#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 596 of 407
I just have this power to affect people
Shika you are suddenly feeling like doing hw


Sorry for the late reply, this should work
Oh I’m an idiot lol thanks
Thanks
I figured it out
@latent night
Hey we can continue here
h^n means hhhhhh... n-times
Likewise (g'hg)ⁿ = g'hgg'hgg'hg...
Haha yeah I know just a reminder XD
The big deal here is that h is some element generated by an element of order n. So hⁿ = e
I feel like I need to prove that statement haha, or are you good with it?
The order of h divides n
i agree if h generated by a single element of order n, but couldnt you have h = ab for example where a and b have order n, but ab has some other order?
if a and b don't commute at least
Neat point, I didn't think of that, back to the drawing board I go!
A different approach that might work would be to embed G into a symmetric group using Cayley embedding and then prove that the set of all elements of order n generates a subgroup which has the property that if some g is in it, then everything with the same cycle structure as g is in it
And then use the fact that conjugation preserves cycle structure
I am pretty sure this works for finite G, should also work for infinite G but I am not sure because there may be some annoying details with infinite cycle structures
Take the presentation
<g,a,b : a² = 0, b² = 0>
Then ab is generated by elements of order 2, but g'abg is not
dont g'ag and g'bg have order 2
But my reasoning for that subgroup having that property is that when you look at S_m itself, and take the subgroup generated by {order n elements}, if g is in it and if some other h has the same cycle structure, you use some permutation to identify things that occur in the cycle representation of h with those in g
and then write essentially the same product but with this identification
and this is now normal in S_m
and a normal subgroup intersected with a subgroup is normal in that subgroup
Wait that's totally how you generate the elements
didn't get that
doesnt this give us an immediate proof? if h = a*b where a and b have order n, g'hg = g'ag * g'bg. then you can use induction on the factors of h
ohh
Yeah that exactly lol
You breaking my bad counter example gave the proof right away haha
Calculated. 
Cool question. I learned today.
thanks me too 
Not sure how well this fits here but I have a question about complex structures on real vector spaces. If we have a $2n$-dimensional real vector space $V$ together with a complex structure $J:V\to V$, then the complex structure extends to a $\mathbb{C}$-linear map $J:V^c\to V^c$ on the complexification $V^c=V\otimes_{\mathbb{R}}\mathbb{C}$. The map $J$ has eigenvalues $\pm i$, and we get a splitting $V^c=V^{(1,0)}\oplus V^{(0,1)}$ into the corresponding eigenspaces. Is there any intuition behind why one wants to consider this splitting, or even why we want to consider the complexification $V^c$? Since we already have a complex structure, we can already view $V$ as a complex $n$-dimensional vector space.
gustavn64
One can identify $V$ with $V^{(1,0)}$, for instance, but why do we want to consider $V^{(1,0)}$ in the first place?
gustavn64
I think it might be motivated by the study of the tangent bundles of complex manifolds, and in particular, to holomorphic and antiholomorphic functions, but is there any purely algebraic motivation?
the motivation behind it is to consider the holomorphic and antiholomorphic parts
it is a geometric object
I dont think there's any "algebraic" motivation
Is there a characterisation of diagonal matrices of GL_n(F) using only the group structure of GL_n(F)? For example the scalar matrices are exactly the matrices that commute with everything in the group.
What are scalar matrices?
matrices sI for s a scalar, I the identity
anyway im trying to think of multiplicative "diagonal iff ___" properties
but i cant think of anything
I think something like "normalizer of the center" might work out but I am not sure 
or centralizer of the center? 
wait no that would be stupid
both are the whole group 
What's a normal subgroup of GL_n(F)?
The center is one
Idk if it will be easy to characterize though
The problem I am given is actually to characterize the diagonalizable matrices
and that is doable by "there exists some P st P'MP is diagonal" where ' denotes inverse
but that requires that I already have a characterization of diagonal
You can't take that for granted?
nope
And apparently, it is also possible to characterize "diagonal matrices all of whose diagonal entries are distinct"
Because that's also a problem
Maybe we can try to characterize the matrices which are 1 at the ij-th place and 0 elsewhere
idk if that will solve the problem though
This is the exact problem I have, in case you wanna see what I am allowed to take for granted
Ah characteristic 0 should be relevant
0-definable meaning something a bit weaker than what I said, but essentially you can't refer to entries of the matrices, only how they multiply, ie you have to only use the group structure
This isn't even in the group so nvm
but it might be possible to do some of the elementary matrices
👀
(nvm, I can't read 🐒)

Can you speak of the characteristic subspaces and their dimensions ? I guess this goes a bit beyond the group structure, so no ? 
Characteristic subspace of K^n?
of a matrix
What is that 
M's characteristic subspace associated with lambda is the kernel of M - lambda Id
(but the subspace lives in K^n, yeah)
I don't think we can talk about any action of the group when we are doing definability
ok sadge
Can you refer to elements of the field?
Like, are we in the language of groups, or do we have the language of k-vector spaces as well?
I think the problem implies we are in the language of groups
But now that I read it it is a bit vague
How would we talk about the elements of GL_n with the language of vector spaces though?
(i was wondering how one would pin down sI for undefinable s otherwise, but these are just the center and I'm being stupid)
Right, it's not even closed under mul by zero or even addition
Groups it is then.
Yeah
Every definable subset has to be characteristic, right? Because definability cannot prefer elements over images under an aut, right?
Yes that's right
So „truly diagonal“ matrices should be indistinguishable from diagonalizable matrices
(except if they are scalar, because they are that iff they are in the center)
Ah because there's an inner automorphism sending any diagonal matrix to a merely diagonalizable one?
That would be my reasoning
Seems legit, so I guess either the problem is wrong or there is some language the author forgot to mention
Diagonal matrices commute with each other. Could diagonalizable be pinned down as „pairs of elements commute after suitable conjugation“?
c could still magically work out somehow
We would have to say something like "largest set with this pairwise property" I think
Doesn't seem possible
any matrix commutes with its inverse 
oof
Wait, so do you need a unary formula holding true at g iff g is in your set?
Or can you like quantify about elements in the set
Yeah that's how I interpreted it
You can quantify over the whole group
And hence over definable subsets
But not if we don't know the subgroup to be definable a priori
Ye I think your reasoning is valid, and should disprove b, though c in not sure
🤔
wdym by that
like if I pick a matrix M
how do you know if M is diagonalizable with what
okay wait I can't read
again
I think I should stop speaking, sry 
Okay, different question. Are there other obvious definable subsets besides the center?
Like, what even is the commutant of GL?
the whole set ?
We can talk about orders
So all finite order elements, subgroup generated by order n elements, etc
We should be able to take normalizer and centralizer of any definable thing
ohh commutator subgroups too 
yea all this stuff is fine in algebraic group land

I just got here by the way what is the main question 
Hm, but commutator subgroup would be like traceless stuff, that's pretty far from being diagonal and invertible
.
@prisma ibex
This
ah okay
I mean diagonalizable matrices are inherently torsion free but that doesn't exclude like rotations around an irrational angle in R²
Yep
Oh, but the centralizer of such a rotation would be the one-parameter subgroup of all rots (?), and that would contain torsion elements
Or is that too naive
I'm a little confused by the notion of \emptyset definable here
what is and is not allowed
What would one-parameter subgroup mean here? 
Definable using first order formulas
Without parameters
That was meant as a visual aid, I wanted to describe „all rotations around the same plane as the initial rotation“
Hmm not sure how you'd define that 
The centralizer of a diagonalizable matrix would be all elements that are diagonalizable wrt that same basis, right?
So the claim is that diagonalizable matrices commute with exactly diagonalizable matrices with same diagonalizing basis?
That's not true for all diagonalizable matrices so you'd have to pick one carefully I think
Nvm, I was hoping to build off of „g is torsion-free and every element in its centralizer is torsion-free“ but being torsion-free is not even fo definable, right?
Because for the identity matrix everything is in the centralizer
Ah, fair
Yeah torsion free will require infinitely many formulas
Do we require one unary formula?
The „distinct entries“ part could be characterized by „commutes with no element of order two“, because if two entries were equal, it would commute with the corresponding transposition matrix
Is the converse true as well?
Not commuting with any transposition → distinct entries?
yes ? If two entries are the same, you can pick the transposition swapping them, no ? 
wait
Are transpositions the only order 2 elements 
That's the contrapositive tho not the converse
The converse would be „if g diagble and commutes with some order two element, do two entries have to be equal?“
That's the contrapositive tho not the converse
yeah lol
I was confused too because I was like "wait, I just said what lux said" 
No, but any order two element has minimal polynomial (t-1)(t+1) giving you a decomposition into identity and swapping subspace of K^n
So direct sums of id and -id
The converse would be „if g diagble and commutes with some order two element, do two entries have to be equal?“
And the converse isn't true, because Diag(1,.., n) commutes with E_{2,2} whenever n > 2, right ? 🤔
I took converse of distinct entries → not commuting 
What's E_{2,2}
sry, wrong notation 
Not invertible
If it means matrix with 1 at 2,2 and 0 elsewhere
yeah, but that's because I'm dumb and I used the wrong notation

I meant matrix permuting the entry at (2,2) and the one at (1,1)
and leaving other as they are
this one is invertible, being its own inverse

contrapositive and converse are equivalent under the very useful "freshmans lemma"
(b implies a) implies (a implies b)
But left multiplication with that would transpose row 1, row 2 while the right mul would do the same to the cols
That is not the same, hence doesn't commute with diag(1,2,…)
The 2 things are the same for diagonal matrices though
But not for the elementary 1-2 transposition matrix
yes, again I'm being dumb, sorry 😓
I would typeset an example but that would require me to get out of bed and it's not even 1pm

Btw the string diagrams you told me about were extremely helpful, I'm using them for a lot of stuff in mac lane and life is so much easier
Yw
Ah, the converse does not hold. Take diag(1,2) and as an order-two element diag(-1,1), which transposes (1,1) and (-1,1). These clearly commute.
At least we know that whatever commutes with a diagonalizable matrix g must preserve its eigenspace decomposition
In particular, if all diagonal entries of g are distinct, this ensures that all of these eigenspaces are one-dimensional, giving that an element commutes with g iff it is also diagonal wrt the same basis.
In particular, this centralizer is still abelian
A good litmus test would be in GL(2,ℝ): How could we identify diag(1,2) to be part of the set of all diagonalizable matrices with distinct entries in a way that is not satisfied by r = rotation around an irrational angle?
Also, my torsion idea was pretty stupid because diag(1,i) has order 4 in GL(2,ℂ).
I didn't get how the second part followed
oof
The problem mentions characteristic 0 so we should have to use that somewhere
Sup, guys. I would like to know if you guys have any pdf of Lie Algebra, have you?
fulton and harris's book on group representations has lots of lie algebra, but it's more on the combinatorics side than the geometric side
Because if h commutes with g, h leaves all the eigenspaces of g invariant – all of which are one-dimensional.
Lie theory here or in #point-set-topology ?
if it's more along the lines of like the exponential map or things like that then #point-set-topology if it's more along the lines of representation theory then #groups-rings-fields
It is about Iwasawa decomposition
That doesn't seem right, any matrix commutes with the identity
Saketh gave a solution assuming this is in the language of fields. G is a definable subset of K^n and we want to define subsets of it. But then the whole problem becomes trivial because you can talk about individual entries, and you can define things like inverses and and matrix multiplication
But this does not seem to require characteristic to be 0
This feels disappointing but it fits the rest of the problems because it is a model theory book and the algebra required for most of the things in it is pretty trivial
I am still interested in the original thing I asked though
Lol
Hello Daminark
Do you know about iwasawa decomposition
Yes I did
Do you know anything about it
Disappointing
Do I need to know anything about the construction of fiber products of schemes to do this "by hand"?
Which book?
Hodges
Sorry I'm back I was playing a lot of smash. I know vaguely about Iwasawa decomposition yeah
What is the status on computing an iwasawa decomposition?
Do efficient algorithms exist for this?
yes
it reduces to the QR decomposition, where good algorithms exist and are well-studied
Let B be a finitely gen'd graded A-ring. Is Proj B --> Spec A a separated morphism?
Thanks
Yes, and the identity is diagonal in every basis.
Non diagonalizable matrices will also commute with it, that seems contradictory
The identity doesn't qualify for g in this case because g is required to have distinct entries when it's in diagonal form
Thanks I guess this answers my question
Hi guys :D. I wanned to know if the weyl group of type does have a name ?
*of type D
consider the set $S= {a,b,c}$ with the binary operation $*$ defined as follows:
$aa=a, ab= b= ba, ac= c= c*a$
$bb= a, bc= c, cb= b, cc= a$
Mentally I calculated, if associativity holds, I started with the non-commutative results to get $bc= c$ and $cb= b$ like, $b*(bc)= bc= c= ac= (bb)*c$.
But is there any general method, rather than showing that it holds or not, verifying each and every possible combinations to show the associativity holds or doesn't holds for the whole set.
Alternatively, is there any trick to easily locate one such combination for which the associativity doesn't holds so that I can conclude Associative property doesn't works so its not even a semi-group.
S k
I'm not too familiar with methods for testing associativity, but here's some stuff I came up with for this case:
If $$ was associative, then S would be a group, as $a$ is an identity, and each element is it's own inverse. However, $b$ and $c$ would then have order 2, which is impossible in a group order 3. So $$ must not be associative.
It looks like an example of associativity failing is
$$b * (c * b) = a \neq b = (b * c) * b$$
The_Vman
When people talk about quotienting by a kernel as an equivalence relation, they mean the equivalence relation defined by the fibers of the homomorphism, right?
Ye
making sure I understand this example, this is saying that the quotient group (G/K) is isomorphic to the kernel (K)?
No, the quotient group should be isomorphic to the image of phi
oh shit, totally misread

I think that's the first isomorphism theorem
it is
:catBigEyes:
Is there any significant ideas in Category theory correspond to the 1st isomorphism theorem? From a starter in category theory🤔
lookup abelian categories
if two rings' multiplicative groups are isomorphic, and the additive groups are isomorphic, does that necessarily mean the rings are isomorphic?
nope, consider R^n and R^m
as I say this I realised that I'm unsure if they are iso as multiplicative groups
I think Z^ω and Z[x] × Z^ω works
The units in both cases are exactly the tuples in which all entries are ±1 and there's an obvious isomorphism. The additive groups are isomorphic because both factors in the second ring are the same as abelian groups
I hope multiplicative group means group of units under multiplication
What are a, b, c?
Is this the formula for some discriminant?
yes

its the general discriminant of a cubic
That seems wrong because a, b, c could be algebraically independent
In which case a²b² - c² has to be non zero
Also a=1,b=1,c=0 gives 1
What made you think it would be 0
this, but i think ive realised where ive gone wrong. it would be non singular iff the cubic and its derivative have a gcd of 1, but if p = 2 then the discriminant of the derivative would be zero and then common roots and then singular points
so my bad
i forgive you
thank you :)
This may be wayy, wayy to basic for abstract algebra, but... if you apply an automorphism twice is that always an identity
👉 👈
No, consider doubling in the group Q under addition
Applying this twice is quadrupling, not the identity
why are submodules of K cyclic?
I dont think theyre saying all A-submodules of K are cyclic
theyre saying that K is a colimit of that class of cyclic submodules
ohhhh wait, i remember now. A module is the colimit of its finitely generated submodules. thats why this works
and um, a finitely generated submodule of K is cyclic cuz you can just find a common denominator of all the generators
you probably need stronger conditions on the ring to do that
oh no nvm it's fine
ye that works
epic
I retract my 🤨 I forgot K was a field...... :(
I'm trying to understand the construction of the tensor product of vector spaces. So it's the free vector space $F(V\times W)$ on the formal products $v_i\otimes w_j$ quotiented by the bilinearity relation.
modus ponens
So is the free vector space $F(V\times W)$ just the vector space that is generated by using the formal products as a basis?
modus ponens
Yes
But VxW here is not the direct product, right? They just use the same symbol?
But isn't VxW supposed to be one dimensional? It's the set of formal products, right? Not ordered pairs
The formal product v \otimes w can just be considered as another notation for (v, w).
And you can see that the free vector space generated by the pairs v \otimes w is naturally isomorphic to the free space generated by (v, w), it's just a matter of notation.
damn structuralists
Lol
Np
Hey I found an algebra problem I'm stuck on: Show that the A_11 has no subgroups of order 2,851,200
The prime decomposition is 2^7 3^4 5^2 11 and the size of A_11 has size 2^7 3^4 5^2 7 11
anyone willing to help me out?
My thought so far was that since it's simple, I could show that if there was such a subgroup it must be normal
which would lead to a contradiction
But I'm not sure how I would do that lol
$2851200=2^{7}\cdot3^{4}\cdot5^{2}\cdot11$ and $|A_{11}|=\frac{11!}{2}=2^{7}\cdot3^{4}\cdot5^{2}\cdot7\cdot11$.
Clearly, we can see that $2851200\not\vert\frac{11!}{2}$
there shouldn't be an 11^2 there
I used Wolfram Alpha.
It's 2^7 3^4 5^2 11
Oh yes, you're right, I mistyped.
Elliptic Curve of Rank 9001
Well I was just going to use Lagrange's theorem, but thanks to my mistyping that won't work.
I'm wondering if Sylow's Theorems might be useful here.
No, I thought I had something, but it doesn't seem to be working.
Yeah I looked into using sylow's theorems and wasn't able to get anything either
This doesn't seem right. When it says that pi and pi' agree on closed points, I think of that as meaning that they induce the same map of stalks at the closed points
But the way it is written, it only seems to suggest looking at pi as a purely topological map
Then isn't P_2 x P_3 x P_5 x P_11 a subgroup of that order, where P_i is the sylow-i subgroup
The product is internal product and it should be direct because everything has co prime order
I got this from a qualifying exam practice list so I don't think there's a typo... But I see what you mean
quick question
Let G be a finite group whose order is not divisible by 3. Suppose that $(ab)^3=a^3b^3$ for all $a,b\in G$ prove that G is abelian.
Abdo Kiza
is it $(ab)^3=(ab)^2 * (ab) = a^3 * b^3 => (ab)^3 * (b^{-1}a^{-1})=a^3 * b^3 * (b^{-1}a^{-1}) =a^3b^2a^{-1}$
Abdo Kiza
why would that prove it?
oh rip
first consider aba^-1 and b^-1 as separate
i didnt read for all a,b
And then consider ab and a^-1b^-1 as separate
order not divisible by 3 means a^3n != 0?
You should get a^2 b^3 = b^3 a^2
ok
But in that case everything commutes with a
so (aba^-1b^-1)^3 = (aba^-1)^3(b^-1)^3
and (aba^-1b^-1)^3=(ab)^3(a^-1b^-1)^3
Let the order be n. Use that there exists p and q integers such that pn + 3q = 0
oh ok
we are saying 3q because the order isnt divisible by 3 so its coprime
i forgot name of this theorem
ive used it enough that i should know the name
It follows from the division algorithm
Once you know this, you're just an algebraic party trick away from solving the problem
I think
division algorithm is for rings though?
no i meant that there exist p and q such that pn + 3q = 0
oh ok
Do you want me to give you the answer?
this is for saying something aobut the order
nah dont give me the answer until like 10 minutes from now
Cool cool
wtf
ig i did the algebra wrong
after getting here
so (aba^-1b^-1)^3 = (aba^-1)^3(b^-1)^3
and (aba^-1b^-1)^3=(ab)^3(a^-1b^-1)^3
i set (aba^-1)^3(b^-1)^3 = (ab)^3(a^-1b^-1)^3
and tried to reduce it
but that sounds silly
it went like $(ab)^3(a^{-1}b^{-1})^3 = (ab)^3(a^{-1}b^{-1})^2(a^{-1}b^{-1})=(aba^{-1})^3(b^{-1})$ and then we can get that $(ab)^3(a^{-1}b^{-1})^2=(aba^{-1})^3(b^{-1})ba=(aba^{-1})^3(a)$
Abdo Kiza
oh i think i got what u meant nvm
Say I have a finite galois extension characteristic p fields (can even assume the degree is p)
Is it clear that the trace function is surjective?
atm im struggling to get a^2 b^3 = b^3 a^2, but im guessing with ur trick id do something like (ab)^(pn+3q)=e
Try raising aba^-1b^-1 to that power
how did tou get that a^2b^3=b^3a^2
Ah ignore that
Just consider (aba^-1b^-1)^pn+3q
And just stare at it for a while
Your solution should fall right out
If not, I'm happy to go into more detail
nah idk
i just get (aba^-1b^-1)^pn * ((aba^-1b^-1)^q)^3 = e
or am i supposed to have (aba^-1b^-1)^pn * ((aba^-1b^-1)^3)^q = e
yea no clue
oh wait
ababab=aaabbb=> ababa=aaabb
(ab)^2a=a^3b^2
rip wrong way
or maybe baba=aabb
so (ba)^2=a^2b^2
yeah i give up
Okay so (aba^-1b^-1)^pn+3q = 1
Expanding the left side out gives us (aba^-1b^-1)^pn * (aba^-1b^-1)^3q which equals (aba^-1b^-1)^3q
Probably should call the identity element 1
One sec
Ahh I made a mistake
Give me a minute
Yes so aba^-1b^-1 has order dividing 3q
Wait nvm
That was my bad
I meant to say pn+3q=1
I'm sorry about the confusion
i think the name starts with a b
i think we can bruit force though
(ab)^3=ababab=aaabbb=a^3b^3
(ba)^2=a^2b^2
using that (aba^-1b^-1)^3q=(aba^-1b^-1)
we have ((aba^-1b^-1)^3)^q=(aba^-1b^-1)
(a(ba)^2b)^q =(aba^-1b^-1)
I'm sure there's some slick way to do this
yea imma look it up
ok
they use fact that x->x^3 is injective homomorphism
they get ab^4=a(ab)^3b=a^4b^4=ab^3a^3b
so they brute force it and get a^3b^3=b^3a^3, since f is injective they have f(ab)=f(ba) =>(ab)^3=(ba)^3=>ab=ba
x->x^3 is injective homomorphism because the kernel of the function is trivial since x^3=>x=0
hey, guys!
do you guys know about a book detailing the conjugacy classes of SL(V) and PSL(V) for arbitrary finite vector space V?
it looks like in GL(V) the conjugacy class g^(GL(V)) is completely determined by its Jordan-Chevalley decomposition, but it is not clear to me when would a conjugacy class of GL(V) split into several conjugacy classes in SL(V)
can someone help with this one?
@echo plinth Wrong channel. Also, is this a quiz?
the exact same question was posted in another channel...

can you ping me when someone answers you
in macdonald's symmetric functions and hall polynomials, i see this in section 2. is the index on the coefficients a supposed to be "lambda COMMA mu" i.e., indexed by lambda and mu, or is it the pointwise product of the partitions?
lmk if this should be moved to the combinatorics channel
it makes sense to me that it would be "lambda COMMA mu" but macdonald introduced the product notation earlier in the book and so it has caused me some confusion
Whats going on with the stuff about factors of the tensor product being the compositum
aren't ideals and normal subgroups supposed to be analogous structures for rings and groups?
because in that case why is it for ideals the condition is "closed under left/right multiplication with elements from the ring" while for normal subgroups it's "closed under conjugation with elements from the group"
The conditions are to make the quotient ring/group well-defined
If you look at it, ideals are required to also be closed under conjugation under the additive group, as the additive group is abelian
how does an ideal have to do with the addition operation?
Ideals being closed under addition automatically implies that addition on the quotient ring is well defined because the addition group of a ring is abelian, which means an ideal is a normal subgroup of the addition group.
It being closed under multiplication is an additional condition made so that multiplication in the quotient ring is well defined.
"Ideals being closed under addition automatically implies" yea but who said ideals had to be closed under addition?
assuming "closed" here means r + k \in I for r \in R and k \in I where R is a ring and I is an ideal
Closed under addition means adding things in the ideal gives something in the ideal
What you are describing would be called absorbing addition from R
oh I think my confusion was from the fact that all ideals are subrings
so the "closed under addition" part isn't specific to ideals but all subrings
I get it now
Larry C. Grove "Classical Groups and Geometric Algebra", chapter 1.
The author shows that transvections generate SL(V) (Theorem 1.4), as well as some conjugacy results.
Just making sure: the zariski topology on P^1_k is basically just the cofinite topology, just like for one-dimensional affine space?
it didn't answer my question unfortunately, but thanks for the suggestion!
for anyone interested the case is this:
n>1, q a prime power.
-
When F_q has no n-th roots of unity, in other words (n, q-1)!=1 mod n, then SL(n,q) is a direct factor of GL(n,q), so in particular none of the conjugacy classes split
-
when F_q has an nth root of unity then the conjugacy classes that split are exactly the ones that have a single Jordan block of size n
I tried to write out solution to this problem in detail. can someone take a look.
suppose $f$ be element of some $S_n$ such that $f^3=(1, 2, 3)$. If $f(1)\neq 2$ or $3$ then $f^3(f(1))=f(1)$ and so $f^3(1)=1$ a contradiction. If $f(1)=2$ then $f^4(1)=f(2)=3$ and similarly $f(3)=f^4(2)=1$ so we cannot have $f^3=(1, 2, 3)$. Similary we get contradiction if $f(1)=3$ as we get $f(2)=1$ and $f(3)=2$.
bert
there should be a sleeker solution
I don't get how you deduce that f⁴(1) = f(1)
ah I see
if f(1) is not 1,2,3 it is fixed by (1,2,3) = f³
also not very clear how you get f(2)=3 when f(1)=2
$f^4(1)=ff^3(1)=f(2)$ and $f^4(1)=f^3f(1)=f^3(2)=3$
bert
yeah
so after the exercise i constructed $r$ as the product $hs$ where if $s$ is a flip about the line going through the vertex with index 1 of a rigid polygon and its center then $h$ is a flip about the line going through the midpoint of 1 and 2 and the center of the rigid polygon. I got this just from messing around with a square, pentagon, and hexagon. Does this construction hold up geometrically for all polygons and is there some intuitive reason why it works?
Little Narwhal
okay so i checked the general case with some matrices it does check out
i think it's kinda cool that you can get a rotation from mirroring twice
Look back in ch 1 to see how they computed the tensor product of two etale Algebras
Its contained in some proof
This is part of a more general phenomenon of reflection groups
Interesting
Can someone confirm this proof outline for me? The question is:
Let $G$ be a group with $|G|=105$, suppose that the 3-Sylow subgroup of $G$ is normal, then $G$ is abelian.
Proof is as follows:
We have that $105=3\cdot5\cdot7$, therefore the unique 3-Sylow subgroup $P$ of $G$ (It is unique as a consequence of the Sylow Theorem which states all p-Sylow groups form a conjugacy class, therefore if it is only conugate to itself it must be unique) is cyclic of order 3, and therefore its automorphism group is isomorphic to $C_3$, which is of order 2.
Consider $\iota:G \rightarrow AutP$ which takes an element $g$ to the corresponding conjugation automorphism (This is well-defined as $P$ is normal and therefore conjugation invariant), its image is either of order 1 or 2. It cannot be of order 2 as by the 1st isomorphism thm. And Lagrange this would mean that
$$\frac{|G|}{|Im \iota|}=\frac{|G|}{2}=|ker \iota|$, but 2 does not divide 105, therefore the image of $iota$ is trivial, but this means that $P<Z(G)$.
Note that $\sfrac{G}{P}$ is of order $35=7\cdot 5$, I've shown previously that groups of this form (of order $pq$ with $p<q$ primes where $q\nmid p-1$) is cyclic, and so in particular $\sfrac{Z(G)}{P}\leq \sfrac{G}{P}$ is cyclic as a subgroup of a cyclic group.
Finally, the center is always normal, therefore from the 3rd isomorphism theorem we have that
$$\sfrac{G}{Z(G)}=\sfrac{\sfrac G P}{\sfrac{Z(G)}{P}}$$
Is cyclic as the quotient of a cyclic group, but it is known that if this quotient is cyclic, then $G$ is abelian, as required.
ShiN
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I don't.think I actually used the uniqueness of the 3-Sylow.group. In hindsight the question might have stated uniqueness and you had to deduce normality
Oh and of course i've shown before that $\iota$ is a homomorphism
ShiN
I am looking at your answer, and I just read the first 8 lines, I am not sure how you eliminate the situation when G has 7 3-Sylow groups
Uniqueness comes from normality
Though that first isomorphism theorem looks wrong
Swap image and kernel
Never mind I am a dumb 3-Sylow group being unique is said in the question ...
😂😂
It’s correct,except a small error . I think it should be “p doesn’t divide q-1”
is there an obvious way to show Z/60Z localized at 2Z is Z/4Z? (i'm doing ravi vakil's alg geo notes and this is on page 144.) a better question would be is it easy to tell what Z/nZ localized at a prime looks like. (I was doing Z/12Z at 2Z by hand, but the zero divisors make it extremely annoying. i gave up halfway through checking the equivalence relation on half the fractions)
Brofibration
localization commutes with direct sum
you commute with direct sum
oh lol they wrote down the iso in the screenshot 
what do you need help with
proving Z_(2) (x) Z/3Z = 0?
hint: every element in Z_(2) is divisible by 3
@ivory trail
the direct sum decomp is pretty much the chinese remainder theorem
trying to figure out if there's way to do it without that
so if there's an easy way to compute (Z/60Z)_(2)
there is
you do chinese remainder

chinese remainder theorem isnt really doing anything
it just makes it easier to analyse
then i'm not sure what the point of the underlined statement is
like how do you "just check" the stalks
he's asking you to compute the localization
prove that the localization at 2 is Z/4Z
yeah but the conclusion of this whole aside is the isomorphism given by the chinese remainder theorem
so i am trying to figure out how to prove that that is the localization without using it
Umm there's a map Z/60Z ---> Z/4Z
this map sends everything outside (2) to a unit
so it factors through the localization
it is surjective
assume a/b is in the kernel
this implies a is 0 in Z/4Z 
so is this the nontrivial part 
assume something is outside 2Z/60Z. Then it cant be 0 or 2 mod 4
so it does get mapped to a unit
so it does work 
what
@ivory trail do you see any holes in the argument
im a bit sleepy so it could definitely be BS
let me think
a maps to zero in Z/4Z but we still have to argue that a=0
maybe vakil just didn't do it
without the chinese remainder theorem
because that's definitely the most obvious way
a/1 = 0/1 in the localization iff sa = 0 for some s outside (2)
right?
ye
15 is outside (2)
a is 0 mod 4
@ivory trail
I just didn't wanna write the first implication from the isomorphism thm but it's just dividing by the order of the image and multiplying by the order of the kernel
What is the name of this property on S?
$$
(\forall m \in S)(\forall n \in S)(\forall p \in S) (m \leq n) \Rightarrow (m \cdot p \leq n \cdot p)
$$
JohnDark
Ah I see, mb
I think translation-invariant
@chilly radish thank you!
I need some help with this. What i was thinking so far and got stuck:
Suppose K is the subgroup of index 56. S8, K are finite so the order of K must be 720 (8!/56). Initially i was thinking about Sylow theorem to prove the existence of this subgroup but 720 cannot be written as p^n where p is a prime(same for 20). Any suggestion? Thanks!
And in general how can i find the number of cyclic subgroups of a given group and their order?
can someone take a look at my solution to this problem?
(a)I know this result from Kummer theory but I try to prove it explicitly here. Let $K \cong F[x] /(x^2+ax+b)$. By completing the square $x^2+ax+b=(x+ \frac{a}{2})^2-(\frac{a}{2})^2+b$. Define homomorphism $F[y]\rightarrow F[x] /(x^2+ax+b)$ by $y\mapsto x+\frac{a}{2} $. We have isomrophism $F[y]/(y^2-((\frac{a}{2})^2-b))\cong F[x] /(x^2+ax+b)$. We also have $F[y]/(y^2-((\frac{a}{2})^2-b))\cong F[\sqrt{(\frac{a}{2})^2-b}]$. \
(b) Consider $F_2 [x] /(x^2+x+1)$. It is a degree $2$ extension of $F_2$ but cannot be obtained by attaching square root of any element of $F_2$ because all square roots are contained in $F_2$.
bert
a direct summand of free modules is free?
Ye this works. For the first one you can also say that adjoining a root of a quadratic is the same as adjoining its discriminant (will be the same proof probably since the quadratic formula is derived from completing the square)
I don't know of a general method, but one strategy might be to think of a group of order 720 and then try to find it inside S8. I don't think the cyclic group of order 720, or a product like $\bZ/60\bZ \times \bZ/12\bZ$ is in S8, but can you think of any others?
The_Vman
@keen oasis
I think you need to guess the subgroup of index 56. What is special about 720 that you can use is that 720=120*6, both of which numbers are factorials of natural numbers. I'm sure you can guess the solution from here.
As for the question about cyclic subgroups of certain sizes, the question can be asked differently this way: can you find an element of order 20? How should it look like?
@keen oasis
(yeah the number is way too big for the group to be abelian, as a subgroup of S_8, I guess
)
Btw, this is closely related to Landau's function, which is an integer sequence $g(n)=$the size of the largest cyclic subgroup of $S_n$
kadmate
(720 itself is also the factorial of a natural number)
And g(n) is asymptotically known by Landau, very intersting imo
I never thought about 720 being both a factorial of a natural number and the product of two factorials
Now that I think about it, that shouldnt be very rare though
Yeah, I didn't realize it was the product of two factorials until you mentioned it
Well, it is, but there are infinitely many examples i think
👀 really?
when do we have nontrivial solutions to a!b!=c!
c=a+b is sort of the first thing I would think about
then in that case it's looking at binomial coefficients equal to 1 which is a trivial case
$n!!= (n! - 1)! n! $
$n!!= (n! - 1)! n!$
kadmate
what is n!! here, is that (n!)!
Yeah, I'm not very axtuce in that channel sorry
Yeah, im a bit lazy :D
nice I see cool example
are these the only cases?
sorry if I'm derailing whatever was going on continue if this isn't that interesting lol
My intuition is that they should be the only ones
But I cant think about a Quick explanation
noticing we can also generalize this to have infinitely many examples where n! is the product of m factorials
n!!! = n!(n!-1)!(n!!-1)! for instance lol
can you elaborate more? i can see how Z/(60) is mapped into (Z/(60))_(2), so that a/1 = (a mod 4)/1 for all a in Z/(60), but what about other denominators, like 3/7 or something? what equivalence class do they fall into, i.e. what a/1 are they equal to?
appreciate the help btw
@ivory trail in general everything will not be of the form a/1 in the localization.
im not sure why you need that tho
I think you need to guess the subgroup of index 56. What is special about 720 that you can use is that 720=120*6, both of which numbers are factorials of natural numbers. I'm sure you can guess the solution from here.
As for the question about cyclic subgroups of certain sizes, the question can be asked differently this way: can you find an element of order 20? How should it look like?
@crystal lion
So S5×S3?
And about the order, yes 20 is to bigger, if i thake a permutation from S8 the its order will be the lcm of nr of elemnts in its disjoint cylcles. So it can be 20, i think the greatest order is 15
Yes, $S_5\times S_3$ can be embedded into $S_8$ for instance. Fun fact: it is a maximal subgroup of $S_8$, so any subgroup strictly containing it is the whole group itself. Or as observed $S_6$ is of the same order (which however is not maximal). The only thing left to do is finding these groups in $S_8$,but that is easy.
I think you've pretty much figured out the second, just prove it more rigorously, 15 is the order of the largest cyclic group in $S_8$.
kadmate
@keen oasis
Thanks a lot!
are $\mathbb Z[1/2,1/2^2,\dots]$ and $\mathbb Z [1/3,1/3^2 , \dots ]$ isomorphic as modules over $\mathbb Z$?
they are not isomorphic as rings
bert
Suppose there exists an isomorphism of abelian groups, and consider the orders of elements
isn't order of any element infinite? (because 0 is the identity and not 1 )
1 has to map to 1.
This isn't true if they're modules over Z
The 0 endomorphism is also allowed
Excellent hint. We look at the image of 1/2 if it is x then image of 1/2^2 is x/2 and so on. But we cannot go on dividing x by 2!
Yep 
Did u have something else in mind
Nope, that's exactly it
Let $R \subset \mathbb{C}[x]$ be a subring that properly contains $\mathbb{C}$, I want to prove that $\mathbb{C}[X]$ is a finitely generated $R$ module.
MisterSystem
I think that I should pick a p(x) \in R a non constant polynomial
And prove that {1,i, p(x)} generates C[x], but I am not sure
That won’t work, adding i p(x) and 1 will not generate anything new as an R module as they are already in R. Instead you want to add elements in C[x] that are not in R. Here is a hint: given g in C[x] what does division with remainder by p give you?
yeah, I can always write g \in C[x] as g(x) = p(x) q(x)+r(x) with q(x),r(x) \in C[X] and 0 ≤ deg r(x) < deg p(x)
I was thinking about using the fact that C[x] is an euclidean domain
Well, here is one more hint to get you a bit further: ||can you think of a finite set of polynomials that will generate the polynomials of degree<deg(p)||
{1,...,x^{deg p(x)-1} }, but I would have to prove that such a set is in R
Nope
Also we aren’t done just yet, can you fill in the last part of the proof
Ok so let deg p(x) = n
We want to prove that there exists u_1(x),...,u_n(x) such that for all g in C[x] we have that g(x) = a_1 u_1(x)+ ... + a_k u_k(x) for a_1, ... , a_k in R.
Let p(x) in R be such that deg p (x) > 0.
So, for all g(x) in C[x], there exists q(x), r(x) such that g(x) = p(x) q(x) + r(x) with 0 ≤ deg r(x) < n.
We then consider the set {1, ... , x^{n-1}}.
Now, I don't really know what should be the last step
Well the r(x) part of g(x) is easily generated, the only problem is the q(x). So how do we generate q(x)? We do the same thing again
We may have to do this division by p(x) many times, but the degree of the thing we are dividing by keeps eventually it will be lower than n, so then generate it by the set
Does this make sense to you?
Np
The fact that this process of iterative euclidean division eventually stops has to do with the fact that C[X] is noetherian ?
I think of it more like the reverse. It has to do with the fact that it is a euclidean domain and then euclidean domains are all noetherian and the proof will hinge on the fact that division gives a remainder of smaller size
why are a=(1 +√5)/2 and b=(1−√5)/2 distinct in the group Zp where p is a prime not equal to 2 and 5? I made some observations that a+b=1 and a-b=sqrt5=0, but not sure how to go from there
since 2 and p are coprime, it suffices to show 2a ≠ 2b
similarly we just need to show 2a-1 ≠ 2b-1
This is to say, 2sqrt(5) ≠ 0
But if 2sqrt(5) = 0 then 2 = 0 or sqrt(5) = 0, neither of which is the case
@opal cedar
👍 Thanks! I didn't realize that p!=2 can be used toward the argument! Thank you so much.
Does k(A) here mean the fraction field of A?
Yes
Eisenbud speaks about this very poetically in his commutative algebra book
He points out that it wasn't too long before this result was published that Peano had challenged people's intuition about dimension with his space filling curve.
Peano's curve snaking through R^2 was like a "snake in the Garden of Eden", forcing analysts and geometers to leave paradise and deal with point set topology But the results of Krull and Noether show that for algebraic geometry "there is no snake in the garden"
what field studies the snakes in the garden? 
herpetology
i mean, its not wrong...
feel like rougher versions of DG
o no
is that why they call studying differential forms "riding the dragon"
they do!??
do they call it that
no but we could start
we should
im riding the moving frame 😎
I was riding the dragon all night 

maybe we shouldn't lmao
petition to rename "moving frame" to "dragon" and to change cartan's profession to "dragon tamer"
> find differential forms super confusing
> "aw man I've been riding this bad dragon for a while"
die

shamrock warned arc
Shamrock did you end up giving that presentation to your homological algebra class on Dold-Kan or spectral sequences or whatever
😌
On dold kan yeah
Months ago
It was fun!
Didn't end up talking about the monad pov
been thinking a lot about simplicial methods in homological algebra the past couple months. I keep coming back to it. it's really fascinating
Ooh nice
sheafified_sarah on twitter has posted a lot about the philosophy of chain complexes and lately i dmed her this long ass rant about dold kan hoping she'd find it interesting
i don't think that's actually her name, i can't remember her actual @ but i'm sure you know who i mean
Hello. Is the semidirect product of $Z_n$ and $Z_2$ with respect to the automorphism of inversion on $Z_n$ the group $D_{2n}$? If so, why?
MathPhysics
It's easiest to think of Dn in terms of an internal semidirect product
Dn is presented by two generators r, f with the relations r^n = 1, f^2 = 1, frf = r^-1
Here r is a minimal rotation and f is a reflection
||deez nuts||
The subgroup N generated by r is cyclic of order n and it's normal due to the relation frf = r^-1
The subgroup K generated by f intersects this subgroup H trivially and HK = G
So G is isomorphic to the semidirect product of H and K, with K acting on H via conjugation
But we know frf = frf^-1 = r^-1, so the action of K on H is just by conjugation
Thanks.
Can I get a hint?
use the geometric series to get an idea,
then simplify the expression, and then verify that thing works all the time (so that we don't need to worry about the convergence of that series)

Hi, ive been struggling with finding an example of a torsion module over a PID which has annihilator equal to the null ideal, is there one?
Direct sum over natural numbers n > 1, of Z/nZ, as modules over Z. Any element has finitely many non zero entries so has torsion (multiply by lcm of corresponding n) but no integer annihilates everything
oh it makes sense, thanks! 😄
question about notation: if we are viewing $A \otimes B$ as an $R$-module, why is $S$ the subscript instead? im not really understanding the notation here, couldnt we have written $A \otimes_R B$ ?
xy
because the tensoring is over the ring S.
when we talk about tensoring two modules $M,N$, we are always more explicitly talking about tensoring a right $S$-module $M$ with a left $S$-module $N$ for some ring $S$, and if the ring is ambiguous, we must specify it. The structure of the resulting gadget is different depending on what ring we tensor over, as in in the tensor product all elements of the form $ms\otimes n - m\otimes sn$ must be zero for all $m \in M, n\in N, s\in S$. Thus the choice of ring $S$ matters.
diligentClerk
It's not possible to define $A\otimes_RB$ in the example you've given, because $B$ isn't a left $R$-module, and $A$ isn't a right $R$-module.
diligentClerk
ahhhh right, so just because "R acts on the resulting structure" doesnt mean that $R$ is in the subscript, the subscript denotes whatever ring that gives you the "linearity relations"
xy
got it, thanks!
\yep
anyone here familiar with sl_2-modules and weight modules? I would need some clarification about a part of a proof
,tex Suppose that $G$ is an abelian $p$-group such that [G\cong C_{p^{e_1}}\times...\times C_{p^{e_r}}] with $e_1\ge ...\ge e_r \ge 1$. Why does the subgroup [G^p=\left{g\in G:: g^p=1\right}] has order $p^r$?
the order of each element divides p, so it can't be anything else
oh wait, i guess you mean why p^r where r is given as above hmm
just write down the element (g1, g2, ..., gr). this is in that subgroup if and only if each g_i^p = 1 in C_{p^{e_i}}.
you should have enough experience with these to conclude that g_i would be one of h^0, h^1,..., h^{p-1} where h = g^{p^{e_i - 1}} for a generator g.
so each g_i has p options which means that tuple has p^r options.
(also the notation you used is kinda misleading G^p usually means {g^p for g in G}, this does form a subgroup when G is abelian)
Unfortunately I don't have that much experience with that. Neither I understand why it is true(
What exactly don't you understand from what they said?
Do you understand why we can represent an element of G as (g1, g2, ..., gr)?
RaD0N
The fact that g_i is a generator here doesn't really matter
This is usually called Lagrange's theorem
Then $h_i=g^{p^{e_i-1}}$ is a possible element.
RaD0N
Right, and note that (h_i)^p = 1
$h_i\in C_{p^{e_i}}$
RaD0N
Yes.. I noted that.
So there is $p$ powers of $h_i$ in $G^p$. Actually that group was denoted by $G_p$
RaD0N
but i ranges from 1 to r
Ohh my gosh.... now I understand. I'm so tired(
I'm grateful to u
maybe im misunderstanding something, but sometimes I see the unique gluability condition for a sheaf on a space X stated as the sequence
$$ 0 \to \mathcal O(X) \to \prod_\alpha \mathcal O(U_\alpha) \to \prod_{\alpha,\beta} \mathcal O(U_\alpha \cap U_\beta)$$ being exact for an open cover ${U_\alpha}$ of $X$ interchangeably with the condition that for each open set $U$ of $X$ and open cover ${U_\alpha}$ of $U$, the sequence
$$ 0 \to \mathcal O(U) \to \prod_\alpha \mathcal O(U_\alpha) \to \prod_{\alpha,\beta} \mathcal O(U_\alpha \cap U_\beta)$$ is exact.
which one is correct, or is there even a difference in general?
kxrider
the second one is correct.
we need to impose the condition for every set U, not just globally
I'd be surprised if they were equivalent, I don't think so
I think that if you take X={1,2,3} with the open sets being {1}, {2}, {1,2}, and X and define F(U)={constant functions U->R} if U is a subset of {1,2} and {the zero function X->R} otherwise we will get an example of the first condition but not the second.
thank yall for earlier!
So.. on 5.1.8., I am having trouble getting anywhere. Probably missing something simple. If $(f\circ F)(p) = (g\circ F)(p)$ then of course $f_{F(p)} = g_{F(p)}$. Since $F^#$ is a local ring map and $(f-g)_{F(p)} = 0$, we have $$F^#(g)_p = F^#p(g{F(p)}) = F^#p(f{F(p)}) = F^#(f)_p.$$ So in particular, $F^#(f)(p) = F^#(g)(p)$. Not sure how this might get me any closer to showing $F^#$ is the pullback of $F$ though.
kxrider
Do you get the hint?
What is this book btw
yeah this book looks interesting
well, yea i think so. is computing F_p#(g_F(p)) not what they mean by passing to stalks?
if you like this you might also like Manifolds, Sheaves and Cohomology by Wedhorn
These are lecture notes from a mini course im taking (on varieties and schemes)
i don't remember exactly how this works, i need a minute to work this out
Ah. Right
You obviously need to use the fact that these are locally ringed spaces, the "locally ringed" being crucial
and the fact that it's a morphism of local rings
so in particular that means that if you mod out both local rings by their maximal ideals you get an induced map between the quotient fields
now do you know what that quotient field is in general?
Its isomorphic to R
right. yeah
so follow up
if you have some function g in O_N(V) and you take its germ at F(p)
and you pass to the quotiend field
then the residue class of g in the field will be, essentially, a real number
what real number is that?
it would be g(F(p)). i think i see where youre going with this
right. yeah so if you think you get the idea i won't tell you the whole punchline, but right, the germ is exactly the value of the function, and you're trying to prove that these two functions have the same value. so using this equivalence you can try and use the induced ring homomorphism to prove that these two functions you're trying to prove have the same value determine the same residue class in the respective quotient fields
Did you get it?
no, not quite. I have something like
$$(F^# f)(p) \equiv (F^# f)_p \equiv \overline{F^#p}(f{F(p)}) = \overline{F^#_p}(f(F(p))) = (f(F(p)))_p = f(F(p))$$
kxrider
what's the over bar notation. the residue class?
haven't convinced myself the last two equalities are valid. The bar is the induced map and i use \equiv whenever i switch out representatives mod m_p
gotcha
(the latex cut it off too)
yea, and even if the last two equalities are correct, this gives F^#f(p) = f(F(p)) mod m_p which i don't think is enough.
i thought i understood the general sentiment of your approach, but I'm a little confused about how we're supposed to recover the values of F^# after passing to the quotient field
ok. let me think for a minute
i see an error in what i wrote above
you know what, I think you might need an extra assumption. I mean I'm still thinking through this but
I think it would be useful if you could assume that all these maps were $\mathbb{R}$-linear. I wonder if instead of locally ringed they meant to write locally $\mathbb{R}$-ringed with $\mathbb{R}$-algebra maps in the natural transformations
diligentClerk
that the F^#_p are R-linear?
Yeah. We might not need that tho i'm just thinking out loud
Ok. Look. What are the ring homomorphisms $\mathbb{R}\to \mathbb{R}$?
diligentClerk
is it only the identity lol or could there be some more pathological shit going on?
ok i thought the F#_p were always R-linear since we think of the stalks as R algebras but idk
Here's what I mean. I think I have a proof if we assume that by locally ringed spaces they actually meant the category of sheaves of $\mathbb{R}$-algebras and natural transformations of $\mathbb{R}$-algebra maps but maybe there's a way to do it without that.
diligentClerk
Yeah, I agree intuitively we think of them as $\mathbb{R}$-algebras they just don't mention that
diligentClerk
but yeah if we assume $F^\sharp :\mathcal{O}{N,F(p)} \to \mathcal{O}{M,p}$ is $\mathbb{R}$-linear
diligentClerk
then modding out by the maximal ideals, the induced map is
$F^\sharp : \mathbb{R}\to \mathbb{R}$
diligentClerk
which should just be the identity map
sorry i mean your overbar notation, the induced map between local rings
So, $F^\sharp(f)(p)$ is some real number which we can also think of as the residue class of $(F^\sharp(f))p = F^\sharp(f{Fp})$ in the quotient field
diligentClerk
But the map $F^\sharp$ induced on quotient fields is just the identity, so as a real number this is the same as the residue class of $f_{Fp}$ in $\mathcal{O}_{N,Fp}$
diligentClerk

and as we discussed, this is the same as the value of $f$ at $Fp$
diligentClerk
which proves $f(Fp) = F^\sharp(f)(p)$, as desired.
diligentClerk
All ring maps from R to R are identity (it is a little tricky to prove)
that's fucked
Basically all ring maps will preserve the order as well
ohh ok
Then you can do some stuff to get that it will be the identity map
wait nvm R as in real ok
yeah ok. i see that if it preserves the order it should be easier to prove
Preserving order is because if x>0 the x=y^2 for some y hence f(x)>0
Uggh, ok. cool. yeah, real closed fields
And f will be identity on Q. So we can easily see that if f(x)>x then taking x<q<f(x) we get f(x)<q<ff(x), a contradiction
right. nice
so is the idea something like $$(F^#f)(p) \equiv (F^# f)p = \overline{F_p^#}(f{F(p)}) = \overline{F_p^#}(f(F(p))) = f(F(p))$$
kxrider
What are the bar’s over these things exactly?
i feel a bit hung up on a ring hom R to R being the identity and having two fields which are each isomorphic to R somehow becoming the identity
the stalks are local rings, F# is a local ring map, and the bar map is the induced map on the residue fields.
yeah sorry i was abusing notation but like, all the isomorphisms are unique. We can still call the map $\overline{F}^\sharp : \mathcal{O}{N,F(p)}/\mathfrak{m}{Fp} \to\mathcal{O}{M,p}/\mathfrak{m}{p}$
diligentClerk
but each element of both of those rings can be identified with a real number in a unique way, and with respect to that identification $\overline{F}^\sharp (r)=r$
diligentClerk
and yeah your equation is right kxrider
Also the solution is to look at the map of stalks from F(p) to p. Then modulo the maximal ideals. We get a ring hom from R to R and the image of f in the first R is f(F(p)) and in the second it is F^#f(p). Now as the ring map is identity between the two R’s f(F(p))=F#f(p)
okay, so how does the first \equiv become equality though?
oh wait i guess the identification is unique
Oh sorry, @fossil shuttle gave an answer
you don't need the germs themselves to agree, the question is about the value of the functions
it's alright, another way of explaining it is probably helpful
i was about to start a rabbit hole with an affine scheme question, but I think I'm satisfied for tonight. thank yall 
im having a bit of trouble verifying that set of generators and relations really does generate the group you want: the relations in particular confuse me a bit im never sure how to detect if your set ends up "collapsing" through some hidden relation or not. For example how can I tell whether or not the generators that I have come up with do generate $S_3$? $<\tau_1,\tau_2 | \tau_1^2=\tau_2^2=1, \tau_1\tau_2\tau_1=\tau_2\tau_1\tau_2>$
Little Narwhal
for example the trivial set would also satisfy these relations so how do i make sure it is truly s3 im generating
What is abstract algebra?
In S_4, how to see that V is isomorphic to C_2xC_2?
Show they have the same presentation
can you guess what (0,0) in C2xC2 should map to in V?
to 1
yes
now you have to find what (1,0) and (0,1) should map to
not many choices
so either you can just try every possibility or think about it a bit to skip possible calculations
ok. I'll try to find the isomorphism between Z_2xZ_2 and V
if you can figure out which two permuations after composing them give the third one then you're done
kinda
done. thx)
Yes 
:nyoom
@carmine fossil Can you confirm if (Z,+) is cyclic? 

His sidekick already confirmed it 
I cannot
According to my sir's notes
I don't see any loops 
try drugs
I can confirm (N,+) is a group
Oh wait,Exclude 0 out of N
So (N-{0},+) is a group
👀
👀
Ik you are trolling, but it really is
I am not trolling
I am just following my teacher
Who is infallible
Let $f: \bN \setminus{0} \to \bZ$ be a bijection. Then $(\bN\setminus{0}, +)$ is a group where
$$a+b = f^{-1}(f(a)+{\bZ} f(b))$$
and $+{\bZ}$ is regular addition.
Lunasong the Supergay
If $H$ is a (finite-dimensional) Hopf algebra, then it's well-known I guess that its coadjoint representation $H^_{\mathrm{adj}}$ is a $H$-module algebra, i.e. an algebra object in $H$-mod.
I know that the (internal) category of modules over $H^{\mathrm{adj}}$ is the Drinfeld center of $H$-mod, so the following question seems obvious but I don't know if it's true:
Is the Drinfeld double of $H$ isomorphic to the smash product $H # H^*{\mathrm{adj}}$??
expectTheUnexpected
Is this just a computation I'm too lazy doing?
Or am I a big dumb?
Question : Let $G=<x>$ be an infinite cyclic group. Then $<e>,<x><x^{2}>,...$ are distinct subgroups of G. Heres my approach : Since $G=<x>$, then $x^{j} \neq x^{k}$ for $j \neq k$ where $j,k \in \mathbb{Z}$ So it implies that $<x^{j}> \neq <x^{k}>$ so no two generators of subgroups of G are the same, thus all must be distinct.
Otoro
hmmmm are there any hints ?
well maybe perhaps <x^j> \neq <x^k>
since if no two subgroups are equal, then all are distinct
For distinct non negative j and k
Look at the smallest positive power of x contained in both the subgroups
Yep. Try proving that, and see what you can conclude.
ohhh okay, I will try it now thanks
use the fact that $\mathbb{F}_p^\times$ is cyclic of order $p-1$
Buncho Bananas
under the isomorphism $\mathbb{F}_p^\times \to \mathbb{Z}/(p-1)\mathbb{Z}$, $-1$ gets sent to $(p-1)/2$ and multiplication turns into addition
ok
Buncho Bananas
but then what?
,tex Let $G$ be a finite group and $P$ be a $p$-Sylow subgroup of $G$. If $H$ is a subgroup of $G$ then how do we prove that $P\cap H$ is $p$-Sylow subgroup of $H$?
RaD0N
I'm feelin dumbo.. shall I move to infantary(
for the forward direction, what can you say about the order of the element x where x ^2 = -1 ?
ive managed!
but
x^2 + 1=0
(x+1)(x-1)=0
and then we can show that it must be an element of order 4 iguess
yeah! thank you
also this is related to quadratic reciprocity, if you’re interested you should look into it
it’s more number theoretic though
no but what you’re doing now is like a generalized version lol
oh
@oblique river sorry if you're busy by my wifi keeps going out so i would like to ask while i can 
what is going on with the underlined portion
why can we write f as that
np let me take a look
I think the idea is that f is a 2-variable polynomial
in x and y
Yeah
but since f(P) = f(0,0) = 0, it has no constant term
and we're splitting it up like "take all the terms which only have x in them and factor out an x" and that's phi(x)x
and then everything else is a multiple of y because the only terms which aren't a multiple of y are taken care of with phi
I see 
like if you write f as a sum of c_{i,j} x^i y^j
then c_{0,0} = 0
and all of the x^i y^0 terms are in phi
and the rest of the terms are all divisible by y and so that's the bit which goes into psi
one sec brb
is that a typo? should it be delta_y f(P)?
I'm assuming it is based on context
Uh probably yeah

