#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 599 of 407
itll be easier if i send you a photo of what i did gimme a minute
off of the motivation that this was shown earlier:
I get cognitive dissonance from the difference in how much you care about both parts of the proof

it's not really a quesiton of how much i care it's more about how i write my exercises
i dont write all that i calculate in my head but sometimes i need to write the computations
so the proofs can seem disproportionate
it's good but it's weird how you put so much detail on how to get (23) form (12) and not on how to get (12) from sigma and tau
and i could clean them up
which is the harder part in my opinion
i maen again the exercise isnt complete
how so
i still need to go from the ai's to i's
which was why i asked my question in the first place
have you seen how conjugation affect cycles?
^^^^^^^^^^^^^
not formally only through experience
g (a1 a2 ... an) g^-1 = (g(a1) g(a2) .... g(an))
oh i see
well you know that you can get any permutation of {a1 ; ... ; ap}
but {a1 ; .... ; ap} = {1 ; ... ; p}
right of course
i have all permutations of a that's enough
im a bit shtupid
since S_p is just permutations on p elements not specifically 1,2,...,p
lmao
and your question about if you have a group morphism from <S> to <T> that's bijective on S, then is that group morphism bijective
well there are counterexamples
looking at the sylow theorems
but i dont understand why we can take Q = P_1
would Q be a sylow p group itself?
i'm guessing that Q is a sylow p-subgroup and you're acting on the set of sylow p-subgroups by conjugation
number of Q-conjugates of a sylow p-subgroup P is [Q : N(P) intersect Q]
you can choose Q to be the representative of the orbit containing Q
it says that Q is just any P subgroup
so just wondering how they can let it be p1 ?
Pi are representatives of the orbits, right?
There would be one orbit which contains Q
infact that orbit has size 1 since number of Q-conjugates of Q is [Q:N(Q) intersect Q] = 1
that's what we're trying to show, number of Q-conjugates of Q is 1 but number of Q-conjugates of P is divisible by p where P is any sylow p-subgroup different from Q.
O1, ..., Os are the different orbits. We can number them arbitrarily. One of this orbit must contain Q, wlog it was O1, but then the only representative of O1 is Q which we call P1
oh! that makes sense!
but one thing
why is the only representative for the orbit containing Q, only Q ?
@rustic crown
what is even representative?
say a group G acts on a set X. And consider some orbit O.
what is a representative of O?
some g(x)
what's g, what's x?
g is something for the group, x from the set
yea, so O_x = {g*x | g in G}
but notice that any element of O_x equally represents O_x
O_{gx} = {h * (gx) | h in G} = {(hg) * x | h in G} = {g' * x | g' in G} = O_x
so a representative is just an element of the orbit O
if you know one element, you can recover every other just by multiplying by elements from G
now in the actual problem, we say that the orbit of Q is set of all Q-conjugates of Q, which you proved (probably in that lemma 19) that has size 1. so O_{Q} = {Q}, so Q is its only representative
(if you're confused about that lemma, just use orbit-stablizer theorem. |O_P| = [Q : Stab(P)]. Now Stab(P) = {q in Q | qPq^-1 = P} = {q in Q | q in N_G(P)} = [N_G(P) intersect Q])
Q is acting on Conjugates of Sylow P subgroups
$q (gPg^{-1}) q^{-1}$ for some g in G and all q in Q
ActiveChapter
that would be an orbit right?
no
that would just give you all sylow p-subgroups
this is pretty much the content of sylow's second theorem
i'm saying the orbit containing P would be the set {qPq^-1 | q in Q}
(here the Q is the group which acts on the set X = {sylow p-subgruops})
ok ive understood this
but not why there is an orbit containing Q and why the whole orbit would be just Q
oh i see, i had to guess what Q was before.
sorry, i shouldve shown this
they're saying we did that calculation for an arbitrary p-subgroup. so it should also work for some particular p-subgroup say P1
does that make sense?
so we need to take Q as a sylow subgroup to get that result?
yep
ype, if none of Pi contain Q, then [Q:N(Pi) intersect Q] is divisible by p for every i.
which contradicts the sum is 1 mod p
yep

You are a life saver!

so my question is regarding ex 8 (ex 7 is in the image for reference). Ive completed the exercise because i already knew the standard way to show A_4 has no subgroup of order 6, but I couldn't figure out another way to show this using this knowledge that it is isomorphic to the group of rigid motions of the tetrahedron. Any ideas?
i feel like this is a rephrasing of some argument, but still think its nice enough to be said.
let that subgroup act on the tetrahedron with vertices labeled 1, 2, 3, 4. Now what is the stablizer of 4? if we fix 4 at the back, we can only do {(1), (123), (132)} to move around the front triangle by rotating it. So the stablizer must be subgroup of that and has size either 1 or 3,
-it can't be 1, because in that case orbit must have size 6 and there are only 4 vertices of the tetrahedron!
-so those 3 are precisely the things in the stablizer. which means orbit of 1 2 and 3 are the same thing. but then orbit of 4 must have size 2, and it can't include any of 1, 2, 3 as once you include one, you need to include others which is a contradiction!
since i didn't use the word "even permutation" i'll call it a win.
that's a nice one but i dont think it's what the book was suggesting as group actions were briefly addressed in section 1.7 and they are delved into more in depth in chapter 4 (right after these exercises). This here is section 3.5
it's a shame authors dont publish solutions to their exercises so you know what was going on in their head
yea this is nice, especially with the previous proposition. I'd make sure you know how to do this without the action of A_4 on the cube, but you probably get this lol
nice solution 
How do I apply this line of thinking
to the polynomial in Q[x]:
$f(x) = (x^4-2x^2-1)^2 - 5$
to prove its solvable?
Should I first expand?
or I was thinking maybe let x^2 = y
then do f(y) solvable
but idk if that implies f(x) solvable
$f(x) = x^8-4x^6+2x^4+4x^2-4$
if I expand
$f(y) = y^4-4y^3+2y^2+4y-4$
its solvable if you can solve it 
😩
$((x^2 - 1)^2 - 2)^2 - 5$
det
so consider the extensions
F = Q (right?)
then B = F(something)
B = F(sqrt5, sqrt2)?
err
B1 = F(sqrt5)
B2 = B1(sqrt2)
would be better?
$\mathbb{Q} \subseteq \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{5}) \subseteq \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{5}, i) \subseteq \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{5}, i, \sqrt{2 + \sqrt{5}}) \subseteq ...$
det
that 2-sqrt{5} would be negative. so you would also require i
will it include 5^(1/4)
that's usually not very easy to say
okkk
tysm
Hm wait whered the i come from
shouldnt it be i*sqrt(2+sqrt5))
not just a lone i
usually just get extension for each root, and then use the fact that composites of radical extensions are radical extensions
here i was trying to get a small looking extension
so Q(sqrt(5)) contains both +- sqrt(5)
now in the next step we want to include +- sqrt(2 +- sqrt(5))
you can just include both separately, but i wanted to include 1 and use i to get other. but got too lazy to finish it
Q < Q(sqrt5) < Q(sqrt5, a) < Q(sqrt5, a, b)
a^2 = 2+-sqrt5
b^2 = 1 +- a
det
a^2 = 2+-sqrt5
what does this mean? should i take + or -?
a shouldn't mean 2 different things... you need to include both

so in my version which kinda poorly written thered be 2 answers for a, and 4 for b
which would match urs
okok i get it
yep
Hey! I asked a question in the dynamical systems channel yesterday, unfortunately I didn't get an answer. I suspect the question has quite a lot to do with number theory and or abstract algebra too. Please head over and look at it if you feel like it. At the time of writing, it is at the bottom :/
i completed exercise 3 but i probably did it wrong as I didnt use the fact that G is abelian. What could I be missing?
exercise 1 also showed that $\bigcap_{g\in G}gG_ag^{-1}$ is the kernel of the action for transitive G acting on A. So i used it along with 2 to show G is faithful which gives us $\sigma(a)\neq a$ for $\sigma\in G-{1}$, $a\in A$
Little Narwhal
Then the bijection just followed from the map $\sigma \to \sigma(a)$ being a bijection: surjective because G is transitive, injective because G is faithful
Little Narwhal
but nowhere does G being abelian factor in here
I think there's a mistake here, I don't see how you deduce sigma(a) neq a for all sigma and a
Little Narwhal
Yes
And both of the left statements have a (for all a)
But when you negate all 3 statements
it becomes (there exists a such that not ....)
not (for all a, not ....)
suppose there exists a such that $\sigma(a)=a$ then $\sigma(a)=id(a)$ so $\sigma = id$, a contradiction
Little Narwhal
is this incorrect?
Coldilocks
Yeah
so i suppose it is at this step that we must use the fact G is abelian
Should be
ah i got it
Suppose $\exists a\in A$ with $\sigma(a)=a$ for some $\sigma\in G-{1}$. Then $\sigma\in G_a$. So by the previous exercise $\bigcap_{\tau\in G}\tau{\sigma}\tau^{-1} \subset \bigcap_{\tau\in G}\tau G_a\tau^{-1}=1$. Since G is abelian, $\tau\sigma\tau^{-1}=\sigma$ for all $\tau\in G$. So $\sigma\in \bigcap_{\tau\in G}\tau{\sigma}\tau^{-1}$ which is a contradiction.
Little Narwhal
That's neat 
so id like to say that $G_a$ is isomorphic to $S_{n-1}$ which is transitive on ${1,2,...,n-1}$ so $G_a$ must be transitive on ${1,2,...,a-1,a+1,...,n}$ but i dont know how to say it properly since the sets being acted on in both cases are different so it's not as simple as just saying the groups are isomorphic
Little Narwhal
What you really need is a pair (f,b) of a group isomorphism f:G_a->S_(n-1) and a bijection of sets b:A\{a}->{1,2,…n-1} that are compatible, ie: b(g.a)= f(g).b(a)
What does it mean for a subgroup to be normal?
if nothing happens to the subgroup under conjugation
ive just tried considering the amount of elements
i can see that we have either sylow 7 or sylow 5 to be normal
if we have a normal sylow 7 group, we could have 21 sylow 5 groups
If you let P be the sylow 7 subgroup and Q be a sylow 5 subgroup, if you assume that P is normal, then PQ is also a subgroup of G. Can you show that this subgroup has to be normal in G?
ok yep, i got it thanks!
if a is a root of a polynomial w coefficients in F(r) then is it a root of a polynomial with coefficients in F?
trying to explain/handwavy proof that constructible numbers are algebraic (in? over? Q)
Well F(r)(x) = F(r, x) right?
x is an arbitrary second variable right
Yeah so you're basically asking if a being a solution to a 2 variable polynomial in F implies it is a solution to a 1 variable polynomial in F, right?
(you have to fudge this a bit because its technically F(r)[x] but ill leave the details to you)
Is r algebraic over F? That changes the answer and given the context seems likely
Oh yeah in the algebraic case its different
(you can show this through transcendence degree arguments)
I mean, algebraic over algebraic is algebraic can be done through pretty elementary means like saying that F(r,a) is finite over F
Yeah I mean thinking about the general case
If r is transcendental, then x-r has a solution r which is not algebraic over F
i saw this argument online
if xo is a root of polynomial in Fk then its a root of polynomial w coeff in Fk-1 and so on until Q
where Q < F1 < F2 < ... < Fk is a tower of fields
Fi = Fi-1(sqrt(ri))
for some ri where sqrt(ri) not in Fi-1
and the argument was if x0 is a root of polynomial in Fk then its a root of polynomial in Q
hence x0 (constructible #) is algebraic over Q
but i dont understand this line
this
Is r_i in F_i-1?
cause then sqrt(r_i) is the root of r_i^2 and these extensions are all algebraic
like if y is a root of $f(x) = sqrt(2)x^2+5$ then is y a root of another polynomial in just Q? ratrher than Q(sqrt2)?
Ramtin
This is because an algebraic extension of an algebraic extension is algebraic. Fk(x0) is algebraic over Fk. Fk is algebraic over F_(k-1) so F_k(x0) is algebraic over F_(k-1)
Ohhh
i know that theorem
truee
and any finite extension is algebraic right?
or is it the otherway around
Yeah so if x_0 is algebraic over F_k it is algebraic over Q
Finite extensions are algebraic yes
Yes
I asked this question a few days ago and haven't made any progress, asking again and hoping someone else will know what to do lol.
I'm trying to compare ideals in $\mathbb{Z}[t, t^{-1}]$, so my instinct is to construct a Grobner basis for them. I do this by mapping the ideals to the ring $R=\mathbb{Q}[x,y]/(xy-1)$. The problem is that I'm doing this in sage, and I don't know the 'right' way to do the computation. Should I do the computation all in $\mathbb{Q}[x,y]$, then take the quotient of each generator, or find the basis directly in the quotient ring? I've tried both in sage and they seem to give different answers, which is why I'm a little confused
cgodfrey
if I do
R.<x,y> = PolynomialRing(QQ)
Rq = R.quotient([x*y-1])
ideal1 = Rq.ideal([2*x^2 - 4*y + 1, 3*x^3-2*x^2+y^2-1])
ideal2 = R.ideal([2*x^2 - 4*y + 1, 3*x^3-2*x^2+y^2-1])
print(ideal1.groebner_basis())
print(ideal2.groebner_basis())
print(x*y in ideal2.groebner_basis())
I get the output
[1]
[y^3 - 319/4*y^2 + 45/8*x + 51*y - 9/2, x^2 - 2*y + 1/2, x*y + 1/6*y^2 - 1/4*x - 2/3*y]
False
So the ideal in the quotient ring is the entire space, while the ideal in the parent ring is generated by those three polynomials. But since xy isn't in that ideal, I feel like that suggests if I take the quotient of each generator, I would end up with a different ideal
lemme know if anyone has ideas on how I might be going wrong
heya, im trying to understand this remark by explicity defining $\beta$, but its turning out to be surprisingly hard, would appreciate any help on seeing this fact (which seems to be 'trivial' according to the text)
xy
choose bases tbh
ok lol i think you're overthinking this. if it helps, the only space you need to choose a basis for is $P$
diligentClerk
??!?!
Haha. Ok. Let's say you have a basis for $P$, some $\left{p_i\right}$. Start by figuring out where these should go. where can you send $p_i$ such we have $\varepsilon(\beta(p_i)) = \gamma(p_i)$ for each $i$?
diligentClerk
think Axiom of Choice
if it's not obvious you do need to use the assumption that $\varepsilon$ is surjective.
diligentClerk
if i use axiom of choice, dont i need to specify a basis for $B$ anyway?
xy
no. i promise you do not need to choose a basis for $B$ or $C$ here.
diligentClerk
$P, B, C$ are all sets with no extra structure.
diligentClerk
why does this kernal contain H ?
$\varepsilon$ is surjective, $\gamma$ is some map $P\to C$
P to C lol
diligentClerk
yup
can you find $\beta$ in this case?
diligentClerk
anyone know?
is it just that the stabilizer of H is just H so the kernal must be something less than H?
by axiom of choice, there exists $\beta'$ mapping $P$ to $B$ ? and then we linearly extend $\beta'$ to obtain a linear transformation $\beta$ ?
xy
yep.
but thats not explicitly "finding" $\beta$
xy
im not so convinced that it proves the statement - linear transformations are defined by their action on bases
so in particular we have to specify bases in order to prove existence of $\beta$
xy
diligentClerk
by the axiom of choice
axiom of choice only gives a choice function but it may not be `linearly extend-able' to give beta
uhmm
you can prove from the basic properties of a basis that every function from a basis for $P$ into $B$ extends in a unique way to give a linear transformation
like
diligentClerk
oh right.... right
let $v$ be a vector in $P$. then $v$ can be written in one and only one way as $\sum a_i p_i$. so choosing where to send the $p_i$ tells you where $v$ has to go
diligentClerk
so doing it interms of what i did here was overthinking it
yeah, that's not necessary
this is a great property of bases btw
good one to keep in your back pocket
alright, thank you 🙂
Guys, Isn't the answer correct?
nope. Why are you working with 2 different fields?
you can't prove by example
the field F is totally generic, you can't appeal to trying to reduce in F_2 or something like that
Isn't it same as proof by induction ?
well, maybe it helps to see a degree 4 that is reducible that doesn't have a root
having a root really just means it has a linear factor
a degree 4 can factor into two irreducible quadratics, so it doesn't necessarily have a root in this case
but degree 3 is too small of a degree to factor into stuff where none of the terms are linear
Let pi: X --> Y be a qcqs morphism of schemes and let F be a quasicoherent sheaf over X. Show that pi_* F is a quasicoharent sheaf over Y
What is the module action of Y on pi_* F?
so what is the data for a scheme morphism?
going forwards you have a continuous map X—>Y
Oh lmao I just figured it out I think
The map of ringed spaces is in the other direction
kind of
Thanks
yeah, backwards you have a sheaf morphism O_Y->pi_* O_X
Let G be a group containing at least one subgroup of a fixed finite order s. Show that the intersection of all subgroups of G of order s is a normal subgroup of G. [Hint: Use the fact that if H has order s then so does x^{−1}Hx for all x∈G.]
I'm stuck on this problem. Conjugation permutes the subgroups of order s, but I'm not sure how to formally show it.
Show that x_x^-1 is a bijection on such subgroups
for all x
In order to do so, come up with an inverse
Do you see what the inverse must be?
that part was fine since conjugation between subgroups is always a bijection
(group multiplication always injective and onto their image)
No, I meant show that this function is a bijection on the set of all subgroups of order s
ah i see
Ok
Let f:A->A where A is the set of all subgroups of order s be defined by f(B)=xBx^{-1}
this is well defined because conjugating subgroups preserve order
Yes
injective because if B\neq C, then f(B)\neq f(C)
(if there is an element in one and not the other that element must be in one of the images but not in the other)
f^{-1}(B)=x^{-1}Bx
Yep
and this is also well defined
f(f^{-1}(B))=B for every B\in A
And the other way around
yes
ok so it permutes the subgroups in A
so to show normality of N
Let N be the intersection of all N_i with s elements
We want to show gNg^{-1}\subseteq N
but N=\cap N_i =\cap gN_ig^{-1}=g(\capN_i)g^{-1}=gNg^{-1}
so they're actually equal
AAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAA
Ok Thank you for your help!
No problem
if $\alpha \in F$ but $\sqrt(\alpha) \notin F$ then are elements of F in the form $a+b\sqrt(\alpha)$, a,b $\in F$
Ramtin
or are elements of $F(\sqrt(\alpha))$ in the form $f(\sqrt(\alpha))/g(\sqrt(\alpha))$ where f, g $\in$ $F[x]$ g non zero$
Ramtin
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
im assuming yes
cuz like sqrt2 isnt in Q
but 2 is
so elements in Q(sqrt2) are a+bsqrt2
also im assuming this is always true actually, but the form above is more simple
you mean elements of the field $F(sqrt(\alpha))$ right?
saketh
Well in this case both of the ways you described the elements are actually equivalent, so they are both correct
Is cuz alpha^n neN is always in F
so polynomial of f(sqrt(alpha)) all the even degree terms
become absorbed as a term in F
?
but wb the denominator g(sqrt(alpha))
Yes, and the odd degree terms can be absorbed as part of bsqrt(alpha) for some b in F
Yoy can do the same with g, and by rationalising the denominator you can get rid of g entirely
For example 1/(1+sqrt(a)= 1-sqrt(a)/1-a
Yes
Np. Btw a similar thing can be done for F(t) whenever t satisfies a polynomial over F. That is F(t) which consists of quotients f(t)/g(t) can be transformed into just polynomials r(t) where the degree of r is less than the degree of the polynomial t satisfies in F
pi doesn’t satisfy a polynomial over Q so it can’t be reduced
less than or equal?
oh i think i get it
like f(x) = x^3 - 2 over Q[x]
so f/g = r where deg(r) < 3? or <= 3?
😄
LMFAO
Anyway, I’m deleting that, but you get what I’m saying right?
yess
i woulda guessed <= tho
but i think i get why its <
cuz if its irreducible
F / ideal of polynomial with that root not in F
has basis w deg(that polynomial) elements?
basis w that degree*
Yes exactly, this is pretty much the reason.
And the fact that the ideal generated by an irreducible polynomial is maximal in F[x] proves that this is a field
so if the degree of the irreducible polynomial is 3
then F(x) can be represented as a+bx+cx^2 where x is the root of that polynomial?
and a,b,c e F
Yes
The basis is {1,x,x^2}
Yeah
if w = e^(i2pi/7)
then is E = Q(w) = a+bw?
and if phi(w) : E -> E is automorphic
with phi(w) = w^3
what does it mean when it asks me
prove order of phi is 6?
does that mean phi^6(w) = w? or phi^6(a+bw) = a+bw?
i.e., phi^6 is id map?
E should be a degree 7 extension of Q cause (x^7 - 1)/(x - 1) is the min poly of w
so the elements are linear combinations of 1, w, w^2, ..., w^6
but yeah the question asks to show that phi as an element of the group of automorphisms of Q has order 6
ie phi^6 = id
Ohh
so E := { f(w)/g(w), f,g e Q[x]} = { a0+a1w+...+a6w6, ai e Q} since w is root of irreducible polynomial f(x) = (x^7-1)/(x-1) over Q (cyclotomic polynomial degree p =7? shows its irreducibile by eisensteins?)
is there any difference between a groupoid and a magma or are they the same thing
they’re different
They are very different 
Magma is a set with a binary operator
Groupoid is a category with all morphisms being isomorphisms
You can define groupoids without categories, I think there's a definition on wikipedia
maybe some people call them both names
groupoid is also a set with a unary operation of inverse and a partial function G x G —> G. some extra rules are needed to define the behavior of the two operations, but that’s it
yeah i read on a few web pages and it looks like the terms are used interchangeably? idk im confused
You need a bunch of conditions on that partial function though
what partial function?
No that's the standard definition of groupoid but it seems what you're talking about is really just magma 
but the wiki says
This article is about the algebraic structure. For groupoids in category theory, see Groupoid. For other uses, see Magma (disambiguation).
Algebraic structures between magmas and groups.
In abstract algebra, a magma, binar[1] or, rarely, groupoid is a basic kind of algebraic structure.
so concerning group theory, is it the same thing?
noice
There's no share link on talk pages for some reason 😵💫
But it's saying that groupoid has 2 meanings
One meaning is the same as magma
But that's basically never used
So whatever text you are referring to, might indeed be using them interchangeably
But magma is the standard term for a set that has a binary operation
whats the second meaning?
This
Or this
Both are equivalent
not too familiar with category theory but does that mean there are functions between two structures that dont change them?
No, there are abstract categories in which the objects are not structures
So just refer to what coycoy said
okay
Like it's a completely different kind of structure. You have a set G, and set of types T, where each element of G has a type (a,b) where a and b are in T
hm
Then the multiplication is allowed only when you have something of type (a,b) and something of type (b,c) to get something of type (a,c)
I'm just restating the category definition lol
But yeah completely different structure
okay
is there any recommended text for this?
i mean abstract algebra/group theory?
You can look at the pins in #book-recommendations
They probably won't cover groupoids though
Those would usually be studied in some algebraic topology book would be my guess
hah the pins are kinda hard to follow
Lol yeah look for sloth king daminark's message that starts with dummit and foote
That includes brief reviews of some commonly recommended abs alg books
if A and B are points in F^2, F is a field
L(A,B) (line thru A and B) is described similarly to R^2 right?
ronnie brown has a book called "Topology Via Groupoids" or something and he shills it on mathoverflow in essentially every post he makes
Clerk would know, since he's Ronnie Brown
How detailed should my understanding of rings be to understand basic module theory?
All of the basic results about rings
Let f: X -> Spec A be a projective morphism and let A be a noetherian ring. Then is X locally noetherian?
I don't want the proof, just want to know if this is true
seems like it should because proper, hence finite.
I think it should be because if X has a closed embedding into P^n(A) then we can cover X with open affines that look like quotients of open affines of P^n(A) and all of those rings should be noetherian
Thanks
Why does $H^{n-1}(P^n,O(m)^{\oplus j})$ and $H^n(P^n,G)$ being finitely generated imply that $H^{n-1}(P^n,F)$ is finitely generated?
Have a Banana
I think he is using the fact that A is noetherian to say that $H^{n-1}(P^n,F)/kernel of the map$ is a submodule of $H^n(P^n,G)$ which is noetherian as an A module hence it is finitely generated. And we also know that the kernel of the map is finitely generated as an A module. From these we can get that $H^{n-1}(P^n,F)$ is finitely generated
saketh
Is it true in general that for $\mathbb{Q}_{p}$ we have that
\
\
$0 = \inf\left{\dfrac{1}{n+1} ; \vert ; n \in \mathbb{N}\right}$ ?
MisterSystem
What does inf mean in Q_p
$0=\inf{1/(n+1):n\in\mathbb N}$ is correct
I am trying to find an example of an ordered non-archimedian field such that this doesn't hold.
logician_pdx
But really, I can't find any good examples
You have to be in char 0 right? Otherwise some of the terms won't make sense
If you're in char 0, then Q is a subfield and contains all the numbers you care about and the non archimedean must restrict to a non archimedean on Q which must be the Q_p metric for some p
So I don't know if there are any examples
Oh
Found the example I was looking for
I was not thinking about Q_p lmao
But Q(t), which is the field of all rational functions with the order introduced in this book I am reading
I am sorry
It's been a while since I've read this book and I got messed up
Hm what's the ordering and metric?
Let $r(t) \in \mathbb{Q}(t)$ be a rational function, i.e $r(t) = \dfrac{p(t)}{q(t)}$ where $p,q$ are rational polynomials.
\
\
Then, we say that $r(t) > 0$ iff the coefficient of greatest degree of $p(t) q(t)$ is positive.
MisterSystem
This defines an ordered field as he proves in the book
But is not Archimedean
Because if you take any natural number $n$. We have that $r(t) = t \in \mathbb{Q}(t)$, but $t-n > 0$
MisterSystem
Ah okay I see
Yeah I was thinking about non archimedean as in non archimedean valuations on fields
So $\mathbb{N}$ is unbounded
MisterSystem
Yeah
I got a little bit carried away
I was trying to find this example of ordered non-archimedian field again
Because a friend of mine asked me for an example
But I am Brazilian and I don't know some math terms in English
And I messed up some definitions lmao
huh I discovered something neat: if you treat integration as a binary operation on $\mathbb{C}(x)$, you actually get a quasigroup, with the operations defined as ```latex
\begin{align*}
a * b &= \int a,db \
a \mathbin{/} b &= \frac{da}{db} \
a \mathbin{\backslash} b &= \int \frac {1}{a},d\left(\frac{da}{db}\right)
\end{align*}
wooloowoo
the right division is pretty much to be expected, although I found the left division property much more interesting
Interesting
well I'm not exactly sure if it's a quasigroup because of the Latin square property but it is at least a magma with left and right division which is neat?
I think it probably is
nvm this is wrong lol
I think it should actually be latex \begin{align*} a * b &= \int a\,db \\ a \mathbin{/} b &= \frac{da}{db} \\ a \mathbin{\backslash} b &= \int \frac {1}{a}\,db \end{align*}
wooloowoo
Isn't that one definition of a valuation ring
all i know is that x is in B or x^-1 is in B. To say x^-1 is in B requires assuming the conclusion
Theres an error in this i think
there is no restriction map on A
Omega is the algebraic closure of A[x^-1]/m' so we compose to get a map A[x^-1] -> A[x^-1]/m' = k' -> Omega right
@thorn delta
this is the projection composed with the inclusion
so it extends to a homomorphism g: B -> Omega
since x^-1 is in A[x^-1], g(x^-1) is given by composing the inclusion with the projection, and thus clearly sends x^-1 to 0
right
okay i see so this works if we just omit the restriction step
Yeah
so x^-1 is in the kernel of g = the maximal ideal of B and thus x^-1 is a non-unit in B
thus x is not in B
ye, makes sense
This is one of the bigger errata in the book i think
had tunnel vision thinking there could not possibly be an error in AM
ive only found one other (which happens twice)
the really bad one is when they fuck up the A-algebra structure on the tensor product lol
o yea whoops I misread it said A subseteq B and didn't think more about it
just to be sure when they say conjugacy classes of equal size in H, they are speaking of conjugacy classes of H (So orbits of H on itself under the action of conjugation)?
that's the only way i can get it to work
because this is exercise 9 that they refer to so what I say is that G acts transitively on K, and then the distinct orbits of H acting on K (which are just the distinct orbits of H acting on itself contained in K) have equal cardinality and there are $\left|G:HC_G(x)\right|$ such orbits.
Lilki Narki ✓
works easily that way
yeah i think im correct considering the exercise that follows
i dont understand that last paragraph
and how it contains A
and how F(A) is just linear combinations of A
Functions from A to R are like tuples of length |A| with entries in R
For example if A has 2 elements, then f is a function which assigns to each element of A an element of R
So you can view it as a pair (f(a_1), f(a_2)) where A = {a_1, a_2}
a \in A is identified with the tuple that is 1 at the coordinate corresponding to a, and 0 elsewhere, ie the function which maps a to 1 of R and everything else to 0
All functions become R-linear combinations of these f_a's
Because any function f has finitely many non zero entries, and 0s elsewhere
so you can write it as an R-linear combination of the f_a's
Think of how you do all this for vector spaces, this is exactly that
ive understood that elements of A correspond to these functions
when it says all linear combinations, is it sums of these functions
Yeah, pointwise sums (scaled by elements of R, pointwise again)
so like, $f_x = f_{a_{i}} + \cdots + f_{a_{i}}$
ActiveChapter
It's just doing this: (2,3,4) = 2(1,0,0) + 3(0,1,0) + 4(0,0,1)
Milkychocci ✓
ooh
do we have to use all elements of A for every x in F?
or let some r's be 0?
and F(A) doesnt contain A but rather something isomorphic to A?
No, only some subset, it says there are some a_1,...,a_n in A such that...
Yeah same thing. You just identify a with f_a and abuse notation
oh yes
in this case A should really be a subset of F
(ie the identification is important)
There can be many ways of identifying an arbitrary set B as a subset of F, but you fix an identification then talk about this because freeness depends on the identification
How do I work out the size of the splitting field of a polynomial? Galois theory
Are you having problems with a specific polynomial?
I'm not too knowledged about Galois theory so I don't know whether a systematic process exists but I'm sure a little context would help.
If im given this cycle, how would I compute sigma^2? would I just apply the cycle decomposition to itself?
ye
Okay, when I did that I got ( 1 5 4) (7 8) (9 10), does that sound correct? (fixing 2,3 6)
Ok awesome
I have a final question about 3e, I understand that we are trying to find the order of sigma^18 conjugated by tau. What exactly is tau? Is it just equal to sigma?
tau is any permutation
I'm not sure what you mean to be honest. I get that tau is any permutation, but If its not defined to something how can I conjugate? I know I'm missing something
You don't actually care about what tau is
It's some permutation of 10 elements, you don't care what it does specifically
Two questions :
- what happens when you multiply the conjugate of a and b?
- what happens when you conjugate identity?
In the case of cycles, I know that two elements are conjugate iff they have the same k-cycle. If I were to apply tau, I know I would get something of the sort (tau(n), tau(n+1), etc), but thats to the extent of my knowledge here
Just write down what i told you to try and see what happens
I'm really not sure
I dont know how to apply the two questions you asked to the problem. Ive been trying to think, but to no use
if you multiple the conjugate of a and b isnt it (a+b)(a-b) = a^2 - b^2, or am I tripping
ok then if u conjugate a,b isnt it τaτ⁻¹ τbτ⁻¹ and the inner taus cancel?
yup
so the product of the conjugates is the conjugate of the products
in other words, what's (τστ⁻¹)ⁿ ?
τ σ σ_2 σ_3 ... τ⁻¹
no, to the power of n
so just (τσ^nτ⁻¹) ?
isnt it still the identity?
Syst3ms
What we just showed is that this is equivalent to finding when $(\sigma^{18})^n = \text{id}$
Syst3ms
Oh look, no taus!
So, now we just have to find some n, that makes that equation true?
basically
since you (hopefully) know that the order of σ is 12
you're really just trying to find n such that 18n is a multiple of 12
shouldn't be too hard
least common multiple right?
yes, but please tell me you don't need a calculator to do this
i know that the lcm of 18 and 12 is 36
the question is about n tho
yeah thats what Im trying to piece together
dude
try values
stop trying to approach this in a calculatory way you're just losing track of what you're doing
this is like trying to solve 12/x=6 by doing three algebraic manipulations, when the question is asking "12 divided by what equals 6?"
2? lol my bad man ive been up for 25 hours my brain is fried
yes, as an answer to both questions
and i advise you get some sleep
18*2=36 which is a multiple of 12
so it reduces to the identity, so 2 is the order
Jesus man I can't believe that flew over my head
in a D3 Dihedral group, why do we not consider the rotation about the sides? like a vertical flip
Cuz that's not a symmetry of the triangle
Surely the last exercise is an error?? I can prove the forward direction but there are plenty of counterexamples to the backwards direction. Take the center of D8 for example, the set {1,r^2}, then 1s is not equal to sr^2.
or even a counterexample you can generate from the previous exercise: just take g and g of order >2 in the center of G
what should the exercise actually read???
adding the condition g=h^-1 makes it work
yep looked up an errata i thought so
what does expanding x+y in each variable mean?
i dont understand how we are adding these maps as they are not homomorphisms
Multilinear basically means it's an R module homomorphism in each entry
(another way to see multilinear is that if you fix all inputs but one, then the resulting function is linear, ie φ(a,λx+y)=λφ(a,x)+φ(a,y))
the map from vi to phi(...vi...) is the homomorphism right
Where you fix all other inputs? Yeah
Can someone help me understand the difference between line bundles and invertible sheafs?
It seems to me that a line bundle is something that is locally a free sheaf of rank 1 and an invertible sheaf is something which is a tensor factor of O_X
so why does $\varphi(v_1, \cdots, x,y ,\cdots ,v_n) + \varphi(v_1, \cdots, y,x ,\cdots ,v_n) = \varphi(v_1, \cdots, x+y,x+y ,\cdots ,v_n)$
ActiveChapter
But the book I'm using seems to use them interchangeably
The terms with double x and double y are zero due to the alternating property
They are equivalent (I don’t remember if there is some condition on the equivalency though, but it is probably mild)
Is there an easy proof of this?
I can kind of see it being true
I managed to find a proof of it on the stack project after a bit of googling, the proof seems more complicated than I remember it being, but here: https://stacks.math.columbia.edu/tag/01CR
an open source textbook and reference work on algebraic geometry
Just write it out. You have that f(x+y,x+y) = f(x,x+y) + f(y,x+y) since the function is linear in the first coordinate and then do the same thing for the second coordinate
@novel parrot
Though that may be because they have a weird 3rd definition of invertible moduule
but f isnt a homomorphism?
Again, f is a homomorphism in the first coordinate if you fix the second coordinate
So it's true that f(x+y,z) = f(x,z)+f(y,z) for any z
J is an ordered subset of {1,2,..., n}
so it has a k^th element
For example if J = {2,4,5,7}
then 5 is the third element of J
I don't see why this would result in a complex
The composition should be (-1)^something res_{{U_I},{U_K}}
I don't think this should be 0 in general
so i can understand why Aut(H)=1, but I don't understand what it has to do with corollary 14, which states that for any subgroup K of G, K is isomorphic to each of its G-conjugates.
i'm sure they just mean any automorphism will take that order 1 element to another order 1 element and the order 2 element to another order 2 element. but this forces that this map is the identity. maybe send the screenshot of corollary 14 for more clarity
i mean yeah that's how i thought about it too, i just didnt really get what it had to do with corollary 14.
reference
oh i know
"conjugate elements [...] have the same order"
i suppose that's what they were referring to, i didnt see that was a part of corollary 14
i guess, but not all automorphisms are achieved via conjugation
Z2 is too smol to be thinking like this lol
yeah lol
hi, guys, for a product of two ideals $IJ = {\sum^n_{i=1} a_i b_i : a_i \in I, b_i\in J}$, are $a_i$, $b_i$ fixed? I mean can I change $a_i$, $b_i$? So for example, can I write $IJ = {\sum^n_{i=1} a'_i b'_i : a'_i \in I, b'_i\in J}$ ?
cuiyuze0728
thanks
let G a group, why Hom(Z^n,G) is a subgroup of G^n?
Have you seen the fact that Hom(X oplus Y, Z) = Hom(X, Z) oplus Hom(Y, Z)
no
Well it kind of makes sense right
Like if i have a map f: X -> Z and a map g: Y -> Z
it defines a map X oplus Y -> Z by sending (x, y) to f(x) + g(y) right
lmao why did i say (f(x), g(y))
yes
it makes sense
So it suffices to show that Hom(Z, G) is isomorphic to G, no?
Because then Hom(Z^n, G) cong Hom(Z, G)^n cong G^n
yes
Uh sorry, ok so we dont have abelianness actually so we dont quite get the nice isomorphism through direct products
but we do have that Hom(A oplus B, G) is a subgroup of Hom(A, G) oplus Hom(B, G). if we have a map f: A oplus B -> G we can get maps f_A: A -> G by sending a to f(a, 1) and likewise f_B: B -> G by sending b to f(1, b).
so we can define a map Hom(A oplus B, G) -> Hom(A, G) oplus Hom(B, G) by sending f to (f_A, f_B). and to check injectivity just use the fact that if (f_A, f_B) = (g_A, g_B), f(a, b) = f(a, 1)f(1, b) = g(a, 1)g(1, b) = g(a, b)
@frank fiber sorry about the delay i am trying to explain this because this is a very important and useful property of Hom
But does this make sense? like we dont necessarily have an isomorphism of Hom(Z^n, G) with Hom(Z, G)^n but we know that its a subgroup of Hom(Z, G)^n
Sorry if this is a bit irrelevant, but if G is not abelian I’m pretty sure Hom(Z,G) is not even necessarily a group
it should be right, under multiplication of maps: (fg)(x) = f(x) g(x)
yes
fg(xy)=f(xy)g(xy)=f(x)f(y)g(x)g(y) but we can’t commute these terms to make it f(x)g(x)f(y)g(y) so it isn’t q homomorphism
well ig its like, maps from Z^n so these should commute in this case
or no nvm
yeah ok i dont see why this is a group lol
Yeah so I think the question should just be rephrased to give a bijection from this set to G^n which I think should still work out
(Ie f maps to ( f(e1),f(e2),..f(en) ) should still be a bijection atleast. (ei being the element (0,0,..1,0,0,..0)
You dont get surjecitivty when G is non-abelian because since the domain is abelian the image has to commute as well I think
the image is pairs of commuting elements in G
anyway so we know that Hom(Z^n, G) can be embedded as a subgroup of Hom(Z, G)^n (assuming that Hom(Z, G) has the structure of a group at all lol)
so it suffices to show that Hom(Z, G) cong G
you should try to construct the isomorphism on your own. remember that Z is generated by 1 so every homomorphism from Z into G is determined by the image of 1
the direct thing saketh talked about works too and strictly speaking this line of argument is not valid because G is non abelian so you cant really invoke the isomorphisms if u want to guarantee the group structure is preserved (it is tho lol) but like in any case where Hom(Z, G) has a group structure (which should be most of the time you need to do stuff like this) its better to think about the properties of Hom sets e.g factoring through direct sums, Hom(Z, G) cong G, etc
These are just good things to know
Ah yes you’re right, I’ll probably need the free product of Z or some other such nonsense to get things to work
Yes
The reason this works out nicely in Ab is that direct sums are coproducts in that category
but the coproduct in Grp is the free product
so sadly things do not factor quite so nicely
I have an extension $F = K(u,v)$ of a field $K$ of prime characteristic, where $u$ is separable over $K$. I am trying to prove that $F$ is a simple extension (of $K$). We can assume that $E:= K(u)$ is the maximal separable extension $S$ (intermediate to the extension $K\subset F$, otherwise, $S$ is a finite dimensional separable extension of $K$ and thus equals $K(w)$ for some $w\in F$, then $u\in K(w)$, so that $F = K(w,v)$). If I can show that every intermediate field to the extension $K\subset F$ either contains $E$ or is contained in $E$, then I am done (then there will be only finitely many intermediate fields to the extension $K\subset F$). Does anyone have any hints for how to proceed from here (I have found some other things but idk that any of them are helpful, e.g. that $v$ is purely inseparable over $E$, I think how to proceed from here might have something to do with factoring minimal polynomials but I haven't made a lot more progress than this)
𝓒𝓸𝓾𝓷𝓽𝓪𝓫𝓵𝓮
(I want to say that embedding into a normal closure of F won't really help either, if F were separable over K we would be done already)
(I know what to do if v is separable or purely inseparable over K, but not in the more general case)
I believe in the proof of the primitive element theorem we only need all but one of the elements to be separable, so we can directly say that this extension is simple
Do you know where I can see this proof? Maybe the one in Hungerford?
It is the same as the usual proof that shows that the primitive element of F(u,v) is some linear combination tu+rv. Is this the proof of the primitive element theorem you know? In any case this proof should be in milne’s field theory notes online. (I don’t know about hungerford, I haven’t read it)
I want to say that Hungerford did something different (I am following Hungerford), but I'll check out Milne, thanks 
Np
Yeah Milne 5.1, awesome
Nearly done with section 6 of 9 in Hungerford Field/Galois theory now 
Hi, can I ask a question? Is {0} a proper ideal?
I need to find an example that fit to a definition which says it should be a proper ideal. But I can't find any example beside {0}
Yes it is
oh, okaii. Thank you so muchh. I've read some books but there are different idea for proper ideal lol.
Well, a proper ideal is just an ideal that isn’t the whole ring usually. (So my answer actually uses the definition of a ring where 1!=0)
oh got it. it helps a lot.
Can you explain about 1!=0?? I often see it in a journal but don't understand it
I’m kinda curious, what is the original question?
So if we don’t have that rule, we can have a ring given by the set {0} where 0x0=0 and 0+0=0, you can check that this will satisfy all the other properties of a ring, so that 1!=0 is to exclude this
I see. So, that's the function of that notation. I'll remember it.
I've never seen that defn of a ring
In a field yes, we usually require that 0 and 1 are distinct
But the trivial ring is certainly a thing
the one I sent?
it's from a journal and I have a task to apply the definition on integral domain
No the notion that 0 and 1 have to be distinct
it excludes the trivial ring which is a bit odd
Unlike with fields there arent really many reasons to define {0} to not be a ring
Some people do that. There's no real disadvantage to not having it is there?
It is not the zero object of Ring, and without it you can define all ideals to be proper
Its the terminal object 
yeah
It doesnt matter too much
but is that as useful?
It lets you define maximal ideals as actual maximal ideals lol

what do you mean maximal ideals as actual maximal ideals
maximal ideals are actually maximal proper ideals 
It lets you say that every ring has a maximal ideal i guess
Yes but you still have the ideal consisting of the whole ring 
how does saying 0 neq 1 in a ring do that
Though ideal addition is no longer a thing 
The full ring is no longer a kernel
So you might want to redefine ideal so that it coincides with kernels
Oh I guess if you define ideals as kernels of ring homomorphisms then sure
Yeah
It doesnt really matter too much but it seems like it would get annoying
Like exact sequences in Ring for example

Ring is not an abelian category
Anyway, I didn’t really think about the convention that much, I just said some shit
oh yeah you can't have exact sequences in Ring anyway
You can in Rng though because ideals are subrngs

subrng lmao
I’m pretty sure Rng won’t be abelian either
Yeah but at least you would have kernels and quotients
That should be enough to define exactness
Like do it concretely
I don't see what the issue is. A ring is exactly an abelian group with an extra operation. Just that we often work with distributive unital associative rings.
I think he was just joking about the fact that we have just been arguing about the def of a ring for a while
No we work with distributive unital associative commutative noetherian rings
ohh
No others exist
😌
So im asked to find degree of extension field Q($\sqrt$(1+2*2^{(1/3)})$) over Q
Ramtin
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
ugh im so bad at latex
anyway
if a is a root of that polynomail --> a^2 = 1+ 2cuberoot2
so:
f(a) = a^6 -3a^4+3a^2-17 = 0
is f irreducible over Q?
if so then its degree is degree of [Q[x]/(f(x)) : Q[x]] = df = 6?
but not sure if f is irreducible or how to show that (over Q)
Eisensteins doesnt work
(i think)
Q(2^1/3):Q = 3
Then you just have to figure out if a is in the intermediate one or not
If it is then it’s a degree 3 extension cause they’ll be the same
Otherwise it’s a degree 6
Should be like Q(2^1/3, a) assuming a is the thing in the parentheses that you typed earlier
ohh
wouldnt a easy way be to show
f(x) mod p = 3 irred ---> f(x) irred in Q
then Q/ideal generated by f has degree of f over Q
it is
Let f∈Z[x] be a non-constant polynomial and let p be a prime number which is not a divisor of the leading coefficient of f. I need to prove that if f is irreducible over Zp, then f is irreducible over Q.
You might be able to work with this, it's (x²-2)³ in F_3
So you get no factorizations of the type 3+3
but it can have quadractic, cubic, type factors?
Wait why is this not possible
Didn't get this
this
Because no such factorizations are possible over F_3
Of type 3+3
x²-2 is irreducible
And F_3[x] has unique factorization
so x^6 - 2 cant factor as (x^2-2) is what ur saying :o?
yea sorry
Unless you're talking about 3 adics
so 3+3 is not possible, why is the other cases not possible?
2+2+2, 2+4?
1+5?
jk i get 1+5
Suppose 2+4 were possible
Then what could you say about the degree of the extension
the degree of extension [Q/f : Q] is what u mean right
o
You get that 2 or 4 divides that degree, because adjoining a means adjoining a root of f, ie a root of one of its irreducible factors
Ok wait so from first glance the most the degree could be is 6, and least is 1 (obviously not 1 since they are different fields)
oof there's one detail I missed, hopefully it works out lol
and if f(x) in F3
Also the degree divides 6
factors as 2+4 degree polynomials
i.e. quadratic * quadratic^2
that are both irreducible?
then Q(a)/Q has degreee 2, or 4
No, in F_3 the factorization is 2+2+2
But when you bring it back to Q (if possible)
It could turn out that a 2+2 part of it is irreducible
So it won't necessarily be quadratic² in !
In Q
o ur saying f(x) = x^6 - 2 = (x^2-2)^3
?
Yes
If there were a 3+3 or 5+1 factorization, it would reduce mod 3 to a factorization of that kind again
But it can't
wait so f is reducible.. so my idea wouldnt work regardless
oh
But you get information from how it reduces mod 3
ohh
Mod 3 reduction was used to eliminate the cases of 3+3 and 5+1
And now we have to eliminate 2+4
Ohhh
And you can do that by degree arguments, check what factors the degree of the extension should have
And that eliminates 2+4
damn this question lowkey hard
Would it be easier to check that a isn’t in Q(2^1/3)
maybe ext fields is easier
LMFAO
i was hoping showing f(x) irred over Q would be easy
I’d just do it some dumb way like write a as a linear combo and square both sides
I don't think there's a uniform way to check that but maybe you can just grind it out in this case
My solution is complete right?
Yea

