#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 595 of 407
so to split a polynomial, you split its irreducible factors
for irreducible factors its easier to find the splitting field
If it was a bunch of distinct irreducible factors
would the splitting field
be Z3[x] / (q1(x))
then that / (q2(x))
ohh
so you gotta factorize further in the new extension
and then inductively build this tower
what if its like f(x) = (x-sqrt2)(x-sqrt3) (after we factor over R) over Q
thats not a rational polynomial
o true ahh ok idk where im going w this
do you mean x^2-2 and x^2-3?
yes!
right
then you first adjoin sqrt 2
ie adjoin x and quotient by (x^2-2)
and check if x^2-3 is irred in the new field (it is)
and then adjoin sqrt 3 to this
oh ok i see so could i write it as: Q[x]/(x^2-2) = Q(sqrt2) then (Q[x]/(x^2-2))/(x^2-3) = Q(sqrt2)(sqrt3) = Q(sqrt2,sqrt3)
where = means isomorphic im assuming
which means adjoining a y and quotienting by (y^2 - 3)
slightly wrong, you adjoin a different variable the second time
do you mean if (Q[x]/(x^2-2)) = F then F[y]/(y^2-3) would be proper way to write it?
yes
okk ty 🙏

also do uk why f(x) and f(x+a) have same splitting field in F[x], if a e F
would I use something about their bases to prove it?
F[x] has an automorphism which is identity on F, and maps x to x+a
it is an automorphism because x to x-a is an inverse
and for an automorphism f of R, R/J = R/f(J)
would it be defined like phi: F[x] -> F[x] := phi(f(x)) = f(x+a)
noo
f(J) means Image of J?
isnt it R/ker f = Im f?
it says that if you want to define a homomorphism from R[x] to S, you can define what it does on R and on x
yes
o i wasnt sure if it is LOL
Since its onto f(J) = J is that what you mean here?
but all these are only isomorphisms
nope
f(J)is not J if f is as I defined
x to x+a
If f(x) is irreducible over Zp then is it irreducible over Z
and hence irreducible over Q?
I need to show f(x) = x^5+2x+4 is irreducible over Q
so would a smarter approach be to show its irreducible over Zp?
for some p
Yeah that would work
in general
yeah i think p=2 does it, but it is not irreducible in Z_2
you gotta work further
hmm
p=2 is somewhat easy and its a good argument
good as in you see this with many polynomials
the factorization in Z_2 tells you what the factorizations in Z look like
at least something about them
and you can get a contradiction from there
You will get 4 divides 2
yes
.
you get then that in any factor of f(x) over Z, ||only the leading coefficient is odd||
this is M
You have to define a surjective map from M to R whose kernel is I
The intuition for defining such maps is that quotienting by I is like making all elements of I 0
thank you for replying! would phi(M) --> m suffice? since it's 0 in all elements of I
Yep, exactly
thank you so much!!

What is the difference between a unital associative algebra and a unital associative ring?
An algebra A over a ring R is a ring that is also an R-module "in a compatible way"
By that, I mean the multiplication in A is R-bilinear
So an algebra has a "scalar multiplication" over R while a ring doesn't?
Yeah
Ok thanks
np
All these terms are so confusing😅
Definitely, lmao
A good exercise to do is on a blank sheet of paper
Try write down all the algebraic structures you can remember
And what you are allowed to do in each one
Could I get a hint for this? I spent a while on it yesterday but I'm having a hard time finding the right angle to tackle it.
Originally I had hoped to be able to find such a subgroup by choosing suitable members from each coset of $H$ in $G$. However, if one takes $G$ as the set ${1, -1, i, -i}$ under multiplication and $H$ as ${1, -1}$, then you can't embed $G/H$ by picking representatives from ${1, -1}$ and ${i, -i}$, so that approach isn't the way to go.
Pan
do you know the fundamental theorem of finitely generated abelian groups?
not by name
it basically says that every finite abelian group is a direct sum of cyclic groups
that was the first thought which came to mind but I'm not sure you need that here
Yeah my next thought was to find a minimal generating set so that every element of $G$ could be written as a linear combintation $g = n_1 g_1 + n_2 g_2 +\dots +n_k g_k$
Pan
if you could choose the generators such that $g_1,\dots,g_i$ generate $H$
Pan
that sounds like it could be a problem though
but I'm not sure it works
Pan
yeah that sounds right
actually I think you might need to use some kind of structure theorem here
a finite abelian group is the direct sum of its p-parts
for primes p
and each of those can be written as a sum of cyclic groups
I can't think of a way to do it without using the structure theorem
been bashing it with homomorphisms for over 10 mins now and gotten nowhere
structure theorem makes it really nice
Okay I will make an attempt with the structure theorem
tbh my structure theorem proof only holds if we have some indexing set $S \subset {0, ..., n}$ $\frac{\bigoplus^n_{j=0} C_{p_j}}{\bigoplus_{i \in S} C_{p_i}}$ \cong \bigotimes_{i \in S^c}C_{p_i}$ where $S^c$ is the compliment of S in {0, ..., n}
Wew Lads Tbh
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I'll see if I can come up with a proof
Hey guys if we define r = x + (f(x)) where (f(x)) is an ideal and f(x) is irreducible over Q
where f(x) = x^5+2x+4
then K = Q/I is a field etc.
but im asked to show since r is a root of f(x) in K
f(x) = (x-r)q(x) for some q(x)
how do I find this q(x)
Im supposed to use division algorithim
but like its
x^5 + 2x + 4 = (x-r)*q(x)
and I dont understand the notation for r 🤔 do i just treat it as an arbitrary root
cuz they say r = x + I, where I is the ideal (f(x))
hmm?
You say in the first line we define r = x + I
yea
im copying the notation of my proff
apparently r = x + I is a root of f(x) in K
but idgi
I guess if you take projection phi : Q[x] -> Q[x]/f then u have some f(phi(x)) =phi(f(x)) =f(x) + (f(x)) = 0 right so its a root in the bigger field
any suggestion how to find q(x)
or what that even means
😭
im thinking just let r be arbitrary?
You can do the Euclidean division thingy
I don’t think you need to give an explicit q
i let q be monic degree 4 polyn
then just wrote it in terms of r
but idk if 1/r is allowed
if f: F--> G is an isomorphism, are orders of elements preserved?
what if F is additive and G is multiplicative?
and vice versa?
yeah
the name for the operations is irrelevant
not the operations
they are quite relevant
if by “additive” you mean abelian
then an abelian group can only be isomorphic to an abelian group
again you can see this via a kernel argument
i sensed a deeper misunderstanding that might be more important hahaha
for example, $(\mathbb{Z}/p\mathbb{Z})^*$ is isomorphic to $(\mathbb{Z}/p-1\mathbb{Z})$, but some elements won't have the same order in both? Unless i'm misunderstanding something
suck2015
p is prime btw
They do have the same order in both
https://proofwiki.org/wiki/Isomorphism_between_Additive_Group_Modulo_16_and_Multiplicative_Group_Modulo_17 (this is for all primes p and p-1)
ah , this is what i'm doing
They’re not even the same sets
so i guess the correct mapping should have elements of order k in the additive group being mapped to elements of order k in the multiplicative group
yes
is there a method of finding that mapping or do i just brute force to find the orders ?
the proof that they are isomorphic should tell you what the mapping is
it is rare to know two groups are isomorphic without first writing down the isomorphism
The idea is that you need to find an element of (Z/pZ)* of order p-1, which you can do by taking an element and “repeatedly extracting roots”
If theres a "easy" way to write down these maps crypto is fucked
If f: B --> A is integral and f^-1(J) = I for some ideal J of A and some ideal I of B, then the induced map B/I --> A/J is also integral
This is true right?
I wrote down a pretty straightforward proof but someone is saying that this statement isn't even true
Yes i’m pretty sure this is true. I mean, won’t the same polynomials that witness integrality of f work?
so in my algebra textbook, they have this definition of a gcd
later they claim that you can have 2 elements which have common divisors but do not have a gcd. but wont the identity element always divide any common divisors and therefore create a gcd by this definition?
it makes sense they would exclude 1 as a common divisor but its not stated so im not sure if its because of another reason
yes but isnt just one case required, the identity will always divide any d
if I have a double complex, then the maps in the total complex are defined by $d=d^h+d^v$
Or x1
but why is possible to sum each $d^h$ with $d^v$ if $d^h$ and $d^v$ dont have the same codomain?
Or x1
Sure
So the domain of d^h is some C_{p,q}
but you also have C_{p,q} including into that product
and you can add objects in the product
thanks
Hi! I'm working on some group and subgroup exercises with focusing on the order of elements(mostly on dihedral groups). I'm wondering if exists some online tool/website which computes the order of a given element in a given group, where i can verify some of my results.
Thanks!
I'm trying to find the integral solutions to the equation $4x^3-27=y^2$ but I'm having a hard time getting much further than showing that $y$ must be odd. I don't have too much experience with Diophantine equations so any help would be appreciated!
panoramatopia
there are no integral solutions. First, look at the equation mod 4 to get a relation for y. Then if you look at the equation mod 2 you get a contradiction
can someone explain how the map "g" is obtained from the g_i's?
this isn't quite the regular universal property of the direct limit
is M the direct limit of the M_i
sure, but how do we get P?
you have a morphism M_i \otimes N ---> P
for all I
compose that with g_i
so you have morphisms g_i : M_i x N ---> P
for all i
oof ok yeah i see
I don’t see where you get a contradiction, both will just say y is odd right? In any case x=3, y=9 is a solution right?
Yeah I think they both say y is odd. Because they both give you $y^2\equiv 1$
panoramatopia
hm, yeah. I got that y should be 3 mod 4, so 4x^3 - 27 = 3 + 4n, i.e. 4x^3 - 4n = 30, but 30 is not divisible by 4. Not sure where i went wrong
I don’t get how you got y is 3 mod 4, i think that is where you went wrong
yep, i see now. I just saw 3^2 = 1 mod 4 and ran with it, my bad
Sorry if this is a wrong channel, but:
Z/2Z is used for mod 2 arithmetic, but I don't understand why did we use that.
Later, I heard that multiples of phi is equidistributed on Z/Q
What does Z/Q mean?
not sure what you mean by this. a representation of a group G over a field K is the same thing as a module over the ring K[G]
but not all rings look like this
"mod 2 arithmetic" is by definition arithmetic in Z/2Z
and you'll have to give more context for your other question
Probably belongs more in #advanced-number-theory given that this is an elliptic curve. Anyway, this curve is the same as $16y^{2}=64x^{3}-432$ which is isomorphic to $y^{2}=x^{3}-432$ by the map $(x,y)\mapsto(4x,4y)$. By sage, this curve has rank 0 and only one integral point, $(12,36)$, so the original equation has only the solution $(3,9)$.
Bannanachair Monarch
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I don't know why this isn't compiling correctly.
Here's my code if you care:
0
sage: EllipticCurve([0,-432]).integral_points()
[(12 : 36 : 1)]
for quintic formulas: the Abel proof is the full and complicated proof so how does the Galois groups relate to this?
what do you mean?
The Galois group perspective on the insolvability of quintics comes down to the fact that S_5 is not a solvable group
If you can solve a polynomial equation by taking radicals it means the Galois group of the splitting field of that polynomial is a solvable group
probably an easy question, but I am trying to learn about ideals of rings. apparently, every ideal, I, of a ring R arises from a ring homomorphism.
so to prove that claim, if R is a ring and I is an ideal of R, then the map f(x) = 0 if x is in I and x is not 1, and f(x) = x otherwise should be a ring homomorphism with I as its kernel. am I missing anything here or is that sufficient?
Is it a homomorphism?
yes. it just seems like that was too easy for such an overarching claim, and i am unsure if i am overlooking anything
R
Ok so pick x in your ideal
f(x+x) = 1, because x + x € I, right ?
but f(x) + f(x) = 2
so this isn't an homomorphism
what? if x+x is in I, then f(x+x)=0
oh sry I misread
its ok lol
Still does not work tho
pick x in the complement of the ideal
f(x-x) = 0
f(x) + f(-x) = 2
oof. okay thanks
how should i actually proceed at showing that claim? this was just a first naive attempt
I don't know anything simpler than working with the quotient ring 
mod I ?
yes
hmm. that actually makes sense
there's an "obvious" map from R (where R is your ring) to R/I whose kernel is precisely I
should just be x maps to x + I, right?
wait, are ideals always normal subgroups of (R,+) ? its obvious if you have the claim im trying to prove, but it was not obvious until you mentioned the quotient group
its a subgroup right?
All rings have commutative sums (atleast for my def)
and rings are commutative with respect to +
hold on, this should be obvious tho. I is an abelian subgroup of R
yes
yea. thanks guys
Still no?
f(x) = x for x not in the ideal
Consider f(x + i), where i in I is non-zero and x is not in I.
f(x + i) = x + i, but f(x) + f(i) = x + 0 = x.
If an automorphism of F_p closure fixes all subfields setwise, then is it identity?
F_p or Q
for the Fp case, like the Frobenius automorphism for example ?
hmm does it fix all subfields?
that depends on what you mean by "fix"
yeah I think it does
ahh I see
well I am trying to characterize all such automorphisms lol
for F_p and Q closures
and idk how to do that
Maybe you classify automorphisms of their finite extensions or something?
I think I see what you mean
Let me try this
So if I want to do this for Q (and there turn out to be no non id automorphisms), then it will be sufficient to show that every finite extension is contained in Q(a) where Q(a) doesn't contain any conjugates of a other than itself
because then any such automorphism of the closure restricts to identity on Q(a)
can you come up with an automorphism of Fp-closure that doesn't fix all subfields setwise?
(hint: every finite extension of Fp is normal)
How do you pick conjugates consistently?
hmm I don't get it
If you pick any subfield K, and an element x in it, then x has to map to something within F_p(x) by finiteness and hence normality of F_p(x)
and F_p(x) is in K
correct
so image of K is contained in K
surjectivity is by injectivity and the fact that everything is algebraic
ty
Now for the Q case 😵💫
imma head out
hello everyone 👋 😎 I've been messing around with finite fields and I'm kinda stuck on figuring out if it matters which irreducible polynomial you quotient by when you're doing a field extension of the form F_p/(p(x)) where p is irreducible. I've managed to show that if you use a specific irreducible polynomial of degree n you end up with a finite field of order p^n but is this the case for every irreducible polynomial?
the specific irreducibles I was using were x^n+x^(n-1)+...+x+(p-1) which I'm like 90% sure are irreducible by eisenstein
Yes; ||the extension is a vector space over the original field; find a basis||.
Is there a name for elements such that adjoining one of them to a field does not add any of its conjugates?
It'd be the opposite of a primitive element in a way
Like when we adjoin 3rd root of 2 to Q, we don't get any of its conjugates, while if it's a 4th root, we also get its negative, so I want to know if the elements of the first kind have a name
any good resource on graded algebra?
I have some questions. If two rings are isomorphic then their characteristic are the same? So if i need to prove that two rings are not isomorphic one possible method is to show that their characteristic are different? If R1 is isomorphic to R2 then automatically R2 is isomorphic too with R1(i think yes)?
And i need to prove that 3Z is not isomorphic to 4Z. How can i start this? Both are infinite and without unity(so i suppose in this case the carcateristic doesn't exist). I've proved before that 2Z and 3Z are not isomorphic wiriting 4 as 2+2 and 2*2, but in this case i can't see how to approach it. Sorry if these are silly questions:)
do you know what isomorphic means?
Yes
what does it mean?
If f is the isomorphism then f is bijective and f(x+y) =f(x) +f(y), f(xy) =f(x) f(y)
Also f(0)=0
so f is reversable
and you can just look at the equivalence classes to see that there are not the same amount of those
Ok, and about characteristic, if for exemple 1 is not in 2Z then the caracteristic doesn't exist?
if you just want to show that the characteristic between two isomorphic rings are the same you can do this:
let f be an isomorphism between two rings R1 and R2 where R1 has characteristic n
then f(0) = f(1*n) = n*f(1), but we know that f(0) = 0 as f is an isomorphism so n*f(1) = 0
but we know that f(1) must map to 1 in R2 as f is an isomorphism, so R2 has a characteristic of n as well
I understand, seems logic, thank you a lot! . But regard to my previous question, what happens if 1 is not in R, like 1 is not in 2Z. I'm asking because in my lecture the single mention about caracteristic is this : "the characteristic of a ring is the order of 1 in that ring"
A colloquial way to think about isomorphism is that two objects that are isomorphic are "the same up to a relabeling". Basically, if $A\cong B$ and $A$ has some property, we generally define isomorphism so that $B$ would also have that same property.
Elliptic Curve of Rank 9001
As for how to show that $3\mathbb{Z}$ and $4\mathbb{Z}$ are not isomorphic, I can think of several ideas, but the most obvious to me is that if $3\mathbb{Z}\cong4\mathbb{Z}$ then $\mathbb{Z}/3\mathbb{Z}\cong\mathbb{Z}/4\mathbb{Z}$, which is just blatantly false.
Elliptic Curve of Rank 9001
I find a prof for that. I calculate f(18) as f(3+3+...+3) and f (3*6) then i find a condtradiction
But, now the last question that i have is if the caracteristic of a ring is define when 1 is not in R. Or what is the term for this? Is doesn't exist, it is not defined? Like i understand the prof for equal characteristic when the rings are isomorphic, but for example if i have Z and 2Z and Z has caracteristic 0, what about 2Z?
All ideals of Z have characteristic 0.
Do you remember the definition of characteristic?
The definition that was given to me is "the characteristic of a ring is the order of 1 in that ring". This is the reason why i'm confused
The characteristic of $R$ is the least integer $n$ such that, for all $r\in R$, $nr=0$, where $nr$ means $r+r+r\dots$ $n$ times.
Nobody told what happens if 1 is not in that ring
Elliptic Curve of Rank 9001
In rings with unity, the definitions are equivalent.
I'm pretty sure that's a fallacy. In general for algebraic structures $M \cong N$ such that $M,N \subseteq A$ does not imply that $A/M \cong A/N$.
tox
Thanks for the correction. Perhaps allowing them to be isomorphic and looking at the isomorphism $\phi:3\mathbb{Z}\to4\mathbb{Z}$ and deriving a contradiction from that would be the best approach, then.
Elliptic Curve of Rank 9001
probably just look at image of 3 (generator) and it should follow?
that's what I was thinking, you'd need f(3) = 4
(or -4)
or -4
or -4
nah
And if $\phi(3)=4$, then $\phi(9)=\phi(3)\cdot\phi(3)=16$ and $\phi(9)=\phi(3)+\phi(3)+\phi(3)=12$, which is a contradiction.
Elliptic Curve of Rank 9001
for the record, I don't think you have to phrase this like a proof by contradiction
No, but I like proofs by contradiction and it's been a while since I've made a fun one.
my point is that this isn't really a proof by contradiction at all
the "contradiction" is just added on to the end and doesn't really contribute anything
what you're really arguing is that a ring isomorphism must also be a group isomorphism, and there are only two group isomorphisms from 3Z to 4Z, namely, phi(3) = 4 and phi(3) = -4. However, neither of those preserve ring multiplication.
Plus it seems like there's a lot of people here who are anti-LEM, and we wouldn't want to scare them
haha
not many they are just loud
also not even loud is anyone here anti lem
yes I hate his books
pretty sure there's at least one person whose an intuitionist in #foundations
Nikita if I'm not wrong
of course
Still waiting for the topology references 
We didn't tag him lol
Does anyone know the close-form solution to the general quintic in terms of radicals and ultraradicals/bring radicals?
The best source I can find is a 300-page-long lecture notes in German published in 1888 by Felix Klein.
have you read wikipedia? it tells you how https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bring_radical
first you change variables to get it into bring-jerrard normal form
and that transformation can be done using only radicals
it doesn't write out the entire formula, but it describes how to get it
I genuinely keep forgetting that wikipedia exists.
and trust me you don't want to try to write out the entire formula on one page
Is it worse than the quartic?
yeah
Awesome.
anyone here into group representation theory? (also @vocal yew / reply to my messages pls i have this server muted)
If you have questions, just ask them here
or if you're looking to start a book club, you should say that (but idk how much response you would get)
if (x) is a principal ideal in a commutative ring A, isn't (x) \otimes_A A/(x) = 0? Since (rx)\otimes y = r \otimes (xy) = r\otimes 0?
Pretty sure this is wrong though since (x) \otimes_A A/(x) \cong (x)/(x)^2
the issue with this is that r need not be in (x)
so you can't just leave r on the left hadn side
ah yea of course. Thanks
np
Is there some sort of notation to discuss the collection of all binary operations?
meaning like
"a binary operation on a set X is a function from X x X to X"?
functions from X to Y are often denoted by Y^X
Sure, but you consider the collection of every possible binary operation on X
so I guess you could call it $X^{X \times X}$
Buncho Bananas
what else is a binary operation
but a function from X x X to X
are you working with some other definition?
No, I am working with a trash logical statement and I am trying to use something else to make it make sense.
This statement does not make sense
What does 'make' mean?
"make the following statement true"
it seems oddly worded, but maybe if you changed "a value exists" to "values exist"
it makes sense to me
Oh, I think I understand. That was oddly worded, so thank you for clearing that up for me.
I think it's saying
write a logical sentence using an existential quantifier which says "there exists values a and b such that a^2 + b^2 < 0" and then determine if this statement is true
Yep, that's all it was.
When it says "a value exists", it made me think we had to throw in some other variable.
But I understand now.
For each submodule W, there is another submodule K such that V=W\oplusK
K is the complement of W in this scenario
thank you
I'm a little confused
Does it make sense to talk about nil potent elements in an arbitrary lie algebra?
phi(x) is an endomorphism
so here by nilpotent we mean the n-fold composition of phi(x) is the zero map
idk any lie theory so maybe I'll say something dumb, but doesn't nilpotent make sense in like, any group (or even any monoid) ? 
What does this concretely mean 
do the big parenthesis indicate something or
am i just overthinking
this is the set of all s_i in U cap U_i for any i
right
@uncut girder can u confirm
What big parenthesis
I don’t really know, I haven’t heard of one yet. We can talk about ad nilpotency though ( although i assume you already knew about that)
Show that morphisms from a quasiseparated scheme are quasiseparated (the definition of qs scheme is that intersection of quasicompact opens is quasicompact)
If A is in GL(n,Q) and p is a prime such that p>n+1, then if A^p=I_n then A=I_n.
Any thoughts on how to start on this?
Ps: i deleted this from another channel since this is the more appropriate channel to ask this. Thanks!
$$A^p-I_n=A^p-I_n^p=(A-I_n)(A^{p-1}+A^{p-2}+\dots+A+I_n)=0_{n\times n}$$
coycoy
Gotcha. So the second quantity does not equate to zero?
it can’t (unless x is the zero vector) since all the matrices are invertible
well wait
Nice thanks man!
that’s maybe not entirely true
Oh okay
i believe this is the right idea tho. just throwing some ideas around
Okay sure. I will try to work on it. Thanks!!
Here is a hint: ||turn A^p-I into the product over i (A-z_iI_n) were z_i are the pth roots of unity and z_1 is taken as 1. Now try to prove that for i>1, A-z_iI_n is invertible (hint: the characteristic polynomial of A has degree n<p-1 and the non identity roots of unity have a minimal polynomial over Q of degree p-1). Then we are done||
Show that morphisms from a quasiseparated scheme are quasiseparated (the definition of qs scheme is that intersection of quasicompact opens is quasicompact)
Reposting so it doesn't get lost
question: is [a][b]=1 equal to ab ≡ 1 mod n ?
how are b and n related?
few things to mention: gcd(a,n)=1 therefore there exist ab+cn=1. b and c are member of Z.
no, put a = b = 2 and n = 3 
mistakenly they said ab = 1 mod n
I'm confused what 
this is correct
and where is the mistake in the screen ?
i cannot understand why [a][b]=1 is equal to ab ≡ 1 mod n
Well, that's how multiplication of equivalence classes is defined
[a][b] = [ab]
so if [a][b] = [1]
then [ab] = [1]
or, written another way, ab = 1 (mod n)
if ab ≡ 1 mod n, then ab -1 = cn therefore it should be ab = cn + 1
ab + cn = 1 <=> ab = -cn + 1 = (-c)n + 1
so we have considered c=0 right ?
wut ? 
quite confused
Ok let me recap the proof, maybe that'll be clearer without the ugly notation
yea got it
thank you.

There is a condition that says a morphism f:X->Y is quasiseparated iff for any U,V affine opens in X that map into the same affine open of Y, U intersection V is a finite union of affine opens. With this condition the proof is easy, but for the life of me I can’t recall the proof
Oh wait
I remember proving this
Or at least something similar
a scheme is qs iff the intersection of two affine opens is a finite union of affine opens
Yeah this is the case when f is from X to Z i suppose. Does the proof you have generalize?
A lot of my problems when solving AG can be summarized by "I cannot recall the million different properties that quasi-normal-compact-separated-noetherian-local-connected-irreducible schemes have"
I'm afraid it is lost in the pages of my (unorganized) notebook
I'll try and find it later
Cool, hopefully this should work out.
Yeah same, I feel like there is a never ending sea of definitions in AG, I still don’t feel like I have a “handle” on the so to speak
At the pace that AG books define new things, you could almost call it a rising sea of definitions
LMAO
you dont need to have a perfect handle on every single adjective all the time
when you start looking at topics, you will use only a certain subset of adjectives
and it's much easier to familiarize yourself with those before you start
undergrad courses: learning nouns
grad courses: learning adjectives
i will not be taking questions
i have a question
みつけたよ @gritty sparrow
Not yet
Can we learn about those at the post-doctorate level?
thanks
Can someone verify my solution to this?
It seems much simpler than the hints
let pi be the morphism. Then pi^-1(Spec k)= Spec A where A is a finite k-algebra
However, that must mean that A is a field
Then X = pi^-1(Spec k) = Spec A is just a single point
And the rest follows trivially
This feels to easy
And also suggests something stronger than what the hints suggest
Look at the example. Is your conclusion true (for that example)?
Hmm so it seems that A is not necessarily a field
Though I don't see where exactly my proof goes wrong
is the ring in the example a finite k-algebra?
what would happen if n = 0
how did you define n
it's the number of times the binary operation occurs?
then only the identity would be in the group, and since its finite, there exists such a n, otherwise it would be infinite
did i do smthing wrong lol
I don't see how that's a rigorous definition of anything
i think they mean that n means the amount of times that x has been combined with itself
where ? when ?
the order is the smallest integer such that x^n = e
well yeah but you need to show that such a number exists first
(smallest positive integer such that x^n = e)
what if there is no positive integer such that x^n = e
it's subgroup of G tho
but we are assuming its finite, if the order was infinite then the cyclic subgroup would be infinite -> gp is infinite
that's what the exercise wants you to prove properly
thats what i was trying to say :D
i think they r on part 2
uh
we are not assuming the order exists and is finite, we are assuming gp(x) is a finite set
oh yeah i am
i dont know if i even did 1 right anymore now
?
yeah but the order always exists tho?
it could be infinite or a finite positive integer
besides they haven't defined the order of a group element yet
that's the point of question 2
okay
student : I have trouble doing this exercise that properly defines this notion
you : hey it's easy you have to use the notion
suppose that there didnt exist such an n>0
ok
OH
i finally get what you mean
lmfao i am slow ty 🙏
To use the affine communication lemma, I need to prove that if pi^-1(Spec A) is quasicompact, then pi^-1(Spec A_f) is quasicompact as well
Any ideas?
Yeah, write pi^-1. (Spec(A)) as the finite union of affine opens, spec(B_i) then in the ring maps phi:A->B_i it is easy to see that that the if a prime doesn’t contain phi(f), phi^-1(p) doesn’t contain f, and all p st phi^-1(p) is in D(f) come this way. Hence pi^-1(A_f) intersection with spec(Bi) will be the affine open spec(Bi_phi(f)). So we can cover pi^-1(A_f) by finitely many affine opens
Thank you!!
Np
I don't understand
What is phi?
The ring map corresponding to the map we get from spec(Bi)->spec(A) (which is the restriction of pi to spec(Bi))
Does this make sense now?
Nice
Hi guys quick question: If I have a GF(2^4) field generated through Q(y)=y^4+y+1. And a composed field GF((2^4)^2) generated by P(x)=x^2 + x + w^14 while Q(w) = 0. What form does a primitve element of the composed field have and how can I construct a basis for the composed field?
Are Hamel bases on an infinite dimensional vector space uncountable?
ℝ[x] and {1, x, x^2, ...}
or are you asking for the number of hamel bases
no, just take any set of countably many linearly independent vectors, their span is infinite dimensional vector space with countable hamel basis
what do elements of a quadratic extension L/K look like?
Nah, the basis itself.
If I tried to construct a Hamel basis for an infinite dimensional vector space, would the basis be an uncountable set?
homie I just told you and look at tterra example
i just gave an example of a countable one, as did ledog
What's R[x]?
polynomials in x with real coefficients
But, would that basis be able to express every polynomial as a finite linear combination?
There is a vector space over any field with dimension any cardinality.
Yes.
Part of the definition of polynomials is being finite, so inherently they must be composed of a finite linear combination of monomials.
They are pairs of of elements of the base field right?
Of course! smart.
Would the same construction be possible for every infinite dimensional vector space?
Can every infinite dimensional vector space have a countable Hamel basis?
No.
By this, there is a vector space with any cardinality as basis.
And all bases have the same cardinality.
Cool, thanks!
Hmmm, I wonder can we talk about maximal vector spaces then? Like how the surreals are a proper class that behaves like a field and includes an embedding of every cardinality field, is there a class that includes an embedding of every cardinality dimension?
how does that produce an element of L?
Yeah well thats my question because I have this polynomial to generate the elements but I don't know how.
so let's say L = K[x]/(x^2+ax+b) where a,b in K
then what does an element of L look like?
In general, I think if you have K[x]/(p(x)) you can think of it as K[c] where c is some constant such that c is not an element of K and p(c) = 0.
for example R[x]/(x^2+1) is R[i] because i is not an element of R and (i^2+1) = 0
Ok thank you guys this is very helpful. I will try to figure out tomorrow at work how this applies to my problem.
Do you have any literature resources a paper or something that explains this concept in a practical way like you two just did?
I found the book written by authors Dummit&Foote really nice, it has a lot of examples and problems.
Add this book also covers extension fields and irreducible polynomials like we disscussed now?
Ok thanks I will try it out!
Can you continue on your example? I think it will help me understand better ^^
Basically elements of that ring are polynomials of degree 1 less than the thing you take quotient of.
So like when you have a ring K[x]/(x^2 +ax +b) the elements are f(x) + (x^2+ax+b), but they simplify to some cx + d
You can't ... oh, proper classes. I have no idea then.
Possibly if you construct the free vector space on the class of all sets?
I'm not sure that you can construct a (proper class) free vector space on a proper class, though.
Actually, I think you can.
Let V := { f | f is finite and f is a function and the range of f is a subset of the base field F }.
Given f, g; let dom(f) = A and dom(g) = B then define h as a function on A U B which is the sum of f and g.
Similarly for scaling.
Actually restrict that f never takes the value 0 to get a canonical representative.
h is then defined on A U B \ { x in A U B : f(x) + g(x) = 0 }.
The zero function would have to be viewed as a function on the empty set (i.e. the "empty" function).
This seems like it would still be a regular set of cardinality 2^|F| though?
Oh wait I see what you mean now
One possible basis would include every f such that dom(f) is {x} and f(x) = 1. This wouldn't necessarily encompass the whole basis, but at least part of it. And if you were to let F be the surreal numbers then there is a basis vector corresponding to every surreal number, and since the number of surreals is greater than every possible cardinal number, the dimension of V would be greater than every possible cardinal number. Thus all vector spaces over any ordered field can be embedded into V.
I wonder if that construction is strictly necessary though? Perhaps the surreals would directly satisfy such a vector space. If F is an ordered field, then F is a subfield of No. Now suppose you wanted a vector space of dimension n on F, where n is a cardinal. You could find a larger field by finding a set of n linearly independent numbers, B, in No\F and considering F[B] as a vector field over F.
by endomorphisms in L we just mean elements in L?
(because L is a subalgebra of gl(V) )
thanks
Is this related to "Lie Algebras" or is that something else?
"this" meaning abstract algebra?
a lie algebra is a certain type of nonassociative algebra (vector space with an extra operation)
so its an object one would study in abstract algebra
but in practice lie algebras are mostly used by analysts
and physicists
well, thats misleading, theyre studied plenty in abstract algebra too
but my point is that theyre not solely confined to #groups-rings-fields even though they are an algebraic structure
By "this" they probably meant the question posted above
then still no
The above question is with reference to the lie algebra on gl(V)
wait wtf
i missed lime soups question
and was referring to the one by doodle/tox above it
sorry
im causing needless confusion
unforgivable
the nullstellensatz reverses inclusions
this should change smallest into biggest?
as in
im trying to show that I(Y_1)+I(Y_2)=\sqrt{I(Y_1\cap Y_2}
opps radical on the wrong side
but I'd like to argue that \sqrt{ I(Y_1)+I(Y_2) } is the smallest radical ideal containing I(Y_1) and I(Y_2)
Y_1\cap Y_2 is the biggest algebraic set contained in Y_1 and Y_2
so I(Y_1\cap Y_2) should be the smallest radical ideal which contains I(Y1) and I(Y2)
yes never mind it works
A tough problem that I can't figure out: Let $\pi$ and $e$ be the familiar constants, i.e. $\pi\approx3.14\dots$ and $e\approx2.71\dots$. Show that $\mathbb{Q}(\pi)(e)/\mathbb{Q}(\pi)$ is a transcendental field extension, or show that it is an algebraic field extension.
Elliptic Curve of Rank 9001
(Edited because the book that I'm using right now was published in the '70s and uses notation and spellings of words that I haven't seen anywhere else)
Well maybe that's why I was having such a hard time of it.
No, I read the chapter in a book on transcendental field extensions and made my own problem for fun
There was a proof for the transcendence of $\mathbb{Q}(e)/\mathbb{Q}$ and for the transcendence of $\mathbb{Q}(\pi)/\mathbb{Q}$ and I thought it wouldn't be that much harder.
Try this next: Prove that any finite group can be realized as a Galois group of some extension over Q or give a counterexample.
Elliptic Curve of Rank 9001
I think I can do any finite abelian group.
I'd rather do the Tits group
The more general case sounds a bit harder.
It’s an open problem 
Well that would explain why it sounds harder.

Can someone verify my solution for b)?
I think it's just writing out the definitions, but there are so many of them that I'm not sure I applied them correctly
Suppose pi: X --> Y is integral and of finite type. Let Spec B be an open affine subset of Y. We get that pi^-1(Spec B) = Spec A where the induced ring morphism pi^# from B to A is integral. However, since pi is of finite type, A must be a finitely-generated B algebra through pi^#. Now use that an element is integral over B iff it is contained in a subalgebra of A which is a finite B-module on the generators of A.
Do all Chevalley groups contain the corresponding Weyl groups as subgroups?
let $C(\mathbb{R)}$ commutative ring with unit of $f: \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$, and $M_a={ f | f(a)=0, \quad a\in \mathbb{R} }$. how can i prove that $M_a$ its the only maximal ideal?(i supose that )
Polux12
don't think this is true, it would be true if you look at C(K) where K is a compact space, but not true in general.
we just need to find a proper ideal that isn't contained in any of those M_a, and then the maximal ideal containing this would be different from any M_a
Yeah this seems correct
Also, you should maybe state that the fi’s are positive or something, otherwise they won’t necessarily be zero outside of (-n,n).
ahh oopsie
Is the map on the underlying topological space just the identity and the map O_X(U) --> O_X(U) given by a |--> a^p?
This map clearly satisfies the appropriate commutative diagram and induces the map a |--> a^p at stalks as well (if a is a non-unit, then so is a^p so it is local). Thus, it is a scheme morphism
Hey 
Is there an easy proof of the fact that $\mathbb{K}[X]/(\pi^m)$ is a local algebra (unique maximal ideal) if $\pi$ is an irreducible polynomial ?\
My proof goes like this:\
I show that for some ring $R$ and a two-sided ideal $I$, $f: A \to B, J \to J/I$ is bijective, where $A$ is the set of all ideals of $R$ containing $I$ and $B$ the set of all ideals of $R/I$.\
Then I say that an ideal containing $\pi^m$ is of the form $P\mathbb{K}[X]$, since $\mathbb{K}[X]$ is a PID.\
Since $P\mathbb{K}[X]$ contains $\pi^m$, $P \mid \pi^m$, and because $\mathbb{K}[X]$ is factorial, $P$ must be of the form $\pi^n$ with $n < m$ (up to multiplicative constant), and then I get the chain of ideals
$$(\pi^m)/(\pi^m) \subset (\pi^{m-1})/(\pi^m) \subset \cdots \subset (\pi)/(\pi^m)$$
and I'm done
Shika
the book I'm reading vaguely says (not really says, but that seems to be what the author meant) that we could do something easier "in the fashion of the classification of the ideals of Z/p^nZ, with p prime", but I don't really know how to do it in the case of Z/p^nZ either (in a simpler way than this, I mean)
oh wait

I guess we can just use Bezout 🤔
Yeah bezout should work.\
Quotient of PID is a PID, so for any ideal $I$ of $\mathbb{K}[X]/(\pi^m)$, there is some $P \in \mathbb{K}[X]$ such that $\bar{P}(R/I) = I$.\
Now, because Bezout, we get that for any $Q, U \in \mathbb{K}[X]$, $gcd(P, \pi^m) \mid PQ + U\pi^m$ and that there is $Q, U$ such that $gcd(P, \pi^m) = PQ + U\pi^m$, and that shows $\bar{P}(R/I) = gcd(P, \pi^m)(R/I)$
Shika
And then since $gcd(P, \pi^m)$ must be a divisor of $\pi^m$, we're done
Shika
What does fancy K mean here?
K is a field
I think I proved this in December 2019
Hold on. I'll try and find it in my old notebooks
It might take a while
Yes this is correct
Is this from Dummit and Foote?
I vaguely recall proving that the image of (pi) is the unique maximal ideal
I think you can argue like this: In K[x] the maximal ideals are exactly (f(x)) for irreducible f. f^n is contained in (f) and if f^n is contained in g for some other irreducible g, g divides f
Does this seem correct?
Yeah that's what I think too
Any maximal ideal containing pi^m will also contain pi which forces it the ideal to be (pi)
Isn’t that the same argument? (Since g is a prime element)
PIDs are factorial, right?
wait yes
you're right
I'm so bad at ring theory, I should really try learning it properly some day
Might I suggest Aluffi chapter 0 for it
I don't exactly get your proof tho, are you arguing about this in K[X] or in the quotient K[X]/(pi^m) ? 🤔
wait 🤔
My bad
I should probably be more explicit
I'm using that ideals in the quotient are images of the ideals in the original ring which contain the thing you're quotienting by
In fact, these two sets are in a natural bijection
oh right, so one of the thing I've proved above right ?
Well I don't really know ring theory, except basic defns, so I don't know "the theory" lol, I do what I can with what I know 
It's pretty cool ngl
It doesn't behave very nicely sometimes, but modules behave VERY nicely and you need ring theory to study those
Btw what book are you reading from shika?
it's a book in french, about "advanced" (not that much) linalg 
(https://www.amazon.fr/Algèbre-linéaire-endomorphismes-Roger-Mansuy/dp/2311002856, this one, in case anyone's interested
)
And it teaches ring theory? Damn that is interesting, is this for the jordan decomposition or whatever?
no, it doesn't teach ring theory, that's the point, it remains fairly light on the abstract algebra prerequisites in most of the book, except at the end of each chapter where there is a dedicated section for "comments and developments" where the author (intentionally) forget about the prerequisites and just give interesting facts, rephrase some stuff by using some more theory (quotients instead of just doing everything by hand, for example) etc. 
Do you know french?
I'm french, so yeah lol
Nice. That means you can read EGA pretty easily (if you decide to)
and yes, jordan and froebenius stuff, diagonalization, trigonalization, cayley hamilton, and all the theory around that + some stuff about the topology of Mn(R) and Mn(C)
(oh and markov chain stuff but idk probability so I won't read that part
)
Oh no, don’t do this to him, he’s too young to take the AG pill
Abandon sanity, become Goomer
Saketh is right, I'm still too young and too innocent
Maybe in a year or two 
oh woops, I can't write 
Goomer? Never heard that one before, but its nice to know math has wojacks too
(nobody saw that typo)
How come?
Now I look like a dumbass, thanks
(well not really a typo, more like a brainfart, but w/e
)
no problem !
Anyway, do you have any interest in learning about ag at all?
yes, AG looks really interesting 
I don't even know what a good starting point would be tho, any recommendation ? (I'm not planning on starting in a near future, there's some stuff I want to learn before, but I'll keep the recommendations in mind
)
you definitely need a good handle on algebra before you start
Or maybe
Instead of using ring theory to understand schemes, you draw schemes to understand ring theory
I think the standard route is atiyah mcdonald for commutative algebra, then move on to hartshorne /vakil for ag
hartshorne 
Already scared of it? How come?
I've heard so many things about that book lol, now I see it as a sacred book that can only be read by the chosen ones 
Tbh, I don't think you need to read A-M for AG
Only a few topics from it
Because the stuff on dedekind domains and stuff is primarily for NT
Dimension theory will get really hard without a good commutative algebra background, i really don’t know how you’ll manage without it
Good or bad things?
"the book is super hard" kind of things
(btw is that correct ?
)
Yeah some of the exercises are pretty brutal, but it isn’t impossible (especially if you’re willing to skip stuff and come back later).
Although i’m yet to finish it fully, so I can’t really say wether it gets much worse even later on
I see 
Vakil is much gentler
Oh yeah, I was about to ask you what you thought about vakil. Do you think it’s better than hartshorne?
I only read ch 1 and 4 from Hartshorne, but I think Vakil is better
I also don't like exercises being piled up at the end of each section so I really liked Vakil for not doing that
I see
Also I've heard great things about that book from a friend:
http://userpage.fu-berlin.de/aconstant/Alg2/Bib/Shafarevich.pdf
do you have any opinions on it ? 
(that's actually 3 books, only the first one is included in the link, but the toc of the others are there too
)
I haven’t really heard of it before. Seems pretty interesting, but it looks like it has a lot of focus on the concrete algebraic varieties rather than the generalities (that probably isn’t a bad thing depending on your pov)
I don't know what's an algebraic variety and what's supposed to be the more general stuff you're speaking about, but okay 
a prof in my department loves this book lol, Book 1 is supposed to be more concrete indeed. According to a friend it's quite well written though the "old Russian book" style really shows
If a Lie subalgebra $\mathfrak{p}$ of a real, semisimple Lie algebra $\mathfrak{g}$ complexifies to a Lie subalgebra $\mathfrak{p}\mathbb{C} \subset \mathfrak{g}\mathbb{C}$ which contains a Cartan subalgebra of $\mathfrak{g}_\mathbb{C}$, did then $\mathfrak{p}$ necessarily contain a Cartan subalgebra of $\mathfrak{g}$?
Lartomato
wdym excluding rotations and mirroring?
https://www.whitman.edu/Documents/Academics/Mathematics/Huisinga.pdf anyways, this might be of use. (I found it pretty helpful, but not sure what exactly you're looking for.)

if a and b are conjugate they should have the same cycle type
In other words a^i should be a 9-cycld
So everything except integers of form 3k
When you write a permutation as a product of disjoint cycles note the number of elements in each cycle
That sequence is cycle type
For example,cycle type of (1 2 3 4 5) is 5
for (1 2) (3 4) it's 2,2
11 is the general statement
Hint: follow the disjoint cycle containing 1
If i is not relatively prime,That cycle has less than m elements
Otherwise,it will have m elements
This works because of a modular arithmetic property
I just realized that $\sqrt[3]{1}\in\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{-3})$ and I'm not sure how I feel about that. The math checks out; I proved it like 5 different ways, but it just genuinely weirds me out that a cube root of an integer is contained within a degree 2 field extension of $\mathbb{Q}$ even though I proved it a bunch of times.
Elliptic Curve of Rank 9001
(I should maybe clarify that I'm talking about the complex roots, by the way)
this is almost always the case
a primitive nth root of unity lives in an extension of order phi(n)
where phi is the euler totient function
x^n - 1 is not irreducible
in the case n=3, x^3 - 1 = (x-1)(x^2 + x + 1)
the primitive cube roots of 1 are roots of x^2 + x + 1
which is why they live in a degree 2 extension
Ah yes, that helps my intuition a lot. Thanks.
Does E follow directly from D or am I applying it incorrectly?
Here's the definition of a closed embedding
I mean, you still need to talk about localizations
Using D, can't we just say that since we can cover Spec B with, well Spec B such that the inverse image is isomorphic to Spec A and the induced map B --> A is surjective, we're done
A property is affine local if given an affine open cover U such that each set of U has the property, then every affine open has the property
so using your cover, to prove that Spec A -> Spec B is a closed embedding, you need to show that Spec A -> Spec B is a closed embedding?
Yes
Well
No
We need to show that the inverse image of Spec B is isomorphic to Spec C for some ring C and the induced morphism B --> C is surjective
In this case, C is just A and the induced map is what we started with
but your definition says "every" affine open subset
But we can use D to require just proving it on an affine open cover
D is talking about the property "is a closed embedding"
if you want to use D, you need to prove that every element in your cover has the property "is a closed embedding"
i.e. you need to prove that Spec A -> Spec B is a closed embedding
you're confusing it with the property "(the ring map) is surjective"
What is the statement of D in precise terms?
if I have a map X -> Y and if {Yi} cover Y and if π^-1(Yi) -> Yi is a closed embedding for each i, then X -> Y is a closed embedding
np
Hello! How would one prove that any irreducible element of a Bezout Domain is a prime element ?
(I'm asking here cuz I saw this and I thought it was related to field extensions, but if not I'm sorry, where should I post my question? I'm a bit new here)
is this true?
oh wait it might be
hmm
this book asked me to prove it
ye it's fine
fix any irreducible element x
assume there is an ideal J containing (x)
pick an element in J which is not in (x)
say y
then (x) + (y) = (z)
z is in J, sure
wait oooo can't we do smth like
z divides x
but z also divides y
x does not divide y
so z cant be x
or a unit times x
wait but x is irreducible right so in order for it to be in the ideal, every other element has to be a multiple of x right?
every other element in the ideal
which ideal
J
like if x is irreducible and x is in J, J has to be equal to xR right ? where R is the bezout domain we're working on
cuz otherwise
x would be a multiple of a number
oo wait okay I'm dumb
I mean after we're done with the proof that's true
J can be equal to R times a unit right
J can be R
ofc
oh
but I mean like
this has to be a process we can't do on non Bezout domains right? how do we use the fact that R is a bezout domain ?
I think that's what I don't understand
.
oh
that's where we use that it's a bezout domain
again, here's the argument from the start
assume there's an ideal J which properly contains (x)
assume J is not R
so there is a non-unit y in J \setminus (x)
(x) + (y) = (z) as we're working with a bezout domain
(x) + (y) is not the entire ring as it is contained in J
so z is not a unit
but z divides x and z is not equal to x (as z divides y)
did that make sense @torpid harbor
but isn't this assumption equivalent to x not being irreducible ?
I think you proved the other direction innit
but I kinda see the idea, I think I could do the same for the direction I want (after all it's clearly an iff right)
I still have to formalize it in my head tho
no, this is equivalent to saying that (x) is not maximal
but ty lots @sturdy marsh! I think I have a clearer picture
If B --> A is surjective, then Spec A --> Spec B is injective. Does this work the other way around?
Since Ring isn't an abelian category, I'm not sure
The inclusion Z → Q should be a counterexample
Any idea on how to do this?
Let Spec C be affine open and let Spec D be it's preimage
I know that the induced map Spec D --> Spec C is injective
But how do I show that C --> D is surjective?
Given B --> A is surjective
Take G=Sp_4 and its two standard maximal parabolics with Levi decompositions P_1=M_1N_1 and P_2=M_2N_1. Then M_1=GL_2 and N_1 is a length 2 unipotent algebraic group 0≤N'_1≤N_1 with M_1 acting by N_1/N'_1=V_2 the standard representation and N'_1=det, and M_2=SL_2xGL_1 and N_2 is a length 1 unipotent algebraic group with M_2 acting by N_2=Ad=Sym^2(V_2)\otimes det^{-1}.
This persists to dual groups, after switching the long and short roots. Now what do these decompositions look like for G=Sp_6 and its dual group? Now one has three standard maximal parabolics with Levis GL_3, SL_2xGL_2, and Sp_4xGL_1, and intermediate parabolics with Levis GL_2xGL_1, GL_2xGL_1, and SL_2xGL_1xGL_1.
Is surjectivity here using that we can check epimorphismness of a sheaf morphism by checking if it induces surjective stalk morphisms?
yea morphisms of sheaves are surjective iff surjective on stalks
to see surjective -> surjective on stalks use skyscraper sheaves
Thanks
Can someone help me prove that an open immersion is locally of finite type
I have proved that it suffices to show this when the target is affine
Let pi: U --> Spec B be an open immersion
Then U can be written as a union of distinguished open sets of Spec B
Each of these induce the map B --> B_f for some f
and this is clearly a finitely gen B algebra
How do I continue?
This would immediately follow if locally of finite type was affine local on the source, but it seems to good to be true
Open immersions aren’t necessarily of finite type i think
Vakil disagrees
Locally of finite type
Which is what you showed basically
Did I?
I still need affine localness on the source to finish this
Which I don't think holds in general
Let B --> C be a morphism such that B --> C --> C_f_i realizes C_f_i as a finitely generated B-algebra and (f_1,...,f_n)=1, then is it true that C is a finitely generated B-algebra?
Sorry, I lost signal for the internet, but aren’t we done by what you’ve done because for any u in U, we can cover u by some D(f) inside U and the map B->B_f makes B_f fg as a B module
@vestal snow
Not exactly sure what you're saying
I proved that U can be covered by affine sets, each having corresponding ring a finitely generated B algebra
I mean for each u in U we’ve shown that f is of finite type at u, hence f is locally of finite type
I used an alternate equivalent definition
Do you know if this is true?
This would solve it
Yes it is true
Do you know how to prove it?
I remember it was a lot of index tracking, but other than that i don’t really recall much of the proof
I'm not sure that this is true
I thought I proved it, but (f_1,...,f_n) = 1 does not imply the coefficients of the linear equation of the f_i which gives 1 need to be in the image of B
Do you know any book where this is mentioned?
I don’t really recall, you can try matsumura. In any case, i’m pretty sure putting in the coefficients along with the fi and the c_i,j which are in C whose image in C_fi generate C_fi will give you the generating set
Yes this works
Can you provide a proof?
As far as I am aware is $GL_n(\bZ)$ finitely generated, is the same true for $M_n(\bZ)$ viewed as a monoid?
27182818284tropy
Here GL_n(Z) denoting M_n(Z) with the condition that the determinant is +-1
hint: let n=1
Is M1(Z) not Z
Is that not finitely generated?
Is it a joke tho? 
yes
Z isn't I think
👀
As a multiplicative monoid
Probably because of my 


