#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 597 of 407
Oh yeah duh product rule
Ok
So right yeah
and then when we pass to the local ring f is gonna look like 0 and we know that phi is non-zero at 0
so you get y = gx = - phi psi^{-1} x
(abusing notation a bit bit yea)
then M_P is generated by (x, y) = (x, gx) = (x) and thus is principal and so O_X, P is local with non-zero principal maximal ideal and thus dedekind
yeah that sounds right ot me
is any (finite?) symmetric group a non trivial product?
No, the only nontrivial normal subgroup of the symmetric groups for n>=5 is A_n
@chilly ocean
what about infinite ones?
Apparently for the symmetric group on countably many elements there are only 2 nontrivial normal subgroups (according to Wikipedia). These are the set of permutations that fix all but finitely many elements, as well as the even permutation subgroup of that
I think this is pretty interesting, I wonder if the reason for this is because the thing that determines if 2 elements are congugate in this group are the cardinality of the set of elements that are fixed as well as the cardinality of the set of elements that are not fixed
Actually probably it's a bit more complicated than that
is it?
I think you just need a bijection between orbits
that seems reasonable to me
yeah, I agree
it's basically just cycle type decomposition
Can someone explain to me what I have to prove here?
The book only defines the Zariski tangent space for local rings and schemes, and in this exercise, A is an arbitrary and "the Zariski tangent space of A" makes no sense
Oh okay
But they need to specify a point right?
Can you write out exactly what the exercise wants me to prove?
The point is the point m
What does the "cut out" part mean?
Imagine like R^2 and some curve through a point P
R^2 has a tangent space at P
And so does the curve
And the tangent spacr of the curve is a subspace of the tangent space of R^2
That’s the picture
R^2 is spec A, P is m, and the curve is spec A/f
So the Zariski tangent space of A at m is Hom(m/m^2, A/m)
And it wants me to consider the tangent space cut out by f in the tangent space of A
What exactly is that?
The tangent space of A/f at m is just Hom(m_f/m_f^2, (A/f)/(m_f) where m_f is the image of m in A/f
Of course, (A/f)/m_f = A/m
Write down a specific example where there’s easy geometry you can see
Like the picture I gave earlier
Consider R^2 and the origin and the curve y=0
A = R[x,y]
Or C instead of R if you prefer
m = (x,y)
f = f(x,y) = y
Now you can see that A/f = R[x] and its spec is just the x axis
Sitting inside R^2
And the tangent spacr has dimension one less than the tangent space of R^2
Now write down all the homs and keep track kf all the maps
I think you're misunderstanding my question
You know how we say that f cuts out a portion of Spec A which is Spec A/f
Here it's saying that f cuts out a portion of the tangent space of Spec A which is ...?
I don't know what ... is referring to
The tangent space of A/f
The tangent space of A/f is a subspace of the tangent space of A (at a point)
That's what we have to prove lol
Like what is ... exactly
No, what you have to prove is that the tangent space of A/f is cut out by f
In some sense
Yes
But what does it mean by "the tangent space of A cut out by f"?
Like what is this thing as a set/topological space/scheme
It’s just describing an algebraic operation
Like, f mod m^2 is an element of m/m^2
And you can quotient by it
And get a map on tangent spaces
Essentially I need to prove A = B but I don't have a description for B
And that inclusion is exactly the inclusion of the tangent space of A/f
*a formal description
I am giving you one lol
The one you are giving me is A
which is exactly what we have to prove
Unless i'm misunderstanding
which is possible
Yes
And there is the subspace of Hom(m/m^2, A/m) induced from the quotient of m/m^2 by the element f mod m^2
m/m^2 —> m/(f + m^2)
Induces a map on homs going the other way
Those are the two things
This is what i was saying here
So like stepping back for a sec, this is an occasion where i think you should try to fill in the holes a little bit yourself
There is not much that “subspace of tangent space of A cut out by f” can mean interms of like
Algebraic operations
Also, assuming the problem is correct (which is a good assumption)
Even if you dont know what B is exactly
Does this mean m/m^2 --> (m/m^2)/(f+m^2)?
You know what A is and you know A = B
So you can use that to sort of back-solve for B
And a good way to do this is to write down explicit examples
When youre doinf research, youre not always going to have someone who can tell you these things
And learning how to fill in holes on your own is more important than just trying to learn a bunch of statements
Those are the same
M^2 + f contains m^2
Yeah I usually try and do that but this particular exercise was a bit confusing
Mostly because the book just introduced (co)tangent spaces and then used a couple of new vocab at once
Might seem dumb but I am stuck with this one: Write $x_1^2x_2+x_2^2x_3+x_3^2x_1$ in terms of elementary symmetric functions in $x_1,x_2,x_3$.
AidenM27
I got the representation in that form for $\sum_{i\neq j}x_i^2 x_j$ for $i,j\in{1,2,3}$, but have had no luck with this special case of it, so to speak
AidenM27
Hint: terms of the form a²b appear in (a+b)³
Oh. Boy. Thanks a bunch, I will go down that route mate
Ah I got stuck again in that train of thought. What I did in my first attempt was this
Do you know how to write Σᵢ xᵢ³ in terms of elementary symmetric polynomials? You'd need that for what I'm doing
You can try to figure that out separately, then plug things into the above
$s_1=x_1+x_2+x_3, s_2=x_1x_2+x_2x_3+x_1x_3, s_3=x_1x_2x_3\implies s_1s_2=x_1^2x_2+x_1x_2x_3+x_1^2x_3+x_1x_2^2+x_2^2x_3+x_1+x_2+x_3+x_1x_2x_3+x_2x_3^2+x_1x_3^2)\implies s_1s_2=3s_3+x_1x_2^2+x_1^2x_3+x_2x_3^2+(x_1^2x_2+x_2^2x_3+x_3^2x_1)$
Ah I can attempt that but what I am concerned about is ending up with the terms $x_1x_2^2, x_2x_3^2, x_3x_1^2$, which I cannot seem to resolve to arrive at an answer
AidenM27
Wait so did you just get s_1s_2 = 3s_3 + twice the polynomial that you need?
Not twice actually
And the intermediate calculations seem wrong, everything in between should be degree 3 homogeneous
Ah that's a typo
AidenM27
oh damn I didn't realize that the original thing isn't completely symmetric
Exactly, that's what happened to me as well
But you can't write non symmetric polynomials as products and sums of symmetric ones
For anything written in terms of symmetric polynomials, you could apply a permutation on the variables and the expression should remain unchanged
Right, that's what struck me now

Yeesh, gonna have to take it up with the prof then. Some problem set (not for grades though). I will let you know if I make any progress
there is an algorithm to write it in terms of elementary symmetric functions
Yup
so i think here we need K(X) a finite extension of k(t)
but im not sure why thats true?
hmm
So we have a dvr A = O_X,p
And we're taking the field of fractions K = K(X)
Yeah?
Right
So choose t as in there
Yup
so then the field of fractions is like at^n/bt^m with b(p) non-zero
er just backing up for a sec:
yup
They are not in k
If they were in k we'd have K = k(t)
They're units of A
So functions on X which don't vanish at p
yeah so how exactly do we think of at^n/bt^m as an element of k(t) since the coefficients themselves arent in k
Unless im being really dumb
It isn't an element of k(t), it's an element of K(X)
?
Right it just contains k(t) by taking the case where a and b are constant functions right
Yup
okay that makes more sense lmfao
That's the way we extend it
exactly
And I agree that we want to show K/k(t) is finite
so we need finiteness and then char 0 will imply by the primitive element thm that K(X) = k(t)(s) = k(t, s)
We're in char 0 so separable isn't an issue
yup
Oh maybe this is easy
hmm
I'm thinking we can choose finitely many functions generating the coordinate of X overall
Hm but when we localize to get O_X,p we like, lose some amount of finiteness
Okay so backing up a sec
Do you know Zariski's lemma?
oh, I meant finitely generated as a k algebra
Zariski's lemma says that a field which is a finitely generated algebra over another field is actually finite over that field
wait yes i have heard this
Nice!
This is a problem in the AM chapter that i paused AM doing becuase it was boring 
So we can make the goal a little easier
so choose finitely many generators f1,...,fn for the coordinate ring of X
These are generating it as an algebra over k
Hm

so ur claim that when we write 1 = a1f1 + ... + anfn the ai are constant?
No
and can be regarded as elements of k?
That would be generating it as a module
Generating it as an algebra means that any element is a polynomial in f1,...,fn
With k coefficients
No!
the only (reduced) quotients of k[x] are an affine line or finitely many points
A curve like y^2 = x^3 is not a quotient of k[x]
Why?
umm we're working with integral plane curves arent we
Take the curve parameterized by (t^3, t^4, t^5)
Oh it said plane curve?
I don't see where it says that
The result you're trying to show is about plane curves
But it doesn't restrict X to be such
Right?
er affine curve
So the thing is, we know X can be embedded as a closed subset of some affine space
yeah?
omg wait theres like 6 notions of dimension at play here that im mixing up
integral affine curve means K(X) is of transcendence degree 1 over k
It's the vanishing locus of an ideal I of k[f1,...,fn] and then the coordinate ring is k[f1,...,fn]/I
Oh!
I hadn't thought about that
I think that's important here
It says K(X)/k(t) is algebraic
But why finite...
Ok so wait to clarify
affine plane curve means that its a quotient of k[x, y]
integral affine curve means that K(X) has transcendence degree 1 over k
Yes
Equivalently, any prime ideal of the coordinate ring is either 0 or maximal
Yeah?
and specifically for plane curve it has to be defined as the locus of zeroes of a single polynomial f in k[x, y]
but an integral affine curve is not necessarily either a quotient of k[x, y] or the zero of a single function
Yes, that is correct
This follows from just being a curve in k[x, y], fyi. Things of dimension n-1 are given by a single equation
This stuff is super hard without examples. Make sure you have things in your back pocket you can check definitions against
I think I will need to sleep on this and come back tomorrow
This is weird because like
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go to sleep
there are certain terms here in each definition that i associate mentally with things
and then when theyre involved in other terms they dont mean the things i associate them with
So keep in mind that like
and i get mixed up 
Yeah so like
Member selection timed out.
"plane curve" means "curve whcih is embedded in the plane"
curve means it is defined as the zeroes of m polynomials in n variables
just in general
?
The dimension of a variety is defined by looking at the longest chain of irreducible subvarities (or dually primes of the coordinate ring), because intuitively to drop down an irreducible variety you need to decrease the dimension by at least 1
It is a result that this can be calculated via transcendence degree for integral things
Defined by n functions tells you nothing about dimension!
Ok i see
It is unfortunate for this explanation that being defined by 1 equation is actually a big deal
But it means the opposite of what you're thinking. It means that your codimension is 1
The codimension of a variety X in A^n is just n - dim X
Think about concrete examples here
A single equation in R^3 gives a plane, or a paraboloid, or a cone
not a line!
so:
variety - solutions to m functions in n variables
affine variety - variety where the m functions and their combinations are the only functions for which the points are solutions
integral - coordinate ring is integral
curve - transcendence degree 1 (using this defn cause its the only one the book supplied)
plane curve - curve given by 1 function in 2 variables
so affine integral curve implies its an affine variety of dimension 1 with integral coordinate ring
Okay sorry back up
I was being imprecise about variety vs affine variety
And using them interchangeably
yeah i know theyre different like
I'm not sure what your definition of affine variety means here
if I = (f1, ..., fm) then V(I) is the set of solutions the variety
Your definition of a variety is the correct definition of affine variety
and affine is when the V(I) being a solution to some arbitrary f implies f in I
A general variety is something which locally looks like an affine variety
Like projective space
That is uh
It's locally like affine space, but globally weird
not the way szamuely defined it
Oh wait im dumb
ok so he actually calls V(I) affine closed sets and then its an affine variety when the thingy holds
Which thingy?
uh the solutions to the functions in the ideal are the affine closed set
So like, I = (f1,...,fn)? Or what?
and the affine closed set is an affine variety when those solutions also define the ideal in the sense that the ideal contains the only functions for which the points are all solutions
Yeah
This does not make sense to me
because every point in X is a solution to f = x - a but f is not in I
like he writes a condition on I and then says it's about X
I think hes saying its an affine variety when it does have the data
like when you dont just get that I defines V(I) but that V(I) defines I
If X = V(x) and Y = V(x^2), then X = Y and X is an affine variety but Y is not

I find this at best unclear

You can always just take the radical of the ideal
And get a thing making the set an affine variety
Bizarre
How do I approach the question?
x^(25)=2mod(133)
More appropriate for #elementary-number-theory
for part (d)
idrk how to do it
ive got this: $\alpha\beta = -(\alpha^2 + \alpha) = -(\beta^2 + \beta)$ and $\zeta^{p-1}$ is a part of alpha if p=1 (4) and in beta if p=3 (4)
Yes ツ
all the seperable elements + all elements in K will make up L
since L is algebraic and normal over K
(i think)
That's not true, L could have non separable elements
normal + separable = Galois
if it helps, i managed to show that K_s / K is separable and K_i / K is purely inseparable
and L/K_s should also be purely inseparable
mhm, guess i will take a look at galois extensions in my book but this exercise is from the chapter before that when they werent introduced yet
thanks :)
an element is separable if the minimum polynomial that it generates is separable right?
yep
maybe char != 0 is important
yep
(if you're working over fields :P)
oh yea
Suppose c is in L - K_s. Let f(x) be its minimal polynomial over K. By pure inseparability of L/K_s, there is some d such that c is a p^nth root of d, where p is the characteristic. The powers of x that occur in f(x) should then all be multiples of p^n. Then replacing the coefficients of f(x) with their p^nth roots, and x^kp^n with x^k, we should get a polynomial polynomial for c, separable over K_i. Idk how to proceed though lol
actually idk if my claims about p^n are legit but I hope they are 
And I think this only shows that L/K_i is separable? Is that even right? lol
yea
i also got L/K_i is separable
my argument was a little different tho
my problem is that L/K_i separable doesnt really help me so far xd
yeah 
left derived functors of a exact functor $F$ are defined by $L_iF(A)=H_i(F(P))$ where $A$ is an object and $P$ is a proyective resolution of $A$, but the proyective resolutions are exact secuences and so $F(P)$ is exact, this implies that $L_iF(A)=H_i(F(P))=0$ ?
Or x1
Sounds right to me
I mean left derived functors are constructed to measure failure of exactness of F
so if F is exact, they should vanish
thanks
So contextually here n is the number of indeterminates in k[x1, ..., xn] for k algebraically closed and m is the number of generators of the ideal
and the affine closed set is just the points that are solutions to all generators
im kind of confused as to the claim here because if n = 2, m =1 implies V(I) is a plane curve then the affine closed set in A^2 thats a union would have to be the case m = 2 right?
But then you're adding more generators which means you'll have less points in your affine closed set
i just can't come up with an example where the intersection of 2 plane curves is a plane curve + finite points
or is it that the plane curve example requires both generators to be non constant and then you can consider like f = (x - 2)(x - 3) with y always 0 or something
So then f is a finite set of points, g is a plane curve where x and y are both non constant and you take the intersection of (f) and (g)
yeah V(I1) cup V(I2) = V(I1 cap I2)
If you have curves f = 0 and g = 0, the union is fg = 0. Now take the intersection of the curves fg = 0 and fh = 0 for appropriately chosen f, g, h
So I'm thinking like, two perpendicular lines each union the same parabola
intersect the two sets and you get the parabola and the single intersection point of the lines
I'll just write it or
Take A = V((y-x^2-1)y) and B = V((y-x^2-1)x)
The intersection is V(y-x^2-1) union V(x, y)
So this is two plane curves which intersect at the union of a plane curve and a point
Oh I see
(y - x^2 - 1) gets you a parabola
and then x and y respectively get you vertical and horizontal lines
and their intersection is the parabola plus (0, 0)
?
💯
Ok this makes sense
Its weird to think about but you can get very "non curve like" plane curves by taking products of various functions
Taking a union of a thing given by m and k generators gives you something with at most mk generators, by multiplying each pair of generators and looking at the ideal generated by all of that. In this case, unioning keeps you at 1*1 = 1 generator
@dusty river @unique juniper update on my galois theory question from earlier: i managed to write a proof by showing that L/K_s(K_i) is both separable and purely inseparable, and therefore the fields are the same. thanks again for the help :)
Moth is now slightly less owned then they were yesterday
this conversation really helped sham i think i kinda get how to construct examples now
thanks 
Yay!
It's funny that you started asking about the same stuff at the moment I opened discord on my phone
I summoned you 
anybody here familiar with representations of algebraic groups?
Shouldnt f circ (h1, h2) be 0
since Im (h1, h2) has to be in X and by definition points of X are mapped to 0 by f
(for i >0)
What’s the domain of (h1, h2) when you talk about its image
doesnt it have to be X
If we restrict the domain to Y, then yes, the composition is 0 on Y
Since it’s a multiple of h
Yeah, then the composition is indeed 0 on Y
weird
Y is the set of zeros of h, and the composition is a multiple of h, so
Anyway, it’s not hard to give an example. f = x1-x2, h = x1-x2^2, h1 = x1, h2 = x2^2
Haven’t touched algebraic geometry for ages I feel I explained badly lmao
f circ (h1, h2) isn’t 0 as a polynomial (whose domain is K^2)
@oblique river i was thinking about the thing we talked about yesterday and i realized that im not actually sure why when you localize f is 0?
repasting the image for context but like
Why would the image of f be 0 in O_X, p?
and if its not how does the y = gx claim work?
isn't f identically 0 on X? Like it's the zero element of O_X(X)?
I agree with shamrock here I think
X is sort of defined as like "the thing where f is 0"
so in O_X, f should be 0

Im confused about the part where the morphism from U to V(f) is defined
like t and s are functions so i dont really see whats happening...
I think instead of "$(t,s) \mapsto (x,y)$ defines an isomorphism", the author means "the homomorphism given by sending $t \mapsto x$ and $s \mapsto y$ and extending linearly to all of $K(X)$". But they wrote a pair as if it were part of a cartesian product, ie the underlying space.
Apopheniac
If $u\in U$, then $\rho:U \to V(f)$ is given by $\rho(u) = (t(u),s(u)) \in \mathbf{A}_k^2$.
Then $f(t(u),s(u)) = 0$ by definition of $f$, so $(t(u),s(u))\in V(f)$.
This is locally (U is open) given by polynomials, hence a morphism $\rho: U \to V(f)$.
Apopheniac
book is bad
late but this makes sense!! thank you
I have trouble with the only if direction of this statement. I Know that $\alpha$ is injective and $\sigma$ is surjective, as their composition is the identity. But how do i get the isomorphism? It feels like im missing something simple.
Cloud63
Hint: σα is an idempotent endomorphism of P.
thanks i got it
hi! im trying to understand U(1) in the context of astrophysics, usually its followed by the word gauge. someone already explained abelian groups in a more philosophical context to me, but i'm still struggling with understanding its meaning in my field and in the papers ive seen it in -- i can send screenshots of the sentences in the papers if that's helpful
got it, so what would U(1)x gauge boson Z’ or U(1)Lµ−Lτ bosons look like?
so what you've written looks like electroweak theory already
for U(1) there is only one gauge boson, the photon
The U(1) gauge field, the electromagnetic field, is a gauge field because it's invariant under these phase rotations by U(1)
certainly you can do this globally without much issue: for example you can negate the sign on all electric charges and physics doesn't change so much
but you can also do this locally: you can apply any phase rotation at any point of space and let these phase rotations vary smoothly, then the physics is still fine
kay posting this here in case someone else sees this
I'm very confused by the part of the example where they talk about taking the tensor product of C with itself
I dont understand why we're taking A/M otimes C rather than A otimes C
Like points of X_C over a maximal ideal m of X are going to be maximal ideals m1 and m2 with i^1(m_i) = m
the only thing i can think of is that for some reason here we can say that quotient by tensor product = tensor product with quotient which isnt usually true and im not sure why it would be here...
But even then like.
I guess the idea is that we have i: A -> A otimes C and for each point p in X corresponding to a maximal ideal m it induces a map A/M -> A/M otimes C so C -> C otimes C? and choices of such a map look like choices of a maximal ideal m_i in A otimes C to quotient by so having two natural maps C -> C otimes C means that there are two ideals m_i with spec(i)(m_i) = m?
@maiden ocean I'm having trouble understanding what your q is
I dont understand what C tensored with itself has to do with anything
Im just confused as to how it relates to the points over m
So M is a closed point in X. If we want to write M as spec( ), what should we put in the parentheses?
Or what’s the coordinate ring of M?
Can anyone help with this problem? I'm in an introductory abstract alg course and we just got to groups. I assume that I would need to use some group properties, maybe the exponent rules, however I am stuck.
what did you try?
Do I then just directly assume x = y to be true and try to manipulate the exponents? I'm really not sure
so try manipulating the equations given, so for a hint
like try combining two equations in some way
Since x^n is equal to y^n, could i create an equation where its just x^n - x^n = 0, and work from there?
Ok thanks for the help people, I'll try to dig into it some more
Hello, I am working on a simple proof from Dummit and Foote abstract algebra (3e). The problem with solution goes like this:
My question is: Is it fair to assume that matrix multiplication is associative? I obviously know that this is true from LA, but the textbook has not covered associativity of matrices yet, and feel like the "correct" proof should use the definition of multiplication of 2x2 matrices since that was clearly defined in the problem.
I mean if it bothers you, you could go ahead and prove associativeness once
but in general, you really shouldnt worry about this
Matrix multiplication is associative.
I'm assuming the book asked you to do this problem because matrices are a common example of a group.
(That said I haven't read D&F yet so maybe I'm mistaken)
Not sure what you were saying about 2x2 matrices in your question. You can prove associativity in general
Thanks for the replies. There is no official solutions (as far as I am aware), so I have a hard time understanding if something is fair game or not. The solution is straightforward if we just assume associativity. I just find it strange that they included the definition of matrix multiplication if we aren't even going to use it in the proofs.
It seems that matrix multiplication was defined before, but the problem is saying that "by PQ we mean matrix multiplication of P and Q which you already know"
In which case either they are assuming you already know it in which case it's fair game to use basic properties of it, or they defined it somewhere earlier
referring to this problem again, I took x^n = y^n and multiplied both sides by the inverse x^-n to obtain (x^-n)x^n = (x^-n)y^n, since multiplying an element by its inverse returns the neutral element e_g, i get e_g = x^-n y^n. Is this logical so far? and am I on the right track?
This is correct but I don't think it'll lead anywhere
hmm..
What I was hinting at was starting at x, and have a chain of equalities ending at y. The starting point is x = x^1 = ....
Can you use something given in the problem statement now, to get further equalities?
You are given that there exist s and r such that rm+sn = 1
Do i try to rearrange exponents to follow the linear combination? I just don't see how having a chain of equalities helps here
x = x^1 = x^(rm+sn). Do you see it now?
You will have to use the given facts that x^m = y^m, x^n = y^n
And exponent laws
oh wow.. that makes sense.. I was staring at my paper for 30 minutes and just wasn't able to catch that.. It's my first proof heavy course, any advice on how to get better at proofs other than practicing problems? or is that it lol
Yeah I guess practising problems is the way to go, it's about learning to put together all the given facts
Hey Moldilocks, I think i figured out the proof, how do I use the LaTeX bot so I can run it by you to see if its logically sound?
If you just type latex code it will catch it (it detects the dollar signs) or you can start your message with ,tex to explicitly tell it tex your message
Ok cool
$x^1 = x^{rm + sn} = x^{rm} \cdot x^{sn} = (x^m)^r \cdot (x^n)^s$, since $x^m = y^m \land x^n = y^m$, we replace x with y, such that; $(y^m)^r \cdot (y^n)^r = y^{mr} \cdot y^{ns} = y^{mr + ns} = y^1 = y$
bigheavyballs
forgot to start with x instead of x^1
Yep, nice
I don't think anyone would mind that lol
awesome man. Thank you so much, not a better feeling than getting a proof right
True 
moldi for honorable
im a little confused here: i did exercise 4,a) using the permutation representation of the action,but apparently that was not the way to go considering question 5. I don't understand because the group action can only be considered a homomorphism (and hence have a kernel) if you look at its permutation representation. The kernel of the action as a map from G x A to A doesn't mean anything right?
Okay nvm i really can't read, they defined the kernel again a little differently for an action...
i read through the theory a few days ago and forgot about that detail
I'm guessing the kernel is defined as the kernel of the group homomorphism that the action corresponds to, from G to Aut(A)?
ie set of all group elements that act the same way as identity
no see i thought that's what it meant but they had simply defined it as ${g\in G : \forall a\in A, ga=a }$ i just didnt see that
but the definitions are equivalent
Little Narwhal
That is what I said 
no what i mean is they didnt explicitly state it like you did
and exercise 5 is meant to make you see it's the same
Ahh I see, didn't read that
"permutation representation" is the group homomorphism you're mentioning
Right
also did you mean to say Aut(A)?
because isnt that only defined if A is a group?
in here they have it from $G \to S_A$
Little Narwhal
Automorphism is a general term, not just used for groups
A set automorphism is just a bijection from the set to itself
i see
The collection of automorphisms of anything always form a group though
but if G were to act on another group H wouldnt wouldnt Aut(H) be more restrictive than the set of permutations on H?
oh i guess not
How would a group act on another group?
S_H is always a subset of Aut(H) right?
Do you mean act on the underlying set of H?
yeah
The other way around, for structures. A group a structure, on a set
Yep
yeah so isnt using Aut a little confusing
idk the S notation just feels less confusing to me
Usually you wouldn't make a distinction between a group and it's underlying set, but it's always useful to keep it in mind
Well mostly it is clear from the context, if you see Aut(A) and nothing is known about A other than it being a set, then you can be sure that it's just S_A
fair enough
Also you would often see Aut_Set(A) or Aut_Grp(G)
right
If disambiguation is needed
the notation is just longer then
Yeah lol
But for sets yeah sym(A) or S_A is more standard it's just that Aut is also kind of universal notation
You can take Aut for any kind of structure, graphs, categories, rings, fields, top spaces etc
true
is there a meaningful way in which a group can act on any of these structures, not just the underlying set?
I guess you could define a group G acting on a structure A to be any group homomorphism G → Aut(A)
But that's then also the same as a homomorphism G→Aut(underlying set of A) by composing with the inclusion
the inclusion?
The opposite of this
right
We do study groups acting on other things but ig the theory from groups acting on sets is sufficient for most purposes
You just have an additional condition that the action of each element of the group is an automorphism of the structure which can be studied separately
alright
group action on a non concrete category
Are all (locally?) small categories equivalent to a subcategory of Set?
do you know counterexample for small?
Set
Set is a subcategory of Set tho
I think you are confusing necessary and sufficient
ah yeah
cmon barbie lets go party, ah ah ah yeah

I think for any given C you can do something with hom sets, since they determine C upto isomorphism
Map every object c to product of hom(a,c) (a varies). Every morphism a→b determines a map from every hom(x,a) to hom(x,b), so you get a morphism from every hom(x,a) to product_x of hom(x,b)'s, and this you can compose with the projections from product_x hom(x,a) to each hom(x,a) to get a morphism from product to product
Let me check if this works 
nvm that actually gives you a lot of morphisms from product for a to product of b
not a single one
ah this works I think. What I have described on the morphisms is essentially defining a map on each coordinate. So the functor is $F: C \to Set$, on objects, $c\mapsto\prod_{x\in \text{obj} C} \hom(x,a)$, and the morphism $f:a\to b$ maps to the morphism which acts on the coordinate corresponding to each $x$ by post composition. That it is a functor is obvious. Faithfulness comes from $Ff = Fg\Rightarrow\hom(-,f)=\hom(-,g)\Rightarrow f=g$
Moldilocks
What does this mean?
wtf
I am guessing it is a typo and it is supposed to be (12)
i mean <(1, 2)> is probably the subgorup generated by (1, 2)
except thats silly
yeah (1 2) makes more sense
but i have no clue why theyd denote it .H
$\langle (1 2) \rangle$ indicates the subgroup generated by $(1 2)$, and $\leq S_3$ denotes it being a subgroup of $S_3$
Namington
and theyre using <> instead of langle rangle because laziness i guess
my abstract algebra course this year used notation like (1, 2), i prefer it tbh
huh i really dislike that
maybe thats just me but like
that makes me think its storing elements
like a vector
permutations dont store elements
they move them
product group lol
commas "separate" them but permutations arent about "separating things"
theyre about "moving" things
feels counterintuitive
that might just be my bias though
i just think its more readable personally
@chilly ocean
i have to reread it carefully, am noob at category theory
I was being a bit silly. The functor I have defined is exactly the composition of all the covariant hom functors with the "product over objects of c" multifunctor
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2997256/is-every-small-category-isomorphic-to-a-subcategory-of-the-category-of-relations also the answers on this do an embedding into Set, similar idea but they use coproduct instead of product 
I see. Can you show me what it looks like?
{e, (1, 2)}
{e, 1, 2}?
no
the subgroup has two elements
- e, the identity permutation
- (1, 2), the permutation representing swapping 1 and 2
this is isomorphic to every other group of 2 elements of course
we could use the symbols 0 and 1 instead, in which case we'd call it Z/2Z
you're being too vague
ngl we should just write cycles as circles with arrows on them
What does this mean?
Is 𝕌 defined somewhere?
wild guess - group of units?
Math group says it's the set of reversible remainders.
Modulo some fixed integer?
I guess then U = Z/nZ. U* = group of invertible things in this, and f is then a homomorphism from U* to itself
What?
What does reversible remainders mean?
Trying to understand. Dm'd the guy who answered
IDK what Z/nZ means
0,1,...,n-1
So in that set there are some things which don't have inverses
Like if n=4, then 2 doesn't have an multiplicative inverse
right
A cross in superscript means you take the subset of things which are invertible
Which is the same as taking the set of things that have gcd 1 with n
(by Chinese remainder theorem)
And then this becomes a group under multiplication
So you can talk about group homomorphisms
Freyd-Mitchell's embedding theorem says every small abelian category is equivalent to a (full) subcategory of the category of left-modules over a ring.
I wonder: is there something fundamentally very different about non-small abelian categories? Or are they also in some sense "like" categories of left-modules over a ring
If you use Tarski's axiom (any set can be contained in some universe) then any abelian category C is small with respect to some universe U. You can then take R-mod_U to be the category of all small (wrt U) R modules, and then C has a full and exact embedding into R-mod_U
The problem with non small categories in general is that they could be too large, so we are just enlarging our universe here
I am not sure how this would work without Tarski's axiom though, I think then you'd just have to leave it at "this only works for small categories"
Also why are you asking meme math in #groups-rings-fields instead of #category-theory? 
@chilly ocean
well categories are algebraic structures, and so are modules lol
What does algebraic mean to you 
actually no, categories aren't, they're partial algebras tho

Does anyone have any advice as to how to prove 4d? My first assumption was to prove it via double inclusion using the assumption that 4b and 4c are true. Is this on the right track?
I think 4b and 4c are more like hints.
To prove lhs \subset rhs, we can express a symmetry in terms of tau and sigma by studying what the images of -1,0,1 are.
As in try to show that there is a bijection? like an identity function?
You have to show that every symmetry has one of those 2 forms. Take a symmetry y. Look at b and c and try to use a similar strategy like terrific said (you only need to know where 0 and 1 go)
so every symmetry has the form of either i + 1 or -(i + 1)?
Nope, the forms are given to you in d, there are infinitely many
0 and 1 can go to a lot of things
And you'll be able to prove that if 2 symmetries do the same thing to 0 and the same thing to 1, they will be equal everywhere
hmm i see
Why is it that I only need to prove what happens to 0 and 1?
If thats the case can't I plug in 0 to each symmetry and see its output? because if thats the case sigma^1 == sigma^1 o tau for 0
0 alone isn't enough
But 0 and 1 together determine the symmetry
Proving that images of 0, 1 are enough: ||Symmetries preserve distances. Given a number x, you can write its distance from 1 and from 0 on the number line. Then apply the symmetry, and these distances should stay the same. Solving these equations you will get a unique choice for x which could satisfy these. This proves that there is at most 1 symmetry that has the given effect on 0 and 1||
So given x, its distance to 1 should be x - 1 = 0, x = 1 , distance to 0 should be x - 0 = 0, x = 0. If I apply then the symmetries sigma^i and sigma^i o tau, to the values of x, they should be the same?
ah my mistake youre right
Also don't apply symmetries of the given form, assume that you are given some arbitrary symmetry y
So you can write (distance between x and 1) = d(x,1) = x-1, and similarly d(x,0) = x
Preserving distances means that if
d(a,b) = n,
Then d(y(a), y(b)) = n as well. ie distance between a pair is the same as the distance between its image
I suppose a follow up question would be how can some arbitrary symmetry y be related to sigma/tau, is that something i need to explicitly find? Why even define arbitrary y? Because if we found preserved distances with y how can we know for sure that it translates to sigma/tau. I hope I'm not completely missing some symmetry axiom that would answer my question lol
Well suppose 0 goes to a, 1 goes to b. Then can you come up with a symmetry made from the sigma and tau that does exactly that to 0 and 1?
Suppose you have a symmetry s.
Then either one of the two statements is true:
s(1)=s(0)-1,
s(1)=s(0)+1
hmmm.. Thanks for the help you two. I'm gonna try to work on it some more by myself and ask questions if I need help again
||The idea is to consider the symmetry t= (\sigma)^(-s(0)) s. This new symmetry t has this property that t(0)=0 and t(1) is either 1 or -1. Now use b and c parts to find t and hence s||
||Note that everything here is forced by the fact that s is a symmetry||
How exactly did you come up with that specific symmetry?
I understand everything up until that point tbh
I didn't like that s(0) was nonzero
So I made a symmetry such that it will be zero
Which turned out to work perfectly
Try to picture what this is saying. It says that all symmetries of Z are either translations, or translations + reflection
From this you can try to guess what the symmetry would be in terms of σ and τ
So,If you negate the translation,you get identity or reflection
Right, but since (\sigma) is raised to zero wouldn't this imply that t = 1?
\sigma is raised to -s(0)
not 0
Applying $\sigma^{-s(0)}$ moves everything to the left by s(0) units
Buncho Dragons
but isn't s(0) equal to 0 based on 4b/4c?
That's not what 4b and 4c say
They say that if s(0) = 0 then certain things happen not that s(0) = 0
So the symmetry t, because the way it was set up, t(0) = 0, but now we need to figure out whether t(1) = 1 or -1?
Yeah
I have a feeling its 1, but cant prove it
It can be either. You have to relate it to s
I'm not sure... I just don't know how to to relate it to s, when the mapped values of s are unknown
the group of order 4 non cyclic can be of type $D_2$ , but further how to procede?
honey99
can someone take a look at my solution to this problem and tell me if its ok?
Consider ideal $J=(x^2+x+1,5)$ of $Z[x]$. Note that $(x^4+x^2+1)\subset I$ in $Z[x]$ as $(x^2+x+1)(x^2-x+1)=x^4+x^2+1$. So $I=J/(x^4+x^2+1)$ is an ideal of $A$. $A/I\cong Z[x]/J$ by fourth isomorphism theorem. We note that $J$ is kernel of $Z[x]\rightarrow \frac {Z/5Z[x]}{(x^2+x+1)}$. The RHS is degree 2 extension of $F_5$ - a field of degree 25.
bert
also, $R[x]/((x^2+1)(x^2+x+1))\cong C \times C$ right?
bert
Yes, by the Chinese remainder theorem
Is there a way to calculate this?
Calculate as in simplify?
yeah
Or numerically calculate
both
I don't think you can simplify the expression
Numerically it is x^(a^b)
So you compute the 2 exponents
I see
whys this in #groups-rings-fields

Sorry, it was the part I had stuck in an abstract algebra in permutations
I was looking for pemutation to timer of 5^25
I've got a diffrent question anyway
How do I calculate? I'm keep getting 8 as a solution
24=25-1 = -1 mod 5 so just need to know if 101 is even or odd
do you know euler's theorem?
with the chinese remainder theorem too, probably
Okay
unless you see some other trick, it might have an easy way out
Right. I'll try it
How do I break it down?
Chinese remainder theorem has a few broken modulos and their remainder and tries to find a common modulo
solve it mod 4 and mod 25
that's a good strategy too sometimes, but here you don't have to
@thorny flame did you get it? Also for this sort of stuff you should probably be using #elementary-number-theory instead
Let $A$ and $B$ abelian categories, what condition should a functor $F:A \rightarrow B$ satisfy for its left derived functor $L_i F$ exist?
F must be aditive or right exact?
Or x1
F must be additive, and you need enough projectives @frank fiber
you can get away with "enough acyclics" if defined properly
thanks
By the fundamental theorem of finitely generated abelian groups, determining the number of groups of a given order just comes down to a combinatorial factoring problem right?
the number of abelian groups only
you can't say anything about non-abelian groups with that theorem
just to add on to this, we dont have a good way of answering the full question "how many groups are there of a given order"
we do know like, groups of order p^k where p is a prime number and k < 8
but i dont think we know like, how many groups of order 5^8 there are
For small orders, it often comes down to trying things with Sylow's theorems, showing that certain groups are impossible, factoring the order and looking for simple groups whose orders are factors and doing direct and semidirect products, etc.
At least in my experience doing problems like "find all groups of order 2223" as homework problems
yeah you can do things in large swaths too
I've had enough of those problems for the rest of my life
like "groups of order pq"
there are either 1 or 2 depending on p mod q (wlog p > q)
there are some interesting patterns if you look at like
groups of order p^k for some fixed k
we've done all of the standard results in my group theory class
I dunno, these can be kind of fun, at least the first dozen or so.
The first dozen or so is the keyword
for example, for p > 3, the number of groups of order p^6 is 3p^2 + 39p + 344 + 24 gcd(p - 1,3) + 11 gcd(p-1,4) + 2 gcd(p-1,5)
How do you prove that. That's more advanced than what my "Abstract Algebra I" course covered.
Oh yeah that's the other method of finding all groups of a given order
The most powerful method mathematicians have
Look it up on the internet
And hope someone's already done it
A complete list of the groups of order $p^6$, where $p$ denotes an odd prime number, is given using P. Hall's concept of isoclinism.
there's the paper
On an unrelated note, i'm currently trying to prove that $F_2$ contains $F_n$ for all $n\in \mathbb N$. I have the subgroups
$$H_n = \langle {b^iab^{-i}: i \in [n]}}\rangle$$
I want to prove that this is subgroup is free. I already have a surjective homomorphism $f:F_n\rightarrow H_n$ from the universal property of the free group. I'm wondering if it would be easier to prove injectivity of this homomorphism, or try to show that $H_n$ satisfies the universal property itself. Or maybe show that every word in the generators of $H_n$ has a unique reduced form and from there show injectivity
ShiN
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
\bN
beez nuts
?
I changed it but it didn't recompile
No
If it's a single char latex will just take it as input
I think it timed out on the editing or smth
I omit braces all the time, saves a lot of time typing
Oh I thought that there might be an issue with spacing
I do things like 2^4 without braces
And single-character subscripts
Nah latex doesn't care about spaces
Actually not doing a space might make it think it's a different command
And cause an error
That’s right
Anyways can anyone help
The answer is I think yes but I can't think of an example. Can you have a homomorphism that doesn't preserve commutativity? So let's say we have groups G and H, G abelian. Now say we have a homomorphism f: G -> H. Can we have f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y) and f(y + x) = f(y) + f(x) and x + y = y + x but f(x) + f(y) =/= f(y) + f(x)???
Also this would never be the case for isomorphisms right?
Due to isomorphisms being bijections, specifically due to then being injective.
f(x) + f(y) = f(x + y) = f(y + x) = f(y) + f(x)
@barren sierra
this has nothing to do with f being injective
the image of an abelian group under homomorphism must be abelian
because of what tterra said
you probably mixed up well defined (a = b implies f(a) = f(b)) with injective (f(a) = f(b) implies a = b)
Yea
Can 2 infinite sub groups be isomorphic?
Can for example a subgroup of Q/Z be isomorphic to Z?
any non-trivial subgroup of (Z,+) is isomorphic to (Z,+)
so yes. just gave you countably many instances
right but that's due to them having the same infinite
due to them being infinite and cyclic
what if you have 2 groups A and B
one is |A| = aleph_0; |B| = Aleph_3
is A isomorphic to B?
ok then they can’t be isomorphic
there literally isn’t a bijection on the level of sets
?
Z is the intergers
|N|
Countable
ohh
So how do I prove that there's no subgroup of Q/Z that is isomorphic to Z?
multiplication and sum
R and R^2 are isomorphic as groups and these two are isomorphic to those, so this doesn't work. a better example is Z and Z^2.
don't worry it's not intuitive at all why they should be isomorphic 
huh what the
axiom of choice fuckery
dude u gotta be joking rn
If you want to prove that (Z,+) cannot be embedded into (Q,+)/Z you can use that Z is a torsion free group and that Q/Z is a torsion group. That means all elements of Q/Z have finite order and all but the identity of Z have infinite order.
And order has to be preserved under embedding
i quit
ask merosity
wait that’s R and R^2 as vector spaces over Q
"in particular as additive groups"
Hang on, isn't ℚ/ℤ isomorphic to [0,1) ∩ ℚ ?
I think so
ok, good
If for some field F one has that G over F and G‘ over F are linear isomorphic as vector spaces, this implies that their additive groups are isomorphic.
ℤ/ℤ ≅ {0}
multiply by ℤ and thus ℤ ≅ {0}
easy 😎
Funny enough here this is actually valid if you take the coset appropriately
yes i see that but i’m still not convinced that R over R and R^2 over R are isomorphic
Oh wait right lol
as additive groups
additive groups doesn't care about underlying field...
But it‘s over Q
With R there’s a dimension problem but the dimension of R over Q and R^2 over Q is the same, though infinite
right
sometimes i hate axiom of choice because
"that can't possibly be true, right?"
"nope... well, except with AC"
"huh... and so what does the counterexample look like?"
"no idea"

I mean there‘s a lot of counterintuitive things that are true, intuition isn’t perfect
That‘s not only a thing about the axiom of choice
Like that (R,+) and (R^2,+) are isomorphic is also counterintuitive

Oh wait lmao
This follows from AC
And isn’t provable in ZF


I was confused about how R was a vector space over Q, but an MO post rightfully noted that a basis can be uncountable
this is now my least favorite thing in math
Why
how could you not dislike this 
I don’t dislike this
this plays with your emotions
It‘s interesting that it is true
From my experience, if you look at the gross maths there‘s a lot of interesting there
sure it’s interesting and all, it just makes me wanna vomit
(im joking)
jk but idk. i just don’t like that R and R^2 are isomorphic
Doesn't this also mean that (ℝ,+) and (ℝ^ℝ,+)
I think R^R has bigger cardinality
Because the power set of R can be injected into it
right
So they are not isomorphic
thank god
if X is countable is R^X still in bijection with R?
Yes I think so
I‘m not sure whether that is, I guess some nonstandard analyst would know
For countable N yeah
I think it is true that AC is equivalent to that for nonempty X, X^n and X are bijective iff X is infinite
Nope
|X^X| > |X| if |X| > 1
You need bounds on the exponent
For n a finite ordinal bigger 0
The bound is exactly the cofinality of |X| assuming generalised continuum hypothesis
|R^N|=|R|^|N|=(2^ℵ₀)^ℵ₀=2^(ℵ₀^2)=2^ℵ₀=|R|
i have no idea what they did in the third case but whatever
It's very weirdly written
This is kind of horrendous, but fun at the same time
That's not supposed to be read as a sequence
You separately so all of those
Indeed, but I have no ideas how they got their equalities
And X bijective with X^2 trivially implies for all finite ordinals n>0 X bijective with X^n
specifically c^ℵ₀ = ℵ₀^ℵ₀
Yeah I was assuming n to be want ordinal
Rather than finite
my bad
Yeah I said that it‘s finite here #groups-rings-fields message
I see, mb
Also funny quote from here
lmaooo
Lol
You do pretty much what you did lol 2^N ≥ (2^N)^N ≥ c^N ≥ N^N ≥ 2^N
Well the first 2 are just equalities so I didn't need to do the last 2
Clearly Frechet didn't live in an era with publish-or-perish





