#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 601 of 407
@dusty river
Let $G={f:f:\mathbb{R}\rightarrow \mathbb{Z}_2, \exists x\in \mathbb{R}, f(t)=0,\forall t> x}$, with addition of functions, addition modulo $2$. Let $G_A={f:f:\mathbb{R}\rightarrow \mathbb{Z}_2, f(t)=0,\forall t> 1}$. Is $G_A$ a subgroup of $G$?If so, is the index of $G_A$ in $G$ finite or infinite?
I am an Applied Math guy, please consider that if I make dumb mistakes
Thanks! It's just that I was avoiding doing things set theoretically because the relation looked scary, but phrased that way, it sounds way nicer 
MathForEarthlings
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Wait so if I'm interpreting it correctly, the forgetful functor from R-mod to Set preserves coequalizers?
That actually makes sense thinking set theoretically yeah 
hmm i'm not sure if this is true.
Wait so when you said x ~ f(x), did you take the equivalence relation generated by all of these
yes
Ah yeah that's the part I'm finding daunting 
Like the generated relation means I have to show there's no finite path from x to 0
ah. well the fact that it's filtered makes the generated relation very easy to describe. suppose that you have $M_i,M_j,M_k$ and $f :M_j \to M_i, g : M_j\to M_k$. then it's a consequence of the definition of a filtered diagram that there should be maps $f' : M_i\to M_\ell, g' : M_k\to M_\ell$ making it into a commutative square
diligentClerk
right?
I'm not sure what filtered means 
ok well maybe let me find a rigorous definition
Indexed by a directed set?
you can take it to be a directed set if you want but the proof goes through in just slightly more generality
obviously a directed set is filtered because by definition it satisfies axiom 1 and axiom 2 holds vacuously in a poset
Right
so ok yeah let's just do a directed set for simplicity
Yeah I see the square here
It would be nice if someone can comment anything on this
right. so if you have two elements in $M_i,M_k$ which are equal because they both come from the same element in $M_j$, then we can reword this to say that they are equal because they both go to the same element in $M_\ell$
from there it's an easy induction argument to prove that $x\in M_a \sim x'\in M_b$ iff there is some $c$ with $c< a,b$ and $x,x'$ go to the same element of $M_c$
Why the {f:f:...?
Like why 2 fs, is that a typo?
Ohh the first one is for the set builder thing
Set of all f's such that
Right
Are they just set functions?
Can't be group homomorphisms because of torsion
The f
G_A is a subgroup yes, any element of G_A is in G
It has infinite index
but not isomorphic I guess
then G_A is isomorphic, subgroup of infinite index?
Ah now I'm not so sure about them being isomorphic
They are if you remove that second condition on the functions in G
Like if you just took all functions
But what would be the index?
Instead of eventually 0
Infinite then
Because you can get distinct cosets by adding the functions f_n which are 1 at n, 0 elsewhere, for any n>1
Like each of those f_n gives a distinct coset
True, I will remove the condition
Then $G={f:f:\mathbb{R}\rightarrow \mathbb{Z}_2}$ has a proper subgroup which is isomorphic to $G$ and of infinite index(?)
MathForEarthlings
Yes
@fossil shuttle I think this is true though, since in both cases you just quotient the codomain by f(x) ~ g(x) for each x
well look at $\mathbb{Z}$ and consider the two maps $\id : \mathbb{Z}\to \mathbb{Z}$ and $-1 : \mathbb{Z}\to \mathbb{Z}$. Abelian-group-theoretically the cokernel is $\mathbb{Z}/2$. But set theoretically it's $\mathbb{N}$, I think
diligentClerk
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the argument I gave you about the equivalence relation should only work for filtered colimits, not coproducts or coequalizers in general
Ah right I see it, because you take the submodule generated by the equivalence relation, kind of
yeah
Ty 
i dont understand this induced k algebra homomorphism
x should be sent to x composed with phi
this is the theorem btw
i think ive understoof whats going on here but not in the example
<@&286206848099549185>
in the example above
wouldnt $x \mapsto x\varphi$
pewdssssssss
The k-algebra morphism is determined by how it acts on the generators
I have a problem covering Sylow's theorem that I have been grappling with and
would appreciate if anyone could provide a hint.
G is a group of order $p^{k}*m$, where p does not divide m.
Say there is a natural integer r such that for any two distinct p-Sylow subgroups,
their intersection has at most $p^{r}$ elements.
The task is to show the number of p-Sylow subgroups, $n_{p}$, is congruent to 1 (mod $p^{k-r}$).
Thoughts: My idea was to let a p-Sylow subgroup, P, act on the set of all p-Sylow subgroups
by conjugation. Orbit decomposition on the set of all p-Sylow subgroups gives me then:
$n_p = 1 + \sum_i \frac {|P|}{| \text{stab}_P (H_i) |} $
Here $H_i$ is a p-Sylow subgroup. $\text{stab}_P (H_i)$ is a proper subgroup of
P, so $| \text{stab}_P (H_i) | = p^{q_i}$ for some $q_i \leq k-1$. Since $|P| = p^k$, I have
$n_p = 1 + \sum_i p^{k - q_i} $
If I can show $q_i \leq r$ then the result will follow. But I can't see how to do that.
$q_i \leq r$ would mean $\text{stab}_P (H_i)$ has at most $p^r$ elements, but
I am struggling to see how this imposition falls on the stabilizer subgroup.
Any help appreciated.
hardisc
in the second paragraph
it doesnt make sense?
f is a polynomial evaluted by stuff in W
phi takes values from V into W
so how would F(w ,.. wn) = something evaluted in V
$f(\varphi) \in k[V]$ this part btw $f \in K[W]$
pewdssssssss
Let f (x) E F[x] be an irreducible polynomial of degree n, and let E / F be
a splitting field of f (x).
(i) Prove that n I [E: F].
(ii) Prove that if f (x) is separable, then n I I Gal(E/F) I.
For this question seems very straightforward but I wanted to ask about some technical details
if f is irreducible polyn w degree n and E/F is splitting field of f
then is in E/F f splits as n linear factors correct?
hence n roots (not necessarily distinct?)
call them a1, a2,... an
so E = F(a1,a2...an)?
and by the degree formula
[E:F] =[ F(a1,a2...an):F(a1....an-1)] x [ F(a1,a2...an-1):F(a1....an-2)] x ... x [F(a1):F]
wouldnt this imply [E:F] = 2^k some k?
No, it doesn’t imply that, the extension F(a1)/F need not have degree 1 or 0, it could be something completely different
Nice
The second one
since its splitting field of f over F
that means f splits into linear factors
over E/F
and its irred over F
so
all its roots are not in F
so can I just choose one of the roots
and adjoin it to F
say F(a)
then compare that to E
Look you’ve written down the correct degree formula, now just use the fact that [F(a1):F]=n (can you see why that is the case?)
Np
if f(x) = (x-a)(x-b)(x-c)(x-d) and a,b,c,d distinct e E where E is splitting field of Q
and a,b,c,d are not in Q
im asked to find Gal(E/Q)
i know each automorphism from E = Q(a,b,c,d) to E fixing Q pt. wise
has to map root to a root of f
and also
since f has 4 distinct roots
then Gal(E/Q) iso to subgroup of S4
would Gal(E/Q) be S4?
Not necessarily, there are like 6 possibilities
All you can say is this
Uh
The thing after that

You should be able to figure this out by adjoining the 2 roots 1 by 1
And seeing how automorphisms extend
You have to find all extensions of the identity automorphism
f(x) = x^4 -10x^2+1
well
i was thinking phi identity obviously
but like
idg why there isnt 4! = 24 options
like say you have phi(a)
this has 4options
phi(b) then has 3
etc.
How many extensions are there to Q[√2]
one?
from E to Q(sqrt2)?
err
nvm that doenst even make sense
im reading this solution online
and I assumed it was wrong
but it maps sqrt2 to sqrt2, sqrt3 to sqrt3
sqrt2 to -sqrt2, sqrt3 to sqrt3
sqrt2 to sqrt2, sqrt3 to -sqrt3
sqrt2 to -sqrt2, sqrt3 to -sqrt3
so 4 automorphisms exist
which made like 0 sense to me
💀
No
I meant
You have identity on Q
An automorphism of Q(√2)/Q
Is exactly an extension of identity
See how many there are
Then do the same for eachof their extensions to the larger thing
would there be 2?
identity map and sqrt2 to -sqrt2?
Yep
Then for both of those you see how to extend
And then you get all the extensions
Then you see how they compose etc
To figure out grp structure
so should be 2*2 = 4
such automorphisms
since we require
roots to be perserved
of x^2-2, x^2-3
Yep
tyy 😄
Let $p$ be a prime number. Show that the Frattini subgroup of $\Bbb Z/p^n$, $n\ge 2$, is generated by $p$.
K零
so under canonical projection $Z\to Z/p^nZ$ the maximal subgroups of Z/p^nZ correspond to maximal subgroups of Z containing p^n Z, thus the only maximal subgroup is pZ/p^nZ
is this correct
Yes
Thanks
No problem
yo any ideas?
I can think of a proof via zariski’s lemma
And i’m pretty sure this statement will imply zariski’s lemma
So it seems very hard
I think you have to deal with transcendental degree
Have they done any commutative algebra before they gave this question? If not I’m kinda stumped for a proof that only uses stuff about fields
Hmm can't you do E/K as E/L/K, where L is the algebraic part, then say L/K finitely generated, and then transcendental degree arguments for E/K finitely generated?
L/K is finitely generated because it is contained in a finitely generated algebraic and hence finite extension
The algebraic part of F/K is finitely generated because it should be what you get when you remove all the transcendental generators
I don’t see how you got F/K finitely generated from just that
Sorry i mean the alg closure of K on F
*in
How do you just remove transcendental generators and get the alg part?
F is K({a_i} union {b_i}), where b_i are transcendental, then K({a_i}) should be the algebraic closure?
No?
Any expression that non trivially uses the transcentals would be transcendental though
Non trivially as in not equal to 0
Assuming that the b_i's are algebraically independent
is that not true?
The finite generating set may have dependant bi’s
You can do trdeg then add in the alg stuff to get a generating set, but there is no guarantee that will be finite
hmm I see
Well i think i have the argument for how this implies zariski lemma: assume this thing holds, assume there is t in F which is transcendental, then K(t) is a sub-extension, hence finitely generated. But that is a contradiction as K(t) is infinitely generated over K. Therefore F over K is algebraic. That means F over K is finite
And zariski lemma implies this is pretty straightforward
I didn't get it, K(t) is finitely generated as a field extension, but not as an associative algebra
Yeah
Aren't those the 2 things you got though?
I don’t ever use field extension generation
Finitely generated is always as an algebra
That is by the proposition
The thing to be proved is for finitely generated as field extensions I think
No, i don’t think so. When finitely generated is used it is almost always as an algebra
No

(For finite extensions both are the same)
in the problem as fields I thought nnot sure if there was algebra mentioned before
We proved "finite iff finitely generated algebraic"
Would be weird to not have a word for F/K being K(finite set)
In fact it says K(finite set) is finitely generated, wouldn't that mean it is algebraic if it were as an algebra
or is it possible to somehow get quotients still
I have no clue how to parse that
lol edited
Because the algebra generated by a finite set that contains transcentals probably won't contain inverses right
Or at least it will be a very strong hypothesis
Because then it eliminates the case of having 1 transcendental generator immediately
If K over k is finitely generated as an algebra, then it is algebraic: this is what zariski’s lemma says
so it seems finitely generated as a field would make sense (also given that the other interpretation is way too hard)
ye
This still doesn't work though
You might have to rewrite the generators making the transcendentals all independent
and then prove that there's a way to do this without having to add infinitely many algebraic generators
😵💫

Hey Yall I’m a little lost rn. So if I have a subgroup of prime order then it’s cyclic right? And since it’s cyclic it’s abelian right? And since it’s abelian doesn’t that make it a normal subgroup? To sum it all up, is it true that subgroups of prime order are normal?
Wait nvm I think I found my answer, abelian subgroups aren’t necessarily normal right
correct
thats where your logic failed
yeah, maybe the confusion arose because all subgroups of abelian groups are normal
a nice (ig minimal, since S3 is the smallest non-abelian group?) counterexample would be that H = {e,(12)} is a prime, non-normal subgroup of S3, as (13)H and H(13) do not coincide :)
I feel like I might be doubting myself a bit too much here: let's say I have two (finite) groups, A and B. $A \oplus B$ is certainly isomorphic to $B \oplus A$, where $\oplus$ is the external direct product, right? In my mind, we can easily construct a bijection between the two where each element in the first just switches its components' places.
Chris24
the bijection certainly exists and you can show the map is an isomorphism directly too
@cursive remnant yes whats the problem
No problem, specifically! Just applying my logic.
Well, actually, I am trying to apply that process iteratively, in a sense.
wdym
Concretely, let φ: A x B -> B x A send (a,b) to (b,a) then
φ((a,b) (a',b')) = φ (aa', bb') = (bb',aa') = (b,a)(b',a') = φ(a,b)φ(a',b')
i.e. just directly compute it
Awesome, thank you a bunch @south patrol
np
now i feel weird because we always just used x for (external) direct product with groups but I suppose the difference comes in with internal direct products
yea
the notation for products sucks
like is really bad
people cant make up their mind wether to use x or this direct sum
And @void cosmos I want to demonstrate that if I have a finite collection of groups A, B, C, etc. that $A \oplus B \oplus C . .. \oplus N$ is isomorphic to any . . . permutative product? I'm not sure how to word it.
Chris24
Yeah that's what I'm going for.
and permute the elements (ordered tuples) accordingly
and tbh i dont know
if this falls
for the infinite case
ur right
Thanks a ton!
I feel like ive taken freedoms with manipulating isomorphisms: is this argument valid? Let $P\in Syl_2(D_{2n})$, ive shown $P\cap \left<r\right>$ is a normal subgroup of $D_{2n}$. Now $\left<s,r^k\right>$ is a particular Sylow 2-subgroup of $D_{2n}$, so $P\cong \left<s,r^k\right>$. Now comes the argument im not sure about. We have hence that $P\cap \left<r\right> \cong \left<s,r^k\right>\cap \left<r\right> = \left<r^k\right>$, so that $D_{2n}/P\cap \left<r\right> \cong D_{2n}/\left<r^k\right> \cong D_{2k}$
Little Narwhal ✓
would appreciate if someone could tell me if that final argument is valid
oh and btw k is the number such that 2n=2^a * k with k odd
did you magically assume that P inter <r> is independent of P ?
yeah.... exactly why it felt fishy
D2n is simple enough that we have a pretty nice picture of all its subgroups so you should just be able to brute force all the possible P
i have a tendency to treat isomorphisms like equalities too much.
all i need to show to complete the exercise i was working on is that $P\cap \left<r\right> = \left<r^k\right>$ but that's where im struggling
Little Narwhal ✓
since all Sylow subgroups are conjugate to each other you can just argue that the conjugates of <r> are <r>
oh right
and same with <r^k>
right so in conjugating <s,r^k> to get any sylow 2-subgroup, the subgroup <r^k> conugates to <r^k> since it is normal in D2n and hence the intersection with <r> stays the same
for any 2-Sylow P', there is g such that P' = gPg-1
then P' inter <r> = gPg-1 inter g<r>g-1 = g(P inter <r>)g-1 = g<r^k>g-1 = <r^k>
where P is the one you found
(and it might be the only one anyway)
no it's not since there are k sylow 2 subgroups (that's what the exercise asks you to show)
thanks!
ah yes
TIL infinite fields never have finitely generated multiplicative groups
woah kinda cool
If I want prove in R-mod Hom(R, M) is isomorphic to M, where M is an R-module, and R is an R-module as a a ring acting on itself, how would I do this?
My proof is like this: if we look at the underlying abelian groups of R (as a ring) and M, denoted Ar and Am, we get that Hom(Ar, Am) is isomorphic to Am. Now if we let R as a ring act on Am, we get M. This is isomorphic to R acting on Hom(Ar, Am). Where r * phi(a in Ar) = phi(r*a in Ar). Did I say anything sensible? (Probably not).
Or Hom(Ar, Am) might just be a subgroup of Am? I'm not sure.
Sorry
Why are you apologizing 
Hom(R, M) = M doesn't imply Hom(Ar, Am) = Am. The reason is that when you just regard these as abelian groups, you are allowed to take more general homomorphisms, so the hom set becomes bigger
While Am of course remains the same
The 2 "Hom" operators aren't the same, the first one will be in the category of modules while the second one is in the category of abelian grapes
Hint: ||Look at where the identity of R goes under such a homomorphism||
Abelian grapes
You can change the above argument, replace the polynomial
r x^e f - x^d g with just r f - g since the polynomials f,g all have the same degree already. Then the proof is essentially the same.
Let $\omega$ be the solution to $x^2+x+1=0$, is the set ${a+b\omega: a, b\in\mbb{R}}$ a field
arshsverma
I'm just confused at what the inverse would be
multiplication seems to be $(a+b\omega)(c+d\omega)=(ac-bd)+(bc+ad-bd)\omega$
arshsverma
yes
so the inverse of $a+b\omega$ is a $c+d \omega$ such that $ac-bd+(bc+ad-bd)\omega=1$
Or x1
Do you know anything about principal ideal domains?
wouldn't the fact that this polynomial is irreducible over R with degree two already make that set there field? I mean idk if you've had that theorem yet in your course, but it is field theory.
Isn't it just solving 2 linear equations
bc+ad-bd=0
ac-bd=1
a and b are known constants
Does an isomorphism of an integral domain (in particular a ring of polynomials over a field) to itself extend to an automorphism on the corresponding field of fractions (the field of rational polynomials over a field)?
it does
Do you still need a solution to this one?
Can I dm about it?
Sure
how did i prove this?
the noetherian condition asserts that given an arbitrary set of ideals in a ring ordered by inclusion, there is an element in the set not contained in any other ideal in the set, right?
e.g an infinitely ascending chain of ideals for which none are maximal in the set because i can just go to the next one, which is also not maximal, and so on
whereas the usual zorns lemma argument just asserts that every ideal is contained in a maximal ideal in the ring, not necessarily in a given set
@patent girder that looks like skein relations for some polynomials that are topological invariants of knots. If that's the case, most of the time this type of relations are definition of polynomials
i thought a strictly upper triangular matrix had 0s along the diagonal as well but then clearly it wouldnt be an element of the general linear group... The exercise they reference instead had 1s on the diagonal which is also strange.... So im guessing it's this last interpretation that they're referring to?
just weird because i thought usually strictly upper triangular matrices had 0s along the diagonal and the lower triangle
what does exercise 17 say ?
in the context of GLn I would say it's all 1 on the diagonal, while triangular matrices would have nonzero entries on the diagonal
yea, it's the conway polynomial so I'd just adjust the the C(+) - C(-) = tC(o) to get that right?
Are groups of affine Lie type things that have been considered before?
it's about upper triangular matrices with 1s on the diagonal
What do you mean?
Like those produced by affine Dynkin diagrams?
Yes
Yea these are incredibly well studied
Or at least the Lie algebras are
The Kac Moody Lie algebras of affine type are infinite dimensional but they have a very similar representation theory to the finite dimensional case
And there are lots of techniques for studying these
Oh for the finite groups of Lie type? That’s a bit weirder of a situation
@sly crescent there’s a paper that came out a few days ago that at least gives some idea how this might work: https://arxiv.org/pdf/2107.12727.pdf
why do each qjgj have degree less than bi-1
It follows by definition of the division algorithm (at least in my book on groebner basis). In the previous sentence, $S(g_{i-1}, g_i)$ has multidegree less than $\beta_{i-1,i}$. In general for polynomial division, dividing $f$ by $g_1, \dots, g_n$ lets us write $f=q_1\cdot g_1+\cdots + q_n\cdot g_n + r$ where the multidegree of $f$ is greater than or equal to the multidegree of each $q_i\cdot g_i$.
cgodfrey
It follows because $\beta_{i-1, i}>\text{multidegree}(S(g_{i-1},g_i))\geq \text{multidegree}(q_j\cdot g_j)$ for each $j$
cgodfrey
also remember that r=0 because by definition S(g_{i-1}, g_i) = 0 mod G means that the remainder after division by G is 0, that's just the definition of congruence mod G
heeelp
or don't bother, even if you explain this to me i will have no chance of understanding it, but one of you might find it fun lol
Stuck on (a,b,c) → d. I see that d is true
iff any 2 prime ideals x and y can be separated by disjoint open sets
iff they can be separated by some disjoint X_f and X_g
iff x is in X_f, y in X_g, and fg is nilpotent (last condition is equivalent to every prime ideal containing either f or g).
Not sure how to produce such f and g though
Is this true, and how do I prove it?
Identify their underlying sets, figure out the multiplicative structure
Zariski topology? 
Yeah
How to show:
any phi in Aut(GF(p^n)) is the identity map when acting on GF(p)
so phi(1) = 1 if its in Aut(GF(p^n)) since its ring/field isomorphism
and if i take any arbitrary element of GF(p)
what facts do ik about it?
like for all g in GF(p)
g^p = 1?
or p*g = 1?
g^(p^n)=g
for a g in GF(p)?
g in GF(pⁿ)
yes
ohh ok thank you
i also saw in my notes
g+g+g+....+g = 0 or 1(?)
if there are p g's
i guess just depends on the operation?
was kinda confused abt that
ohh ok thank yous
Yeah this gives you the first thing you asked
1+...+1 kinda elements are all fixed since 1 is
Do you know any fields with p elements? 
Yep
Yep
Yeah
or Char(GF(p^n)) = p?
Didn't get the last part
a+a+a+...+a = an = 0
0
Or you can just define it using 1
It is the least p such 1+...+1 = 0, where the sum is taken p times
A better way to define it is to use kernel of the unique map from Z to the field
So in my case since the char is p in GF(p) for any g in GF(p)
then phi(g) = phi(sum from 1 to g of (1)) = sum from 1 to g of phi(1) = sum from 1 to g of 1 = g?
Characteristic is not defined for each element separately
Or you can say that all elements would have the same characteristic
In any field, not just GF(p)
wait i dont get how this follows from anything
other than phi is automorphic
g = sum from 1 to g of (1)
is that whats unique to GF(p)?
Yeah so phi(a+b) = phi(a) + phi(b)
Yes
Any ring where such a thing happens (all elements are finite sums of 1) will have a surjection onto it from Z, so it'll be a quotient of Z
And quotients of Z are fields iff quotienting is done by a prime ideal
Ohh
ok kinda confusing but i kinda get it
wow did yall know
Galois died at age 20
HE DID SO MUCH
😵💫

I can reduce this to the case of A having 0 nilradical, using the homeomorphism spec(A) ≅ spec(A/ℜ), but I don't see how that helps
Commutative algebra
it's considered late undergrad/grad
Yeah spec A is a topological space associated to the ring A
Starting MSc next month
Ye 😌
"galois died" that's what they want you to think 

There are many
Big hint ||An automorphism of GF(4)/GF(2) is exactly an extension of the embedding GF(2) → GF(4)||
Uhhh idk what embedding means
The inclusion map
GF(2) has a homomorphism into GF(4), which is injective because it's domain is a field. Also it's a unique homomorphism
So we think of GF(2) as a subfield of GF(4)
Hm
Could i write GF(4) / GF(2) as E/F with f(x) e F[X]
splitting field of GF(4) / F
cuz then i have this theorem
And apparently the answer is Z2
but if i get order(Gal(E/F)) = 2
then theres only one such group
so im done
prob wouldnt work if order was higher
Yes
and multiple groups
Yeah
I was hinting at counting extensions
Which is also done in what you did, just hidden in the proof of the theorem you cited
ohh
GF(4) is GF(2) but you adjoin a root of a quadratic irreducible
The only quadratic irreducible over GF(2) is x²+x+1
It has 2 roots in GF(4)
ooh
Because it is separable
So GF(2)(a) = GF(4) where a root of f(x) = x^2+x+1
Yeah
Yeah
You have to do some extra work before you talk about GF(n) though
Showing that such a field exists iff n is a power of prime, and if it does, it is unique upto isomorphism
Otherwise you can't say "the" field of n elements
In this case it's easy enough to see both existence and uniqueness
GF(2)(a) = GF(2)[x] / (f(x))
f(x) is seperable in GF(4) but irreducible in GF(2)
Separability doesn't depend on the field
if its seperable in GF(4) that means it splits into linear factors hence it has 2 roots
o
f is separable in F_2 as well
Btw GF(n) is just called F_n, easier to type the latter
And separability doesn't say anything about splitting
So you can't deduce splitting from separability
what if f(x) seperation?
oh..
(x-a)(x-b)
if a and b are in F4 doesnt it split in F4?
f(x) is separable if in all extensions of your field, f(x) has no repeated roots
How would you show that they are though
Separability is about roots being distinct in extensions
ok kinda need to review some definitions
roots can be seperable, and so can polynomials
Ye, different notions, same word
oh ok
so i just need to show
f(x) which is irred in F2[X]
has no repeated roots
Wait nvm
it has no roots in F2
Ye, there's a characterisation of separability using derivates
not if you use this def
Wait what goes wrong with this def
er
(x^2+1)^100 is separable over Q
i kinda like the other def where you say separable <=> no repeated roots
it doesn't depends on the base field then
Isn't that what is being used
Is it
it has repeated roots
but each irreducible factor doesn't
that just reduces to a weird thing for irred
Damn I see
Right
what's the problem btw?
Find Gal(GF(4)/GF(2))
i was trying to use this theorem
To show its order is 2
hence it must be Z2
and i was told irred polyn of F2 is f(x) = x^2 + x + 1
Try proving that that's the only irreducible quadratic
(while/after you do the problem)
isomorphisms
with different
irreducibles
of same degree
and they are all equivalent
like F / (f(x))
how do you define GF(4) btw?
Wait you've seen uniqueness of F_p^n's?
do you just say F2[x]/(x^2 + x+1) ?
yes
idk how to prove its seperable
well its irreducible cuz it has no roots in F2
so that shows existence
no?
and so it must be iso to F4
uh i think you told me about it above
and i understand it
x^4 - x is separable, cuz its derivative is -1
Ah alright
but its not irreducible
you don't need irred in your definition
wait thats irrelevant
$F[x]/\langle x^2 \rangle \simeq F[x]/\langle x^2-1 \rangle$ iff $F$ is a field of characteristic 2
Well I told you about uniqueness of F_p
(f, f') = 1 if and only if f has no repeated roots
Ryuzaki
help me solve this one
so we know x^4 - x has no repeated roots, which means non of its irreducible factors have any repeated roots, if they had any they would be roots of x^4 - x
or you can simply say x^4 - x = x(x+1)(x^2+x+1)
when you guys are done that is
notie that (x^2 - 1) = (x-1)^2
just translate by 1
just show its false in other char
what I did was f(x^2)=p(x)(x^-1) => f(x)^2 = p(x)(x^2-1)
then f(x) is either (x^2-1)*k(x) which case it's zero so can't be isomorphic
only other case is that x^2-1 is a square
but idk if my steps are right or not
what is f here?
What does F_4 even mean?? Z/4Z isnt a field
yea so what you're saying is f(x)^2 = 0
oh sorry discord wasnt loading i didnt see the convo
ye it means F2[x]/(x^2+x+1) a field with 4 elements
these are the 3 irreducible factors f(x) = p1(x)p2(x)p3(x) so F2/(p3(x)) somehow = F4? and by that thm
nvm ill ponder it
Suppose some degree d polynomial f(x) is irreducible mod p, what is Fp[x]/f(x)
how do you get this?
,sullycount det
p^d?
the finite field with p^d yup!
assume x^2-1 is not a square, then there must be one term inside p(x) because on the we have f(x)^2.
Det's first sully? 
so p(x) = k(x)^2 (x^2-1)
wait just a question, when you write (x^2 - 1) you just mean modulo that?
i was reading it multiplication 🥲
ya i'm omitting that for conv
x^2 is 0 in F1, so must be mapped to 0 in F2 too
i'm writting 0= p(x)(x^2-1) in f2
yea so we get f(x)^2 = 0 in the second ring, how does this help?
oops i called it a field xD
nice
0 in F2 means p(x)(x^2-1) for some p
as F is iso, f(x^2) = f(x)^2
i.e. p(x)(x^2-1) is a square
yep
so.
.
bcz x^2-1 is irreducible otherwise
yea, and to say not squrare => irred we need ch2
we assumed the isomorphism and we are showing ch=2
This holds in any char
but this factorization is true anywhere

in ch 2, -1 = 1
sqrt 
p(x) must contain factor (x-1) and (x+1) unless x^2-1 is itself a square
yea
ype
but x is not zero in F1 so f(x) can't be zero in F2
yep

you have x^2 - 1 = (x+1)(x-1)
if this a square then you need to have x+1 = x-1
2 = 0
if you wanna avoid writing all that, just say that if char is not 2, then (x+1) and (x-1) are coprime which makes the second ring iso to F x F which has no nilpotent elements
(non-zero ofc)
Repostin 
AM?
Wait 2 months for me to catch up then I can help
nyes 😌
So it would appear that I have a misunderstanding when it comes to quotient rings, I'd appreciate some help clarifying where my thinking went wrong. Let's say I have $R=\mathbb{Q}[x,y]$ and I take the quotient with the ideal $I=\langle xy-1\rangle$: $Q=R/[xy-1]$. And then say I pick some second arbitrary ideal in $R$, in this case $J=\langle 2x^2-4y+1, 3x^3-2x^2 + y^2-1\rangle$. I've verified in Sage that if you send each generator of $J$ to $Q$ and take a groebner basis, you end up with the ideal $\langle 1\rangle=Q$. Now, my thinking was that because we get the ideal generated by 1 in $Q$, the original ideal must either contain 1 or $xy$ because of the ideal $xy-1$ that we're modding out by. But this doesn't end up happening when you try it computationally in Sage. Why is this the case?
cgodfrey
wait for a few months until i read about grobner basis
😓
The groebner basis isn't relevant to the question, I think, it's just a way to compute a 'better' representation of the ideal
how would one go about labelling vertices/edges/faces of a dodecahedron an icosahedron to make the isomorphism they have with a5 clearer?
it's easy to do with the cube and octahedron for example: label opposite vertices in the cube and opposite faces in the octahedron to get 4 each time, clearing up the relationship with A4 a little
but opposite faces/vertices in the dodecahedron/icosahedron respectively come in 6
(and they correspond more clearly to the 6 sylow 5 subgroups of A5 than to some 5 element set that A5 acts on)
oh okie, if i understand it right, then what we're saying is (J + I)/I = R/I, that is so we need to show that the ideal J + I contains 1 or xy, that may not necessarily be the case for just J as sage says.
but why wouldn't that be the case? I don't see how J + I contains neither 1 nor xy, and yet (J + I)/I is the ideal generated by 1
J + I has to contain 1 or xy if your arguement/calculation about the image of the ideal J to Q is (1) is correct
i don't know how to use sage very well, so maybe try once with J + I.
what i was saying is that J may not contain 1 or xy but the bigger ideal J + I does
notice that dodecahedron has 30 edges that's a multiple of 5!!!!!!!!!! we need a nice way to group 6 edges
and if you stare at a dodecahedron for long enough
there is only one natural choice!
(i did that in like 2019 or something
, very fun)
make a dodecahedron with origami or something and have fun
else i'll spoil you
||so the argument is basically you can achieve any even permutation of these colors||

||if you're seeing these messages, and can't find the pattern, look at the yellow color, i think it its in a very nice position to see the pattern||

||to complete the argument, we need to identify all the rotations of this dodecahedron, there are 5 ways to choose the color of edge at the very front! (yellow in the image) once you choose a color, notice there are 6 edges of that color and you can bring any of them to the front, also you can rotate by 180 degrees. In total there are 2 * 6 ways to rotate if a particular color is at the front. its not hard to see that all these 12 are different. This will give you a total of 60 stuff in S5, which must to be A5! and this would complete the proof||
So, not sure if this is the proper channel. Basically i want to understand what would be the pre-requisites to tackle a curse with this topics and in particular if i need any projective geometry for it :
Rings and commutative fields, . Notios of sub-rings ring morphisms, the notion of ideal and quotient rings. Divisibility in the frame of principal rings and factorials, ring extensions, galois' theory and is applications to algebraic equations.
So i have a small shimmer of hope, thanks 😄
(or not, we will have to test the mathematical maturity part..)
It’s probably fine
wait, if you're doing galois theory, then knowing group theory is a prereq i would say. it would help a lot in understanding the constructions for rings as well.
I think this fits in this channel best. Is the dimension of $\bQ(\pi)$ (when considered as a $\bQ$-vector space) countable or uncountable?
Syst3ms
On second thought, it is countable
{1,π,π²,π³,...} is a basis
(i wasn't sure, i had the set of all sequences in mind, but the dimension of that is only uncountable because linear combinations have to be finite, so the countable apparently-basis doesn't work)
(but in this case, the result of a series involving πⁿ isn't included in ℚ(π))
This is not a basis, though there exists a countable basis
huh? why isn't it?
how do you express $1/\pi$?
Phorphyrion
you need to include all possible polynomial denominators
well that is annoying
countable but not easily enumerable, i suppose?
anyway, i'm further along in this course, and i've stumbled upon this which confuses me
(where <f> is the ideal generated by f)
i get about everything here, except why they call alpha a generator
i don't see how its powers generate 𝔽_p[x]/<f>
(if that's the definition used here)
and if it's not, then i'd want to know why the term is used for those two things
there are countably many polynomials with rational coeffs
i already have trouble enumerating the polynomials with integer coeffs 
(which not-so-coincidentally is precisely an enumeration of ω^ω)
Do you agree that there are countably many linear polynomials in integer coeffs?
of the form ax+b
yeah
The same is true for any degree, there are countably many degree 17 polynomials
So its a countable union of countable sets, so countable
that isn't what i was talking about
of course it's countable
constructing a way to enumerate it perhaps eludes the mind is all
anyway, that is really not what i want to focus on
maybe this is a silly question but if f: A -> B is a ring homomorphism is f*(V(q)) = V(q^c) for all prime q in B not sufficient for f * to be closed?
Every closed set of Spec(B) is the intersection of some such V(q), no?
i ask because it seems like this should be sufficient to say that going up implies closed
but it is not
@upper pivot
do you remember enough AM to understand this
I feel like i am going insane
I wish i was at my dorms
all my typed up sols are on my computer at dorms kek
let me see if i can solve this
its not a problem im just confused
i feel like going up implies that f*(V(q)) = V(q^c) right
but then shouldnt this imply closed
rip
This property will imply that the spec map is closed, the proof is a little tricky though
Let X be a ringed space and F be a finite rank locally free sheaf on O_X. Does this mean that there exists an n and a cover U_i such that F|_U_i is isomorphic to O_X|U_i ^ n or does this mean that there is a cover U_i and natural numbers n_i such that F|_U_i is isomorphic to O_X|U_i ^ n_i?
I think the second definition is the right one
By X(C,w_C) I mean the Euler characteristic of w_C
where w_C is the invertible sheaf of Serre duality
Here is a hint: the dual of O(C )is itself. So use serre duality on h^1(C,O(C))
late reply but u need B to be noetherian i think
or Spec(B) to be noetherian as a space at least
No Atiyah does it for noetherian, but it is true in general i’m pretty sure
Lmao stacks
nGroupoid stackspilled me ok its not my fault
do u now how much i had to read it for szamuely bc of the nonsense AG in that book
algebraic geometry be like
Can you tell me the solution?
I don't see it
How does szamuely introduce ag in the book? Does he actually start from the definitionsor is it all informal?
He literally goes from defining what a scheme is in the start of chapter 5 to doing etale pi_1, specialization maps, tame pi_1, abelianization of pi_1, etc
in a chapter
It is utterly insane
He does this by piling like 20 definitions into the first section and then skipping over all the details in every proof
Well h^1(C,O_C)=genus=h^0(C,wc) (the second thing uses serre duality)
Holy shit, how does he expect anyone to understand lmao
How did you get this equality?
I can see why 1 and 3 would be equal
but how did you get the equality of the genus to either one
h^0(C,O_C)-h^1(C,O_C)=euler char and h^0 term is 1
Therefore h^1=1-eulerchar=genus
Wait why is the h^0 term 1?
Isn't H^0(C,O_C) just the global sections of O_C?
Am I missing something here?
Yes, but this will be isomorphic to the underlying field k
Why?
This is just some fact, i forgot the exact proof
Do you recall what the theorem is?
Should be true for any proper connected scheme over an algebraically closed field
I don't think we're in an algebraically closed field
Hmm, then I’ll have to think about this some more, sorry about that
No prob.
This is exercise 18.5.A in Vakil
I'll post it again just so other people can see
Oh I think that the h^0(C,O_C)=1 should work for geometrically integral curves, they usually have the exact same sort of properties that curves over an algebraically closed field do
Do you know where I could find a proof?
Vakil doesn't prove it at least
So I would be interested to see if there is some other proof
Do we know that the curve is geometrically connected and proper?
Yes it will be
Geometrically integral will give geometrically reduced and projective will give us properness
Cool thanks
For b), I need to somehow show that h^0(C, w_C (x) w_C^*) = 1
Do you know why this might be true?
Oh instead of geo reduced i mean geometrically irreducible which implies connected. Anyway, wc tensored with its dual is just O_C
Why is w_c (x) w_c^* = O_C?
Is this another theorem?
Wouldn't that mean that the inverse of an invertible sheaf is its dual?
Yes
Is this true in full generality?
Yep, true for any invertible sheaf
Do you know where I can find a proof of this?
Is this not in vakil?
Np
this is basic... we all learned this in 8th grade...
(Nb: I do not have any idea what the etale fundamental group is)
algebraic geometers really be like "a single point can have a lot of nontrivial covering spaces"
Posting it again, but why is α called a generator here?
The quotient field is the smallest field containing α (and 𝔽_p which all characteristic p fields must contain anyway)
ahh, in that way
I have a way to group them i think but it certainly doesnt feel natural
30 is a multiple of 5!!!!!!!!! 
I don't understand this, isn't the splitting field unique?
Yeah, that's what they are saying
Wait how are you defining the splitting field
It's just any extension of f such that f splits and it is generated by the roots of f over the base field
(internet is having trouble)
And right after that they go ahead and use "the"
Is the splitting field unique, or just unique up to isomorphism? In the latter case, what would be an example of two isomorphic splitting fields?
an example would really help here
A splitting field of x²+x+1 over F_2 is F_2[x]/(x²+x+1), and another one is {0,1,a,b} where you define the operations mimicking the ones in the other one
Just renaming the new elements of the first one to some arbitrary elements a and b
why so
image is loading...
shit connection sorry
it doesnt feel natural because 2 of the groups are of one type while the 3 others are different
yea sad
like i dont have a single canonical grouping that "tesselates" the dodecahedron
but there is a better way to group ❤️
so there's a way with a single pattern?
yup
if you have a miniature dodecahedron lying around, then play with it
im playing with my rough drawing lmao
Ah I see, abstract symbols strike again
so it's a bit hard
what did you do to Senko!! 
greatness, is what i did

yep, very hard
i made one with origami and played with it for a few hours

when the original grouping i sent uploads lemme know what you think
I wonder if this is the shit euclid was doing all day
is it true that for a polynomial P irreducible over F, F[x]/P is a splitting field of P?
lol okei
Also, hullo det
henno 
Your uwu language is getting worse

F[x]/(P) is F but with one root of P adding in
You have to repeat this process with the new factorization of P's image in the quotient to get the splitting field
dwon't wowry i cwan mwake it a lwrott worse
right, x+(P) is a root
Lwrott is i think the worst thing i’ve ever read

so then, is the fact that 𝔽₂[x]/(x²+x+1) a splitting field sort of a fluke?
No, quadratics will always split
is there a way to type this directly from keyboard? 𝔽₂
If you use GBoard, you can import dictionaries, and there are latex dictionaries available on github
Wrong again, king
On phone that is
typing on phone is too hard 





