#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 594 of 407
Okay then. Thank you everyone for your help
I kinda missed this point
Thank you for being helped
No no
I did not intend to make fun of you
I thought you were being sarcastic
Hope you did not mind....
i forgive you this time 

Does the fact that if we take an application $\phi$, it's eigenvalues $\lambda,\lambda'$ and $v$ eigenvector associated to $\lambda$ and $v'$ associated to $\lambda'$ then $v$ and $v'$ are linearly independent follows from the fact that $V_{\phi,\lambda}\cap V_{\phi,\lambda'}={0}$ where $V_{\phi,\bullet}$ denotes a eigenspace associated to $\bullet$ eigenvalue?
𝔻аniil
(lambda' and lambda are distinct eigenvalues)
Lol i thought of proving that (which is a very simple proof), but I thought that it was too good to be true. Thanks for the help!
In the above example we have to check whether f(x) is irreducible over Q by applying the Mod p Irreducibility Test....
Can anyone explain me how they concluded that "h bar(x)" has no zeroes in Z2??
Can you pls elaborate this a bit...
Suppose h(x) has a zero a,then h(x)=(x-a)g(x)
i.e.,constant term of g * a=1
i.e.,a is a unit
Ook...got it...Thanks a lot
how to prove that $\Pi iH_n(A{i})=H_n(\Pi_i A_i)$ with $A_i$ complex chains of $R$ modules?
r2h
Hi everyone
Can someone help me answering the following questions:
What are the concrete counterparts of a system, matrix, and eigenvalue?
Why do random matrices decode complex patterns so well?
<@&681260374879633482>
this seems more like a linear algebra question
but I suppose lin alg is technically part of abstract algebra
Matrices represent a lot of things well, since every linear transformation can be expressed as a matrix (once you fix a basis), and you can "zoom in" and approximate basically every function between vector spaces as linear locally, so matrices are a convenient, yet general representation of many complicated things
idk what you mean by concrete counter part to a matrix lol
it's like a generalized notion of a slope in some sense? (as least that's one way to think about it)
Can someone help me with this?
This is a very annoying exercise
I've shown that all elements a/1 of the localization with a irreducible in A and a not in the multiplicative set S are irreducible elements of S^-1(A)
I need to show that all irreducible elements of the localization are of the form a/s where a is irreducible in A and a is not contained in S
and then I need to show the uniqueness part
This seems to be untrue, if you localise Z at the set {6,6^2,..} 3/1 is actually a unit
You want to be a little bit careful. In order for a/1 to be irreducible It is not enough that a is not in S, but rather that a does not divide any element of S. But the converse is also true, that if a divides an element of S, then a/1 is a unit. You should be able to use this to show that if a/s is irreducible, then you can write it in the form of a/s where a is irreducible and does not divide an element of S.
Yeah I sightly changed the strategy
First, notice that the localization at S is the same as the localization at the set of factors of the elements of S
At least in an integral domain
I am confused about what exactly this means for an integral domain in general, but it makes sense for UFDs and should work for your purposes
Then prove that a/s is irreducible iff a is irreducible and a is not in S
After that it becomes pretty straightforward
I'm pretty sure that there is a way to prove this more directly
But it gets messy really fast
That is the standard proof i’ve read atleast, so I’m not so sure about that
Essentially the proof is careful bookkeeping
Which is why I described this as annoying
Also, I just realized your pfp is Rias Gremory lol
I always thought it was a leaf or something
I see you are a man of culture as well
A leaf? 
I made two small mistakes which led me to the right conclusion
I need to prove that if a/s is irreducible, then a is also irreducible
Assuming that every factor of every element of the set S is contained in S
Let a=bc
Then a/1 = b/1 x c/1
Since a/1 is irreducible, we get WLOG b/1 is a unit
Using our choice of S, this implies that b is in S
However, we know that since a is not in S (as a/1 is not a unit), c is not in S
I don't know how to go from here
Do you remember the proof?
Well i’m pretty sure the claim isn’t true, for example if a is some irreducible, look at as/s=a/1 which is irreducible
But as is not irreducible
But you don’t need your claim exactly, with just the knowledge that a/1 is irred when a is irred we can do a factorisation in S^-1(A) and prove uniquesness
Well it isn’t so bad now that you know that S contains all divisors of its elements
It is a bit tedious, but it is not too hard
Np
I'm checking if this set has structure of ring with the addition and product of complex numbers, do I just need to check if the addition is associative and the product is conmutative?
given that (Z,+,*) is a ring itself
One was would be to use the fact that C is a ring. So you would just need to check if this forms a subring. This saves you from verifying commutativity and associativity.
you need to check that it's closed under these operations
you don't need to check associativity or commutativity or anything like that
you do need to show that 0 and 1 are in Z[i] (obvious) and that a and b in Z[i] implies a+b and ab in Z[i] (also obvious)
to check if its closed, it is just saying that (a+c) + (b+d)i is a complex number? because it has the form of a+bi?
same with the product?
also I dont understand what you mean in the second part
that the operations are closed?
yes that's what it means for operations to be closed
no
you're checking that sums and products of elements in Z[i] are elements in Z[i]
what does it means that an element is in Zi then?
I guess (a+c) is trivial because that is an integer, but I dont know what to do with (b+d)i
uhhh a+bi is in Z[i] iff a is in Z and b is in Z
so both the statements reduce to statements about Z which are obvious
I also want to find which elements have inverse with the product
is that: a_1 * (a+bi) = 1 => a_1 = 1/(a+bi)
but i dont really know what to do from here
Z[i] won't have inverses for the product generally
that's fine, it's a ring, not a field
and how to prove it? check if a_1 = 1/(a+bi) exists in Zi?
1/(a+bi) = a/(a^2+b^2)-bi/(a^2+b^2), which means that a/(a^2+b^2) must be an integer which is only true if a is +/-1 and b is 0, same is true for b/(a^2+b^2) integer
=> a = 0, b = +/-1 so the units are {1, -1, i, -i} (omg isomorphic to Z/4Z)
I can explain why a/(a^2+b^2) is an integer => |a| = 1 b = 0 if you want but I think it’s clear
can someone help me justify 22?
why can all the reps of the above given 5 dimensional algebra be obtained from the clifford algebra with dimension 4?
B' is a priori not related to B. it's just a vector operator and mu_ are its components
A',A,C',C are numbers,B',B are vector operators
so if you have 10 matrices satisfying (20) there exists 5 matrices gamma_alpha and beta satisfying (21) such that (22) holds ?
yes(this I should prove)
and i;m trying to justify why 22 holds and why can all the reps of the algebra 20 be obtained from the reps of 21
is the B in (22) supposed to be a beta ?
actually I think there should exist 4 gamma matrices instead of 5,right?
uh yeah I was thinking 5 = 4+1 and messed up while writing it
yeah I think it's a typo
well it looks like solving for beta and gamma_alpha in terms of Bi, B'i is pretty easy so it should just be a matter of checking that everything works out fine
that plugging (22) into (20) gives equations that can be deduced from (21), and that plugging the inverse of (22) into (21) gives equations that can be deduced from (20)
but what I don't see how can the dimensions match?
at one we have indices going from 1 to 5,at the other from 1 to 4
what's puzzling to me is that they "compress" 10 matrices into 5 while keeping very similar-looking contraints
I don't see any problem with the indices
i mean the dimensions is my issue
B5 and B'5 give beta, and B'alpha and Balpha give gamma_alpha once you know beta
one algebra is generated by 10 matrices,the other by 4
i'll try doing this
the equation B'iBi + B'iBi = -2 says that B'i is entirely determined by Bi, so it's not that surprising anymore that you can compress the data
I have a real m x n matrix A. I want to prove that $N(A) \cap im(A^T) = {0}$
so here is a proof:
A has smith normal form $A=PD(a_1,\dots ,a_k,0,\dots , 0) Q $ and so $v\in N(A)$ means that $Qv$ has first k entries 0. let $A^Tu=v$ then $Q^T D()P^T u=v$. Also $D()P^T u$ is a vector whose only first k entries can be non zero so if we call it w then $v^TQ^Tw=0$ but this implies $v^Tv=0$ i.e. v=0.
bert
does this look good ?
Yes I think so
@gritty sparrow I found the correct statement for the irreducible thing: a/s is irreducible iff the unique decomposition of a contains exactly one irreducible not in S
yep
ok nice, ty
@simple mulch identity & inverse have dead weight. no need to show work to find the identity or inverse. just show that 2 serves as the identity and that 4/x serves as the inverse of each x
Oh ok, thats simpler
Yeah that sounds correct
how can I find all subgroups of (Z11,*)?
what have you tried?
I know that the identity (1) is one of them
you mean (Z11)*?
yeah z11 and product operation
there's another easy one
all of Z11 won't be a group with product operation
what do you mean?
what's the inverse of 0?
hmm I dont think all elements needs to have inverse in order for a set to be a group?
then you don't know what a group is.
You might want to learn that before trying to prove something about subgroups.
I am confused in definition of group action. Is there any simple definition of this?
The definition is that 1•s = s and (gh)•s = g•(h•s), for all S in the set and all g,h in the group. If it's motivation that you want, then look at the example of the symmetric group on n elements acting on a set with n elements.
A group action is like a vector space, but instead of a field acting on an abelian group by scalar multiplication, it is a group acting on a set by permuting its elements
alternatively its a group homomorphism from some group G into the symmetric group of some set
That's easy one.
my favorite example is the group of symmetries of the cube acting on the edges/vertices/faces/etc of the cube
the defn loch presents foramlizes what it means for a group action to tell you about symmetries of a space
you can think of an automorphism group as the collection of all acceptable symmetries and a group action is basically just a subgroup of that
for sets the automorphism group is the symmetric group
i am trying to show that the group of automorphism of Zn is isomorphic to U(n). i do know that each automorphism must map 1 to one of U(n). How do i make this statement concise?
Note that elements of U(n) are coprime with n
Can you see what the order of them has to be?
ya i do know that any automorphism of Zn must map 1 to an element of U(n)
i think that's not what i asked
every element of U(n) has order n
can you use this to your advantage?
yo question, this problem seems too easy and I might be missing something. Given I ideal of R, show that if I has element e neutral wrt to multiplication, then I=eR and e is central idempotent of R. So I=eR because for any x in I x = ex. Central idempotent means ex=xe for any x in R. But if it's neutral then ex=x=xe. Is that all?
yeah that works
if the multiplicative identity is in an ideal then the ideal is the full ring
cause 1x must be in the ideal if 1 is in the ideal for all x in the ring but 1x = x so for all x in the ring x must be in the ideal
wew I think you misunderstood the question. It doesn't say that the the identity of R is in I, it says that I has an element which acts like the identity for all other elements of I, but not necessarily the identity of the ring
for example if you look at the ring R x R then R x {0} is an ideal and (1,0) is neutral w.r.t. multiplication in that ideal
but it's not the identity of the ring
yeah, but I don't think I assumed it is an identity?
wew did 
ye ye ye
oh whoops
sorry my bad ledog
bit of a 4 times 8 moment if you know what I mean
no I dont
don't look at the pins
Trying to prove that that $(\sfrac{\Z}{p\Z})^{\times}$ is cyclic for a prime $p$, any leads (Please nothing too detailed, I wanna try breaking my head on this for a bit). I know up to and including sylow
ShiN
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Please i'm dying
it's a pretty hard proof; you don't construct a generator
Hmm
Damn
Ok what I'm trying to prove is that Aut(Z/pZ) has a unique subgroup of order 2
I thought since I know that it's isomorphic to the multiplicative group I could use that to prove it's cyclic then it has a unique subgroup of every order that divides it
But is there an easier way?
Cuz what I WANT to prove is that every nonabelian group of order 2p js isomorphic to the dihedral group, and i'm trying to do that through the semidirect product
But I need to prove that the automorphisms are the same (Namely the identity, and the inverse)
Where C2 acts on Cp
do you know the classification of finite abelian groups
No. I mean we're currently studying it but this problem set is due next week so I don't think that was the intent
do you know the sylow theorems
Yes
alright, then show that any finite abelian group is a product of its sylow subgroups
and then show that all the sylow subgroups are cyclic
.... can't you just show that (Z/pZ)* has only 2 elements whose order divides 2 ?
You'd have to calculate the order of the elements for that tho
one of them being 1
x^2 - 1 can have at most 2 solutions in Z/pZ
Hmm, that's definitely easier
yeah in the end you would almost certainly have to use a fact about # of solutions to a polynomial equation over a field
or a domain
I still wanna try showing this tho
Just for sport
In what way
you'll see if you try to write down a complete proof
For Z/pZ* having a unique subgroup.of order 2, or being cyclic?
being cyclic
Ah gotcha
I'm not sure what you want him to do for example if p=17 that sylow theorem doesn't tell you anything
if you write it as a product of sylows
okay, now count solutions to a polynomial equation
if it wasnt cyclic
everything would satisfy x^8 - 1
which has at most 8 roots
in Z/17
this is the proof that you do while showing that a finite multiplicative subgroup of a field is cyclic
yeah it's pretty much about solutions to polynomial equations in a field
so in general, write it as a product of sylows H_1 \times ... \times H_K, show that all the sylows are cyclic, and then (h_1, ..., h_k) would be the generator of the product
where each h_i generates H_i
isn't the product cyclic only if the order is coprime
the orders are coprime
or are we taking a representative for each sylow subgroup
for each p-sylow subgroup I mean
there is a unique p-sylow
the group is abelian
all the p-sylows are conjugate \implies only 1 p-sylow
oh right
I forgot about the abelian part haha
btw I finished the problem using the fact that there's a unique element of order 2 in Z/pZ* so thanks!
Totally slipped my mind, went straight to trying to prove it's cyclic
What exactly does agree on overlaps mean here? Let $\pi_i: U_i \longrightarrow Y$ be a map of ringed spaces (i.e. there is a sheaf map $\varphi_i: O_Y \longrightarrow \pi_{i*}O_X|_{U_i}$. How exactly do I restrict the $\varphi$ to the overlaps?
Have a Banana, Bitch
The only way I see to define it is by $\varphi_i|{U_i\cap U_j}:O_Y\longrightarrow \pi_i|{U_i\cap U_j*}O_X|_{U_i}$
Have a Banana, Bitch
Does this seem reasonable?
This should be correct
Literally this should be saying that the compositions $(U_i \cap U_j,\mathcal{O}X\vert{U_i\cap U_j}) \rightarrow (U_i,\mathcal{O}X\vert{U_i})\rightarrow(Y,\mathcal{O}_Y)$ and $(U_i \cap U_j,\mathcal{O}X\vert{U_i\cap U_j}) \rightarrow (U_j,\mathcal{O}X\vert{U_j})\rightarrow(Y,\mathcal{O}_Y)$ are the same maps
Turgul
But that's what $\pi_i\vert_{U_i \cap U_j}$ should mean
Turgul
Yes ツ
@unique juniper e_1^3 - 3e_1e_2 + 3e_3, where e_i is the elementary symmetric polynomial of degree i. See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Newton's_identities.
thank you so much
if algebra is already an abstract mathematical object then what is the abstract algebra? 
algebra has numbers in it
ever heard of convolutions?
here and there, what of it? 🤠
abstract algebra is an abstraction of algebras
And abstraction is a term that will be defined soon
What if I want to abstract out "abstract" and consider other adjectives?
Ergo adjective theory is born
Does anyone know any good online lectures for learning galois theory? I'm planning on using Stewart's Galois Theory for textbook and exercises, but lectures would be useful too.
careful, that looks a bit like a categorical idea 
solve 5
???
isn't?
say n=7, what's the inverse of 1110100 ?
0001011 ?
what's 1110100 + 0001011 ?
a word with full 1?
what did you get for question 4 ? 
0? 
is 1111111 = 0 ?
Shouldn't every element be its own inverse?
but 4 asks for the identity element?
yes
what's the definition of inverse
x*x' = e
good point
Would it be easier to do the exercise for $\mathbb{B}^{1}$ first, then try $\mathbb{B}^{2}$ to see what carries over?
Bannanachair Monarch
maybe
And then after doing that try $\mathbb{B}^{7}$
Bannanachair Monarch
I didn't used the definitions to solve the exercise
Well that's an issue.
That's why this happened
Use the definitions next time
Like, how do you prove anything without using the definitions of the objects you're proving things about? Unless you're building off of other theorems that have used the definitions, but what theorems would be helpful for this?
I don't know of any.. thanks anyway 
You're assuming $a+b=a-b$ and showing that $a=a$ in that proof. Try going the other way.
Bannanachair Monarch
any good intro to crypto books? ik crypto requires understanding of Elementary NT as well as basic abstract algebra so I was wondering if any book covered that as well
if we try to factor a polynomial over Q[x] and we factor it as far as we can then one of the factors is irreducible we must stop there correct?
No otherway to factor
You need all the factors to be irreducible, not just one
given that $\text{GL}(2,2) \cong S_3$ and $\text{GL}(2,3) \cong Q_8 \rtimes D_6$, is there a similar expression for $\text{GL}(3,2)$?
∧res
$\text{GL}(3,2) \cong \text{PSL}(2,7)$, if that's what you are looking for. It is the second smallest nonabelian simple group, after $A_5 \cong \text{PSL}(2,5)$.
Turgul
Do we need locally ringed morphism for the red part?
$p\in \pi^{-1}(D(b)) \iff b \notin \pi(p) \iff b\notin Spec(\pi^#)(p) \iff b \notin (\pi^#)^{-1}(p) \iff \pi^#(b)\notin p \iff p \in D(\pi^#(b))$
Have a Banana, Bitch
Am I implicitly using something about pi being a locally ringed morphism here?
What do you mean by $spec(\pi^#)$ exactly? In any case I’m pretty sure that the equality between the second and fourth expressions needs the morphism to be of locally ringed spaces
saketh
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The proof is to localise spec(A) at p, and spec(B) at pi(p) and because it is a morphism of locally ringed spaces the whole diagram commutes, with the preimage of the maximal ideal being the maximal ideal in O(Spec(B))_pi(p)
Can you clarify which expressions you are referring to?
I mean in that chain of equivalences you wrote here
Did you mean second and third expressions?
Well i didn’t really get what the 3rd expression was (are you applying the spec functor on pi^#?). I meant the second and 4th expressions
Spec(\pi^#) is the map induced by \pi^# on the spectrum of the ring
Oh I think I see your point
I proved that pi = spec(pi^#) earlier
and I had used local there
Thanks. That cleared it up
No problem
Hii, I wanna ask some question if you guys don't mind.
go ahead
Lately, I study about r-ideals in a commutative rings.
Based on the journal, it define r-ideals as a part of ideals.
A proper ideal I in a ring R is called an r-ideal, if ab is an element of I with ann(a)=0 implies that b is an element of I, for every a,b are element of R.
Do you think that r-ideals can be find on a ring? I mean, can I generate it on a ring which is not commutative? or is it only for commutative ring?
I've learned it for a month and can't find the answer :((
I think you can define it the same way for non commutative rings? but then they may not be very useful
I think the same way but ideals in a rings divided into right and left.-.
even then the definition would work, you just won't have as many nice properties. You can take ann(a) to be the 2 sided annihilators of a or something like that
I haven't seen this definition before though, so I'm just guessing
ahhh I see
my teacher gave me this topic to see if it can be defined in rings and integral domain
anyway, thank you for sharing your thought
it helps me a lot
np 
how to prove that direct sum conmutes with homology in R-mod?
IIRC you have to use the fact that direct sum acts as both the product and the coproduct in R-mod
Is there a name for a special case of Euclidean domain where there exists Euclidean division function, i.e. where q and r are unique quotient and remainder.
that doesn't give you a name but:
https://mathoverflow.net/questions/109785/what-structure-supports-division-to-a-unique-quotient-and-remainder
This has been bugging me for a while.
According to https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Euclidean_division, if I divide integer $a$ by integer $b$, I get unique $t$, $r$ such that $a = t b + r$, $0 \le r...
well, the citation in the top answer shows that any Euclidean domain with that property must be either a field or a poly. ring over a field, which is probably there isn't a name for it
@quaint ivy I didn't see a proof that there is no single alternative. Anyway, thank you!
@final pasture And you too! I don't know why Google didn't suggest me a link to this question on MO.
often it's best to just search MO and Math StackExchange directly for these questions
n-cat lab has been a great aid for me as well. In addition, I could run into an article about it on arxiv.
Yet your point does make sense if Google search lets me down like this
I use DuckDuckGo, which has https://duckduckgo.com/bang
so you can e.g. type "!mo [query]" to search [query] on Math Overflow
and same for many other websites, you can even submit your own
Oh, that's awesome! Maybe there is a plugin for it in Google Chrome too, but I didn't use one before.
Hmmm... Thank you once again!
Ah, I see. It is like doing ``https://mathoverflow.net/" + tab + search term
yeah but shorter, I just set DDG as my default search engine
anyway I might read the paper cited here later
I wasn't aware of this result actually
me neither 
related MSE question https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2171776/uniqueness-of-the-remainder-and-quotient-in-an-euclidean-domain
This is correct, right? (I know how to prove it unless I am missing something silly)

Yes this is correct
In fact i think we only need R to be an integral domain for this theorem
thanks
The map on the topology would be $\oplus D_i \mapsto D_0$ and the map on the distinguished basis would be natural map $A_f\mapsto ((S_{\bullet})_f)_0$ right?
Have a Banana, Bitch
To see that this map is a map of locally ringed spaces, notice that if $Q_0$ is a prime ideal of A and g is caontained in $Q_0$, then g is contained in $\oplus Q_i$ (the construction of $\oplus Q_i$ is a bit weird, but all we're using here is that it contains $Q_0$.)
Have a Banana, Bitch
Yeah this looks correct, I don’t really get your argument for why it is a locally ringed space though. I would just say that “gluing” locally ringed morphisms on a base will give a locally ringed morphism on the whole space
That's what I did. I probably should have clarified, but the idea was:
- Construct the morphism from using the distinguished base
- The stalk at each point is the natural map $A_{Q_0} \longrightarrow (S_{\bullet})_{\oplus Q_i}$ and we can check that this is local using my argument
Have a Banana, Bitch
Oh, I see what you mean now. Yeah that looks correct
By no zeroes, I'm guessing that it means that there is no point p such that all f_i become zero in the local field of p
Is this what the exercise is trying to say?
Yes
The obvious way to do this is to send each point p to the value point [f_0(p),...,f_n(p)] where f_i(p) represents the image of f_i at the local ring at p
But the image of f_i at the local ring at p might not be an element of B
I interpreted "functions on X" to mean "functions X to B"
maybe that doesnt make sense though
Like set-theoretic functions?
no, scheme-theoretic functions
oh wait sorry
X to Spec (B)
wait nvm that makes no sense
because there's one map from X to Spec(B)
nvm me lol
If it helps, this example was right under it
wait
no this is all fine
because the points of P^n(B) are not just
(n+1)-tuples of elements of B
for example, think of A^n
even A^1(Z) = Spec Z[x]
it's not just Z pointwise, because there are nonlinear prime ideals, like (x^2 + 1)
I think you're trying to think of P^n(B) as if B were algebraically closed
where you could just think of it as tuples of elements of B
Let's think of it as Proj B[x_0,...,x_n]
Which is the right way to think of this right?
How do I construct a map from X to this using f_i
Affine glues?
and I'm not even sure the mapping property you want is true in this case
yeah I think you want affine glues
if you could do the Proj thing, basically you would be looking for a map B[x_0, ..., x_n] into the sections on X
Smh this is supposed to be an easy exercise
Well how i would do it is that for each fi we have a map X_fi to a standard open Ui =spec(B[x0,..xn] by thinking of the map from that ring to the section sending xk to fk/fi
Does that make sense? Intuitively this is very similar to your coordinates thing
(Also X_fi cover X obviously)
something like that should work, yes
Damn, that is a little sad. It shouldn’t be too bad now with this map, but i’m not sure
I might come back to it later, but I'm kinda busy speedrunning AG to do time consuming applications (that are not relevant to function fields)
Also, Buncho you're into arithmetic geometry right?
I see, interested in some number theory stuff?
Yeah! I'm actually gonna be continuing a research project this fall with a professor
I somehow got away with not knowing any AG till now, but I need to know some fancy stuff like differentials, line bundles, stacks to continue
@oblique river Is it fine if I DM you for some advice?
Damn that is pretty impressive, best of luck
what kind of advice?
The stuff in AG that I can skip (for now) for the research thing I wanna do
oh I see -- I can try to answer that, yeah, but I might not be able to give a great answer
if I'm not super familiar with the kind of problem you're doing
but yeah, go ahead
w/ number fields?
Hello, sorry if this is the wrong place for this but I was wondering how I could get started with Abstract Algebra?
(I'm mostly interested in Group Theory and Category Theory, but from what I've been told starting with AA is a good place to start)
#book-recommendations has a bunch of AA books listed in a pinned message
How are we considering these objects in the isomorphism below? AM only ever talks about tensor products of A modules as A modules, but I think this is at best an isomorphism of abelian groups, right?
They are simultaneously A and B modules so I imagine the isomorphism is as both A and B modules
Which I'm guessing is the definition of a bimodule isomorphism
Wait nvm only N is the bimodule
Aren't the resulting tensor products both A and B modules ? 
so like, this iso should be a bimodule iso ?
well hmm, maybe something like a((m\otimes_A n) \otimes_B p) := (am \otimes_A n) \otimes_B p is well-defined for a similar reason as M \otimes_A N
actually nvm idk
oh yeah A can act on one entry and B on the other
yea okay, pretty sure that would work now
oh right
Yes, without more assumptions on M and P this would only have the structure of an abelian group
Not in general, no. You would need M to be an A-bimodule, for M \otimes_A N to be a (left) A-module
Since $N$ is an $(A,B)$-bimodule, however, $M \otimes_A N$ is a right $B$-module, which is why the tensor product $(M \otimes_A N) \otimes_B P$ makes sense in the first place
Tormeson
I need to prove that with a finite group G and a subgroup U if this is true, U is a normal subgroup of G and I have no idea how to start
lagrange
How Lagrange? 
look at cosets
not lagrange I guess lol
I just remember the proof of index 2 implies normal which is the same thing
Right
Sorry for the late answer, lagrange just says that the order of a subgroup must be a divisor of the order of the group
Or am I missing something?
And in addition to that that the order of G/U must be the order of G divided by the order of U
So I guess the quotient group G/U has the order 2, but what do I do with that?
Z_2
isn't this lagranges theorem?
what's a coset?
So you need to show that for any g, gUg' is U, where g' is g inverse
english isn't the language I'm studying maths in
Ah I see
So try to do those 2 multiplicative one at a time and see where you land
But I don't know what G is
I mean I guess it's a finite group, and thus its kind of cyclic
Yes but you can still do something from the fact that a left coset of U is either U itself or disjoint from U 
Kind of cyclic? 
that's not a proper property, but each element has an order, so you can make a group from any element
generate would be the better term I think
Ahh right
But you can use this
a left coset, so gU
there are only 2 cosets, do you see this?
yes, since we already have all but two elements in U
so we only have a left and a right coset, since one of the elements must be the neutral element
yeah, the cosets are therefore U and G\U.
ok, and then?
you wanna show taht xU=Ux
the element we used for the coset must be self-inverse, right? so we get xU=U
right
so xU=U=Ux for x in U trivially, but you want to show that's true for any x in G (this is the definition of a normal subgroup)
for x in G it only needs to be xU=Ux, right?
yes
Give me a minute, I can't concentrate that well anymore
I leave the rest to you, take it easy and think it over.
okay, thanks
I think I got it: for any g in U, gU=U=Ug, and for any g not in U, gU=G\U=Ug
Yep 
whoooo

in R-mod, the kernel of $f:A \rightarrow B$ is the object $ker f$ with the inclusion $f:ker f \rightarrow A$ right?
Or x1
so, is every monomorfism a kernel inclusion?
Yes let N be a submodule of M, N is the kernel of the standard map from M to M/N
@frank fiber
thanks
I think you might be missing some context here: this is a commutative algebra text, so they are using "ring" to mean a commutative ring w/ identity. hence the left/right module distinction is not important.
what does it mean for Cubics to be an X-dimensional family
Can you give some more context?
sure
I would say that it means that if you look at the space of all cubic curves parametrized by their coefficients, that space has some dimension
Depending on some parameter
For example, if i said “consider the family of curves y = x^3 + a”
That would be a one-dimensional family
And a is the parameter
For each value of a you get a different curve
👍
How does one show a field of 4 elements is not isomorphic to a subfield of a field with 8 elements
without using the fact that if lFl = p^n then its subfields have p^m elements where m divides n
(not allowed to use that 😐 )
Is showing multiplicative subgroups of groups of order 8-1 = 7 (i.e., F* = F - {0}) not being isomorphic mult. subgroup of order 4-1 = 3 sufficient?
i feel like thats a disconnect and goes from proving things about fields into group theory
think of vec spaces
or yea u had a good idea ig
u can look at the multiplicative gropus
and then like compare elements orderwise and stuff
@ivory dust
so yea
the orders of elements in the multiplicative group are all of order 3 (nonidentity)
for the field of 8 elements the order of elements are all of order 7 (nonide)
so if the one field is a subfield of the other
but can we extend back into field theory from grp theory?
the multiplicative group of this would be asubgropu of that
wdym
All non-id elements of subfields of a field of 8 elements have order 7 w.r.t multiplication, all non-id elements of field with 4 elements have order 3 w.r.t multiplication because of their multiplicative subgroups. end of proof?
The textbook? im using it
no
idk why this theorem:
. isnt allowed on my problem set 😭
this works. There is no "disconnect" going from groups to fields here. Every field has an associated multiplicative subgroup. If K is a subfield of F, then the multiplicative subgroup K* of K is necessarily a subgroup of F*.
is that iff statement?
i doubt it
how can i prove that every epimorfism is a cokernel in R-mod?
If f is an epimorphism f:M->N, it is the cokernel of the map i:ker(f)->M
,tex How to prove that if the only factor congruences of an algebra $\bold{A}$ are the trivial ones, then the algebra is directly indecomposable?
DoJ
Otherwise the congruences given by the projection maps will give rise to a non trivial factor congruence
the cokernel of $i:ker(f) \rightarrow M$ is the proyeccion $p: M \rightarrow M/im(f)$, why is $p=f$?
Or x1
M/im(f) is isomorphic to N (because f is an epimorphism)
thanks
,tex So if we suppose that $\bold{A}\overset{\Psi}{\cong}\bold{B}\times \bold{C}$ and choose $\phi_1=\pi_1\circ \Psi$, $\phi_2=\pi_2\circ \Psi$, what we will get is $\bold{B}\cong \frac{\bold{A}}{\text{ker }\phi_1}$ and $\bold{C}\cong \frac{\bold{A}}{\text{ker }\phi_2}$, right?
DoJ
,tex In our case the $(\text{ker }\phi_1,\text{ker }\phi_2)$ is a pair of factor congruence on $\bold{A}$ and I know that $\bold{A}\cong \frac{\bold{A}}{\text{ker }\phi_1}\times \frac{\bold{A}}{\text{ker }\phi_2}$
DoJ
Yes, that is the nontrivial factor congruence that gives us a contradiction
I mean, does that seem ok to you?
sure, thx
I wrote it down and it works perfectly
Nice
i have a sort of general question about proofs of statements like this
The basic idea for i) is that you can take a SES, tensor with M, and then tensor with N, and that is the same as tensoring with M \otimes N.
However, the maps you get by applying the functor (-\otimes M)\otimes N are different than the maps you get by applying -\otimes (M\otimes N). Therefore, to show that M\otimes N is actually flat, it suffices to show that the diagram below, where the phi's are isomorphisms and the top row is exact, commutes:
this isn't too bad to show, but then for ii) the idea is that for any $A$-module $K$, $$K\otimes_A N \cong K\otimes_A (B \otimes_B N) \cong (K \otimes_A B) \otimes_B N$$ as $A$-modules
kxrider
and so the "phi" in this scenario would be this composition of isomorphisms. You could do the same thing I did for i) to complete the argument, but this seems super cumbersome, and I was wondering if there was a better/simpler way to think about this?
are all these isomorphisms natural in the categorical since? That would make things easier, right?
Well, there is a conceptually clearer way of thinking about this, but the amount of work is the same: In both cases the isomorphisms are natural in K
Yes exactly, unfortunately you still pretty much have to show that all the squares commute
i see, but I guess once you know that each step is natural, then you can argue that a composition of these is natural.
Yes
Hey guys so I know cyclotomic polynomial phi p (x) = x^p-1 + x^p-2 + ... + x + 1 is irreducible over Q and Z for p prime
im asked to show f(x) = x^p-1 - x^p-2 + ... - x + 1 is irreducible over Q
and i realized f(-x) = phi p (x) when p is odd prime
then since f(-x) = phi p (x) is irreducible this implies f(x) is irreducible
when p odd prime
but what about when p = 2
also is my logic correct above^
cuz f(x) = x-1 is case when p = 2
isnt that reducible since f(1) = 0
That seems correct. x ↦ -x is an automorphism of Q[x] so it must map irreducibles to irreducibles and reducibles to reducibles
Don't get what this means
oh I see what you're saying
Try to think about why having a root usually means that the polynomial is reducible
And why that doesn't work here
well im assuming it means it can be factored into two polynomials
but my previous thought was that there exists a such that f(a) = 0
so im guessing degree 1 polynomials arent reducible
by euclidean algorithim essentially(?)
Usually this follows from the factor theorem
Which says that a is a root of a polynomial iff x-a divides it
But here, you get that 1 is a root, so x-1 divides x-1
That doesn't tell you anything
So finding roots to prove reducibility only works for degree greater than one
Because you get a non unit factor
Here the claim is: All linear polynomials over a field are irreducible.
I don't see how
Oh I see
You can prove this directly, using the definition of irreducibility
eucl alg means f(x) = a(x)b(x)+r(x) but r would be 0
if im thinking correctly?
idk maybe im just saying nonsense ☠️
That's not Euclid's algorithm, that algorithm finds GCDs
It's just long division
But what are you trying to do with it?
oh nothing i just thought it could serve as justification
since deg(r(x)) = 0
might be a condition for irreduciblility
Nope, just a condition for divisibility by b(x)
Use the definition of irreducibility itself, you can prove this from first principles
okk yea i had to review the defn
my proff said it like this
non zero p(x) e F[x] is irred if its deg >= 1 and no factorization p(x) = f(x)g(x) such that df>=1, and dg > dp
and its monic and unique
Hmm that seems weird
thats irrelevant tho
Both df and dg should be ≥ 1
And ≤ dp
Either of these conditions gives the other
dg>dp doesn't make sense
The opposite does though
Because when you multiply polynomials their degrees add
Ie dg<dp
Yeah but with the opposite it's still not the correct def
Becuase then f = p and g = 1 makes every p reducible
Right
dg<dp was how i copied the note
So do you see that linear polynomials will always be irreducible?
yess thank you 😩

is my logic for this correct?
cuz f(ax+b) irreducible implies f(x) irreducible?
im not sure how to prove this^
Yes, look at this
actually ik how to prove f(x+a) irred implies f(x) irred
Do you know what isomorphisms are?
so x --> ax+b is automorphic and that concludes proof?
but Q to Z is an iff statement
In what sense?
Gauss lemma?
yes!
Ah it has extra condition
Irreducible and primitive in Q iff irreducible in Z
The primitive part is what makes that thing work
Otherwise working in Z and Q are quite different. For example in Z[x], x ↦ 2x is not an automorphism
Also in Z[x], the definition of irreducibility is different from the one you gave
Hmm i copied my proffs notes and it says given f(x) e F[x] f(x) factors in Z[x] iff f factors in Q[x]
or f irred in Z[x] iff irred in Q[x]
didnt learn abt primitive
yet
That is wrong. For example, 2x factors in Z[x], as 2 times x
We learned about Eisenstein criterion too
But in Q[x] this isn't considered a factorization
Because 2 is invertible
So notice that in a ring, if c is invertible, you can write any r as r times 1 = r times c times c inv
So we don't consider these factorizations
We only consider proper factorizations, ie r = ab is a factorization if neither a nor b is invertible
In Q[x], this definition matches the definition you wrote, because deg f ≥ 1 is saying exactly that f is not invertible, non zero
Because if deg f = 0, and f is non zero, then f is a constant rational number
Which is invertible
Perhaps you are missing 'monic' here?
Because monic polynomials are always primitive
So Gauss lemma applies
Ohh no i copied it correctly but his notes must be wrong but i think it doesnt matter for my current problem set cuz im trying to prove things are irred over Q[x]
so then that implies its irred in Z[x]
and also an extra condition that its primitve (didnt learn yet)
but the if holds
implication* holds
cuz im not going the other way
Yes, you can remove the monic thing because it's redundant
Not pairwise
GCD of all of them
oh so if you factorize a polynomial in Q[x]
as f = c(f) * g then g is primitive
im just reading my textbook
kinda get it
didnt cover in lect prob need it for my next problem set tho
so eisenstein holds --> irred in Q[x] ---> by gauss irred in Z[x] (also primative)
The last step doesn’t need gauss, it will always be true. The other way around needs gauss
What can you say about the order of H?
Why?
oh
Or like g^n = 1 ≠ g for some n
oh so that also proves G = H right?
Yes, you get that H has 1 or p elements, but we've found 2 elements already, 1 and g
So H and G have the same no of elements and since they're finite they must be equal
ok thankss
for describe all possible groups G is it just this
Well you get that G just consists of powers of a single element
o
yeah..
Have you seen quotient groups?
i c
Is finite, has p elements
And all elements are just 1 element's multiples
You can show an isomorphism from G to this

if f is a homomorfismo and f(a)=f(b), then a+ker(f)=b+ker(f)?
Yes
I have written a detailed solution for this problem, because I was not very confident. Can someone take a look?
Notice that S_6 contains such a subgroup namely the subgroup generated by {(1 2),(3 4), (5 6)}.
Note that in S_4 and S_5 the group of order 8 is a sylow 2 subgroup. But the sylow 2 sugroups in both these groups contain element of of order 4 of the form (a b c d) so this subgroup cannot be the one in problem.

is every free module a vector space?
no. Z is a free module over Z but not a vector space over Z because Z is not a field
and if two free modules have basis with same cardinality, then are isomorfic?
ye
Try proving why
can someone help me with this I want to show that for the root system of a lie algebra, there is an element in the wely group which sends all the positive roots to negative roots
suppose that there are n positive roots, i can see that its enough to find an element in the weyl group with height (or i think this is more often called "word length") equal to n
but im not sure why such an element must exist
okay so
if w was the longest word but had length less than n then it does not send some alpha to a negative root
but then setting w' to be w followed by applying the reflection generated by alpha will send alpha to -alpha
but what if it changes the others ?
sorry yes thats what i can't figure out
seemingly this follows from that the wely group acts transitively but I don't see why that is the case
Can someone ELI5 group schemes?
well if you know groups and schemes
then a group scheme is a scheme that also has a group structure
So like a topological group?
yeah but all the maps need to be scheme morphisms
yea where a and b are in Q
Q(something) is basically attach (something) to Q and then fieldify it
my question is to describe the elements of Q(pi)
This is the answer (unless you're using non-standard notation)
would it be a0 + a1pi + ... + anpi^n n e N?
no, it's (a0 + a1pi + ... + anpi^n)/(b0 + bmpi + ... + bmpi^m)
where m>0 and bm != 0
you need to close it under division
ohh yeaa
the reason why Q(sqrt 2) can be just polynomials is because sqrt(2) is algebraic
lmao yea mb
didnt think
Q(pi) is the field of fractions of the one is aid
i said*
so would F = Q(pi^3) = (a0 + a1pi^3 + ... + anpi^3n)/(b0 + bmpi^3 + ... + bmpi^3m)
m>0, bm =/= 0?
then what would F(pi) equal?
pi is algebraic over Q(pi)
pi is algebraic over F = Q(pi^3)
because it satisfies X^3 - pi^3 = 0
so F(pi) would be a + b pi + c pi^2 where a,b,c in F
these notes claim F(pi) is finite dimension vect space over F w basis {1,pi,pi^2}
oh i see
hmm
ok i need to digest this
you need to understand Q(cbrt(2)) first
what does algebraic mean?
not every algebraic is constructible
solution to integer polynomials right?
that's algebraic integer, but cbrt(2) satisfies that too
so let x = cbrt(2) and try combining powers of x to get an integer
x^3 = 2
there you go
oh so cbrt2 is algebraic
What does it mean when someone says "an integral affine k-variety is rational"?
I know what an integral affine k-variety is
and I know what rational maps are
I'm guessing it means that the map from the scheme to Spec k is dominant?
Oh okay that makes sense
Let C and D be equivalent categories and A and B be objects of C such that their "images" in D are isomorphic, then A and B are isomorphic
Is this true?
I don't know the precise definition of equivalent categories, but the definition would be pretty sucky if it didn't imply this
yup
the construction of the colimit involves taking the direct sum of of the M_i and quotienting out by the submodule generated by elements of the form x_i - mu_ij(x_i) for x_i \in M_i. Since the mu_ij are just inclusions here, then isn't this submodule 0?
but that would imply the colimit is their direct sum, not their sum 
mu_ij are not necessarily inclusions
Oh my bad
Well, more precisely, xi is not the same as mu_ij(xi) because we are taking the abstract direct sum here
As in, not the direct sum inside M, but we are defining the sum to be finite sequences of elements from the Mi’s. Does that make sense to you?
yeah, it does make sense.
so we don't have x_i - mu_ij(x_i) = 0 in then direct sum but in the quotient we do have this, which looks a lot like the regular sum of submodules.
Yes exactly
also, yea i can see how union-ing might be easier here. Given f_j : Mj \to N such that f_j = mu_ij f_i its not hard to see how u could define a map f : \bigcup M_i \to N satisfying the universal property we want
(assuming mu_ij is from M_i to M_j)
You are quotienting out by x_i - mu_ij(x_i) in the direct sum. The x_i is an element of M_j as a submodule of the direct sum. The mu_ij(x_j) is in M_i as a submodule of the direct sum. In particular, because it's the external direct sum, M_i and M_j are disjoint (except 0) in this direct sum.
So for non-zero x_i, x_i - mu_ij(x_i) is not zero in the direct sum.
For example, let I be finite, so all the M_i are submodules of one of them, say M_1. Then the colimit should be M_1, right? Not the direct sum which is bigger.
Oh, you said this already
Oops
What does A^1 (without subscript) mean?
I think it is just A^1_Z.
which is Spec Z[x]
I have a question regarding the first (supposedly trivial) part of this mathoverflow question
Where do we need the complex to be bounded below?
It would seem to me as if any complex would work, although I have seen several people claiming that so surely I’m missing something
I think #category-theory is more appropriate for your question
Ty, I’ll repost there
Hey, I'm confused by this definition:
I don't quite get what the definition means by * agreeing on R inA
A contains a copy of R. There's an involution * on A, and an involution # on R (both have the same name in that statement). That is saying that # = * restricted to R
Wait the copy of R thing is only true if R is a vector space I think 
But the usual thing is that (rx)* = r#x*
Equivalently r* = r#
Viewing r ∈ R as the element r times identity in A
can someone take a look at my solution to this problem?
(a) From the given equation (a,b,c)=(1). If $(a^{15},b^{16},c^{17}) \neq (1)$ then $(a^{15},b^{16},c^{17})$ is contained in some maximal ideal. So in particular $a^{15}\in $ this maximal ideal so $a\in$ this maximal ideal. Similarly b and c. But then this maximal ideal contains $(a,b,c)$, a contradiction. \
(b) Let P be a prime ideal. let $a \not \in P$. $a^n-a=0 \in P$. So $a(a^{n-1} -1) \in P$ so $a^{n-1}-1 \in P$. this tells us that every non zero element of $R/P$ is a unit.
bert
Looks good 
@brazen pumice for Q(pi) you said its elements of form (a0 + a1pi + ... + anpi^n)/(b0 + b1pi + ... + bmpi^m) where m>0 and bm != 0
why is it bm=/=0? shouldnt it be all the denominator together cant be 0?
and is there any restriction for if n>m?
or can they be differing degrees
sorry to bother you again
no
well they're equivalent
oh ok thank you sm
How is G_m over an arbitrary scheme defined?
Seems easy when the scheme is affine as maps of schemes correspond to maps from the global ring of the affine scheme to the other scheme
basic ring theory question here: how would i deduce from the ring axioms that a(-b) = -(ab)
not too sure where to start
It will just be Sx spec(Z[x,x^-1])
We haven't covered products of schemes yet
So I'm guessing I should come back to it later
Thanks tho
ab+a(-b)=a(b-b) = a(0) =0. (For the last part remember that a(0)=a(0+0)=a(0)+a(0), now cancel an a(0) on both sides)
Once you know the product of schemes, there is a nice way to define group schemes, it will be the group object in the category of schemes. A group object of a category is an object G equipped with a morphism m:GxG->G satisfying some diagrams. m is supposed to be like the multiplication function in normal groups. I feel like this is the “correct” way to define things
I forgot to mention the identity and inverse morphisms as well, sorry
What definition are you using for group schemes?
thanks 
Is this how you multiply in Mor(X,G). Take two morphisms. They induce a unique map from X to G x G. Compose this with m
Yes exactly
Verifying the group axioms with this multiplication is PAIN
Yeah it does seem pretty annoying, have fun
If anyone has done this verification, is there any thing insightful about it or can I just skip it?
I don’t know if i’m remembering this correctly, but I remember this just being a specific verification of the fact that Hom functors preserve limits. I haven’t done this recently though so i’m not really sure about that
hi! can I ask for help for this problem on the dihedral group D8? :))
I expressed s as a^5b using
and since (a^5b)(a^5b) = e, then the the order of s is 2
<s> then is equal to {e, a^5b}
so the factor group D_8/<s> has elements D8 and (a^5b)D8
then using the cayley table, D_8/<s> is isomorphic to Z_2
is what I did correct? sorry for the bother
Dihedral group notation can be confusing; some people use $|D_{n}|=n$, some use $|D_{n}|=2n$.
Cool I can change my nickname
It looks like your book is using $|D_{8}|=16$, because $\text{ord}(a)=8$.
Cool I can change my nickname
So, by a theorem (I think a corollary of the first isomorphism theorem but honestly I'm drunk), $|D_{8}/\langle s\rangle|=|D_{8}|/|\langle s\rangle|\ne2$
Cool I can change my nickname
nice nickname 
Thanks
is the splitting field of p(x) = (x^2+1)^2 over Z3
Z3[x] / (x^2+1)?
or i can say Z3(a) where a is root of x^2+1
but that root doesnt exist 🤔 in Z3
confusion
yes
"Z_3(a) where a is a root of that polynomial" is defined as that quotient
and this is the case
because (x^2+1) is irred in Z3?
otherwise it wouldnt be the case
?
yes
dont get what you mean
)

