a+b) = f(a) + f(b) and that f(ab) = f(a)f(b)
Alright, then first check it's an homomorphism
Yeah
Yeah
I mean the f(a+b) = f(a) + f(b) is "obvious enough", you don't need to compute it to see it, but if it's not that clear for you, do the computations
Like
pick a, b € Z[sqrt(-5)]
So a = x + ysqrt(-5)
and b = p + qsqrt(-5)
now you want to check if f(a + b) = f(a) + f(b)
you know f(a+b) = f(x + ysqrt(-5) + p + qsqrt(-5)) = f((x+p) + (y+q)sqrt(-5)) = (x+p) + 3(y+q) [7]
Now compute f(a) + f(b) and check this is equal to the final expression we got from f(a+b)
Everything works as you expect it to work out
i.e addition is commutative and associative
Indeed

(symmetric groups)
let s be a transposition of the form (i,i+1), and (j,k) be a transposition where j<k.
show that s(j,k)s = (js,ks)
is there a way to do this besides "crunching through cases"?
(please ping me/reply to me, i have this server muted)
3x3s = 9xs mod 7, right @flint crater ?
But -5 = 9 mod 7 (can you see why ?)
I see 
Ok maybe it'd be helpful to just define properly mod thingies before going further
Let's take the simplest defn (probably not the nicest but np)
We say that two numbers k, k' € Z are equal mod n (for n € Z) if n divides k - k'
That basically means that when you do euclidean division of k by n
i.e that you write k = an + r with r < n
and that you do the same for k', i.e k' = a'n + r' with r' < n
you have r = r'
So like, we can check a few things, once we defined things like that
first, we can check that if we have a = b mod n and that we pick c € Z
then we have a + c = b + c mod n
That means that we can define addition mod n
since it won't depend on the "number we choose to represent the others"
to give an explicit example
in our case we had -5 = 2 = 9 mod 7
If you pick some number k
then k - 5 = k + 2 = k + 9 mod 7
We can also check that the addition is commutative and associative
And we can do the same for multiplication
crap
I forgot I was on LoL
brb lol
I'm level 13
and they are lvl 18
I think my game is fucked up 
anyway so hum
We can do the same for multiplication
I.e if a = b mod n, then ac = bc mod n for any c
Alright, then the point is, that makes the set of "integers mod n" a commutative ring
(I didn't define that set, I just defined how elements behaved, but let's work with that informal set where 2 = 9 mod 7 etc for the moment, we can speak about the actual proper construction later if you want to)
So since you have a commutative ring, you can work in it as you'd do it in any commutative ring, everything simplifies as you'd expect it to
So for example, you don't need to write (a+b mod n) + (c + d) mod n as you did earlier, everything is associative, parenthesis aren't necessary
And to check if two elements are equal mod n, you can simply check if their difference is divisible by n
is this clear ? 
(wow we're losing so hard, sorry team
)
Hey everyone, I had an algebra question I put into a stack exchange post, can I post the link here for feedback or do I need to copy and paste it?
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4268148/in-f-faba-define-f-sim-f-if-and-only-if-f-f-2g-for-some-g-in-f here it is thanks in advance!
Yooo
Rushy saved my ass on this commutative algebra thing
Altho admittedly actually I was done I just misread the problem statement
☠️
Haha yeah his hint helped I just wanted to get a second opinion to make sure my solution makes sense
Let's do it case by case
There are 7 elements mod 7
0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
What's an antecedent of 0 ?
man I'm just taking a french word and removing the accents
Isn't this how we speak English ?
I think an antecedent is something in grammar
I’ve never heard it in math lmfao
Do you mean like a preimage?
That’s my only guess haha
Okay
Lmfao, such a useful word
Guess it does have a mathematical meaning
Antecedent is also a logic thing
How does Yoneda’s Lemma imply cayley’s theorem?
View the group G as a category with one object
This answer on MSE explains all the details: https://math.stackexchange.com/a/1708
I didn’t understand what S denoted in that explaination.
a set S
which is the image of the single object * of the group G, regarded as a category with one object, under the functor G->Set produced by the Yoneda embedding
Sorry, in this case what is G->S?
I haven’t had any education in category theory, but I’m assuming set valued functors map objects to sets?
yes, and they map morphisms to functions between sets
so regarding G as a category with a single object *
such a functor maps * to a set S and maps each element of G to a function S->S
in such a way that the composition of these operations is given by the group operation on G
Are the contents of S important?
Not really
Or is it just some arbitrary unordered collection
Just an arbitrary set where this single object * maps
Anyone else have feedback on this one? 🙂
And this functor from G->S is a bijection?
It need not be
For instance you could take S to be a set with one element and map every element of G to the identity function
Still a perfectly valid functor
I mean as in isn’t there only one morphism that takes S->S
No, you specify one for every element of G
And when you say elements of G, you mean the morphisms?
What does "truncated" in "truncated (tensor) algebra" refer to?
To be clear with notation if you have a group G (as in a set with a group operation) you form a category called BG with one object whose morphisms correspond to elements of G
Then you’re interested in functors BG->Set
Well yeah
so we want a and b such that a + 3b = 0
and then we also want another (c, d) such that c + 3d = 1
etc.
Yeah that works 
That's what I meant by solving the equation
sorry that wasn't clear
I just meant find a sol
Well finding the kernel is precisely solving 0 = a + 3b 
in this case by solving I do mean finding all the sols
Sorry, one more part that I don’t follow: it says that we have a functor S:*->S and hom(*,-):*->G
i dont understand how we get the "Then one has the relations" part
lambda e1 cancels out everything the first row. lambda e2 cancels out everything on the second row, etc
Because lambda ei = eta ei = sum a_ij e_j
Yup!
thanks a lot!
Np
what's the question?
Just looking for a second opinion I believe it’s correct but it could be wrong
are you overloading j here?
Oh yeah good point, just edited it to make it more clear
other than that looks good to me
Awesome thanks for checking it out !
np. btw this equivalence relation is just the same as the subgroup 2F. And u could prove equivalently that F/2F is infinite iff F is infinitely generated
Oh ok that makes sense
and essentially what u proved is that is that distinct basis elements of F stay distinct in F/2F
Is this something that will show up again, this is my first brush with free groups
hmm idk if i've ever though about this particular fact before.
I'm not sure what Aluffi covers, but there is a classification of finitely generated abelian groups where free abelian groups will show up. Basically, a f.g. abelian group is the direct sum of a "torsion" part which is finite and a "torsion-free" part which is a f.g. free abelian group
so in a sense to understand all f.g. abelian groups, u need to understand free groups
I think that stuff is covered later on, sounds pretty cool
okay i have to ask this very stupid question or I'm going to go insane
can I just write a polynomial, prove its monic and irreducible, take a root x, and claim that the polynomial is minimal usually? or do I need to show that it is a divisor of polynomials with root x every time?
if it's irreducible, then it's the minimal poly
oh wait yeah
if its monic + irreducible, then if m is the minimal poly, then m divides p, p irreducible so p associate to m, but p monic. so p = m
I'm stuck on what to do after using the hint and proving the mapping is an isomorphism. Clearly y!=g
so how would you show that phi(y) = y^n is an isomorphism? what all do we need to check?
- show phi is a homomorphism.
- Injective + surjective
injective is straightforward (in my eyes) surjectivity we need to check when n is even, but since n is relatively prime to o(G) then we're fine.
injectivity will also use that n and o(G) are relatively prime
um
this all would fail completely when n = o(G), also notice that phi is a map from G --> G so, once you show injectivity or surjectivity other follows easily because both sides have same cardinality
suppose we have two values a & b and assume their outputs are the same. Then, taking the nth root of both sides we showed a=b
I am failing to see how we use the prime fact for injectivity.
but we can't take n-th roots
why not?



