#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 603 of 407
so i can send it to the size of the free part?
"length of the Q(A) module Q(A) \otimes M"
using the structure theorem
is an additive function on finitely-generated A modules
which does give you the isomorphism K_0(A) to Z
but im not sure if thats the best way to phrase the argument
yeah that's right
ok this makes much more sense
by our observation above about the A/p for nonzero p
you know that any f.g. module M is equivalent in K0 to A^n
for at least one n
and then I suppose you just want to make sure that you don't have any collisions
like you don't want A^2 = A^3 in K0
one way to see that is to tensor with the fraction field and then appeal to linear algebra I suppose
yeah which is going to not be true just by taking A^n -> A^m -> A^m-n
yeah
or it suffices to show that its additive on the class of finitely generated A-modules which i think i can figure out

thank you buncho
np glad we could get it sorted out!
I am currently looking for some examples of statements / definitions in non-commutative algebra (/ring theory / group theory) which become trivial if one would only consider the commutative case.
To name a few that came to my mind so far:
- normal sub-groups become trivial in the case of abelian groups
- The commutator subgroup is trivial and dividing it out does not does not change anything
- Morita equivalence of commutative Rings is trivial
anything else that comes to mind?
Classifying finitely generated groups? It's not trivial in the abelian case but it's definitely magnitudes easier and actually solved
Easy peasy "checking if i understood" question
The unique morphism is particular to s and each n-tuple here right? so a different n-tuple will have a different morphism?
right, but the morphism to S stays the same as we go to different n-tuples, right?
Thanks! đ
and the R-Algebra contains exactly n elements?
wait no, if it has only n elements we cannot make it commute in the diagram, so is n elements with that property + all the others, right
If youâve seen polynomial rings before, then you might recognize T as just the same as R[t1,..,tn]. So yes, there are many more elements, namely all the R polynomials in the variables t1,..tn
I saw them before, about yesterday :p Thanks for confirming!
Np
How to show Q(sqrt(2),sqrt(3),sqrt(5)):Q(sqrt(2),sqrt(3)) = 2
the algebra is ... ugly
if i assume sqrt5 is in Q(sqrt(2),sqrt(3))
to arrive at contradiction
is there easier way w
Galois theory
use the fact that Q(â2,â3,â5) is the compositum of Q(â2,â3) and Q(â5)
By galois theory the only quadratic subfields of Q(sqrt2, sqrt3) are Q(sqrt2), Q(sqrt3), and Q(sqrt6). None of those contain sqrt5 so therefore sqrt5 is not in Q(sqrt2, sqrt3).
That sublemma can be proven directly or by proving the more general lemma that Q(sqrt(a)) = Q(sqrt(b)) if and only if ab is a square in Q
tyy guys
Gal(Q(sqrt(2),sqrt(3),sqrt(5))/Q) = {phi1, ... phi8}
whats the group structure
is it Z2 x Z2 x Z2?
Yes; if you adjoin algebraically independent quadratic elements like this, this is the group you get
here's an abstract question is there a name for this kind of reordering of the abelian group of a ring?
The ring Z/8Z is also a group under the operator ^ defined by i^j = 4ij + i + j, and this group is cyclic order 8. It's even generated by 1, but the cycle is 1 6 7 4 5 2 3 0, by definition it's not an automorphism but it's still a special kind of isomorphism because the operator form is seen as an element of the ring Z/8Z [i, j] so is this some kind of named permutation of the group Z/8Z?
it appears also quite naturally as a Galois group
Ah yes, also a good one, thanks
bruh i was so hyped to see the proof in reading the theorem: this is downright disappointing
i think this is common, at least i think i recall lang's algebra blueballed you like this too. or maybe not, tbh i cannot recall
i am the big sad
~~prove it yourself
~~
this is fundamental theorem of finitely generated abelian groups
right?
tell me im right cuz im smart
this is where the author thinks he is slick by proving the general case for finitely generated modules
where abelian groups are just Z-modules omg so math mao
Wrong.
yeah it is
probably
Is there a way to calculate the order of a number n_1
n_1 = n_2 (mod n)?
Hey, do I need group theory for ring theory and fields? Long story short, I'm switching faculties and I'm considering if I should retake group theory class since I didn't learn stuff like butterfly theorem, sequence of groups, free groups, finitely generated Abelian groups
Not really
Until you get to advanced stuff, they're mostly separate
A lot of algebra books even do rings before groups
Thats great news
just basic stuff imo but no you dont need any of those theorems u listed for normal ring theory
is this argument correct? Can I say $A/\operatorname{im}\phi \cong \operatorname{ker}\phi$ where $\phi:A\to A$ is a homomorphism by arguing that $A/\operatorname{im}\phi \cong (A/1)/(A/\operatorname{ker}\phi)$ by the first isomorphism theorem, and $(A/1)/(A/\operatorname{ker}\phi) \cong \operatorname{ker}\phi$ by the 3rd isomorphism theorem?
Little Narwhal â
im just feeling fishy about manipulating isomorphisms like equality ive made mistakes because of it before so just wanted to make sure
i felt mainly uncomfortable about saying $A/\operatorname{im}\phi \cong (A/1)/(A/\operatorname{ker}\phi)$
Little Narwhal â
the third isomorphism theorem part felt fine but this feels weird
no i meant /im
since A/ker is isomorphic to im
by first iso theorem
yea
yea isomoprhisms are like equivalence relations
u can do transitive shit with them
ur good
but "substituting" A/ker for im in the quotient feels wrong
i dont think so
since im not changing the group as a whole but only what we're quotienting by
like, it's not neccessarily true that A/B is iso to A/C when B is iso to C
yea
was this unclear?
yea ur good
aight
for context it was for this q where i wanted to show the last part by showing ker was isomorphic to the elementary abelian group of order p^n and then showing A/im is iso to ker
Coolio. How could i have known for sure i was correct on my own?
is it always true that if B is iso to C and both are normal subgroups of A then A/B is iso to A/C?
we know for sure its not the other way around
yeah
let me reread it maybe i did a mistake
the thing is the conclusion is definitely correct just from the exercise reading, it's the method i dont like
the conclusion is correct
haha yea its stated in the exercise
but i dont know why
you tried to do it in general
instead of trying to compute the actual ker and im
u have a defined map
out of curiosity
also because i dont like computing quotients lmao
though this one's easy
ig ill just compute A/im and then show iso to E_p^n
sure
but the thought process is the same as computing A/im in the end so eh
it's fine ill just do it that way, thanks for the help
np
I have a question about tensors
I was learning about them and saw this chart
All of them have the transformations on the left hand side of the tensor, except for the (1,1) tensor for linear maps, which has the forwards transform on the right and backwards transform on the left
then this rule is given
but the (0,1) and (0,2) tensors both have the forward transforms on the left instead of the right like this rule says
so, given the type of a tensor, how do you know whether to apply the transforms to the left or right side?
for example, if I had a (1,2) tensor and wanted to change coordinates, Iâd need one backwards and two forwards transforms, but how would I know where to put them?
does anyone have any hints/ideas to the part where you have to show that if \sum r_{ij}e_{ij} = 0 then r_{ij} = 0
im pretty stumped
what does the C mean ?
center of the set
you can probably multiply sum rij eij by somethings to make it into rij
can someone help me in solving this sum i dont hv any idea
you can multiply by eg e_11 to just sum over r_{i1}e_{i1} but im not sure how to kill the rest of the terms
i feel like i need some sort of a commutative relation between the e_{ij}:s
have you tried multiplying on the right and on the left
not really
i dont see any nice cancellations with multiplying from the left, except for maybe getting it into the same form as the a_ij terms
you know that rij commutes with every ekl
oh right
damn
yeah so the problem is pretty much trivial lol
thanks for your help
R[x,y]/(y^2-x) is isomorphic to R[x], right?
Yeah the isomorphism is y -> x.
yeah, maybe it's easier to visualize it if you say that R[x,y]/(y^2 - x) is isomorphic to R[y]
(which is isomorphic to R[x] -- whatever you call the variable doesn't matter)
in R[x,y] you have two variables, x and y
but then quotienting by y^2 - x is just the same thing as setting y^2 - x = 0, that is, setting x = y^2
so we have two variables, x and y
but secretly x = y^2, so x is redundant, we dont need x anymore
all we need is the variable y
so that's why R[x,y]/(y^2 - x) is isomorphic to R[y]
which is then isomorphic to R[x]
@urban acorn
yeah, that was my intuition, I just asked here to make sure
and now I think one easier way to see that is that R'[x]/(x-r) with r in R is clearly isomorphic to R', and when you set R' = R[y], r = y^2, you get that
If A is noetherian and we have r(q1) = r(q2) = m maximal, where the qi are in a minimal primary decomposition of an ideal a, does q1 = q2?
i know that if we have a = bigcap q_i and r(qi) = r(qj) then m^n subseteq q_i subseteq m for n, likewise with m^k and q_j
but i dont see how we can use minimality to show that q_i = q_j here
or maybe in general theres something we can say about primary ideals with maximal radical
i guess put another way if A is noetherian and q1, q2 are m-primary does q1 = q2?
or can we at least say that q1 subseteq q2 or q2 subseteq q1?
In a minimal primary decomposition arenât the radicals of each qi distinct by definition?
In general equality is definitely impossible, (pZ and p^nZ in Z) but let me think about the subset thing, my feeling is that that wonât hold either
i think this is supposed to be true but AM does not define it this way 
Hell
Pain.
I think this should work for the radical thing, but I havenât checked properly, in C[x,y]/(x^2,y^2). The radical of (y) and of (x) should be (x,y) I think
Or maybe they do its just confusing because they also feel the need to justify this
Like

In any case, the intersection of p primary ideals is p primary so we can always get a primary decomposition where each term corresponds to different primes
yeah its more or less fine the details of the argument just dont work without this
(AMs argument for this proof)
Idk its weird they "prove" that the radicals are distinct but the "proof" is literally just p_i supseteq q_i supseteq a neq 0

What exactly is AM trying to prove here?
Noetherian and dim 1 implies unique product of primary ideals
Oh i think that he did that to show that the piâs are maximal, not that they are unique
Like, by showing that pi is not 0

so theres this theorem that if A is a local domain, its a DVR iff every non-zero fractional ideal is invertible
this is assuming A isnt a field right?
I would say that "local" already implies "not a field"
so you dont need to assume anything more about A

Ah, dealing with DVR but field?
This stuff is so cringe lol, you lose no matter what you do
IIRC Matsumura is technically wrong in something because some theorem doesnât specifically specify non-field and he doesnât specify a valuation ring is not a field and blah blah blah. Itâs all đ©
i dont particularly understand how the operations can make A into C
since A is m x n and C is m x 1
my guess is that they're using C to refer to a different matrix (one that would be m x n), as opposed to the one that they already called as C. but this is a really shitty writing if that's what the author meant
wdym?
like they probably meant to write "If a matrix A can be transformed into a matrix D by ..."
or some other letter that is not C
just to change it. like if i started with a matrix [[1, 1], [2, 2]] and i subtract the first row from the second row, then i get [[1, 1], [1,1]], i just transformed the first matrix (A), to the second matrix (C)
but the matrix have different size
i'm saying the author meant to use a different letter than C, probably
so really whenever C is a m x n matrix, say D instead of C
initially C refers to an m x 1 matrix, later the author forgets to switch variables and uses C to mean an m x n matrix
i think it's an error in the textbook, is what i'm saying
so in question 14, C is not the column matrix of what it was before, but rather something also m x n?
yeah, something else that is m x n
there are many shit tier textbooks where there are many errors and typos and what not
this is dummit and foote so an error was not expected from me :c
yeah
although i didn't read the vector spaces chapters
I have proved 2 is an irreducible element in Z[sqrt{-5}].
I did this via the norm N(a+b sqrt{-5}) = (a+b sqrt{-5})(a-b sqrt{-5}) = a^2 + 5b^2.
But I don't know if it would still be true for any other norm.
I don't know how to ascertain that 2 is irreducible in Z[sqrt{-5}], independent of choice of norm.
Does it depend on norm? It shouldn't, one would think. Z[sqrt{-5}] can never be a Euclidean domain, no matter
how we choose the norm.
okaay
so u define a norm
and then do factorization over this norm
@clever mountain
The irreductibility does not rely on the norm but a well chosen norm can help you prove the irreductibility
@void cosmos yes I did that
@prime minnow yes I managed to do that with the convenient norm a^2 + 5b^2. But I don't see a simple argument for it that is norm-independent
Its always the same ring.
2 = ab implies a or b invertible has nothing to see with the norm
So irreducibility is independent of norm?
It's the law which is important here, the norm is only an application on an already created ring
@prime minnow I wonder how one can show that 2 = ab forces a or b is a unit in Z[sqrt{-5}] without
the aid of an imposed norm
2 = (u + iv.V5)(x + iy.V5) gives you
ux - 5vy = 2
uy + vx = 0
If you multiply 1st equality by x and seconf by 5y you obtain
u(x^2+5y^2)=2x
x=/=0 and u=/=0. You obtain y =0 otherwise you have not the equality
Same with v
And 2 = u.x so either u or x is invertible
Hm, I get
u(x^{2} + 5y^{2}) = 2x
Argh sorry
how did you conclude from 2 = u.x that either u or x is a unit?
can anyone give a hint on showing that a noetherian valuation ring has dimension 1?
Ofc its local because its a valuation ring but im not really sure where to go from here 
@maiden ocean what is your definition of valuation ring
Uh ring given by the set of x st v(x) geq 0
okay
Where v is a discrete valuation on a field K
try proving that all ideals are principal
I have an idea of how to but im not sure where Noetherian comes in
Like if we can prove m is principal we r done right
I see
Im not at home but i think i can try
Lemme think abt it
Oh u can evaluate the valuation on the generators maybe
yup, just pick the smallest one
there cannot be any elements of lower valuation in the ideal
let a+bsqrt(r) be an element of F(sqrt(r)). then a,b in F, so a,b in E. since sqrt(r) in E, a+bsqrt(r) is in E as well because E is closed under addition and multiplication.
an exercise in AM says to show that if M is finitely generated over a dedekind domain A and every element of M has torsion then M can be represented as a unique finite direct sum of A/p_i^e_i for p_i prime
yeah that makes sense thanks
the hint says that you can pass from M to M_p and then apply the structure thm for modules over a PID which make sense
but im not sure how to reconstruct a decomposition of M from a decomposition of all of the M_p
is the intuitive explanation for E containing F(root(r)) shows that F(root(r)) is the smallest number field because E can also be F(root(r))?
I would imagine that you would take the direct sums of the form R/p^i where R_p/p^i appears in the expansion of M_p as an R_p module
Would that necessarily be finite if you have infinitely many prime ideals?
I think by the finitely generated condition, only finitely many of these things will be nonzero, but I havenât worked it out properly
It's the same sort of logic used in the definition of gcd, where d is the gcd of a and b if (among other requirements) for any c that divides a and b, c divides d. This implies d is the greatest such divisor in the same way that logic shows that's the smallest number field
True these sorts of verifications can get quite annoying
@gritty sparrow late cause i took a break but i bet you can just use minimal primes
and noetherian implies there are only finitely many
||I was thinking of looking at the prime factorisation of the ann(M). Localising M at primes outside of the primes in the annihilator should always be 0 because we can find a t in the annihilator that annhilates all elements, and wonât be in that particular prime. This should be related to the minimal primes idea as well because the primes that should appear in the factorisation of the ideal would be primes containing the annihilator, which would be minimal in R/I|| this would be a bit of a spoiler to the problem, but I think your idea could work, so I wouldnât suggest opening it. (Hopefully the spoiler stuff works out, but again I didnât properly check)
@gritty sparrow i had basically an equivalent idea where i tried using the associated primes of M
then if the associated primes are p1, ..., pn you can let N be the direct sum of A/p_i^e_i and localizing at any maximal m you see that M_m = 0 iff N_m = 0 iff m is not among the pi
but then when m is among the pi M_m = N_m clearly
so M = N

There is a slight issue with the last point, two modules with isomorphic localisations need not be isomorphic. The correct statement is that if you have a map all of whose localisations are isomorphisms then the map is an isomorphism. The issue is that given local isomorphisms, they may not be âcompatibleâ and you wonât be able to piece together a global isomorphism from them. Iâve been trying to find an example where this is a problem, but it is taking me a while. In our case, there should be natural inclusions from each of the p-primary components of M (the elements of M annihilated by some power of P) and M itself, so I donât think it will be much of an issue.
True
How do I prove that o(gag^-1) = o(a)? for every a and g?
(gag^-1)^2=ga(g^-1)ga(g^-1)=g(a^2)(g^-1). Try to say something similar for higher powers too
oh right than
g(a^o(a))g^-1=g id g^-1 = g *g^-1 = id
that means o(g a g^-1) = o(a) due to g and g^-1 would cancel each other. right?
order of the conjugate?
o(gag^-1), that's often called the conjugate
I know
I just don't understand how it proves it's smaller
It needs to prove it's equal
Order is the smallest positive power that makes your element identity
You proved that o(a) is such a power
You need to also prove that it is the smallest such
what about?
g(a^o(a))g^-1=g id g^-1 = g *g^-1 = id = a ^ o(a) that fixes it?
Maybe a cleaner way to rephrase your argument in line with what moldi is saying would be to show that for all n
a^n=1 <=> (gag^-1)^n =1 and conclude from there. Your argument is essentially the forwards direction while moldi wants you to prove the backwards direction
hmm. what would be the backward direction?
show that if (gag^-1)^n = 1, then a^n = 1
(g a g^-1)^n = g a g^-1 g a g^-1... n times
We cancel all g ^-1 g
= g a^n g ^-1
Now what?
we don't even know if wer'e talking about a group of numbers TBH so we can't tell
unless 1 means something else
1 means the identity of the group
oh
g a^n g ^-1 = 1
g a^n g^-1 g = g
g a^n = g
g^-1 g a ^n = g^-1 g
a^n = 1
just put another element from each side to cancel the g and g^-1
to isolate a?
2nd part as in showing that if (gag^-1) = id, then a^n = id
no. I don't?
so imagine, hypothetically, that o(a) = 4 and o(gag^-1) = 2
ok
you calculated g(a^o(a))g^-1 = g id g^-1 = g g^-1 = id
nothing in that first direction showed that this hypothetical case is impossible
but for the second direction, if we set n = 2 (which is o(gag^-1)), you'd get
g a^2 g^-1 = 1, and then g a^2 = g
but a^2 is some arbitrary element of the group, you can't simplify any further
it's this second direction that shows the hypothetical situation is impossible
right. I see
is every mapping with fof=f is projection?
i think some people just use that as the definition of projection đ
f is a map form some set to some set,
no vector space/module? weird.
Yeah then you'd need to say how you are defining a projection
for vector space
Ye then f is a projection onto its image iff fÂČ = f
Usually that's how it would be defined as det said
Are you defining it using direct sum decomposition
things are getting weird as i'm going deep into concepts
basically the idea would be v = (v - f(v)) + f(v)
notice that f(v - f(v)) = f(v) - f(f(v)) = 0
so you can say f is a projection if V = im(f) + ker(f)
i'm saying it wrong, and i know it
Yeah every exact sequence should split for vector spaces
Wait no what
I think you're right lol idk
As long as you take direct sum
Instead of just sum
direct sum would be wrong? as every exact seq splits
is't this is same for every function defined on vector sapce? or just for porjection?
im(f) can intersect ker(f)
not really
lol that's what we're thinking
0 1
0 0
Has (1,0) in kernel and in image
normally f o f = f is the definition of a projection
If you are thinking of the rank nullity theorem then that also has dimensions in it
yea so this isn't a projection. we want V = ker(f) + im(f), if they intersect dim of right would decrease
hmm rank f+ nullity f = dimension of sapce
Wait then why is direct sum wrong
because it's true for every f
No that's just what I gave a counterexample to
V/ker f is iso to im f
Ker f and im f can intersect
Oh isomorphism
I was thinking of equality
Internal direct sum
Only if you use the direct sum tho 
why
but the first condition is V = im f + ker f
I would assume + here would be the sum of subspaces/submodules
Ye
if they intersect, then dimension of right is smaller than dim V
Only in finite dimensions
I guess
If you have countably infinite basis e_0, e_1, ..., you can map e_0 to 0 and e_i+1 to e_i
Surjective map with non zero kernel
f is a projection iff A = B â C, internal direct sum, for some B and C, and f(b,c) = b
I think exactly what you said
But with internal direct sum
V = im f â ker f
yea makes sense, i was interpreting the right as an abstract sum, so it didn't make sense to say V and that thing containing pairs are equal
Ye
any conditon of B and C ( like sets or subspaces)
Subspaces
is this is the only way to define projection?
nope
if f satisfies f o f = f, then take B = im f and C = ker f
any v in V can be written as f(v) + (v-f(v)) the first thing is in B and the second in C
so V = B + C. they can't intersect non-trivially. as if w in B and C then w = f(v) => 0 = f(w) = f(f(v)) = f(v) = w
i don't know to which group this questions belongs( i think linear algebra) if $A \in M_n(\mathbb{C})$ is such that $<Ax,x>=0$ for all $x \in \mathbb{C}^{n}$ , then $A=0$ true or false, ? any hint?
honey99
<Ax, x> = 0 means x and Ax are perpendicular
Try to think of this in different dimensions
Wait you can't really do that since C
just eigen bash it 
if x is an eigen vector, with eigen value k then <Ax, x> = <kx, x> = k <x, x> = 0 => k = 0
all eigenvalues are 0 đ
theres non-zero matrices like that unfort
But not every A would have an eigenbasis would it
so it means all its eigenvalues are zero?
I think this should be false? || we are mapping M_n (C) linearly into the dual space of C^n, and by dimentionality reason nontrivial kernal?||
Okay nvm I wasn't too late. Can't we just use properties of the inner product?
<Ax, x> = A<x, x>
Since <x,x> â 0 for x â 0, we must have A = 0
sorry to say but answer is true
wtf my name is blue
Kaynex A is a matrix
we are mapping M_n (C) linearly into the dual space of C^n, and by dimentionality reason nontrivial kernal
I dont see why this isnt correct.
wait nvm just realized
is the map A maps to <Ax,x>
F
F(x)
Also this doesn't capture the behaviour for all x right?
It would just say that there is some x in the kernel of that map
I was thinking of sending A to the function <A-,->
which if it were linear would be in the dual of C^n
Ah right
i think i got it
0 = <A(x + y), x+y> = <Ax, x> + <Ay, y> + <Ax, y> + <Ay, x> = <Ax, y> + <Ay, x>
replacing x with i* x, we get
i<Ax, y> + (-i)<Ay, x> = 0
both these gives <Ax, y> = 0
oh neat!
I have a counter-example
now plugging x = ei and y = ej tells that i,j entry is 0
yeah v clever
that was the first part and i solved that

im guessing on R any anti-symmetric matrix would work
Wait why would this part be true
yup
i kinda assumed that its standard inner product ish
but shouldn't be too hard to fix
I mean you got <Ax,y> = 0 for all x and y
Yeah
Ah neat
hold on, why does this give <Ax,y>=0. Wouldn't it just give <Ax,y>=<Ay,x>? I feel like i'm missing smth
little bit confusion , in "both these gives"
<Ax, y> = <Ay, x> from the second equation and <Ax, y> + <Ay, x> = 0 from the first
ah right
hopefully C doesn't have char = 2
char 2 C moment
Based
youâre original idea could work as well. if you think about JCF of a matrix with all 0 eigenvalues, the vector of all 1âs should be something with a nontrivial inner product if the matrix is nonzero
Just base change 4head
but jordan normal form is 
For char of C approaching 2
imagine using jordan form ever
had to use it in my exam 
same
I literally made a blog post cause I hate jordan normal form so much.
I'm glad to never touch linalg again
I like the jcf, whatâs with all the hate
john what's your opinion of rcf?
rcf?
much better
anything rational is nice
I like JCF after having seen how Saketh uses it in his solutions
gaslit into liking cringe
this looks like a LA meme i dont know rcf kek
Jcf for when your field doesnât split the polynomial, basically. The problem is that it is not as powerful
Real closed field đ
ic
i mean just consider it in algebraic closure 
also proving it is pretty hard iirc
No, you can prove it on the way to jcf
only over C
follows immediately from structure theorem of mod/pid 
Easier than JCF 
I mean for non algebraically closed fields
Structure theorem for pid modules (and in general dedikend domain modules) is something i black box
the proof had too many matrices.
yea, i kinda like the non-matrix proof more
if you assume it for PID you dont need to use matrices for dedekind
yea the general proof uses the structure theorem over PID
probably a non matrix proof for PID as well
right moth
why does a1y1 = y?
i did the general dedekind proof earlier today
saketh helped but i did not read his solution 
ok i did but only after i did it myself first because i came too late to read it
sad!
a1y1 = sum(a1bixi). Now a1bi=pi_i(y). So a1y1=sum(pi_i(y)xi) now by definition of the projection map (it takes y to the coordinate of xi is the expansion of y) this element is the same linear combination of xiâs as y is. Hence by linear independance they are equal
So if y=sum(l_ixi) for some elements l_i in R, then we know that these elements are uniquely determined. What I mean by the coordinate of xi in the expansion of y is the element of the Ring l_i
I am so sorry, I had a typo
I meant element of the ring, not of the module
Nice
thank you
I have solved this till x3=0, x1=x2 , whre x1,x2,x3 is vector x, but not getting how to find funtional , any hint?
so you have shown W is precisely all the scalings of the vector (1, 1, 0). you want these to die.
do you see how you can construct a phi?
map to 0 đ
đ”
henlo moldi
henlo det
y r u dz?
ah, the mouth looks like a 0
xox
i know this , but how mapping zero can help?
null space?
hm? the two conditions are phi(x0) = 1 and phi(x) = 0 for every x in W
opps
i can't be null space
but x_0 is not in W i think
yea its not, W is multiples of (1, 1, 0)
we can see W is kernal of Phi?
W should be contained in the kernel of phi
but not same as the kernel
R^3 --> R^1 loses 2 dimensions, so kernel should be dim 2
hmm but here W is one dimenaional
how to procede ?
just think about what we want
[a b c] is the functional, then we want a + 2b + 3c = 1 and a + b = 0
what about a=0,b=0,c=1/3
yep, that works!
so what will be functional now? is it [0,0,1/3]
in matrix notation, yep
i know only one defination of functional i.e function of functions
isn't a functional on R^3, just a map from R^3 --> R?
okk so z/3 is functional
yea, phi((x, y, z)) = z/3 will do
hm , because it satisfies all the given conditions ,
det when u learned jordan form did you learn it as upper or lower triangular matrix
upper
good.
I learned it while doing cartwheels, so both
proofs and types course next sem
whats ToC

you were reading tables of content?
computation, automata, grammar
Theory of computation
btw why did you beocme Ledog from Godel?
wasn't godel someone else
they looked isomorphic, so assumed they're same
nope

Godel had right side up cat
whats up cat
right-side-up
$\Ledog$
Ledog
Consider the free group generated by two words x and y :F=F(x,y). are the two quotient groups G1 and G2 isomorphic to each other? where G1 is the quotient of F over <xyxy^-2> and G2 is the quotient of F over <xy^2xy^-3>
It could also be R^3 -> Q, for example :^)
I don't think those subgroups are normal, so you might have to take normal closures first
My bad, I used <xyxy^-2> to represent the minimal normal subgroup of F containing xyxy^-2
what's up cat?
Don't worry about it.
(what's up, cat?)
,w up
Want to show every group has a unique maximal perfect subgroup that is normal. Iâve shown that if we have at least one maximal perfect subgroup it must be normal and unique but Iâm having trouble proving existence
Try induction.
For small group sizes it is easy to verify.
You can even show a stronger result: Let G be a finite group. Suppose G contains a unique maximal (proper) subgroup. Show that G is cyclic.
Induction will only work for finite groups though wonât it?
Oof, my bad, assumed finite.
some induction-based results can be extended to the infinite case using transfinite induction (induction on ordinals)
and other results that use induction on finite objects to prove the maximality of something can be extended to the infinite case using Zorn's lemma
Yeah I was thinking of using zornâs lemma but Iâve only used it in a proof once before and this textbook told you to use it so I assume thereâs a way to show this without it
by "maximal perfect subgroup" do you mean a maximal subgroup which is also perfect, or a perfect subgroup which is maximal among perfect subgroups?
okay, so given a group G, let S be the set of all proper perfect subgroups, and partially order it by containment. Let C be a chain in S (so, a subset which is totally ordered by containment), can you find another element in S which is an upper bound of C?
Hmmm
fyi i don't know that zorn's lemma is what you need here, i haven't worked with commutators for a while and i needed to google what a perfect group is
Iâm certain thereâs an alternative to zornâs lemma by the structure of the book
I would assume if we had to assume the axiom of choice the exercise would say so
okay, I think I know a path that will eventually lead you to the answer
if A, B are perfect subgroups, can you find a perfect subgroup containing both A and B?
okay, what about any arbitrary collection of subgroups, can you find a perfect subgroup containing all of them?
Yep, same thing just generate a group out of them
okay, so let the collection be all perfect subgroups
Ah so it gives me an upper bound for the chain
it doesn't even require Zorn's lemma
just let P be the collection of all perfect subgroups of G, then let H be the subgroup generated by the union of P
It doesnât tell me itâs maximal though?
by construction, it contains all other perfect subgroups
it was generated by the union of all perfect subgroups
Oh right including itself Iâm stupid
yeah
My mind was russel paradoxing
lmao
Thnx
Russel talks about membership, not inclusion
wdym by membership? set containment?
k The Spring Constant
that is inclusion
k The Spring Constant
that is not the standard meaning of inclusion
I've never seen set membership referred to as inclusion
well, it's semantics anyway
Can I ask a question
Russel's paradox does indeed talk about $\in$ not $\subset$
Intel
yeah, sorry for interrupting
np
If K/F is a cyclic extension, $\sigma$ the generator and $N_{K/F}(\alpha) = 1$ show $\alpha = \frac{b}{\sigma(b)}$
Yes ă
how shall I start on this?
Is there any intuition behind all maximal ideals being prime ideals? I follow the proof, but i don't quite catch the intuition behind it :/
(which also means that if i were to try and prove it myself i would just smash definitions till something comes up rather than see how they are linked xD)
If $M$ is a maximal ideal and $ab\in M$ but $a\notin M$, then the ideal containing both $M$ and $a$ is the entire ring $R$. Therefore, 1 is in this ideal and so we can write $1=ax+m$ for $x\in R, m\in M$. Then we have $b=abx+bm$ which must be in $m$ because $ab, m\in M$. That's the general idea. You can also see it come from the fact that the quotient ring $R/M$ is a field. If $ab\in M$, then if we consider the cosets $\bar{a}, \bar{b}\in R/M$, we'd get that $\bar{a}\bar{b}=\bar{0}$. But in a field, this is only possible if $\bar{a}=\bar{0}$ or $\bar{b}=\bar{0}$, and by definition of quotient ring, either $a$ or $b$ is in $M$.
cgodfrey
hummm i'm gonna give it some thought. thanks! It still fills a bit like "just happens to work like that" but maybe i'm just too tired to see the big picture
It can also help to think specifically of these ideals in $\mathbb{Z}$. A maximal ideal $M$ in $\mathbb{Z}$ has the property that if you add any other number as a generator of the ideal, you end up with all of $\mathbb{Z}$. This is the same as saying that $1\in M'$, this modified ideal with the additional element. But since $\mathbb{Z}$ is also a PID, the ideal generated by $(n_1, \dots, n_k)$ is the ideal generated by $\text{gcd}(n_1, \dots, n_k)$. So if the maximal ideal $M$ has the generator $m$, we want the property that if we consider the ideal generated by $(m, n)$ (where $n$ is not a multiple of $m$), we get the entire ring. But this exactly happens when $m$ is prime, and thus $M$ is a prime ideal
cgodfrey
PID?
Principal ideal domain
every ideal can be written as generated by a single element
Ah gotcha
This idea doesn't work in general, but I think it helps to see the general idea
If $M$ is generated by $m$ and $n\notin M$, $\text{gcd}(m, n)=1$ for all such $n$ is only possible if $m$ is prime since the gcd of a prime number and any nonmultiple is 1
cgodfrey
ohhh that last thing is starting to make things fall into place
I'll do some sketches and examples on Z, thanks a lot!
Just be careful not to get too focused on Z. Because it turns out in Z, all prime ideals are maximal but that's not true in general
It can be easy to do things that only work one way that don't hold in general
Gotcha gotcha, will start from there and then move to general case đ
đ
The definition of a prime ideal is very naturally interpreted as requiring that the quotient be an integral domain, and the definition of a maximal ideal is very naturally interpreted as requiring that the quotient be a field.
- I is a prime ideal if for all a,b in R such that ab is in I, either a or b are in I
- Interpreted in R/I, I is a prime ideal if for all a,b in R/I such that ab = 0, a = 0 or b = 0
- M is a maximal ideal if there is no ideal I of R strictly between M and R
- Interpreted in R/M, M is a maximal ideal if there is no ideal I of R/M strictly between 0 and M
Exercise 1: Prove that for a ring R with ideal I, the ideals of R/I precisely correspond to ideals of R that contain I.
Exercise 2: Prove rigorously, and provide an intuition why, a ring R is a field precisely when it has no non-trivial proper ideals. (technical note: you also need 1 =/= 0. I consider rings to necessarily be commutative and with identity)
For further perspective relating to how an integral domain is a special case of a field, think of it this way:
- A ring R is an integral domain precisely when nonzero elements are not zero divisors.
- A ring R is a field precisely when nonzero elements are units
- Being a unit is stronger than not being a zero divisor
Exercise 3: For an element a of a ring, we get a map x -> ax. Prove that this map is injective precisely when a is not a zero divisor, and bijective precisely when a is a unit.
@crimson falcon this is more than enough intuition for why maximal ideals are prime
are the functions in these sets from C -> C?
I think they're continuous maps [0,1] to C
ah then my idea doesn't quite work, ||I was thinking of showing that each coset in X/M is represented by {f \in X : f(0) = a} for some a \in C => X/M iso to C but I don't know if that works if the domain isn't C||
oh yes of course mb
@median pawn f,g are elements of C[0,1], and you know f(0), g(0). How do you determine whether phi(f) = phi(g) where phi is the natural projection X -> X/M
put that in a spoiler, they asked for a hint, and what I said provides them less of a solution and lets them do more solving themselves, so if that won't be enough for them they can look at your spoiler
sorry lol
no problem lol
I didn't realise it was actually a solution or I would've
If I have a set S of tuples {(g1,...,gp) element of G^P | g1*... *gp = 1}. And defined a relation ~ with (g1,...,gp)~(gi+1,...gp,g1,...,gi) for 1<=i<=p. Why exactly is g1 = gi+1 = g2i+1 ... ?
the question isn't phrased nicely. i can take any set and definite any relation on it. that won't tell you much about the elements.
i assume this is related to some proof of cauchy's theorem lol
Yes
yep, that is clear. but for that you usually define an action of Z/pZ on that set S
if you're trying to show that the elements with orbit of size one are precisely the elements of the form a^p = 1
notice that they should be fixed by rotation by 1 unit
so g2 = g1; g3 = g2; ...
this shows all gi = a and since product of gi = 1, we get a^p = 1
that's not exactly true, rather, there's an action of the cyclic group of order p on the set S
and this relation precisely corresponds to orbits of the action
and by the orbit stabilizer theorem and the subgroup structure of the cyclic group of order p, the sizes of orbits are either p or 1
so then, since the size of S is divisible by p, the amount of orbits of size 1 must also be divisible by p
and these are precisely solutions to a^p = 1
since 1 is one solution, there must be at least p-1 more
i have no clue on how i should completely characterize the ideals of T
i have proved that the ideals of a matrix ring are completely determined by the ideals of the base ring
but that doesnt seem very applicable
ideals of rings restrict to ideals of subrings, so that already gives you some ideals to look at
then try to see whether there could be more ideals than those ones
like, those matrices in T where a=0 form an ideal, I believe (verify this)
and then intersections between these and the ideals given by ideals of Z are also ideals
my intuition is that these probably are everything, so try to see if you can show that
hopefully that gives you a direction to work towards
How come the symbols for Coxeter groups skip J through O?
Hey, just to confirm that I'm not being stupid with how I'm answering a problem, if we have two abelian groups G and H, the direct sum GâšH is the same as the direct product GĂH, right?
@quaint tree yes
Cool, I just wanted to be sure that it was just a name-change because additive notation instead of something else that looks kind of similar.
this looks like weird notation, but it's to do with the fact that G x H is constructed such that a homomorphism (from some group) into G x H is the same thing as a pair of homomorphisms (from that group) one into G, and one into H.
A direct sum, however, is defined such that a homomorphism from GâšH (into some group) is the same thing as a pair of homomorphisms (into that group) one into G, one into H
Note that the two differ in the infinite case
and in the case of abelian groups, these are the same
Also yea, what Intel said, in Ab the product and coproduct coincide
they do? what am I missing?
Oh so I was right these are two different things instead of just a notation change due to using additive notation.
In the infinite case you define a direct sum to be nonzero in only finitely many coordinates
so in general they are different things, but for abelian groups they are the same thing
oh, right, my bad
@quaint tree yeah, so for infinite abelian groups I was wrong
Okay cool so I definitely need to read up on direct sums at sum point then, but for this problem I can probably just use what I know about direct products. Thanks.
(my abelian groups are finite)
then we're good
if you wanna read about the free product on groups, then that's the "direct sum" of groups in general
Not to be pedantic but It's actually for infinite Sums, the groups themselves can be finite
But you're just doing 2 groups
So it doesn't matter
in a direct sum of a family of groups (G_i lets say), elements are (g_i) where all but finitely many g_i are 0
in direct product we dont need that last condition
Not sure what topic in math this is from... But this is in a cryptography tutorial that has a bit of abstract algebra adjacent math. Does anyone know what function distance is
sorry fractional distance*
This is in the context of mapping a univariate function to a bivariate function to show that it disappears on a subspace. No clue what any of it meant, especially not the fractional distance from a polynomial in its first variable and a second polynomial in its second
I don't know what the fractional distance between Q and some polynomial f is, but I can explain the rest in terms of that
For some choice of d1, d2, this maps Q to the minimal "fractional distance" that Q has two some polynomial in two variables with coefficients in F, with d1, d2 being bounds on its degree with respect to both variables respectively
Hilbertâs theorem 90
Let $G_{n+1}=[G_n,G]=\langle \lbrace h^{-1}g^{-1}hg |h\in G_n, g \in G \rbrace\rangle$, then why $G_{n+1} \subset G_n$?
Or x1
wher $G_n$, $G$ and $G_{n+1}$ are groups
Or x1
It is not in general true for a subgroup H of G that [H, G] is contained in H, however, what you're trying to do is to prove a certain special case
critically what you forgot here is that you initially define G_0 = G
then you can prove this by induction
When H1 contains H2, [H1, G] contains [H2, G] (verify this), and you can use this for the induction step
thanks
Is there any nice structure on the Hom set between two (commutative, with 1 and unity preserving morphisms) rings?
I remember having a brainfart in the past where I thought for some reason that it was an additive group, but didn't realize that doesn't preserve multiplicativity
But is there any structure on it that might be interesting, besides just the structure of a set?
it says that homRing(đœ2,â€)=â .
hom set you mean set of homomorfism or the set of functions?
of unital ring homomorphisms
well, maybe there's a structure that allows for the set to be empty
i.e. topological spaces can be empty
I'm looking for any interesting structure on them
I think any ideal I of T has the form I=I_r,s,t={A from T: A_11 is from rZ, A_22 is from sZ A_21 is from tZ} where t divides both r and s
I don't think you're going to find any, unfortunately.
if you broaden your horizons a little bit and say things like
"look at all the ring homomorphisms from R to some field"
that's sort of the same as looking at all prime ideals of R
and that is a set which you can put a topology on
all maximal ideals
no
or you mean an integral domain
Clearly there exists a natural isomorphism mapping f to f(0)
well, still not quite exactly, I think
if you want you can restrict to just maximal ideals and put a topology on that
because notice that we're fixing some field
no I'm not
you were in your original question
I'm saying look at homs from R into any field
oh, okay
in any case if you do want to restrict you can look at something like
finitely generated C-algebras
C = complex numbers
so like, quotients of C[x, y, ...]
alright
all maps from those kinds of things to a field factor through C
makes sense
errrr that's not quite true but like
basically all of them
all quotients of such rings by maximal ideals are isomorphic to C
is what i want to say
but yeah sorry this "special case" is just like "if you wanted to fix the codomain"
my point is that you can topologize "the set of prime/maximal ideals of a ring R" in an interesting and useful way
and that set is very related to "the set of all homomorphisms from R to some field"
so I'm just saying that while you can't put any interesting structure on Hom(R,S), you can with "homomorphisms from R to fields"
I actually want a structure which isn't a topology.
fine, it's a scheme ;P
hmm, that might actually work
In mathematics, a scheme is a mathematical structure that enlarges the notion of algebraic variety in several ways, such as taking account of multiplicities (the equations x = 0 and x2 = 0 define the same algebraic variety and different schemes) and allowing "varieties" defined over any commutative ring (for example, Fermat curves are defined ov...
idk any algebraic geometry yet
what is your goal with this question? and why does "it's a topology" not work for you?
I basically just know "schemes are geometric objects that are 'locally like' affine schemes, which are the spectrums of rings"
that's about all you need to know :P
I don't know the nature of how they are "locally like" affine schemes though
that question was aimed at your initial inquiry
you asked if there was some kind of structure on Hom(R,S)
okay, anyway
but topology was not an acceptable answer to you haha
so I was trying to ask what kind fo answer you were looking for
so, you know how given a topological space
and considering continuous maps into R
you can learn about the space by looking at the ideals of this ring
(in the same way that a manifold is locally like R^n, if you know what manifolds are. if not, imagine the sphere. If you cut out a little patch of it and stand on it, you would just think you were standing inside R^2)
I was trying to find the right restrictions on a space (maybe compact and Hausdorff?) and "get back" some of the structure of rings on those spaces
what do you mean get back?
so like, I originally had a brainfart where I thought ring homomorphisms were additive
so I said, we have a contravariant functor F : Top -> Ring
I think compact hausdorff is what you need in order to say there's a bijection between X and maximal ideals of C(X, R)
then I was trying to figure out a way to sort of make the maximal spectrum functorial
which it typically isn't
but I was trying to see whether I can look at some nice case
or relax what it means a little (like add the entire ring as a potential point)
just the spectrum is functorial though
yeah
and you can always recover maxspec as the subspace of closed points
meaning if p is a prime ideal of R, then {p} is a closed subset of Spec R iff p is a maximal ideal of R
also like, what you are trying to do is basically what algebraic geometry is about, in some very coarse sense
except I'm looking at continuous functions instead of polynomials
and obviously I'm aware that many people smarter than me looked at this before
like, there is an equivalence of categories between rings and affine schemes
I'm just trying to get a handle on it myself
im suggesting that you shouldnt look at continuous functions and instead should look at polynomials :P
but also not even that, like, if your ring is C(X, R) for some topological space X
which is compact hausdorff
then you can recover X from Spec C(X,R)
well... not as a topological space....
just as a set
you can get a topology on it that is coarser than the original one
while the main examples you'll see of schemes are like, spectrum of a quotient of a polynomial ring
maybe with a different ring than R, we can capture more closed sets as zero sets
the whole point of schemes is that we dont have to restrict ourselves to polynomials
we can do it on any ring
hmm
I really wanna work towards learning algebraic geometry
but it strikes me as a bit difficult to get into
I think it has a bad reuptation
but like, I think the geometry of varieties over C (and how that relates to the algebraic structure of their coordinate rings) isn't too difficult, and that's a good springboard to get into more abstract stuff
like, I wouldnt recommend just picking up a book like hartshorne unless you really know what youre doing
what's a good book for getting into it?
hmmm
maybe something like this? http://www.math.lsa.umich.edu/~wfulton/CurveBook.pdf
ive never used it but ive heard it's good and a lot of the content looks pretty classical
i.e. not crazy abstract
the scope is also pretty narrow, instead of talking about varieties in general it focuses on curves
but once you have some background in the terminology (you dont even need the whole book for this) you could kinda jump into learning about schemes from another source
is a curve a variety in 2d?
a curve is any 1-dimensional variety
not all of which can be embedded in 2 dimensions
what notion of dimension?
the usual one
Speaking of algebraic geometry , I am reading algebraic geometry and arithmetic curves written by Q. Liu
topological?
I mean, there is a precise definition of dimension, I'm just trying to communicate that for things like R^n it agrees with what you think
a 1-dimensional variety over the field R is going to look like what you think of as a "curve"
a 1-dimensional variety over the field C is going to look like what you think of as a "surface"
so, for example, x^2 + y^2 = 1 is a "curve" over C even though topologically it's 2 dimensional
right?
dimX=sup dim_x,X where dim_x,X=inf dimU where U is an open neighborhood of x.when U is affine then dim U is the Krull dimension of O_X(U)
yes, $\lbrace (x,y) \in \bC^{2} \mid x^2 + y^2 = 1\rbrace$ is a complex curve
Buncho Bananas
it's the maxspec of the ring $\bC[x,y]/(x^2 + y^2 - 1)$
Buncho Bananas
For a special case when X is an integral algebraic variety over a field k then dim X = trdeg_k(k(X))
i'm impressed that you know such big words but I don't think that you're being very helpful right now.
okay, so I can see how that ring in some sense represents "polynomials defined over V(x^2 + y^2 - 1)", in the sense that it's polynomials over C^2 up to being equal on that set
that's right!
what's a general statement we can make that explains how such rings have a maximal spectrum that gives us back the variety?
basically, you can go in two directions: first, given an ideal I of C[x, y, ...] you can look at the variety it defines, which is basically maxspec(C[x, y, ...] / I)
second, if you are given some variety in C^n, you can look at the ideal of polynomials which vanish on that variety
the nullstellensatz basically says that those two processes are inverses of each other
(the "basically" in that sentence is covering up a slight technical detail, essentially that if you were silly and took the ideal I = (x^2) in C[x] to start, the variety you get would be just the point {0} in C, and then if you tried to go backward to get an ideal you would get the ideal J = (x), not I = (x^2))
(the ideal J is the radical of the ideal I, though, and that's the technical detail you need to make the statement work)
okay, so one of the compositions is the identity, and the other is the radical?
which, if not, you would take a "closure" into a variety?
yeah that's a good way to think about it
smallest variety which contains that set
so if you did something like, tried to input Z as a subset of C
the smallest variety containing Z is in fact all of C
i.e. there is no nonzero polynomial which vanishes on all of C
it's literally a topological closure in the Zariski topology, right?
that's right
and this does give a bijection between radical ideals and varieties, right?
that's right
okay, and this holds over affine spaces over fields
i think you want the field to be algebraically closed
but otherwise, yes
so if I take V(x^2 + y^2 - 1)
is it in some sense "isomorphic" to a - possibly lower dimensional - affine space over a - possibly different - field?
V(blah) isn't defined unless you specify which field
C
as a whole it wont necessarily be -- just imagine replacing C with R
the unit circle isn't isomorphic to R
over a field like R or C, varieties will be manifolds with singularities
if you use the standard subsapce topology of the standard topology on R^n or C^n
okay, so, I have a question about schemes
so affine schemes are spectrums of rings, and they're considered in the Zariski topology, and with a structure called a "sheaf" (which I don't understand yet), that describes how a ring is associated to each open set
so, first thing, are these rings on the complement of V again R/(subset that induces V)?
no, they'll be more complicated
okay, so they'll properly contain them?
no it will be unrelated to that quotient of R
the ring associated to some open set U will be the "algebraic functions on U"
as an example, let's take R = C[x]
whose spectrum is just C
and let's take the variety V = {0} which comes from the ideal I = (x)
and U is the complement of that
with an extra point for the 0 ideal, right?
ah, yes, that's right, although topologically it's sort of a weird point
it's not a closed point and so you shouldnt really visualize it as living in one particular point of space
think of it like a bowl of pudding with raisins
the raisins are the closed points corresponding to the maximal ideals (x-a) for a in C
and the ideal (0) is the pudding which holds all the raisins together
okay





