#groups-rings-fields
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Q(cuberoot3)(sqrt something?) = 2?
And 2+2+2 also says otherwise
I understand that but not sure how it implies
f(x) in Q cant be written as
factors of that form based on information in mod p = 3
so it must be written in the form 3+3 but im guessing thats not possible
in Q (also not sure how this is not possible)
Is this the part that is not clear?
Err its more like how not being able to factor something in Fp in a certain way implies it cant be factored as such in Q
but its factorable as 3+3 in Fp
Ah
Suppose f = gh over Q, where g and h have degree 3
We can assume then that g and h are monic
Because f is
And by Gauss we can assume integer coefficients
Reduce the whole equation mod 3
wait whats this mean?
irred in Z iff irred in Q?
f_3 = (gh)_3 = g_3 h_3 (_3 means reduced mod 3)
Yeah, a factorization of an integer polynomial over Q can be turned into a factorization over Z
ohh ok
So we can take factorizations of type m+n from Q to F_p for any p
Taking contrapositive, if f doesn't have a factorization of type m+n over F_p, it doesn't in Q
Oh wait Gauss Lemma is when g,h are primitive, and if they are monic they are primitive? so they can be factored over Z iff factored over Q??
Yep
Yeah useful fact to remember
Monic integer polynomials that factor, factor into monic integer polynomials
and it doesnt have 1+5, obviously since it has no roots in Fp, it doesnt factor as 2+2+2, 2+4 either (uhh thinking as to why)
it only factors as 3+3
and hence if it doenst factor as 3+3 in Z or Q
then it cant factor as anything
2+2+2, 2+4 is cuz of degree of extension
3+3 is eliminated because if that were the case, then 2+2+2 would be a problem
3+3 we showed f(x) = (x^2-2)^3
Because 2+2+2 is the unique factorization over F_3
(x²-2)³
Yeah over a field
Once you factor into irreducibles
x²-2 is irreducible because no root
In F_3
So 2+2+2 is the unique factorization in F_3, and 3+3 is then not possible in F_3
It would be 2+4
2+2+2 doesn't necessarily pull back to the same
Like factorization type over Q gives you factorization type over F_p
Not the other way around
oh i see
jesus
Lol
so Q can be 2+2+2 or 2+4
Yes, and both are problematic
i.e., degree of extension field
of those minimal polnyomials over Q
are divis by 2, 4
but we need it to be divisible by 3
since Q(cuberoot2) : Q = 3
Yep
and Q < Q(cube root 2) < Q(a)
2+2+2 or 2+4 means that the minimal polynomials containing roots with those degrees over Q means Q extended over ideal generated by those polynomials with degree 2 or 4 containing a as a root is 2 or 4
Yep exactly
so Q(a):Q = 2 or 4
The degree of Q(a)/Q being 3 or 6 means that min a is degree 3 or 6
But we should deg 3 isn't possible because that would lead to a deg 3 factor over F_3
but we require deg ext Q(a)/Q = deg ext Q(cuberoot)/Q * deg ext Q(a)/Q(cuberoot)?
deg ext Q(a)/Q = 3 * deg ext Q(a)/Q(cuberoot)?
Not sure what you are doing there
its like this
Ah
Yeah using the tower
We get deg Q(a)/Q = 3 or 6
And all of this work was to show that 3 isn't possible
By showing that f(x) has no deg 3 factors
I mean we know $\left[\mathbb{Q}\left(\sqrt[3]{2}\right):\mathbb{Q}\right]=3$, so the problem is just finding $\left[\mathbb{Q}\left(\sqrt{1+2\sqrt[3]{2}}\right):\mathbb{Q}\left(\sqrt[3]{2}\right)\right]$, which is either 1 or 2. That is, determine whether $\sqrt{1+2\sqrt[3]{2}}\in\mathbb{Q}\left(\sqrt[3]{2}\right)$.
Hellinion said I'm a buffoon
Which is actually a nontrivial problem now that I think about it for longer than three seconds. Maybe there's an argument in the trace?
We got a solution by going mod 3 on the deg 6 monic that that element obviously satisfies
Mod 3 it factors as (x²-2)³, so can't have cubic factors over Q
So degree of the whole extension can't be 3
that seems kinda hard
like a+b2^(1/3) + c2^(2/3) = sqrt(1+2*2^(1/3))
i tried that
a,b,c e Q
and got some new equation pretty lengthy
but it becomes 0 = m+p2^(1/3) + q2^(2/3)
m,p,q e Q
is this impossible?
and factored it set = 0
its $0 = (4bc-1+a^2) + 2^{1/3}(2ab+2c^2-2) + 2^{2/3}(2ac+b^2)$
Ramtin
Ramtin
Not sure how to prove this is contradictory
cuz then this method would be kinda easier, or more rudimentary at least
These kind of arguments are usually not easy lol
There are techniques that use trace and norm for this stuff
and you can sometimes come up with more elementary arguments too
but no standard technique
That is fine yeah
really
Yeah because 1, cbrt(2), cbrt(2)^2 are lin ind
You should be able to do this from the field theory you know
Ohhh
thats cuz
x^3 - 2 over Q irreducible so Q/this polynomial ideal forms field, and its forms a vector space with dimension 3 (3 basis) over Q
since degree x^3-2 = 3
?
so lin independent
etc
Yeah and those three form a spanning set
Another way to phrase it is that if they were linearly dependent then the linear combination of them that equals 0 will give a lower degree polynomial than the minimal polynomial
Because the highest degree in that would be 2
Thus sqrt(1+2*2^1/3) is not in Q(cuberoot2)
so the degree of the extension is not 1
so it has to be 2
it cant be more than 2 cuz
oh wait I didn't see the argument
minimial polyn is at most quadratic
This is a contradiction only if m, p, q are non zero
The harder thing is to prove that they can't be 0
a and c can be negative
Yeah lol
btw is this valid argument?
polynomial containing a as a root is degree 6
may or may not be irreducible
so thus
[Q(a):Q]<=6
Yeah
And if f(x) factors in Fp in Z or Q (if its primitive in Q) it factors in similar fashion?
sorry we went over this
just tryna soldify
Factoring in F_p doesn't imply factoring in Q
You use a homomorphism, Z → F_p
Which is the usual mod p homomorphism
This extends to a homomorphism Z[x] → F_p[x]
ok i follow
So if you have an equation f(x) = g(x) h(x) of integer polynomials
You apply the homomorphism on both sides of the equation
The way that the homomorphism acts is that it takes every coefficient mod p
Call the homomorphism α
α(f(x)) = α(g(x)h(x)) = α(g(x))α(h(x))
So the equation remains true when you just apply the mod p thing to each coefficient
So any factoring in Z can be made into a factoring in F_p
You just have to be slightly careful because going mod p, some of the coefficients could become 0
So for example your whole polynomial could become 0 in which case it isn't much of a factoring
so just make sure everythings monic
Yep
and that deals w that
Yeah
Yeah, so if the factoring was a non trivial factoring, it remains non trivial
Also there are polynomials which are irreducible over Z, but reduce modulo every prime
So the converse is very false
the non trivial factoring (x^2-2)^3 in Z3 implies if f factors in Z it will be in factors of degree 2+2+2 or degree 2+4
Yeah, can you say why that would be the case
2+2+2 makes sense cuz some of those integers mod 3 may have been like diff numbers in Z (Q)
or identical?
Yeah they could be different
but I am asking if you can give an argument for why no other types of factorizations are possible
like if ifs (x^2-2)(x^2-2)(x^2-2) the constant 2 terms in each could be diff in Z or the same
well 3+3 is not possible since
if it were
then there would be a root
in Zp
Why
Oh
yep
3+3 is not possible since if it were
umm
Something abt the homomorphism?
Noo nvm
Is it cuz we know the factorization
and thats unique
Yeah apply that reduction mod 3 homomorphism to the factorization equation
what do you get
(and even to apply the homomorphism you first need everything to be integer and as you said, preferrably monic)
Not sure why the homomorphism wouldnt work on two degree 3 polynomials
or would show a contradiction
It would
After using Gauss lemma and all to justify that the factoring is indeed a factoring into monics in Z[x]
Polynomials reduce uniquely? isnt that true?
What if this 3+3 thing broke down further
The uniqueness only holds if it is factorization into irreducibles
3+3 case still trumps me
ahh
its not possible since
two monics
with degree 3
HM
Idk
Well the two deg 3 polynomials themselves reduce to some irreducibles
What could those irreducibles be
Correct, but not their degrees
but anything with 1 is nogo
give me a sec
their last term must multiply to 2
So x⁶-2 = (x²-2)³
Now suppose x⁶-2 = g(x) h(x)
And g(x) and h(x) themselves have some factorizations
Do you see that the product of those 2 factorizations will then give a factorization of x⁶-2 itself?
Yea
This one
You can list all factors of x^6 - 2
And you should see that there are no deg 3 factors
Do you see how?
If g and h have a factorization it contributes to the (x^2-2) one?
when u multiply them
Just try this
like list all factors
(x^2-2)
(x^4-x^2+2)
If you need a hint, try doing the same for natural numbers. Suppose I gave you 255, and asked you to list all of its factors. It is a hard problem unless I also tell you that 255 = 17*3*5, with which it should become very easy
Right, and also the polynomial itself. Why can't there be any other factors? That is what you want to prove
well if a factor of deg3 exists
Do try it with numbers first if you are struggling with the intuition
Right, and it can't be irreducible because
Well not just lower
We don't have irreducibles of deg 3
Like in this case yes lower
But this argument would work even if factorization over F_3 were of type 2+4
because there are no deg 3 irreducibles in that

Concerning an exercise I'm working through ... "If r|m and s|n, find a subgroup of Z_m \oplus Z_n that is isomorphic to Z_r \oplus Z_s" (not HW, more interested in just getting a hint b/c I've been stuck today).
My current approach is to use the facts that r|m & s|n to establish |Z_r| | |Z_m| & |Z_s| | |Z_n| so that we can say |Z_m|/|Z_r| = k \in \mathbb{N} and likewise |Z_n|/|Z_s| = t \in \mathbb{N}. From here I let G = Z_k \oplus Z_t with the intention that I will first show that G is a subgroup of Z_m \oplus Z_n and then afterward show that G is isomorphic to Z_r \oplus Z_s to complete the proof.
My issue is that when I try to use subgroup tests to show that G is a subgroup of Z_m \oplus Z_n, I end up with nothing that has anything to do with G itself aside from the connection I am still struggling to put to symbols to (which is practically the original problem statement, I feel like).
So IDK, I'd just like a hint if anyone wants to point me either forward toward the way I'm already going (ie check my work) or back to the problem statement with a hint that "There is a better way of doing this [than you have already described]..."
thnx. been stuck on this longer than i care to admit.
have you tried showing that Z_k is a subgroup of Z_m and Z_t is a subgroup of Z_n and then showing that the direct product of subgroups is a subgroup of the direct product of the groups
that's probably how I'd proceed
How do you show C[x1,x3,x1x2,x2x3] is isomorphic to C[w,x,y,z]/(wz-xy)? My approach so far has been to define a map phi: C[w,x,y,z]->C[x1,x3,x1x2,x2x3] sending w,x,y,z to the respective generators. I've shown that (wz-xy) is in the kernel of phi, but how do I do the reverse inclusion?
More generally, is there a strategy to realize certain subalgebras of C[x1,...,xn] as quotients of C[x1,...,xm]? I'm trying to learn about affine toric varieties, and Fulton's book keeps doing this sort of thing.
Uh is there a reason you need to do the reverse inclusion? Isnt surjectivity sufficient by the first isomorphism theorem?
Which seems clear to me because you know that both C and your generators are in the image of this map so...
uh am I brain farting
The inclusion I already have tells me that the map factoring through C[w,x,y,z]/(wz-xy) is well-defined
wouldn't the reverse inclusion tell me injectivity?
definitely surjective, I agree
I'd need that ker phi = (wz-xy) in order to get C[w,x,y,z]/(wz-xy) is isomorphic to C[x1,x3,x1x2,x2x3]. Otherwise, I only get that C[x1,x3,x1x2,x2x3] is isomorphic to a quotient of C[w,x,y,z]/(wz-xy), right?
I just get stuck as soon as I pick an element in the kernel. Let p(w,x,y,z) be in the kernel, then p(x1,x3,x1x2,x2x3)=0 in C[x1,x2,x3]. I need to show p(w,x,y,z) is in (wz-xy), or equivalently p(w,x,y,z)=0 mod (wz-xy)
I'm not sure where to go from here. I feel like I should be able to do something like, from the relation wz-xy=0 that for some indeterminate t, we have y=wt, z=tx, so that I get p(w,x,y,z)=p(w,x,wt,tx) mod (wz-xy)
Then rename things and use the fact that p(x1,x3,x1x2,x2x3)=0.
I'm not sure how to go about this though
Oh oops im illiterate
you said that (wz - xy) is in the kernel
not that it was the kernel

completed the exercise but in doing so i never found at any point that n=6 gave a special case for the argumentation. Which subproof fails at n=6?
my hunch is b) but im not sure
yeah the next exercise shows it's b) it seems
i think i just missed that special case is all
oh it's cause i did b wrong that's why lmao
I've been thinking about this some more... I think the multiplicative monoid generated by {x1,x3,x1x2,x2x3} has a monoid presentation {w,x,y,z | wz=xy}. Then, this monoid homomorphism extends naturally to a C-algebra homomorphism.
This also generalizes a bit nicer. I don't really know anything about monoid presentations, but assuming this works out, it would be easy to then show that affine toric varieties that come from cones are cut out by binomial ideals--you just take the relations of the monoid presentation, e.g. wz=xy would go to the ideal (wz-xy).
This kinda reduces the problem, but idk in general how to find the presentation of a monoid. I guess for affine toric varieties I only need to do it for submonoids of Z^n (e.g. the one generated by {e1,e3,e1+e2,e2+e3}, which corresponds to the {x1,x3,x1x2,x2x3} example).
im not feeling too sure, but the abelian property is preserved under the 4th isomorphism theorem (correspondence theorem) right?
so if A is an abelian subgroup of G containing the normal subgroup N, is A/N abelian in G/N?
and vice versa?
(im more interested in the opposite direction)
the first question is clearly true actually but im not sure about the other direction
The other direction isn't true, the trivial subgroup is abelian in G/N, but this corresponds to the subgroup N of G, which is not always abelian
this is the moment ive been dreading
"find the Center of d_2n using a presentation". How does one use a presentation to do this? I am not that good with presentations, but of I understand, a presentation of the group would be {x, y} as generators, and {x^n, y^2, xyxy} would be the relations generating the kernel of the surjection F({x, y}) -> D_2n. I don't get how this tells us anything about the Center of D_2n.
Where d_2n is the dihedral group with n elements and y is a flip x is a clockwise rotation.
It's simple to show x^(n/2) is in the center if n is even. Use the relation xy=yx^-1 to show you cant have another nontrivial element in the center
was about to ask a question, realized i was being stupid
there's progress i dont realize it right after asking the question now lmao
Can I not say that if an element a = x^k is in the Center the relation you gave implies that ya = ya^-1 => a = a^-1, which only holds true for k = n/2?. And elements of the form (x^k)*y, k≠0 cannot be in the Center since they don't commute with elements other than x^n/2.
I don't get where a presentation is coming up. Sorry maybe I don't get what a presentation is, I've only seen the definition.
the presentation came up in the sense that you used the relation xy^=yx^-1
but yes your method works
a presentation is a set of generators and a set of relations, such that every element of the group is some product of the generators and every relation can be deduced from the generating relations
Yeah, the way I heard it is that F(A) is a free group, and you have a surjection from the free group to the group you care about F(A) -> G, you can take R to be a set of "relations" such that R generates the kernel of the surjection, and then the first isomorphism theorem gives that G is isomorphic to F(A)/F(R). This makes perfect sense (I think?) But I have a hard time seeing how it is useful.
idk dont have experience with free groups yet
not really sure about this one
but could i say that any element of M/N will have form of m + N in RA for some set A but N is also finite generated, so we can take the inverse of N which is also finitely generated to see that m would be generated by a finite set too
M/N and N are both finitely generated. So as a start, you could take a look at the systems that generate each, respectively, and try to construct a set in M from those that generates M
M/N = $Ra_1 + \cdots + Ra_n$
ActiveChapter
somewhere in the set of all sums, N must be there
so we can just inverse the generating set of N
and get a generating set just for M right?
N is very specifically not there
In a very lazy way of thinking M/N represents what M might look like if suddenly differences by N don't matter
That's not even lazy though 
am i correct?
Haha fair enough I was afraid people wouldn't like how imprecise I was
This doesn't really make sense
Or, to put it even lazier, what structure M has left if the structure that belongs to N is removed
Sadly it isn't really the same as a "subtraction" and so combining generating sets won't do it
M/N is not a submodule of M, so you can't take elements of the former
They just aren't there in the latter
But you are very close
do we need to consider the natural homomorphism
Whenever you work with a quotient, you either implicitly or explicitly are using it
yeah
It seems intuitive, is true for vector spaces, but unfortunately not for modules
(M/N) x N is not necessarily isomorphic to M
M = Z, N = 2Z is a counterexample
So generators on M/N, view them as cosets, then take a union of the generating cosets?
no
Then I didn't get it lol
$m = \sum r_ia_i + N$
ActiveChapter
this is how an element of M/N will look right?
so m = sum(ri ai) + n
some element of N
so we get a finite sum
i dont get why this wont work
Wait
a_i is in A, the set that will generate M/N
Generators of N are known? Right?
yes
So a_i are elements of M/N?
So A is finite and generates M/N
Elements of A would then be elements of M/N. I didunt get how you got the a_i then
I actually transcribed didn't like it's pronounced 
ring might not have 1?
I don't see where that comes in
Everything in the module is a finite R-linear combinations of the generators
right
dont we need the ring element to have a 1
so module contains its generating set
Following. I don't know the answer and am interested
$M/N = {r_1a_1 + \cdots + r_na_n}$ and $N = {r_1b_k + \cdots + r_kb_k}$ so $m + N = \sum r_ia_i + N$ so for some n , $m = \sum r_ia_i + \sum r_jb_j$
ActiveChapter
we can get all elements of M this way
so just take union of generating sets for a generating set of M/N right?
The idea is correct yes
But there is a problem with how you've written it because the last equation doesn't make sense
That should be an equation in M
it is
But a_i, as you have defined them at the beginning are not elements of M
the a_i are elements of M
They are cosets
So you have to correct the definition
Elements of M/N are cosets
Not elements of M
ActiveChapter
like that?
Yeah, sums of those
oh right okay
but also
from before
it may not contain its generating set if ring doesnt have 1?
You just include it in that case
The submodule generated by A is the set A and all its finite linear combinations
Easy to check that it's a submodule
So if $\phi : G \rightarrow D$ is a homomorphism of groups with $D$ abelian, it's clear that $[G, G] \subseteq \text{Ker}(\phi)$, right (and for clarification I'm writing $[G, G]$ as the commutator subgroup)? I'm wondering in what conditions it would be the case that $\text{Ker}(\phi) \subseteq [G, G]$, whether or not $D$ is assumed an abelian group
xdd1etteetteette
Im(phi) is an abelian subgroup iff commutator is in the kernel
im reading the part on tensor products but i just dont understand
if the R-Module N, was already an S-Module why are we defining multiplication by S
and what does "no relations" mean
N isn't already an S module
in the first line they say that they're not considering the case that N is an S-module because then the solution to the problem they're describing would be obvious
a relation here is some kind of equation that is imposed on elements, or a constraint, something like $\sum (s'_i, n'_i)=0$. in other words they're saying that if you have a bunch of pairs $(s_i,n_i)$ indexed by $i\in I$ for some index set $i$, and all of these are distinct (so for $i\neq j$ we have either $s_i \neq s_j$ or $n_i\neq s_j$ then $\sum r_i (s_i,n_i)=0$ for coefficients $r_i\in R$ if, and only if, each of the $r_i$ is zero.
diligentClerk
sorry they said free abelian group so I should have said for coefficients $r_i\in \mathbb{Z}$, not $R$
diligentClerk
you can think of elements of the free Abelian group as just being the set of all functions from $S\times N$ into $\mathbb{Z}$ which are zero on all but finitely many elements
diligentClerk
there's an embedding of $S\times N$ into this Abelian group, where you send $(s,n)$ to the function $f_{s,n} : S\times N\to \mathbb{Z}$ sending $(s,n)$ to $1$ and everything else to zero. when we talk about formal sums of elements $(s,n)$ we're talking about adding them up in this larger group
diligentClerk
uhm
when we say free abelian group of S x N
we just take finite sums of (s_i, n_i) right?
yeah, i'm just giving another way of thinking about it. the formal sum $\sum k_i (s_i, n_i)$ for $k_i$ an integer can be thought of as the function $S\times N\to \mathbb{Z}$ which sends $(s_i,n_i)$ to $k_i$ for each pair $(s_i,n_i)$ in the sum, and all pairs $(s,n)$ not occurring in the sum get sent to zero. then addition and subtraction of functions are done pointwise
diligentClerk
ohh
note that these are "formal" sums, we don't use the additive structure on $S$ or $N$ when forming these sums
diligentClerk
why have we defined H like that?
ok let me think about this. so, let's say $A$ is an $S$-module, right? What does that mean. it means that $S$ can multiply elements of $A$, so whenever you have $s\in S, a\in A$ you can multiply them to give $s\cdot a =a'$, some other element in $A$. This gives a multiplication function $S\times A\to A$.
diligentClerk
yep
now part of the axioms of a module action is that it satisfies
$s\cdot (a+a') = s\cdot a + s \cdot a'$, and $(s+s')\cdot a = s\cdot a+ s'\cdot a$
That means that for this map $\mu : S\times A\to A$ to constitute a module action, it has to satisfy
$\mu(s,a+a') - \mu(s,a)- \mu(s,a')=0$
and $\mu(s+s',a)-\mu(s,a)-\mu(s',a)=0$
diligentClerk
right
so like
let me write $A$ for the free Abelian group on $S\times N$, so that elements of $A$ are these formal linear combinations of pairs $(s,n)$
diligentClerk
there's an obvious choice of "action" of $S$ on $A$, namely that we should define $s\cdot (s', n) = (ss', n)$ and more generally $s\cdot \sum k_i(s_i, n_i) = \sum k_i (ss_i,n_i)$
diligentClerk
but there are some problems with this choice
what problems?
i'm trying to think of an example lol
so let $(s,n)\in A$, and let's say we try and compute $(s_1+s_2)\cdot (s,n)$. by the definition of the action I proposed this should be $((s_1+s_2)s,n) = (s_1s+s_2s,n)$.
diligentClerk
but on the other hand if we break up the sum $s_1+s_2$ and then multiply, we get $(s_1+s_2)(s,n) = s_1(s,n)+ s_2(s,n)= (s_1s,n)+(s_2s,n)$. These two elements aren't the same! $(s_1s+s_2s,n)\neq (s_1s,n)+(s_2s,n)$ in the group $A$. The first one is the function $S\times N\to \mathbb{Z}$ sending $(s_1s+s_2s,n)$ to $1$ and everything else to zero; the second one is the function sending $(s_1s,n)$ to 1, $(s_2s,n)$ to 1, and everything else to zero.
diligentClerk
so this map $S\times A\to A$ actually fails the module-action axioms.
diligentClerk
right
another problem is that we are trying to construct something which should theoretically resemble the original module $N$ in some way. and the thing $A$ we've built so far looks nothing like $N$. We're trying to build an "extension" of $N$, another Abelian group which contains $N$ but also contains some "formal products" $s\cdot n$ that don't denote elements of $N$, they're new elements. Well, we've added these new elements, but we also want to somehow preserve the original structure of $N$ as an $R$-module somehow; in particular, there should be a map $N\to A$ which is an $R$-module homomorphism. If we have such a homomorphism then we can say $N$ appears in $A$ as a submodule (if the homomorphism is injective) or at least a quotient of $N$ appears in $A$ as a submodule (perhaps forcing $N$ to admit an action by $S$ kind of introduced some relationships between elements of $N$ that weren't there before, killing them off.)
Now, there is an obvious choice of such map, i.e. the one sending $n$ in $N$ to $(1,n)$, the formal product $1\times n$; but this map is not a homomorphism because $n+n'$ goes to $(1,n+n')$, but $(1,n)+(1,n') \neq (1,n+n')$ in $A$.
diligentClerk
ok
and more generally if this is an $R$-module homomorphism we would have that $r\cdot n$ gets sent to $r\cdot (1,n)$, where in the second hand we view $r$ as an element of $S$; so this would simplify to $(r,n)$. But in general $(1,rn) \neq (r,n)$.
diligentClerk
Killing off the subgroup $H$ in $A$ solves all of these problems.
diligentClerk
Each of the three lines in the definition of $H$ corresponds precisely to one of the three problems I just described.
diligentClerk
If you quotient out $A/H$, then the new group will have the property that:
- the action of $S$ on $A/H$ is a module action, and
- the map $N \to A/H$ is an $R$-module homomorphism.
diligentClerk
ActiveChapter
ill carry on reading
hm
how does H solve this problem
$(s_1 + s_2)(s,n) \neq (s_1 s + s_2 s ,n)$
ActiveChapter
@fossil shuttle
because $(s_1+s_2)(s,n) = ((s_1+s_2)s,n) = (s_1s + s_2s,n)$, which in the quotient group is equivalent to $(s_1s,n)+(s_2s,n) = s_1(s,n)+s_2(s,n)$
diligentClerk
because the first line of 10.3 forces them to be equal
as $(s_1s+s_2s,n)-(s_1s,n)-(s_2s,n)=0$ in the quotient group
diligentClerk
as cosets, yeah.
rightt
i wasn't thinking in terms of cosets, sorry
more in terms of representative elements
np
Since the Cech complex preserves left-exactness and right exactness (of the Cech complex) is guaranteed by the additional hypothesis, this follows immediately right?
Because then we would get an exact sequence of complexes 0 -> F* -> G* -> H* -> 0
Where F* means this complex
Thanks
How are Steinberg groups notated when the same diagram has multiple automorphisms of the same order?
Since we can just cover X by itself (as it is affine) and then use 18.2.2
We are using 18.2.4 to show 18.2.2
Oh lmao my bad
Np
i dont understand whats going on in theorem 8 when we take the free Z-module on S x N
our map phi that we are extending is only defined on N
do you understand what A is in this scenario
S x N ?
yes
so we just need to define a set function from S x N into L and we get an abelian group homomorphism out of it yea?
yeah
so what function does the proof say we should take
phi
no
varphi
no
yes
the domains don't match because you keep trying to say the map on S x N is defined to be varphi. it's not
it tells you exactly what the map is
oh
are you confused by notation lol
the phi/Phi in theorem 6 isn't the same as the phi/Phi in theorem 8
that's probably not helping
ok throw out all the notation in theorem 6 hahaha
say we have a map t: A->M
where A is a set and M is an Abelian group
then this extends uniquely to a map t' from F(A) to M
where t' is an abelian group homomorphism
you've correctly identified that A in theorem 8 is SxN
what is t?
in the context of theorem 8
(i just posted a screenshot with the answer in it)
hmm]
in theorem 6
we had a map between A -> M
and extended it to a Homomorphism between F(A) -> M
i dont know what t is
oh wait
is it N -> S (x_R) N
@fossil shuttle
well we agreed that A was SxN in this case. and L is M. so your answer should be a function from S x N to L.
you are given such a function. it is defined as
t(s, n) = s\cdot phi(n)
so now do you understand how we have an Abelian group homomorphism F(SxN) ->L?
this is t'
so now to check that this induces a map S\otimes N->L you have to check that it sends H to zero exactly.
this is not hard. you should check that if you take any of the generators of H, and apply the function t', you get something which is zero just by applying the definition of t' and the rules for the action of S on a module L
i. e. associative, unital, bilinear
$t'(\sum a (s_i,n_i)) = \sum a s_i \varphi(n_i)$
ActiveChapter
yeah that is the definition of t'
but like, every element in H is the sum of generators, so if you prove that the generators all go to zero it follows immediately by linearity that every element of H goes to zero
ActiveChapter
and we could check the rest
right. something similar for the others.
phi is R-linear and so a fortiori an Abelian group homomorphism, that's used in one of them
but they're all similar to the one you just did
uhhhh well if phi is not injective then maybe not
like say phi was the constant zero map. then the kernel of the map t' would be everything
hm yes
ive understood that H is sent to 0
but not how this lets us factor by H for a new map
this is a basic technique to construct maps out of quotient groups
once you prove H gets sent to zero, in order to define the map from FA/H, you pick a representative of the coset and define where it should be sent
we could have just factored by H even if it wasnt sent to 0
you can still form the quotient group but a homomorphism FA/H->L will not be well-defined unless it sends H to zero.
like take a coset in FA/H. Say [p] or whatever. I build a map from FA/H to L by saying where to send p.
but if i have [p] =[p'] for distinct p, p' then the definition might depend on the choice of representative which is a problem
so you have to check that [p] =[p'] implies f(p) =f(p')
oh right
if [p]=[p'] then p-p' is in H
yeha
so if f is additive it suffices to show f kills off every element of H
right yeahp
as then we have f(p) - f(p') =f(p-p') =0
it is ok it'll become second nature eventually
this is a really cool theorem btw
this theorem constructs what, in category theoretic language, is called a universal arrow
proving the existence of and explicitly constructing universal arrows has a lot of consequences that follow for purely formal abstract nonsense reasons
its confusing :/
lol
is it ok to think of a module as just an abelian group such that a ring can act on it?
like how groups can act on sets
Yeah thats right
yeah, except that everything is happening in abelian group land so everything about the action has to be linear.
idk if this is helpful but you can prove that if A is an abelian group, the set of linear maps from A to itself forms a ring with multiplication given by composition and addition given by pointwise function addition
and a module action of R on A is the same as a ring homomorphism from R into this ring
I'm struggling with proving that the direct limit of modules M_i is unique up to unique isomorphism. (I don't want a categorical proof)
I assumed (M, m_i) and (N, n_i) are limits of the system (M_i, m_ij) and used the m_i to get a map from N to M and then did the opposite to get a map from M to N, but I couldn't see how they are mutually inversive.
What is your definition of a limit of the system?
The index set is directed and whenever we have a_i : M_i --> L with a_j o m_ij = a_i, we get a unique map a : M --> L with a o m_i = a_i.
Cool, now to show mutual inverse, compose the two maps to get a map from M->M and show that this map makes everything in the diagram commute (where the maps from M_i->M for both of the M’s is mi)
But notice that the identity map also makes everything commute
Okay, let f : M --> N and g : N --> M. We are granted that f, g are the unique maps that make everything commute.
I see that g f m_i = m_i, so gf does look like 1, but I'm still confused. Do we have a uniqueness restriction here too?
Yes so if you apply the definition of limit replacing L with M and ai with mi, you have a uniqueness restriction
Not only that, you can easily see that id:M->M makes everything commute
And you just showed that gf made everything commute, so by uniqueness gf=id
Np
Btw this proof is almost verbatim the category theory proof, (notice how we never bothered about the structure of M and N at all)
By categorical I meant mentioning the fact about adjoint functors, but yeah, it's the same if we're talking about direct limits
that makes way more sense thanks i'll try that
What does "the coefficients are polynomials in the x_i" actually mean in this context lol
Like i can write a_i as the sum of b_1 x_1 + ... + b_m x_m?
Or i guess just as an element of K[x1, ..., xm]?
The coefficients of a poly are symmetric polynomials of the roots
Eg: the zero degree coefficient is just the product and the n-1 degree coefficient is the sum and whatnot
Oh right yes by writing it as (b1 - x1)...(bn - xn) yeah
because it possess all the conjugates
Viete formulas 
What are the bi’s? I was thinking of the same thing i think but with a variable symbol t instead of the bi’s
I see, so you’re planning on doing some ag after AM?
Kinda
I should probably do hartshorne eventually tbh
Atm my goal is to just finish up the rest of szamuely and also AM
Nice
Let $R$ be a commutative ring with identity. We know that if $I+J=R$ then $IJ=I\cap J$. Is the converse true? Does $IJ=I\cap J$ imply $I+J=R$? I can see this being true in PIDs.
King of Mykonos
Take one of the ideals to be the zero ideal
yeah that is a pretty trivial counterexample
in a PID products = intersections means that (lcm(x, y)) = (xy) so if x and y are non-zero this should be true
That’s pretty nice
This was a hw problem in upendra's alg3
you would remember if you graded the HWs properly instead of speedrunning all in one day 😵💫
det was in your group 
I just used his sheet as the rubric to minimize any time spent thinking
Just checking the definitions I think that, if we have an abelian group H and a group G, then H is a G-module just by the trivial action. Does that sound about right?
Yes
So suppose i have a field K, a subring A of K, and an algebraic closure Kbar of K
if i have a ring homomorphism f: A -> Kbar and f(x) is non-zero with inverse y in Kbar, is y necessarily in K
This isn't even true if A is a field, take A = K = Q(cube root of 2) and let f be one of the other embeddings of this field into Qbar
If we have A-modules M, N such that Hom(M, X) is isomorphic to Hom(N, X) for all X (as A-modules), does this imply that M is isomorphic to N?
I'm going to be a junior this upcoming semester, but also, I agree that I'm hardly human.
have you heard of the yoneda lemma?
Yeah, but here I'm not assuming that Hom(M, --) is equivalent to Hom(N, --)
The isomorphisms need not be compatible
makes sense
my guess would be no, but I have no idea how to show it
if you reverse the direction of the arrows then it would be true, just let X be the free module with one generator
The dual Hom(X, M) = Hom(X, N) is trivial, so maybe this has to do with how Hom(M, --) is a right adjoint?
Okay, I think I have an idea
Hom(N, A) = Hom(M, A) by letting X = A, but then Hom(Hom(N, A), A) = Hom(Hom(M, A), A)
and you should be able to do a double dual thing
to deduce that N = M
is there a hole here? I don't usually work with modules over arbitrary rings
so I don't have the intuition to know for sure that this makes sense
I have seen an MO post about this i think in general it can be quite complicated
like even in just vector spaces over F_2 this can be undecidable
Undecidable? 
Like this statement?
undecidable as in independent of ZFC?
Yea
the cited part of that mathoverflow link
And if you do not assume the isomorphisms between Hom-sets to be natural, then for example over a field the question boils down to whether it is possible for two non-isomorphic vector spaces to have isomorphic duals. Over the field with two elements this is simply a question about the cardinality of power sets, which might very well be independant of ZFC
Does it really "boil down," though? Hom modules being isomorphic is more restrictive
Damn
Everything is k^n for some n so like hom(k^n, k^m) should split as a product of hom(k^n, k) I guess?
or product of hom(k, k^m) I think
because k^n is coproduct of n copies of k
Then you can probably do something 
I think dimension of the dual of k^a has dim 2^a
exactly
so this is just "can nonisomorphic A,B have P(A) isomorphic to P(B)"
and I'm pretty sure I heard it's independent of ZFC
Yeah it is
mhm
Martin's axiom is about that
Wacky
and it is independent of ZFC + not GCH as well
damn
i like how when the isomorphisms are natural this is just yoneda's but when they're not it's independent of ZFC
(or at the very least, it's not provable within ZFC because a special case is independent of ZFC)
General results on things like this are often hhhhhh
iiiiiiiiii
Moldi and I were sort of talking about a similar result earlier to day where you can have two groups with the same order isomorphic subgroup lattices and isomorphic quotient group lattices that are still not isomorphic
are these groups finite?
a lot of the time just having nice relationships between all hom sets or all subgroups or all subrings is not usfficient
It doesnt even work for finite groups intel
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/14588/does-the-order-lattice-of-subgroups-and-lattice-of-factor-groups-uniquely-det here is a counterexample
p group moment
Actually we haven't proved the non provability, at least I don't see if we did
we want to show all hom sets are the same → isomorphic
even if we assume that duals are isomorphic → isomorphic is independent
I don't see how the original statement becomes independent
it doesn't become independent
Yeah I mean non provable
the negation might be provable
True, we have only dealt with vector spaces so far, which are more rigid
Is this like a HW problem, or are you just thinking about it randomly?
That would be a clue as to whether it's doable or not 
Just thinking randomly lol
ok I see
I think the vector space case reduces to something like the existence of two cardinals a, b such that ac = bc for all large c
That is the case for any 2 a and b
Because cardinal multiplication is just taking maximum
I see
because |F_2^m| is not the same as |powerset of m| for infinite m

So much notational annoyance
Yeah
or wait my interpretation of the notation might be wrong here lol
this seems a bit vague? we could have multiple maximal submodules?
Yeah you could, what's the issue with it then?
ah ok
If M and N have this property, then so do M (x) A/m and N (x) A/m for all maximal m
I'm not sure how this reduces it to the case of vector spaces, if it does at all
how do I show every field automorphism of field K extends to automorphism of algebraic closure of K?
Do you know that it extends to K(1 algebraic element)
Like viewing them as homomorphisms into K closure
K → K closure extends to a homomorphism K(1 elt) → K closure
hmm not sure tbh
okay I guess take splitting field of that element and map to some root of that polynomial?
Use the 1st isomorphism theorem. ||Map K[x] into the closure such that the kernel is the ideal generated by min(x)||
Yeah pretty much that
So now you use zorn's lemma. Partially order all homomorphisms from extensions of K into K closure by what restricts to what
Rest should be clear
ok I see ty
Is it necessary to use Zorn's lemma for the problem?
Some form of choice is required yes
It is consistent with ZF that Q closure have a trivial galois group
If I recall correctly

how does that work tho
Lol actually I'm wrong
i feel like you can argue complex conjugation exists as an automorphism
Because conjugation
oof
Yeah
Then it's not Q
But in general for fields
I'm trying to find the exact statement lol
For C, only 2 automorphisms is consistent
Oh I got it
Algebraic closure are not unique upto isomorphism without choice
Without choice, it is consistent that there exists some closure of Q with trivial galois group
@golden pasture
wait but cant you have some form of complex conjugation
tho ig embedding in C is hard to define
Yeah exactly
Because you can't extend the embedding of Q
This is mentioned in Milne
On pg91
But nothing more than this statement lol
Is it consistent with ZF that Q closure intersection reals have a trivial galois group?
To intersect Q closure with R you need to embed it into C
you need to choose an embedding with complex in that case
by which you have conjugation
My bad
i feel like this isj ust adding sqrt(-1)
We will not have i in Q closure intersection R though it is a root of x^2+1=0
Usually it would be but without choice I don't even wanna think about it 
That's not the issue for galois extensions
It's not a normal extension then
Because it contains cbrt(2) but not its conjugate ω cbrt(2)
cuberoot of unity
Cube root of 1, not equal to 1
Ah
e^{2πi/3}
Why does it have its own symbol?
cuz why not
Z[w] is Eisenstein integers
Eisenstein integers Z[w] is a Unique Factorization Domain and there is a proof of x^3+y^3=/=z^3 for natural x,y,z using Eisenstein integers
Yeah, all elements of R are polynomial expressions of the r_i with coefficients in k (ie smallest subring of R containing k and the r_i's is R itself)
oh cool
This is on direct limits of modules, the mu_ij are the maps of the directed system, M_i → M_j. I can't figure out the second part.
Do I just explicitly show that the generators of the submodule that we quotient by in the construction can't generate x_i if none of its images are zero 😵💫 I am hoping there is something nice that can be done using the universal property
I think I got it. We look at the kernels in M_i, of all the maps going out of it in the diagram. Assume none of them contain x, then their union doesn't, and its a submodule because for any 2 kernels, you can find an upperbound kernel using the directedness
Then M_i/this union of kernels should make a cone below the diagram, by everything in M_i mapping by the quotient, and the things that remain undecided after this, all going to 0. I just need to show that this is well defined, and then this cone will factor through the universal one
I am not sure how to make this cone precise. Even if M_i and M_j are not comparable, there are still some constraints enforced on M_j if they have lower and upper bounds
When it is a linear directed diagram then I think my solution works
Is it possible for a group to be a proper subgroup of itself of infinite, but not finite, index?
by definition a proper subgroup of G should be a proper subset of G, so a group cannot be proper subgroup of itself
I assume they mean an isomorphic copy of itself
I want to say the answer is yes and that you can demonstrate it with some free group construction
but I am not sure
$\mathbb{Z,+}$ is isomorphic to $\mathbb{2Z,+}$
But Z/2Z has finite index
Need to think about it then
Yes okay I think you can do this by taking a free group on 3 generators and finding a subgroup that is free on three generators but only uses two of the original genereators
ah yeah similar idea i guess
Also possible with free group on 2 generators, by using an embedding of the one on infinitely many generators then taking a 2 generator free subgroup of that
wack
But doesn’t it also contain copies with finite index?
Oh only
oh
Thats not possible
that won't be possible
Does $F_2^{\mathbb{N}}$ work?
But if you exclude that then maybe 
MathForEarthlings
i think that changes this problem from a cute exercise to genuinely hard hahaha
Nope. Index 2.
I'm not sure it'll work, but maybe the direct sum of Z/nZ for naturals n
Does $F_2^{\mathbb{R}}$ work?
MathForEarthlings
Does that have proper copies?😵💫
No
Infinite powers of any group won't
Of any finite group
Sorry
Say $a_n$ is the generator of $\bZ/n\bZ$ in the direct sum, then I think the map defined by $a_n \mapsto 2a_{2n}$ should have an image of infinite index.
The_Vman
For that to be an isomorphism you only do this for odd n I suppose?
But why?
But wait I don't think that works
Yeah whoops
woof ✓
I mean isomorphic ofc
And whoops
I'm viewing k as an ordinal here
So should have written 1+k
Ahh
All I'm saying is
I think it is about index
You can take an extra copy
Not about cardinality
woof ✓
Got it
And both sides of the inclusion are isomorphic
Wait
Actually I may have confused myself. Does the map I suggested not give a proper isomorphic copy with infinite index?
I don't see how it's injective
For even n that goes wrong
Why not just take an infinite group not containing itself and raise that to an infinite power?
And if you only do that for odd n, it's surjective
Yeah seems like the play, but won't work with Z
Because you can multiply one of its factors by 2
Only because Z contains itself.
anyone know whats up here
It’s a composition of functions in the usual sense
The resulting polynomial is in n variables yes
Since you’re creating a polynomial expression in polynomials in n variables
Just try an example and you’ll see why it’s n variables
$F \circ \varphi ((a_1, \cdots , a_n)) = F \circ (\varphi_1((a_1, \cdots , a_n)) , \cdots, \varphi_m((a_1, \cdots , a_n))) = F(w_1, \cdots , w_m)$
pewdssssssss
Sure, but the corresponding composition has n variables
woof
can I ask in dm about one thing cuz this has been taken for like an hour and its probably some 1 line shit I cant come up with
This is reflected in what you’ve written
what do you mean?
sure
F circ varphi is a function in a_1,…,a_n
so like expanding the F
What about Q/Z? Or the dyadic rationals mod Z.
That would work.
hey this might be overkill but you might consider a very different approach, which is a total recharacterization of the colimit. What you've proved in the first part of the question is that, on a set theoretic level, the map from the disjoint union $\coprod M_i\to \operatorname{colim}(M_\bullet)$ is surjective, ergo set theoretically we can write the colimit as $\coprod M_i/\sim$ for the obvious equivalence relation, i.e. $x\sim y$ if both go to the same point in the colimit.
I claim that this equivalence relation can be described as follows: it is the weakest equivalence relation on $\coprod M_i$ such that if $x\in M_i$ and $f : M_i\to M_j$ is a morphism in the diagram, then $x\sim f(x)$. Just try proving concretely that this has the universal property of the colimit on a purely set theoretic level. then check that you can define a natural notion of addition on this thing, that all the maps involved are $R$-linear, etc. once you've checked that this really is the colimit, the answer to the second part of this question is trivial, as it follows by construction
i found another approach though


