#groups-rings-fields
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aww 
can someone help me with How many maximal ideals does $\frac{\mathbb{C}[x,y]}{\langle y^2-x \rangle}$ has?
honey99
Uncountably many
question regarding this: where can I learn about such stuff? is this some intro AG?
or comm
You’ll learn atleast some of this stuff in an abstract algebra class that does a lot of stuff with rings in it
about my question?
i didnt:(
Ah, then it will be in an intro to commutative algebra class probably
Might also be there in an intro to ag class as well
is there some way to visualize this quotient?
Sorry this is a typo i meant (x-4,y-2)
Yes, in a way it “corresponds” to the curve y^2=x in the complex plane.(and that is another hint to help you find maximal ideals)
i think this is related to algebraic geometry
Yep exactly
In any case, did you find any more examples of maximal ideals containing this ideal?
okk so here $<x-a,y-b>$ are maximal ideals of $\mathhb{C}[x,y]$?
honey99
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Yes, can you see why?
please don't say because of Hilbert's Nullstellensatz, i am afraid of that term
No
This isn’t by nullstellensatz
Firstly do you see why (x,y) is maximal as an ideal?
because $\frac{\mathbb{C}[x,y]}{<x,y>}$ is isomprhic to $\mathbb{C}$
honey99
Yep, and you can use similar logic to show that ideals of the form (x-a,x-b) are all maximal for any complex a and b
okk , i will try to solve further
Cool, so once you have that all you have to do is select suitable a and b that make it so that (x-a,y-b) contains (y^2-x). (There will be uncountably many)
thankyou @gritty sparrow , firslty i will try to show how <x-a,y-b> is maximal ideal .
can you help me with this , i am trying ,but not getting here
Think very deeply about the isomorphism between C[x,y]/(x,y) and C. What is the isomorphism doing, and how can you generalize it to (x-a,y-b)
Ok maybe i’ll be more explicit, we can construct a map from C[x,y] to C that send the polynomials to their constant coefficient. So xy+1 goes to 1 and so on
yeah but liek this curve corrseponds to 0 right
hmm , now i have homomorphism , i can try form here
And the kernel of this map is (x,y), so by the first isomorphism thm C[x,y]/(x,y) is C
No it corresponds to a parabola, so (0,0) is in the curve, so it (4,2) and (9,3) and so on
Here the brackets mean coordinates, not ideals or anything
ok so I thought about it rather like you have a plane and this parabola is like annihilated or sth, thats how I understand quotient
now i understand this
Ok so here is a glimpse at the correspondance, let f in be a polynomial in n variables, we will correspond the set of all zeroes in C^n of f with the ring C[x1,..xn]/(f).
And here is something nice, if (a1,..,an) is a zero of f, then the ideal (x1-a1,x2-a2…,xn-an) is a maximal ideal in C[x1,..,xn] that contains (f) so it is in correspondance with a maximal ideal of C[x1,..,xn]/(f)
hmm this is some nullstellensatz or sth right
I think I've seen it only in one variable case
Well so far i haven’t done anything that needs fancy stuff, the nullstellensatz is the reverse, that all maximal ideals containing (f) are of this form
Let, $G$ be a finite subgroup of $GL_n(\mathbb K)$ where $\mathbb K$ is an algebraically closed field then there exists a basis of $\mathbb K^n$ with respect to which every element of $G$ is diagonal matrix.
$\textbf{Statement is false} $ . But I can't get any counter example. Can anyone give me any idea that how to proceed?
Aritra
If $char(\mathbb K)>0$ then I can prove that there exists a group $|G|>1$ such that $G$ is contains the upper triangular matrices
Aritra
So, at least I can say that if characteristic of the field is greater than 0 then we can say there does not exists such G
If you found a finite subgroup of, say, GL_2(C), which contains a non-diagonalizable matrix you'd disprove the statement by counterexample, wouldn't you?
Can we find such G? Here the field is C, characteristic 0. I am not sure.
I mean I think this result is true for characteristic 0 fields
Hmm fair I can't come up with an example of the top of my head either
I think the matrix {{1,i},{0,i}} should work
It is non diagonalisable and I think its fourth power is identity, so it generates a finite group
(But do check if it really works)
Ah! Thanks I got it. We can take ${(0,-1), (-1,0)}$ as a basis. It will work and $2nd$ power is identity.
Oh nevermind, the matrix is diagonalizable
Aritra
No no it's correct. Means we got a basis such that the elements of G is non diagonal
We need to find a group such that no basis makes all elements of the group diagonal, we can’t pick any basis we like
Hmm.
Anyway, the group can’t be generated by one matrix as if it were then it would satisfy x^n-1 which is a separable polynomial, so it would be diagonalisable. I suppose you would have to take two noncommuting such matrices. That will work because then they won’t be simultaneously diagonalizable, the hard part would be showing the group generated will be finite
Can we proceed in this way: If $\exists$ a basis in $\mathbb K^n$ such that every elements of $G$ is diagonalizable so $\exists P\in GL_n(\mathbb K)$ such that $A=P^{-1}DP$ where $\forall A\in G$ and $D$ diagonal matrix?
Aritra
Then $A^{|G|}=P^{-1}D^{|G|}P\implies Id_n=P^{-1}D^{|G|}P$. So $D^{|G|}\sim Id_n$
Aritra
Then can we arrive at any contradiction?
Why are you trying to arrive at a generalised contradiction? Just find one counter example. In any case, you can’t find a contradiction for all G because there are infact groups that are simultaneously diagonalizable (the identity group) so this seems like it won’t help
Yes I am trying to find it but not getting
Yeah we need to take |G|>1 otherwise it make no sense. Right?
Ok here is an example:
Consider the group generated by {{i,0},{0,i}} and {{0,1},{-1,0}} this is finite and non abelian
Finally lol
Yes, thanks!
it's {{0,1},{-1,0}} right?
Yes!
Doesn't the equation add a constraint reducing the dimension by 1?
While we are at it so people might see it a have a question of my own. I'm told to show that, given a group, the subgroup generated by S is the following.
I "did" it by construction. i.e. i start from one s1 element, its generated subgroup i need his inverse and every element of the from s1* s1* s1* s1* ..., add s2 and say the subgroup is, by construction now, includes that inverse, and every element of the form s1* s2 too, and so on so forth. As in each step i add only the minimum of elements necessary to be a subgroup, then it's the subgroup generated by it.
But the answer given goes for a more complicated process of doble inclusion and other stuff. So ...what am i missing?
i dont really know
what exatly are A and X there?
oh im asking about the next part, V is the vanishing set of 1 polynomial equation so the roots, x's are just indeterminates, the dimension of V is the transcendence degree of k(V) over k, but i dont understand why a set of n-1 elements in k(V) will only satisfy the 0 polynomial
ahh you're asking about "the converse is also true" ?
no
like
i dont follow that example
why is there no non zero polynomial in k[x1, .. ,xn-1] that has a1,..,an-1 as roots
when a's are roots of that initial polynomial
You're parting from A^n, in which there is no non zero polynomial, right?
If V had such non zero polynomial, then you would have the same polynomial in A^n, no? (just get 0 for the X^n)
hmm
If you have X, X2...Xn algebraically independent, you add a constraint/equation you basically make one of them dependent of the others (this is your non zero polynomial that gives you V) but the other one are still independent
right
in the first part, k(A^n) has a dimension of n, thats saying that for a set of n things, the only polynomial it can satisfy is the 0 polynomial?
I'm assuming that dimension here is the same dimension i've seen before aka the cardinality of the basis
yes
assuming you're not pikcing stuff lke, n things that are just scalar products of the same thing (idk what A^n is there). Mind you, i'm just seeing this as somethig totally analogous to vector spaces with the exception that instead of linear independance we ask algebraic independence, so take it more like "bouncing ideas" rather than "getting answers" lol
hm
for the first part
im guessin the a's are not in F, so in our example, it would the x's right?
then f(x1, .. xn) cant be 0 unless f was 0, if we only take coefficients from F
is this it?
I think yeah, if i understood you correctly
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Algebraic_independence the first example is pretty clear i think
In abstract algebra, a subset
S
{\displaystyle S}
of a field
L
{\displaystyle L}
is algebraically independent over a subfield
K
{\displaystyle K}
if the elements of
S
{\displayst...
not getting this, can you please elaborte?
ah yeah that makes sense
im feeling a bit stupid... In the hint it says G/N acts as automorphisms of N but I fail to see how
i dont want a solution to the exercise Im just wondering how G/N acts on N as automorphisms
Aritra
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not looking for a solution
alright
I will let you know when it is complete
oh i figured it out it's because $N_G(N)/C_G(N)\cong H\leq Aut(N)$, and we have $N_G(N) = G$, $C_G(N)=N$
Little Narwhal ✓
wait no that's not quite right, i cant justify $C_G(N)=N$ sorry
Little Narwhal ✓
I would not know how to show the very final part
(and i dont see what it has to do with my question)
You can give an isomorphism $f:G \to \mathbb Z_p_{1} \times \cdots \times \mathbb Z_p_{r}$
Aritra
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by kernel is identity
im sorry i appreciate that youve taken time to type this but i simply dont see how it helps with my question, even if i took the conclusion to be true as that would anyhow solve the problem in the first place
Your question is to show G is cyclic right?
.
.
Oops sorry sorry
it's aight 
haha it's fine i tried to tell you to save you the typing
frankly even if I suppose I understand, and take it for granted G/N acts as automorphisms of N, right now i dont quite see why N<=Z(G) or why when we get the final conclusion that G is abelian we can then conclude G is cyclic
I need to spend more time on this one...
Actually I also can not understand the sentence G/N acts as automorphisms of N
ah so im not the only one at least
yeah but id like to follow the given hint
as i did...
maybe they made a typo and meant to say G/C_G(N)
then it makes more sense
and then i can see how maybe by divisibility considerations we must have C_G(N) = G
yes, I am trying to prove in your approach
yes yes I also think so
ah right i think i know: The quotient G/C_G(N) is of order $p_1p_2...p_s$ (renumbering the prime divisors of G as necessary), and N is of order $p_{s+1}...p_r$ so that the automorphism group of N is of order $(p_{s+1} -1)...(p_r -1)$ and since we have the divisibility condition on the primes we must have that G/C_G(N) is trivial
ah right i think i know: The quotient $G/C_G(N)$ is of order $p_1p_2...p_s$ (renumbering the prime divisors of G as necessary), and N is of order $p_{s+1}...p_r$ so that the automorphism group of N is of order $(p_{s+1} -1)...(p_r -1)$ and since we have the divisibility condition on the primes we must have that $G/C_G(N)$ is trivial
bruh latex why
Little Narwhal ✓
now fine
cause the automorphism group of N has order phi(|N|) where phi is the euler totient function
and since we had p_i does not divide p_j-1 the quotient is forced to have order 1 by lagrange's theorem
sound good?
alright with this the next steps follow easily towards showing that G is abelian
all that's left for me is to show G is cyclic, thanks for the help @delicate hull
right the last step is easy
I don't understand how $\sigma^{-1}\overline{\sigma}\sigma(x)=x$, is there some cancellation or property of $x$ that I'm missing?
Syst3ms
yes it's fine
first apply sigma^-1 to get y then apply sigma bar to get y again, lastly apply sigma to get x
Can I get a quick sanity check? The groebner basis of a principal ideal is just that one generator $g$ right? Because we can arbitrarily write any polynomial $f$ as $f=q\cdot g + r$ where no term in $r$ is divisible by the leading term of $g$, and $f$ is in $\langle g\rangle$ if and only if $r=0$
cgodfrey
yes
idk about gobner basis
(i think)
but you can't always do division with remainder
take Z[x] and divide x^2 + 1 with 2x
idts?
Z and k[x] are a lot similar
so Z[x] and k[x, y] are very similar
try to divide x^2 + 1 with xy
Dummit and Foote defines polynomial division on F[x_1, ..., x_n] with F a field
your example is okay because the no term in the remainder (x^2 + 1) divides the xy
no but usually the point of division with remainder is that the remainder is in some sense "smaller"
you can ofc do f = 0*g + f
what I care about is that if I have a principal ideal $I$ with generator $g$ in a ring $R$, given a polynomial $f$, $r$ is a unique representative for the coset of $f$ in $R/I$
cgodfrey
(specifically if the generator of the principal ideal also serves as a groebner basis for the ideal)
if its a grober basis then id say yes
I'm basing it off this, the special case where the ideal is principal with generator g
particularly (3)
principle ideals are already grobner basis
radicals of an ideal is always prime right?
yeah I think so
oh wait, that's the other way around
the radical of a prime ideal is just that same ideal
but the radical of an ideal I will be the intersection of all prime ideals containing I yes?
that part is right, yeah
i might be missing something
like if rad I is prime how will we show that rad I is not prime
rad I doesnt have to be prime
if we intersected prime ideals, would we not get a prime ideal?
Uh no
oh lol
oh right, "left to right", what bullshit
2Z ∩ 3Z 😌

lol
fuck you moldi 
my bad lol
yea lol
What is Bazo's Lammet?
maybe you're looking for Bezout's Lemma?
I think so
Bozo's Lament
Bezout's lemma states that if gcd(x,y)=d, there exist integers a,b such that ax+by = d
importantly, if x,y are coprime then you can write any integer as a linear combination of x and y
it's like "oh yeah, let me revert the order of composition that literally everyone uses everywhere for a sec"
how common is that order for permutations? lol
i'd hope not
my uni for some reason said 'at this uni everyone uses this order' [where they act from the right lol]
worst thing is, sometimes he uses the other order, and says "read from right to left"
oof
anyway, that does clear things up
just out of curiosity does anyone recognise this group presentation and is it isomorphic to anything funny
<a, b : a^8=b^4=1, a^4=b^2, b^-1ab = a^-1>
it's kinda like a dihedral group but with a four-cycle reflection thing which is quite nifty
So I notice that Hungerford has a little bit about cardinal arithmetic, does anyone have any recommendations for further reading about cardinal arithmetic, or is what's in Hungerford probably enough for commutative algebra & algebraic geometry? (which is what I plan to study)
cardinal arithmetic is not a huge deal but it's also like, fairly basic set theory. any textbook on set theory will have stuff on cardinal arithmetic. for example, Enderton's Elements of Set Theory.
Ordinals and cardinals are important in algebra for doing induction arguments
like the proof that every submodule of a free module over a PID is itself free relies on transfinite induction
you might also encounter cardinals when you're studying field extensions of infinite transcendence degree, but that's kind of a stretch. Really you should be able to go a long way with just a good working knowledge of Zorn's lemma (which is used in lots of places in algebraic geometry, i.e. proving that the radical of an ideal is the intersection of all primes containing it, proving that flasque sheaves have vanishing higher Cech cohomology, etc)
Whenever you don't know how to prove a statement, just use Zorn's lemma. It works about half the time.
Can someone explain why p_X(0) equals the characteristic of X here?
p_X(m) is defined as h^0(X,O_X(m))
p_X(m) is defined to be X(X,O_X(m)) right?
If you look at definition 18.6.2, you'll see that it's defined as the 0th cohomology dimension of the m^th line bundle over F
So what he’s doing is defining p_F(m) as X(X,X(m)) and showing that this is a polynomials in m. Then for m>>0 all the higher cohomologies will vanish, so h^0(X,F(m)) is eventually equal to p_F(m) hence it is eventually polynomial
Oh my bad
Then what is so surprising about this result?
Like it's literally the definition
I have no clue
Thanks for the help!
Sure thing
Can you use euclidean algorithm to check the gcd of 3 numbers?
(15,37,21)
Sort of, given 3 numbers a,b,c to find the gcd what you can do is find the gcd of a and b, call it d. Then find the gcd of d and c, call that e. e will then be the gcd of the 3 numbers
so you need to do it 3 times
Np
Abstract algebra moment
so ive solved exercise 6 here and im more or less confident in my method but id love some feedback on the formulation: i tend to write things very vaguely in constructions... Here it is:
Fix some $\sigma \in A$ that moves a finite subset $N_1$ of $\Omega$. $\sigma \in A_{N_1}$ and $A_{N_1}$ is a finite simple subgroup of $A$. Suppose we have picked $A_{N_1},...,A_{N_k}$ for $k<m$. Pick a $\tau \in A$ such that the subset in moves $N_m$ is a superset $N_1\subset ...\subset N_k\subset N_m$, and append $A_{N_m}$ to our list of finite simple subgroups. Then we get an inclusion chain $A_{N_1}\leq A_{N_2}\leq ...\leq A$ with $A=\bigcup_{i=1}^{\infty}A_{N_i}$ so that by the previous exercise $A$ is an infinite simple subgroup of $D$.
Little Narwhal ✓
whenever i have to deal with infinite constructions by induction like this i always feel my formulation to be very awkward
The only problem I see is that you didn't prove that the union is equal to A, whatever you said only tells you that it is included in A
yeah that's my main issue it feels obvious to me but i dont know how to say it properly
Ah are you taking N_m to be a strict superset in each step
yes
so like eventually the set that any tau of A moves is included in some N_m if you catch my drift
Yeah then it should work because any permutation's non fixed points should be in some N_i eventually
but i dont know how to say that correctly
Yeah
Lol
That is fine I'd say. What part of it do you think is not formal enough?
the fact that i cant write it out formally. If you catch my drift isnt exactly a phrase i should use in a proof lol
yep
ouch
The N_m, even if they grow each step, need not equal the whole set eventually
oh i see what you mean
Is Ω an arbitrary set or countable?
arbitrary

which makes everything harder for me or i couldve just imposed an indexing
Then this won't work, because finite sets can't countable union to uncountable
fair enough...
maybe exercise 5 also works with uncountable chains
is the thing in brackets supposed to be a hint ?
yeah but i couldnt see how to apply it
it's very unclear what they mean
but maybe it's "forall x,y in G prove that y is in the smallest normal subgroup of G containing x" ?
ah the group is named A and not G
yeah but for some reason the hint tells you to work with D
yeah idk they're weird
i mean the hints arent always flawless i spent hours on an exercise trying to parse the hint yesterday because of a typo
so after a quick search online it seems we do not need to require that omega is countable
right okay the proof is far simpler....
did they do it with the weird hint
sort of??
lemme send a screenshot
they keep saying G but mean A
but yeah they're considering pairs of elements of A not of D
and even then it's not exactly the same as the hint
looks like what I was imagining
i see
i always get lost in arguments about infinite sets tbf cause i stop myself from visualizing since i know if I do ill make a mistake from "intuition"
as i did earlier
didn't you tell me that all sets are finite 😆
oh oops, i think that was countalbe
not finite
Did I 
any set too big to imagine doesnt exist

Are you sure I wasn't joking 
it was in the context of logic and foundations, so idts 😛

That’s gonna be a ban I’m afraid
maybe it was one of the imposter moldis
Oh was I talking about skolem's paradox
Which gives a countable model of ZFC and makes all sets meta countable 😌
prof* right 
oh oops
how so?
Didn't seem to know the definition of countability 
circular reasoning is where it's at
Why is the second statement getting sullied that one's fine
The first one's the issue

im sullying the message as a whole
lol
here he is asking for trace of permuation matrix so total martrices are 10! , and posability of trace are 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10 but answer given is something else.
Expected value weighted average of possible values
Weighted by their respective probabilities
Yeah, for each n from 0 to 10, you find the probability of a random permutation matrix having that trace
I assume the matrix is picked uniformly at random
Ye randomly usually mean uniform distri
does there exist a subgroup of order 14 in s7? I kind of struggle with that question, according to the sylow theorem it needs to have an element of order 7 (which must be a 7-cycle) and an element of order 2. but we cannot pick a 2-cycle as our element of order 2 since both of those elements would generate s7 by themselves, so I would have to pick another element of order 2, (if it even is possible).
but find each kind of permuation is like finding partition of 10, that will be a lenghty process
You can find an expression for number of matrices with trace = n
okk like for trace 0 it will be of from (12345678910) permuation, and for trace 2 it will be of form (1)(2)(345678910) form , am i rigth?

I don't think so, but I'm not sure if I understood what you said
The trace = number of fixed points of the permutations
i edited
Ye something like that but the remaining things need not be in a single cycle
let me try
nvm I found sth
that sounds way too complicated
hmm, for trace 1 it comes out 10!/9 , for 2 = 10!/2! 8 and so on..
how many matrices are you saying have trace 0 ?
(12345678910) total 10!/10 =9!
It shouldn't be that simple yeah
You're counting derangements
you counted the number of 10-cycles
but there are many many more permutations that have no fixed points
counting derangements is difficult
Isn't there an alternating sum formula
isnt they will be conjugate to it?
no ... the set of 10 cycles is already a conjugacy class ...
okk like (12345)(678910)?
and many more
counting the number of derangements is much harder than figuring out the average trace
i am using this fomrula for expected value = $\sum P(X_{i} )\times X_{i}$
honey99
well that one isn't going to be very helpful
can you please tell me another way?
count the number of permutation matrices that a 1 in the upper left corner (the entry indexed by (1,1))
then count the number that have a 1 in the entry indexed by (2,2)
and so on for each entry of the diagonal
so that means i have to fix each daigonal entry like (1)(2345678910), (2)(1,34567910) so on ...?
yeah you go through each square of the diagonal
and count permutation matrices that have a 1 on them
like fixing 1 on counting others ,hmmmm, so that means i have to fix 1 and rotate the elemnts in (2345678910) okk so in (2345678910) there are total nine numbers and so ways should be 9!?
wait , so for each permuation the ways are 9! , so total marices are 10(9!)= 10! and out of 10! so 10!/10! =1 ?
are you saying that there are 9! 9-cycles made of 2,3,4,5,...,10 or am I misunderstanding your notation
sorry for my english(this is not my first language), yes i mean to say that there are total 9! matrices which have 1 at (1,1)
then yes
so total will be 9!+9!+9!+...... 10 times = 10(9!) =10!
yep
okk =, now what to do for expected value
yes
beacue each matrix have probabilty of selection 1/10! (because each matrixx is unique in itself)
For every positive integer n and for every m with 1 ≤ m ≤ n, S_n has a cyclic subgroup of order m. How can I prove it? Could you please give me any hints?
Can you think of a permutation of n elements that has order m?
like we want to make a cyclic group of order 3 then we can make form (123) , it has order three and can generate cyclic group of oder 3 ,?
Yeah that is true, but I am talking about if m<n then
Just permute m elements and other are fixed
Is it the process?
You should specify how you're permuting them
Many ways to permute m elements, and not all are order m
f(m) = 1 right?
(123...m) then other are fixed
Yeah
yes yes
Cool so the powers of that element form a subgroup
Yeah I got it. Thank you
i have not written but that (123) is of type (123)(4)(5)(6)....(m)
Aritra are you from India btw? 
never heard this name in Indian name list 😅
I've seen it once I think it's a Bengali name 
Yes I am from India
You?
Flex

this is dream institute for lots of Indian students
I'm one of them 
same here
$f(x,y)=x+y$ maps open to open and closed to closed? for open part i used open maping theorem and that is true , but for closed one what method should i use?, any hint
honey99

Are you sure that this is true
I feel like graph of -x + (1/x) for positive x is a counterexample because this is closed but its image is (0, ∞)
@trim grove
One can think of $\mathbb Z\times \mathbb Z\sqrt2$
Aritra
but here function is in two variable, is it legal to use -x+1/x?
Ah that one is good
I mean the set of points (x, -x+1/x) for positive x
is colsed in $\mathbb R^2$ but image is dense in $\mathbb R$
Aritra
So, image may not be colsed
Right, countable and dense
Yes
okkk , so image is dense , but for closed set it should be same as that of set , but here its clouser is whole R?
Ye
Little Narwhal ✓
because since D is generated by transpositions you can view the generating set as being in bijection with $\Omega \cross \Omega$
Little Narwhal ✓
so then generating D from a set of cardinality equal to $|\Omega \cross \Omega| = |\Omega|$ it would be very practical to conclude $|D|=|\Omega|$
Little Narwhal ✓
are these problems continuing from some previous ones you asked here?
yes though for the particular question im asking i dont think it matters
im more interested in knowing if in general, a group generated by a set of infinite cardinality n also has cardinality n
so the free group?
or generated in some other sense?
i see S_A is that permutation group?
again i havent seen free groups yet but generated in the sense G is generated by A iff G is the closure of A
there is this thing equivalent to axiom of choice that if you have an infinite set then |A x A| = |A| and by induction |A^n| = |A|
this is assumed in the hints yeah
so anything in G could be written as a finite product of elements in A
cardinality of G can't be more than cardinality of the disjoint of A^n for n >= 0
more formally, you have injective maps A --> G --> disjoint union of A^n
i had the same idea somewhat but couldnt quite make it formal
right
and then we just use cardinality facts on injective functions
make that, you have injective maps A --> G --> disjoint union of (2A)^n
we can also use inverse of generators, i always forget about them
fair enough
yup
i dont quite understand why you mention disjoint unions?
Do you mean why not union instead of disjoint union here? 
no just why there is a union at all 
Because you want to take the set of all words in 2|A| many letters
Each word has some length n
(2A)^n is set of all tuples of length n
ah cause we cant say there is some maximal such n
Yeah, we need all finite lengths
they way i was thinking was, we have a map (2A)^n --> G which intuitively is like looking that word and evaluating in G
so abstract non-sense gives us a map from disjoint union of (2A)^n --> G, and by the assumption that A is a generating set, this map would be surjective
wait is abstract non-sense an actual thing or do you mean it's more complex than that
discount 
discount on our sets today folks

abstract non-sense is a cute name given to category theory
haha okay




how to do this?
the second part i mean
dimV = dimKer + dimImage
but if image is isomorfic to V/ker
does kernel containing image make dimker smaller
other way around

trying to solve this for a while now. I have "most" of it figured out I guess. More precisely: letting M be a f.d. extension of F, I think I know what to do once I can show that M is normal over F (assuming that M is contained in K bar (1), which I guess we can assume). Thus, we can make a few assumptions by way of contradiction (to rule out all of the cases where M is automatically normal over F), namely: (i) M is not normal over F, (ii) F is not finite, and (iii) every extension E properly intermediate to the extension F\subset M is normal over F, and thus, M = F(\beta), where the minimal polynomial g of \beta over F is separable (this comes from (1) and the fact that K bar is Galois over F by Hungerford's definition of Galois), and not every root of g lies in M. By (iii), the primitive element theorem gives (by separability of M over F) that every proper intermediate field E is of the form F(\alpha) and contains a splitting field over F of the minimal polynomial of \alpha over F (since it is normal, by our assumption on M). --- This is as far as I have gotten, I just don't see how to get a contradiction from this stuff, it has to do with the fact that F is the fixed field of the subgroup of Aut_K K bar generated by \sigma, I just don't see how exactly (I do see how to use this fact once we can prove M is normal over F, just not prior to)--- tldr: M is a f.d. extension of F, I need to show M is normal over F and I know what to do from there I think (yes I notice that F is the fixed field of <\sigma > btw)
(maybe there is some way to do this without assuming that M is contained in K bar, but then I have no idea what to do)
F is the fixed field of the cyclic subgroup generated by σ. Now you can use Galois correspondence (any finite extension of F will be contained in F closure = K closure, so will correspond to some subgroup of Gal(K clos/F). All subgroups here are normal)
is group free ?can i ask question?
how can i find number of niloptent elemnts in $\mathbb{Z}_{n}$? ( cyclic group of order n)
honey99
I understand everything except the part about the subgroups of Gal(K bar/ F) being normal, why are they normal?
Wait it's <\sigma> right?
is it possible that \sigma has finite order though?

😌
An element is nilpotent in this iff a power of it is divisible by n
Prime factorize n
This is a bit of a weird q because he’s asking for a nilpotent in a group, which technically would just be every element right? (Because here the group product is addition). I think they maybe meant to ask about nilpotents as a ring
Ye I was assuming ring 
Let me check once again
Yes they are asking for ring Z/nz
Why so?
By definition, pretty much. If a^m=0 mod n, that is just saying that some power of a is divisible by n
Is this because of characteristic?
Got it.
elements of Q/nZ will br of form p/q +nZ , form , so for first part it is true , but in second part , there are countable many elements like for n=5 , we have 5/2 ,15/2,25/2..... so on elements of order 2
5/2=15/2 (can you see why?)
because there remainder is same for 5Z?
like 5/2 +5z, 2.5+5z and for 15/2 + 5z = 7.5+5z = 2.5+5z?
Yes pretty much
can you make that "pretty much " to yes definitely?
Yes definitely
no no means that , if i made some mistake , can you please fix that?
No mistake
but how to prove that ? any hint
Well, I guess the hint is, given some order t, try to find out what elements of order t look like. Basically they will be elements of Q, q, such that tq is an integer and divisible by n. So what sort of rationals are possible, and what are do the equivalence classes look like? Here is another hint: all elements are equivalent to some element less than n and greater than 0.
like for rational of form p/q we say it has order t if t*p/q = mn, but how to find p/q elements?
I feel like I maybe shouldn’t give any more hints, try to work this out in the case n=1 atleast
ok
i'm trying this but not getting this ( trying for n=1 ,i.e integers) , like for element of p/q , i want to find the elements that have order 2 , i.e 2p/q is a integer , but here p an q are co prime , but how can i find q such that this should be coprime of p and also divide 2p?
If 2p/q is an integer, the denominator must have cancelled with something in the numerator
Ok, one more hint, consider the rationals that have t in the denominator, do you see that every element of order t is equivalent to some fraction of this form, and I can even take this fraction to be a positive less than n? (By fractions with denominator t i don’t necessarily mean reduced fractions). Now of course there is the possibility that not all such fractions are of order t, but we don’t really care (if you want you can figure out which ones have order t) in any case there are only finitely many such fractions less than n, and that will give us an upper bound on the order t elements.
I have a feeling continuity is important here
Like I think you will conclude f is a constant function via some epsilon delta argument
so if f is in the family, it would be bounded on [1, 2] as its continuous and [1, 2] is compact. for any other positive real you can scale by 2s to get in the interval [1, 2]
to see that, consider 2^n where n varies over Z. for any positive real you can find 2^n <= x <= 2^(n+1)
so 1 <= 2^-n * x <= 2
does same work for (0,infty)?
topology in abstract alg 
every time i make this mistake ,sorry for this
let's move to #point-set-topology
okk
wait i'm confused, should we move to analysis-pde?

i think i should stop asking hints,
, should ask for a complete solution
2p/q = n
2p = nq
p | n since p not | q
q | 2 since q not | p
so q = 2 or 1
p can be anything
p,q positive primes?
Probably answering honey99's question 😌
Is there a short proof that if A is noetherian and M is an A-module then for x in M, r(Ann(x)) prime implies Ann(x) is prime
i know that letting p = r(Ann(x)) we have p^n subseteq Ann(x) subseteq p for some n, so for a in p we have a^nx = 0
i guess if we let n be the minimal such n that this is true a^n-1 x is nonzero so a(a^n-1 x) = 0 and then if A is an integral domain we're done
But without that i dont see what to do 
actually no im 4headed integral domain does nothing because x is an element of a module
Is this really true? I think with A=Z and M=Z/p^nZ viewed as an A module, the annihilator of 1 is p^nZ, whose radical is pZ, but p^nZ is not prime
actually
ok wait yeah you're right
but it should be true that r(Ann(x)) = Ann(y) for some y in M
associated prime of the 0 module
my idea was to replicate the proof in the case of ideals
but it doesnt really translate
maybe im supposed to use ideal quotients or something
actually let me try that
Hmm so i thought that you could just choose a maximal ann(y) that will contain ann(x) or something along those lines, and ann(y) will automatically be prime
But I haven’t checked this very properly, just to be clear: basically if r(ann(x)) is a prime, you need some y st ann(y)=r(ann(x))?
Yeah
contextually this is a primary decomposition in modules thing
Im not sure how you'd conclude that a maximal ann(y) would be prime here
Maximal annihilators are prime is just an element argument
You just grab ab in ann(y), and if neither are in ann(y) then ann(ay) strictly contains ann(y)
but i dont think its for all x in M
Then what does maximal ann(y) mean here?
we have a primary decomposition of 0 into N_1 cap ... cap N_m so if r(N_i) = p then its for the x contained in the N_j, j neq i
like its the ann(x) whose radical is p
Wait so what are you trying to do?
uh basically prove that p belongs to 0 in M implies that p is an associated prime of 0
Belongs to 0 in the sense that there’s a minimal primary decomposition with p as the radical of something in that?
Yeah
Isn’t p=r(ann(M/N)? I don’t get what you meant by r in the above thing
equivalent defn i think
No, i mean what is your r here
I see, yeah it is equivalent
I think i have a proof of the statement about the primary decomposition of 0 having only the associated primes of 0, but I think your original q is a little stronger.
If 0=int(Ni) is a minimal decomposition, then picking x in the intersection of N2..Nk, as you observed, P^nx/=0 and P^(n+1)x=0. Picking a y/=0 in the former, we see that y is in the intersection of N2..Nk st Py=0. Also as ann(M/N1) is a subset of P, we see that if t is st ty=0 (which is in N1) then t is in P. Hence ann(y)=P. This required using the decomposition of 0 nontrivially, but I think this is very close to the argument for ideals
i see
I think this works
Oh i see right
if y = a^n x then y = a^n x p subset x p^n+1 = 0
so p is in Ann(y)
for y in N
Yeah
Oh and to be more explicit about the converse, as ty=0 and y is not in N1, as N1 is primary, t is in r(N1)=P

Nice
alright ive got an intuition issue here that i cant seem to solve. In this exercise I originally thought that $\phi_{\sigma}(\phi_{\tau}((g_1,...,g_n))=\phi_{\sigma}((g_{\tau^{-1}(1)},...,g_{\tau^{-1}(n)}))=(g_{\sigma^{-1}(\tau^{-1}(1))},...,g_{\sigma^{-1}(\tau^{-1}(n))})$ and it's an argument that still makes sense to me, but then $\phi$ would not be a homomorphism.
Little Narwhal ✓
By contrast here is the correct argument which also makes sense to me (i subscript denotes ith coordinate)
why is my "order of execution" wrong in the first case?
and it seems the authors knew it could cause confusion and so gave an explanation but even if that explanation makes sense to me i cant work out what's wrong about my argument
Your argument fails because phi_sigma applies on elements of the form (a,b,..f) where a belongs to G1 b belongs to G2 and so on. So once you applied phi_tau, notice your elements are not of this form. g_pi^-1(1) does not belong to G1
hmmm i see
So in a way you are composing functions where the target of one is not the source of the other
but in the case of exercise 8 G1= G2 =... = Gn
that makes a lot of sense yeah
plus without this for the same reason the second argument would fail too would it not?
since $\phi_{\pi_2(g)}$ isn't necessarily an element of $G_1 \cross G_2 \cross ... \cross G_n$ without the condition
Little Narwhal ✓
Ah yes, in the case where all the Gi’s are the same, when you apply phi_pi, it takes whatever is in the pi^-1(1) coordinate and puts it in the first coordinate. Now what is in the pi^-1(1) coordinate? Well phi_tau takes whatever is in the tau^-1(pi-1(1)) coordinate and puts it in the pi-1(1) coordinate. Hence what ends up in the first coordinate is whatever was in the tau^-1(pi^-1(1)) coordinate
Also sorry about the earlier comment, I didn’t look at q8 when I said that, ofc when all the G’s are the same, we can compose these functions as the targets and the sources are the same
so see that argument makes sense to me but i still dont see at which point the first argument goes wrong
which of the equalities is false
The second one
so how am i misinterpreting the definition there?
Anyone know the etymology of graded in graded algebras?
Naively I'm thinking it's referring to the physical grading, creating notches that correspond to each direct subspace.
In the second thing, imagine we are doing phi_sigma(a1,..an) where ai=g_tau^-1(i). In the first coordinate we will have a_sigma^-1(1). So what is that? By what i just said, it will be g_tau^-1(sigma-1(1))
aha yes
it's such a subtle thing
it feels like you would just kind of apply whatever to the index
Yeah, this threw me for a loop too
like if i came across something similar in the future i feel id make the same mistake
i understand it but it doesnt jump out at me
Yeah true
i still dont feel like ive nailed the fundamental misunderstanding
but ill ponder over it again tomorrow, thanks
this already helps
Well, what you are doing will taking the element g_sigma^-1(tau-1(1)) to the first position, now which position is this element in? This element is actually in the tau(sigma^-1(tau^-1(1))) position. Because the map phi_tau takes the element gi and sticks it in the g_tau(i) position. So I suppose that is exactly where your map falls apart, I guess the fundamental misunderstanding is assuming that g_sigma^-1(tau-1(1)) is at the position sigma^-1(1) after applying phi_tau.
I hope this is a more satisfactory way of describing the mistake made
What does it mean when we say that L has g sections?
Does it mean that the global sections of L form a dimension g vector space over k?
Is there formal reason why E = Q(sqrt2, sqrt3) = Q(sqrt3, sqrt2) and the degree of E over Q is 4
like Q(sqrt2):Q = 2, Q(sqrt3):Q = 2, but how do we know that Q(sqrt2, sqrt3):Q(sqrt2) = 2 and Q(sqrt2, sqrt3):Q(sqrt3) = 2
like these are intuitively obvious to me
Or is actually much harder to formally show it
than it seems trivial to me
The smallest subfield of C that contains Q[sqrt 2] and sqrt 3, is the smallest subfield of C that contains Q, sqrt2 and sqrt3
Because Q[sqrt2] is the smallest subfield of C that contains Q and sqrt2
So that gives the equality Q(sqrt2, sqrt3) = Q(sqrt2)(sqrt3)
To show that [Q(sqrt2, sqrt3): Q(sqrt2)] =2, you need to show that sqrt3 is not contained in Q(sqrt2)
Ohh which is actually easy
yep
Yeah
And squaring both sides you get that sqrt2 is rational
so min polyn is x^2 - 3 in Q(sqrt2)[x]
Yeah
ok period tysm
Also quick question comparing questions
ignore the x^2-5 in the 2nd one
does the fact that the irreducible factors are squared, or cubed matter in the first compared to the second?
No, the second f (ignoring the last factor) splits in an extension iff the first f does
So they will have the same splitting fields
so f(x) in the first question
A polynomial splits iff all of its irreducible factors split, their powers don't matter
can be "reduced" to (x^2-7)(x^2-3)
Yeah
So i can say splitting field of f(x) (reducible) over Q in first question is splitting field of g(x) = (x^2-7)(x^2-3) (irreducible version of f) over Q
Yeah, except g(x) isn't irreducible
wait what rly
You have written a factorization of g(x)
isnt it unique
what is?
the factorization of g
like i cant redistribute and try to factor another way
Factorization is unique for all polynomials, reducible or not

i meant its factors are irreducible*
Yeah
blonde moment
I mean of course its irreducible factors would be irreducible
You can say that it is square free
ie no perfect square divides it
ok so it splits over E which is Q(s7, s3)
Yes
That is not how (x^2-7) splits in Q(s7)
i meant (x^2-7)^3
over Q
err Q(s7)
Yes
yeah
a7=..=a10 = +-s3
3 +s and 3-s
So E is field ext i.e. splitting field of f(x) over Q as
Q(a1...a10)
=Q(s3,s7)
due to redundancy
and since +- doesnt matter
But i guess thats actually given in the statement...
😐
Do these
higher powers even have an effect on Gal(E/Q)
No
no since they do not matter right, since E is determined afterwards
okk
also would
Gal(E/Q) be a subgroup of S4, with 4 elements hence iso to Z2 x Z2
It is, but you have to eliminate the possibility of cyclic on 4 elements
like id map: s7 s7, s3 s3
phi1: s7 -s7, s3 s3
phi2: s7 s7, s3 -s3
phi3: s7 -s7 s3 -s3
Yes
Cuz roots map to ea other
and if phi(s7) = s3
then
phi^2(s7) = phi(7) = 7 =/= s3^3 = 3
so not possible
ye
okk period
ok sorry one last question
Does the F being defined as Q(s2) matter
since s3, s5 arent contained in Q just as much as they arent contained in Q(s2), and their degrees over Q(s2) are both 2
so F may as well be defined as
Q
yeah s5
Hm
ok well intuition tells me it doesnt , but i see i should show that
im assuming
Q(s(p1), s(p2), ...)
for all primes
distinct
dont contain one another?
Yeah

Easy peasy question. anyone could explain to me what are R-algebras in this context? As always wikipedia is not great to learn new concepts 😒
i think its like a polynomial ring
like R[x_1, .. x_n] would be an R-algebra (i think)
Yeah, but what is an R-algebra 😦
If i understand that correctly. I have R on the background, I take A (Don't all rings have identity?), an homomorphism from R in my background to A such that f(r)y=yf(r) for all y in A (it's image it's on the center of A), I bundled them together and call that an R-algebra, is that correct?
yeap
Alright, thanks, wikipedia sent me looking for what an R-module is before even starting
I attempted to show every maximal ideal is a prime ideal. Is this correct?
R is a commutative ring with unit 1. Let M be a maximal ideal.
Say ab is in M but a is not. Want to show b is in M.
The ideal (a) must be R, since M is maximal.
So the unit 1 is in a. Thus 1 = qa for some q in R.
This implies b = b·1 = b·qa = q·ab, and q·ab is in M since ab is.
This shows b is in M and we are done.☐
ye
a is not in M. If (a) is a subset of M then a is in M, which is contradictory.
Therefore (a) must contain M, ergo be the full ring R.
Is this wrong?
{3} is neither contained in nor contains {1,2}
Oh right, maximal ideal doesn't mean there is only one maximal ideal. There can be several
Is this a valid argument for showing Q[x]/(x^2-2) is not isomorphic as a ring to Q[x]/(x^2-3)?
Consider Q[sqrt2] and Q[sqrt3].
Any isomorphism between these would simply relabel sqrt2 to sqrt3 and vice versa.
If we consider the element 1+sqrt2, it would correspond to 1+sqrt3.
But observe:
(1+sqrt2)^2 = 1 + 2 + 2sqrt2 = 3 + 2sqrt2.
This should equal 3 + 2sqrt3. Yet we find
(1+sqrt3)^2 = 1 + 3 + 2sqrt3 = 4 + 2sqrt3.
Therefore they can't be isomorphic as rings.
why would the morphism send sqrt2 to sqrt3 and not to -15+32sqrt3 ?
True, I had some misgivings about stating that.
Trying to think of other ways to attack this hmm..
you can just say "suppose that sqrt(2) goes to a + b*sqrt(3)"
and then repeat your same argument
did part a) but ive got to say im having trouble gaining intuition on the central product, so I dont really see how to approach b except writing out every element explicitly and then constructing the first isomorphism that jumps out at me
oop sorry ill let you finish the previous q
you should find that there aren't rational numbers a and b for which (a + b*sqrt(3))^2 = 2
@clever mountain
@oblique river thank you for the assistance.
How can we know there must exist an a+bsqrt3 in Q[sqrt3] whose square is 2?
I understand Q[sqrt3] contains elements of kind a+bsqrt3, and certainly contains 2
since 2 is rational. But I don't see why 2 must have a square root in Q[sqrt3]
Oh right sorry
then sqrt(2) has to go to some element of Q[sqrt3]
np
@oblique river Hm, were you tacitly assuming the isomorphism phi takes 2 to 2?
phi(sqrt2) = a +bsqrt3
phi(2) = (a+bsqrt3)^2
but I would need to assert phi(2) = 2 here I feel
yes but it's not really much to assert
isomorphisms will always preserve the integers
because they have to send 1 to 1
and therefore they send 1 + 1 to 1 + 1
isomorphisms will also preserve all rational numbers
Interesting, the definition I'm working with does not assume 1 goes to 1.
Only that it preserves addition and multiplication
in that case
1^2 - 1 = 0
which means phi(1^2 - 1) = phi(0) = 0
(have you proven that phi(0) = 0 for an isomorphism?)
yes, follows from group homomorphisms
so phi(1)^2 - phi(1) = 0, so phi(1) is a root of x^2 - x = 0
there are only two roots of this, x = 1 and x = 0.
so phi(1)^2 - phi(1) = 0, so phi(1) is a root of x^2 - x = 0
sorry those messages just got switched
but basically phi(1) cant be 0
cuz then not an iso
therefore phi(1) = 1
alternatively, phi is a group isomorphism of the multiplicative group Q \ {0} to itself
same phi now?
yeah
just remove 0 and forget about addition
now you have a group under multiplication
and this map must preserve the multiplicative identity
for the same reason that phi preserves the additive identity 0
interesting, so if phi is an isomorphism of integral domains, then phi(1) = 1?
Since x(x-1) = 0 forces either x=0 or x=1.
phi(0) = 0, so 0 must be the only one mapped to 0, if phi is an isomorphism
that's right
you can actually prove something more
if phi(1) = 0
then phi must be the 0 map
phi(r) = 0 for all r in R
so therefore any nonzero homomorphism of integral domains must send 1 to 1
phi(r)=phi(1*r)=phi(1)*phi(r) = 0, for each r in R
Hm interesting, that's a key takeaway. A ring homomorphism (between integral domains), has property that phi(1) is in {0,1}
i think many sources just require phi(1) = 1 as an axiom
regardless of whether or not your rings are domains or not
I have seen that, but e.g. D&F don't
personally, I prefer that definition
yeah D&F tries to do things in the "most generality" but imo like, definitions should reflect what is actually useful
np and gl!
this doesnt satisfy $\alpha((1,i))^2=\alpha((1,j))^2$ though so why do they say that it is a homomorphism
Little Narwhal ✓
yep, doesn't look right
putting it up again in case anyone didnt see before but part b is really driving me nuts any help would be appreciated
i think ima just end up solving it by solving the next exercise first which is to give a presentation for the two groups
does length classify modules over a PID up to isomorphism or at least up to being contained in K_0(A)?
i guess this can be boiled down to: is there some exact sequence relating A/(p) and A/(q) where p, q are primes in a PID that makes them equal in K_0(A)
thats what im trying to prove
I dont think A/(p) would even be an element of K_0(A)
it's not going to be projective over A
this is just the structure theorem for modules over PID
oh A is Noetherian here
all PIDs are noetherian
oh right
anyway the way i defined K_0(A) was by taking the free abelian group with basis isomorphism classes of finitely generated modules over A
and then quoting out by the SES relation thing
i thought the usual definition was finitely generated projective modules
i dunno im just going off of what AM does
all right, here you go then
A/(p) is trivial in K_0
because of the SES 0 --> A --> A --> A/p --> 0
first map is multiplication by p
so it doesnt matter if you exclude nonprojective things as a definition or not cuz you can just show they're all 0 that way
but dont the A/(p) generate K_0(A)
no
what exercise is this?
AM chapter 7 number 26
oh, yeah the previous part is for any noetherian domain A
or i guess doesnt even need to be a domain
Here most of the generators end up being 0
when A is a PID, yes
ah hmm so length isnt the isomorphism here then
I think you should just reference the structure theorem for modules over a PID
and combine that with the observation that A/(p) is trivial in K_0 for nonzero p
that is kind of
because length works for showing it for fields right
its equivalent to dimension
I mean, it is just length once you remove all of the A/(p)
if AM had defined it just using projective modules, then it would just be classified by length
but like "all modules over a field are projective"
Uh hm so length is an additive function from the class of modules to Z right
so there needs to be an induced map K_0(A) -> Z making this commute
but then doesnt this send zero elements of K_0(A) to non-zero elements in Z
like A/(p^n) has length n but its 0 in K_0(A)

just look at
what the heck
0 -> Z -> Z -> Z/2Z -> 0
first map is multiplicaiton by 2
all of those modules have length 1
so length isnt additive?
i mean like this is exactly the issue. Z/2Z is trivial in K0
Huh
But theres a proposition in AM that length is additive
on modules of finite length
Right
so yeah, length is not an additive map on finitely-generated modules
that's the issue here
finitely generated modules need not have finite length over a PID
i see
so you just can't even talk about length in this context
yes
because being finitely generated and having finite length are exactly the same thing

that's right
ok this makes more sense



