#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 593 of 407
(And also not because they are abusing sacred maths but because many well intentioned people have ruined themselves into thinking they know more than they do)
yeah fair enough
you can study a lot of stuff w/o the word smooth or Lie though
which is nice
Yeah There is a nice book
Matrix groups
An introduction to Lie groups
One of the springer undergrad ones
@chilly ocean
Hello
I am confused. It is certainly a product of 3 cycles
i should show it can be written as a product of 5 cycles?
how is it a product of 3-cycles?
mmmmm
sorry i meant to say 3 transposition
so (14)(13)(12)
ya its 4 cycle
i mixed up cycles and transpositions 
have i understood this correctly about dynkin diagrams
call the left node alpha the right node beta
that there is three lines tells use that n_alpha,beta times n_beta,alpha is 3
and that the arrow points to beta tells us that n_beta,alpha is bigger than n_alpha,beta
so then n_alpha,beta must be 1 and n_beta,alpha must be 3?
or possibly both with minus signs?
oh no
they are always negative off the diagonal
Right the Cartan matrix will be (2,-3;-1,2)
exactly
Given a group defined by a finite field GF(p), is there a simple way of finding the period of the subgroup formed by exponentiation a^i for some a in GF(p) ?
i know that the order of the subgroup is always a divisor of the order of GF(p) = p - 1
but is there a way of computing it precisely?
May someone send some videos about Lie Algebra for me?
Do you know that every non-unit in a ring is contained in some maximal ideal?
If $F_1$ is the fixed field of $Aut{K/F}$ then why is $[F_1 : F] = 1$
Yes ツ
what im trying to do is show that K:F = #Aut(K/F)
F1 subset F?
Or in the case of a local ring, there’s only one maximal ideal so all non-units must be contained in there
The proof follows from that
Yes yes l know that
I am still not able to understand how to follow after this.
a is a non unit
The a is contained in the maximal ideal
u is a unit
Then how is (u-a) is a unit ?
assume its not
then its also contained in the same maximal ideal
do you see the contradiction?
No I still do not see. Why is there be a problem if it is in the same maximal ideal.......?
It means u (which is a unit) will get inside the ideal right ? Is that the contradiction ?
yes
yo how to show M is generated by kerf + img? I showed their intersection is trivial but kinda not sure about the other condition
For any m in M, m= (m-gf(m))+ (gf(m))
The left part is in kerf, the right part is in img
@chilly ocean
oh ye I see ty
Yeah
Is S_n here just an abelian group or is it also a ring?
Not a ring, for example in polynomials the degree n terms are not a ring
it's an abelian group
Graded rings are weird
how are they weird
Multiplication behaves weirdly
There’s multiplication defined on the entire ring S, but each S_n is just an abelian group. I think a good example to think about graded rings is polynomials over Z. Then, each S_n is homogenous polynomials of degree n. Then, it’s clear that x*x=x^2 is the product of two things in S_1, but their product isn’t in S_1 (it’s in S_2)
yes
Yes
Because there is no ring structure on I_n. Thus, it can't be an ideal
Sum and intersection are pretty easy because we can work with just the abelian group structure. For product, let I, J be homogeneous ideals. Let ij be a generating element of IJ. Then the n^th component of i is in I and the m^th component of j is in J. Thus, i_n*j_m is in IJ. However, i_nj_m is a homogeneous element of degree n+m. Since ij expands out to terms of the form i_nj_m (each of which is homogeneous and in IJ), we conclude that each component of ij is in IJ. Thus, IJ is homogeneous
Similar argument for radical
Can someone verify that my understanding here is correct?
The argument for radical is a little more complicated than the argument for product and sum if i remember correctly
I remember using induction on the highest degree term of each element of the radical
Is it on-topic to ask questions about matrix norms here?
napkin 👀
Hi
Im trying to prove that
is a UFD
I was going to take a class f+J (with J=(xy-1) ) and factor f in Z[x,y,z] and then try to show that any to elements in f+J have the same factorization up to mult by units, i wonder if something like that would work?
Im kinda lost with this ring tbh
I think that approach would be a little hard to pull off, my thinking is that this would be easier for you to prove: the ring is Z[x,x^(-1)][z]. Try to show Z[x,x^(-1)] is a ufd (infact you might like to know that any localisation of a ufd is a ufd) and then say that if R is a ufd so is R[x]
@chrome hinge
hmm
nice approach
This is a localization with respect to what multiplicative set?
Oh, yes youre right
Im fairly new to localizations but i think i can manage this thing
Tsm!!
Welcome
u two guys would make friends
pfps could not hav gotten any similar
hahahah i actually found his picture too funny and changed mine a couple of minutes ago lmao
It's true because the prime subring is Z_5
Can you explain the calculation by which we get to this conclusion.....
The smallest subring of R containing 1 is known to contain 2 things
0 and 1
From here it must also contain 1+1, 1+1+1,...
So this way you get all the elements of this form (1+...+1, and of -1-...-1)
The collection of such elements is always a subring in any ring
And in this case this collection is Z_5
And so must be the smallest subring that contains 1
why doesn’t n1 mean the product operation on the ring r between n and 1; is this just convention?
I mean n \ in Z actually might be a giveaway
but in general does ab mean b + … + b with a summands?
Here n1 means 1 +1+1+1..... n times addition.
yes I understand but does your book denote product in a different way?
perhaps with a dot
How is this collection Z_5 ?
Will not the collection become Z_625 ???
oh hold on
If we are adding 1 to itself...
Order of 1 will be 625 right ?
Yep
Okay okay I get it
So the conclusion is....
The given statement is false. Ringt ?
Hi, where can I ask about representation theory?
heres fine
Say we have a finite group $G$ of size $n$ with $n$ irreducible representations $\rho_i$ over $\mathbb C$. So by using the regular representation, each of the irreps is 1-dimensional.
By the character-conjugacy class correspondence, $G$ is abelian. Additionally, for each $i\in \mathbb Z, g\in G$, we have $\rho_i(g)^n = 1$ thus $\rho_i$ is a different n-th root of unity for each $i$.
Under these conditions, is it correct to say that $G$ is cyclic?
RiesZ
Every finite abelian group G has |G| irreducible representations (character-conjugacy class correspondence), so this will not imply cyclicity.
@compact needle thanks for the response!
Is it sufficient for $\rho_i$ to be faithful for all $i$ in order for $G$ to be cyclic?
RiesZ
Indeed
even if one of them is faithful
@sturdy marsh right of course
Do you guys have a weaker condition for G to be cyclic?
trivial group 
lol
I don't know of a nicer statement.
something which is weaker in principle probably exists 
knowing all irreps is knowing Rep(G)
but cyclic-ness can be deduced from knowing just the group cohomology
but again all irreps in this case are characters so they might be the same information
I mean there are silly statements like if the order of $\rho=|G|$ for any $\rho$, but that's just reshuffling the injectivity/faithfulness condition.
Turgul
Thanks for the assistance, much appreciated 🙂
I think if you show that for all k | |G|, there are at most \phi(k) elements of order k, then G is cyclic
and this can be translated into characters
\phi is the euler totient fcn
I have additional information if you like
For sure (I mean, G and G dual are isomorphic groups, so any statement about G is also true about its dual)
We also know that $\langle \chi_a \chi_i, \chi_j \rangle = 1$ for $j=i+1$ and 0 otherwise, where the $\chi$s symbolize the characters and $a$ does not divide $|G|$
RiesZ
You should be able to use that to show that $\chi_a$ has order $|G|$.
Turgul
Well it's pretty obvious but how would it imply (if any) that G is cyclic
One argument: when you know that your group is abelian (number of irr reps = |G|), then the group of characters (= representations) is isomorphic to the group itself. So if there is a character of order |G|, then G itself must have an element of order |G|
But for $\chi$ to have order $|G|$, that means that there is some $g$ such that $\chi(g)^n \neq 1$ for any $1<n<|G|$
Turgul
That g will be a generator of G
So if I'm not mistaking, it is enough to show that the set of characters contains all n-th roots of unity, which we've already done in the beginning. It follows from $\chi_i^n=1$.
RiesZ
and the fact that G has n irreps
You need to know that no smaller n than |G| works
If G is the Klein 4 group, then all characters will have max order 2
But it must be the case.. we have all n roots of unity
I may be misunderstanding your assumptions
Maybe I'm missing something so let's review:
G has n irreps of dimension 1 each. G has order n and G is abelian
The Klein 4 group has 4 irreps, yet each takes values only 1 and -1
So the conditions I layed here don't necessarily imply that the irreps are n-th roots of unity?
Because in this case, $\chi^2=1$ for each $\chi$. You need to know that the min n satisfying $\chi^n=1$ for all $\chi$ is $n=|G|$.
Turgul
Much like if you want to show that the lcm(a,b) of 2 integers is ab, it is not enough to know that a and b both divide ab, they might divide something smaller, too
Ok.. so you agree with what I wrote in this comment?
Just verifying that I understand 😛
Yes, just knowing that G is abelian of order n does not mean that the characters will hit all n-th roots of unity. It does mean that all values of a character will be n-th roots of unity, just maybe not all of them. You get all of them exactly when G is cyclic
Great! that was really helpful
In general, the largest root of unity you get is the size of the largest cyclic subgroup
ok just as a sanity check, you can always equip Hom_F(V, V) with a ring structure via standard matrix multiplication and addition right?
(where F is a field and V is a vector space)
If V is finite dimensional you can say matrix multiplication
But matrix multiplication is just linear map composition
And that notion extends to infinite dimensions
So yes if V is finite dimensional and yes* if not
ah ok, thanks!

I was only thinking about finite dimensions anyway but that is a very good edge case I should consider

Is it true even for infinite groups that for a subgroup H, $xHx^-1 \leq H$ then $x^-1Hx\leq H$?
bert
my intuition is telling me yes but I'll need to go actually think through a proof
if x is in N_H(H) it's definitely true as xHx^-1 = H
Sadly, this is not true
At least not in general
Counterexample: Let $G$ be the free group on generators $x$ and $y$. Let $H$ be the subgroup generated by $x^nyx^{-n}$ for $n \geq 0$. Then $xHx^{-1} \leq H$ but $x^{-1}yx$ is not in $H$.
Turgul
See https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/75613/the-set-of-all-x-such-that-xhx-1-subseteq-h-is-a-subgroup-when-h-leq-g/75620#75620 for this and another counter example in GL_2(Q)
great post
I see the word cauchy get it OUTTA HERE
what about cauchy's theorem
Given $(U \psi)(x',t')=e^{if(x,t)} \psi(x,t)$, where $(x',t')=(Rx+vt+a,t+b)$, how do I compute $(U\psi) (x,t)$?
ProphetX
ProphetX
In the following exercise, what is meant by an isomorphism $Spec A \to Spec A'$? They're topological spaces, so are they asking for an isomorphism of sheaves? Any further explanation on what they're trying to get at would be greatly appreciated!
Kenya
Isomorphism of locally ringed spaces (so a homeomorphism of underlying spaces that preserves the structure sheaf)
i mean $\mathbb{F}_{p^n} \cong \mathbb{F}_p/\langle f_1(x) \rangle$
For some intuition do the same proof and show like
[\frac{\mathbb Q[x]}{x^2+2}\cong\frac{\mathbb Q[x]}{x^2+8}]
i think this is the part i dont understand
hm actually
is it because the splitting field for f(x) over Fp would be at most n which is F_pn over F_p
Essentially $\left[\frac{\mathbb F_p[x]}{q(x)}:\mathbb F_p\right]=\deg q$
p or n?
p
explicitly F_p[x]/q(x) is a vector space over F_p generated by 1,x,x^2,x^3,...,x^{deg q-1}
so it has cardinality p^{deg q}
i just realized
terrible idea to use p for prime and polynomial
ari 十年生死两茫茫,不思量,自难忘。
oh yeah that makes sense
Are you sure its false?
well
Idk the definition of Z+ contain 0
Z^+ is the set of positive integers?
inverses for all elements dont exist
If you replace Z^+ with Q than that'll work
you cant do that
Q*
like, 1/2 is not in Z+
so you cant say 2(1/2) = 1
which seems to be what you did
2 times any integer will be even for example, so cant be 1
identity is 1
under multiplication
ye
I mean theres no other integer such that g1 = 1g = g for all g
I dont get what you mean
1/g doesnt exist
ye
ye I just showed that, theres no integer n such that 2n = 1
so 2 doesnt have an inverse

i have no clue what is to be shown
what is n, and how are the elements ordered
this is from jacobson
n=n_1+n_2...n_q
There are q partitions in total and ith partition has n_i elements
By that condition,you also have the first q_1 partition's have same number of elements,while the next q_2 partition's have the same number of elements and so on
Hopefully this is more clear
That's 3rd edition of DnF
oh lol
can a linear transformation R^2->R^2 map a circle to a triangle?
no, a linear transformations maps straight lines to straight lines
nvm thats the opposite direction
oh right any such transformation has to be invertible
so you can using the above fact
can there be some kinda smoothness argu
is this easy to prove
and composing such a transformation with the parametrization of the circle gives a parametrization of the triangle
you look at the derivatives of any such parametrization at the vertices on the triangle
ah a smooth parametrization isnt enough
use local diffeomorphism
then the derivative of the transformation at the vertices has to be non zero for the inverse to be smooth
but it cant be non zero because you get that it must point along the directions of the 2 sides
but the 2 sides are linearly independent
but theres a map from R to the circle which is a local diffeomorphism
and linear transformations are also local diffeomorphisms on R^2
what did you prove here exactly
so the derivative is non zero at a vertex
you can take the derivative from 2 directions separately
approaching for one side you get that the derivative has to be pointing along the side of the triangle you are approaching from
same for the other
but the derivative cant point along 2 independent sides
unless its 0
yea so you proved that the derivative is not continuous right
but if its 0 its discontinuous?
like if I told you that you have a vector in R^2 which is parallel to both axes
then you would get that it is 0
no not necessarily
but then its local inverse wont be differential at that point
why do you need a smoothness argument btw?
I see
yea
I get it now
just remembered that there can be inverse with derivative being singular but it cannot be differentiable
yeah
thanks

btw are you doing bachelors ?
finished it in april
celebrating vacations
will do MSc from same place next
great

you have lot of energy to do math
This server gives me energy, I see others studying and get motivated 
nice
so all of gal(K2/K1 intersect K2) will be identity when restricted
sigma may not be ?
The identity on what?
on K1 intersected with K2
yes
What this is saying is that for each automorphism sigma of K1 that fix F there are |Gal(K2/K1 cap K2)| automorphisms of K2 fixing F which agree with sigma on the intersection
i dont see how that is true
Moth In Shambles
wdym to k2
An automorphism tau of K2 which agrees with sigma on K1 cap K2
What the statement is saying that the number of extensions of any given sigma is exactly the number of automorphisms of K2 fixing K1 cap K2
i dont understand tbh
the part where they know how many elements there are that are equal when restricted
do you understand the concept of extending the restriction of sigma on the intersection to all of K2
how any such extension gives a tau in Gal(K2/F) with tau | K1 cap K2 = sigma | K1 cap K2
by definition
yes
so you're trying to show that the # of such extensions is exactly equal to the number of automorphisms of K2 fixing the intersection
yes
So try thinking about how you can find a relationship between these automorphisms and extensions
for a bit
hint:
Gal(K1 K2/K1) is isomorphic to Gal(K2/K1 cap K2)
and so ofc they have the same order
@unique juniper if you think about it for a bit and still struggle i can explain it fully
how do you know this?
You have an injective restriction homomorphism from Gal(K1K2/K1) into Gal(K2/F)
Or tbh too lazy to type this out I will just post the proof and you can look at it
Here I found some notes
from the internet
The fundamental theorem of galois theory tells us that galois groups of galois extensions are quotients, right?
for F in L in E, Gal(L/F) is Gal(E/F)/Gal(E/L)
so thinking about F in K1 in K1K2 we have a correspondance between sigma in Gal(K1/F) and cosets of Gal(K1 K2/K1) in Gal(K1 K2/F)
Sorry I lagged out lol but
idk if you get it yet
the idea is that we have an isomorphism of Gal(K1/F) onto Gal(K1 K2/F)/Gal(K1 K2/K1) by taking the inverse of the restriction
i.e extensions
each coset is mapped to some sigma in Gal(K1/F)
thru restriction
so each sigma is mapped to a coset, and the elements of the coset are extensions of sigma
and each coset in turn has size |Gal(K1 K2/K1)| = |Gal(K2/K1 cap K2)| using the isomorphism
If we're given any group G, what does the notation G̃ corresponds to?
Righty thanks
How do I prove that P^n_k is irreducible?
We know that A^n_k is
Suppose C U C' = P^n_k in P^n_k (where C and C' are closed)
profinite completion? dual group?
Then intersecting with each copy of A^n_k proves that every copy of A^n_k is contained in either C or C'
But that doesn't show that one of C or C' must equal P^n_k
C and C' are closed
And?
Is the closure of A^n the entire set?
yes
try proving it
assume the copy of affine space is given by X \neq 0
assume there is an open set contained in X = 0
Wait what does X = 0 mean?
the vanishing locus of X
so V(X)?
Can you do it using the gluing construction of P^n?
We haven't covered projective coordinates yet
okay say U_0 is one of the copies of A^n
Okay
assume we have some open set V in P^n
it intersects one of the U_i non-trivially
as these cover the space
well we're interested in showing that U_0 is dense
as this would imply that the closure is the entire thing
But since U_0 was an arbitrary copy, might as well show that for all U_i
yes, this proof will show that it will work for all the U_i
you're just relabelling
right
the intersection is non-empty and open in U_i
U_i is irred
so it is dense in U_i
but U_0 \cap U_i is also nonempty open
did that make sense?
Yeah
so they intersect
Why though
We know that U_0 and U_i intersect non-trivially
yes
why do we need this?
because it implies that any nonepmty open is dense
So since V intersect U_i is open and dense and U_0 intersect U_i is open, these intersect non-trivially
Is this the argument?
yup
got it
Thanks
Topology stuff is weird
Does the explicit construction of the underlying topological space of glued schemes ever come into play or is it enough to just think of it through the universal property?
This probably depends on what youre doing, but point set topology doesnt come into play a lot
a lot of it is to just make quasicoherent sheaves work
This exercise was labelled as an easy exercise in the book
And i spent almost an hour on it

in some sense the Zariski topology is best not thought of as an honest topological space but rather a book-keeping tool, much as many other posets would be
Remember, topologies are just glorified semi-lattices.
If you have two semi-lattices X and Y, and a monotone function f from X to Y then an element a of X is a sufficient factor for b in Y if for any refinement of X W, refinement of Y Z and monotone function f': W -> Z that extends f, for any element w of W, w subs a => f'(w) subs b. Likewise an element a of X is a necessary factor for b in Y if for any refinement of X W, refinement of Y Z and monotone function f': W -> Z that extends f, for any element w of W, w subs a <= f'(w) subs b. An element a of X is a determining factor for b in Y if it is a necessary and sufficient factor. The map f is factorable if every element of Y has a determining factor in X. This means that there exists a function f*: Y -> X.
What it means in topology for a map F: X to Y to be continuous is that the induced map f = cl o image_F, from the closed sets of X to the closed sets of Y is a factorable map.

can someone help me see why we do not require L to be a subalgebra of gl(V) for B and C?
@sturdy marsh I think I found a better way of doing it (it might be equivalent to the projective coordinate one). Proj k[x_0,...,x_n] = P^n_k. 0 is a homogeneous ideal. After that it's just following definitions
I have a question that may make sense to ask here. I'm working in analysis and have a problem where I'm looking at rational functions.
If U is a unitary matrix (whose entries are functions of x), and A is a vector whose entries are rational functions of x, and if the product UA is a vector whose entries are also rational functions of x, do the entries of U also have to be rational functions of x?
Look at the adjoint representation of L, that is solvable sub algebra of gl(L) then use corrolary A on the adjoint representation
thank you that makes sense now
Is there a good way of making something into a lie algebra?
I want to show that the sum of two lie subalgebras need not be a lie subalgebra. I don't know an example of this, but I see that what goes wrong is - say S and T are our subalgebras - we have an element [s,t] not in S+T
So i am trying to make a lie algebra that goes wrong like this
Let V have a basis {s1 , s2, t1, t2, e1, e2}
define [s1,s2]=s1 , [t1,t2]=t1
[si,ti]=ei
Now S and T are sub spaces but their sum is not a subspace
But i have not checked that this is a lie algebra
is there an easy way to do this, or perhaps say something like "extend this to be a lie algebra"
Well i don’t know of a way of extending a lie algebra without defining the multiplication on all basis elements, but i do know of a condition that you can check once you’ve defined a multiplication on basis elements, to see if that actually is a lie algebra multiplication on all elements
It is given in the first chapter of jacobson’s lie algebra book, and it might be there in humphrey’s book as well but i don’t really remember too well
Also, as a more direct hint for your question, you can get an example of this sort of thing without trying to generate a lie algebra with some generators and multiplication. Some very natural examples exist
so uhh
yes
$[\overline{\mathbb{F}}_p(x,y) : \overline{\mathbb{F}}_p(x^p , y^p)] = p^2$
Yes ツ
so im trying to show that its dimension is p^2
but its not what im getting
i want to say its {1,x,...x^p-1} x {1,y,..,y^p-1}

So that gives you a spanning set of the extension as a vector space
degree <= p^2
And for the other inequality you can either try to prove that that same set is linearly independent
or you can use the fact that degree is multiplicative
and you extend this by adjoining x and y one by one, and prove that each step is degree p
Show that affine schemes are quasi-separated (intersection of quasi-compact open sets is quasicompact open). Let U, V be quasicompact open sets of Spec A. Then U = U D(f_i) and V = D(g_j) (both indexed over finite sets as they are quasicompact). Then their intersection is U (D(f_i) intersect D(g_j)) = U D(f_ig_j). However, D(f_i g_j) is isomorphic to Spec (A_(f_ig_j))
Thus, U intersect V can be written as a finite union of affine schemes
This means that it is quasicompact
Is this proof correct?
Looks good
I know that Cayley theorem states that every group is isomorphic to a subgroup of some group of symmetries. What are the applications of this theorem?
It unified the earlier theory of symmetric groups with modern group theory
Other than that, it is pretty useless
Ohh I see
You want to exhibit (x) as the kernel of a surjective ring homomorphism Z[x]->Z
Basically until you build up intuition any time you want to know whether R/I = S you should try to actually construct such a surjective map R->S with kernel exactly I.
Okay I get the idea of constructing a onto homomorphism with kernel = (x)
Wait
This thing happens in case of groups right ?
Does this also happens in case of rings ?
Yes rings have a similar first isomorphism theorem
It was the 1st isomorphism theorem in case of group I guess
In mathematics, specifically abstract algebra, the isomorphism theorems (also known as Noether's isomorphism theorems) are theorems that describe the relationship between quotients, homomorphisms, and subobjects. Versions of the theorems exist for groups, rings, vector spaces, modules, Lie algebras, and various other algebraic structures. In u...
that should take you straight to the correct part of the wiki page
but its theorem A for rings if not
feel free to ping me im just doing some other work
Yes
Ok I saw it. Now we can proceed I guess
Do you know what the generators of Z[x] are (or what that means?)
We can still solve this without that but its much shorter
I do not clearly rebember the actual definition
Yes I know that
generic isnt a technical term i just mean like, what are the elements of Z[x] as a set
Polynomial with integer cofficients
Sure, so explicitly like $a_0 + a_1z + ... + a_nz^n$ right?
MaxJ (Cali Surfer Arc)
Yes yes
Okay so we want to define $f(a_0 + a_1z + ... + a_nz^n)$
MaxJ (Cali Surfer Arc)
We know f (if it exists) is a ring homomorphism, so let's simplify a little
so we know
$f(a_0 + a_1z + ... + a_nz^n)=f(a_0)+f(a_1z)+...+f(a_nz^n)=a_0f(1)+a_1f(z)+...+a_nf(z^n)=a_0f(1)+a_1f(z)+...+a_nf(z)^n$
MaxJ (Cali Surfer Arc)
take a second to make sure that makes sense to you
The line after the last equal to sign we get because it is a ring homomorphism ?
Every line comes from that
First I used the additive distribution of f
then I used the multiplicative one twice
oh shoot
sorry
I'm reading a complex analysis thing right now so I have z on the brain
replace z with 'x'
No no
I understand that
anyway x is an element in Z[x] not really a placeholder
But the "x" are just place holders
You should think of x as a formal symbol
but it is still an element of the ring
and follows all the ring-rules
x = (0,1,0,0,0,0..................)
Yes
but its also an element of the ring
But this is what it means
i have no idea what the right hand side of that means
or what you're trying to say, to be honest. Sorry
Infinite sequence of numbers.
No no wait
If you have a polynomial $a_0+...+a_nx^n$ you can evaluate it at some number like $7$ by replacing $x$ with $7$ but this is really just a ring homomorphism with $x\mapsto 7$
MaxJ (Cali Surfer Arc)
you can construct a polynomial ring as the sequences that are eventually zero, then x is the sequence (0, 1, 0, 0, ...)
that's what they mean max
(i think)
Oh wow
I've never seen that construction
I think thats honestly terrible lol
but all right
i think it's standard in ug algebra lol
And I am asking from that perspective what that thing means
its often skipped because there is no reason to be that formal, but i see it in ug books a lot
Okay so
(0,1,000...) is an element of your ring Z[x]
and it follows all the ring rules
Yes
so we can call it x and manipulate it like i did
im not sure I understand the confusion, sorry
Wait
Its not even more formal
its just bad
f(z)^n = f(1)^n right ?
no
lets use x to be consistent
that was my fault
but i dont wanna confuse
x and 1 are different elements of the ring, and there is no way to relate them only using addition and multiplication
so a ring homomorphism doesn't have to send them to the same thing
?
I understood this much
We can continue after that
$a_0f(1)+a_1f(z)+...+a_nf(z)^n$ okay so this is what we ended up with
MaxJ (Cali Surfer Arc)
sorry for the z's
if you look closely
the only "f" things left
are $f(1)$ and $f(x)$
MaxJ (Cali Surfer Arc)
so it suffices to define f(1) and f(x), because the ring homomorphism properties make everything else
You use z
does that make sense?
It is better
Ok understand
Is that gonna end up being surjective?
Hint: compute this
with your idea
Kernel of f should be (x)
Okay, so what should f(x) be?
(you already guessed this one)
Maybe the better question for me to ask is, is 1 an element of (x)
f(x)=0
Yes
No I think. Because there is no inverse of "x"
Yes yes l rebember
Okay now compute this with what we know (leaving f(1) as it is)
Every polynomial is going to a_0f(1)
f(1)=1
Yep
Okay so now I guess what is left is to convince yourself than f as we defined it is a homomorphism
and has kernel exactly (x)
and also that its surjective but thats not hard
I think you can do this yourself but feel free to ping if you have questions
Surjective is done I think
Okay I will think for some time
I got this one btw. Thank you for your help
No problem!
If you want a cool observation
If we require that ring maps be unital, i.e. f(1)=1 then a map Z[x]->S is determined completely by where we send x
if we drop this requirement, its determined completely by where we send 1 and x
This observation will also hold for Z[[x]] right ?
Yeah ok I think it will.
Thank you
It's not clear to me that it's true for Z[[x]]
I've read that the `infinite general linear group' over some field is $\text{GL}(\mathbb{F})$ , the direct limit of $\text{GL}n(\mathbb{F})$. this can be thought of as the group of vector space isomorphisms of $\bigoplus{n \in \mathbb{N}} \mathbb{F}$. with this in mind, is there a name for the group of automorphisms of $\bigoplus_{x \in \mathbb{R}} \mathbb{F}$, i.e. the uncountable direct sum of $\mathbb{F}$?
∧res
For any vector space V, Gl(V) is the notation for the group of automorphisms of V
hmm, is there anything that's easier to google?
I’m not really sure tbh
if it were not irreducible, you could factor it as a product of two polynomials of degree 1, but then this would give you rational roots
thanks#
Let X be a scheme which is glued together from reduced schemes X_i. Then X is reduced. Let p be in X. Then p is in X_i for some i. Since each X_i is open, the stalk at p in X is the same as the same as the stalk at p in X_i. Since the latter is reduced (reducedness is stalk local), so is the former. This implies that X is reduced.
How do I make this argument rigorous?
Or rather, is this level of rigor okay when starting out with scheme theory or should I justify some stuff?
Is there any benefit to writing this out in detail?
Yes ツ
$x^3 + ax^2 +bx + c = (x - \alpha)(x - \beta)(x - \gamma)$
Yes ツ
why will adjoining 1 root and discriminant give a field that contains the roots?
This looks good. There really isn't much more to say, given the definition of reduced for a scheme is stalk-local. If the question where that X is covered by affine X_i=Spec(A_i), then the A_i being reduced implies X reduced, you would want to convince yourself that A_i being reduced is the same as all of its localisations being reduced, which is less tautological.
If you know some Galois theory, you can break the problem into 2 cases: when adjoining a single root already gives you the splitting field, and when it doesn't. When $F(\alpha)$ is already a splitting field, then it contains all three roots $\alpha,\beta,\gamma$, hence it contains the square root of D already (since this is just $(\alpha-\beta)(\alpha-\gamma)(\beta-\gamma)$.
Turgul
When $F(\alpha)$ is not the splitting field, then the splitting field is $F(\alpha,\beta)$ and is degree 6 over $F$, which will again contain $\sqrt{D}$. So all we need to know is that $\sqrt{D}$ is not contained in $F(\alpha)$, because $F(\alpha,\sqrt{D})$ is contained in the splitting field, and is the same dimension over F, so must be the whole splitting field.
Turgul
Thanks!
But the Galois group of $F(\alpha,\beta)/F(\alpha)$ must exchange $\beta$ and $\gamma$, which sends $\sqrt{D}$ to $-\sqrt{D}$, hence $\sqrt{D}$ is not contained in $F(\alpha)$.
Turgul
Show that a scheme is integral iff it is irreducible and reduced. Suppose $X$ is irreducible and reduced. Since irreducibility and reducedness are inherited by open subschemes, it suffices to check that $O_X(X)$ is an integral domain. Suppose $fg = 0$. I claim that $C_f \cup C_g = X$ ($C_f$ refers to the points at which $f$ vanishes (the image of f in the local ring $k(p)$ is zero)). $C_f$ and $C_g$ are closed (we know this). Let p be in X and let $U_p$ be an affine neighborhood of p with $U_p \cong Spec A$ for some ring A. Let $f'$ and $g'$ be the restriction of f and g to $U_p$. Under the isomorphism of schemes, $f'$ and $g'$ correspond to elements of $a_f$ and $a_g$ of A and p corresponds to a prime ideal $P$ of A. We see that $0=(fg)_p=(f'g')_p=f'_pg'_p$. The right side corresponds to $\frac{a_fa_g}{1}$ in $A_P$. This would imply that $a_fa_g=0$. In particular, $a_fa_g$ is contained $P$. WLOG, let $a_f$ be contained in P. This would imply that the $\frac{a_f}{1}+PA_P=0$. This corresponds to the image of f' in k(p) being 0. That is, the image of f in k(p) is 0. Thus, p is in $C_f$.
Using irreducibility of X, we conclude that (WLOG) $X = C_f$. This means that f disappears at every point. Since the scheme is reduced, this would imply that f is 0
Have a Banana, Bitch
Is this proof correct?
Yeah this looks correct, but since C_f is just the points x where the germ of f at x is in the maximal ideal, the union of C_f C_g being X is a lot simpler right?
In the sense we just have to say (f_x)(g_x)=0 hence one of them has to be in the maximal ideal
I don't think it will determine the result of applying the map to infinite power series, although I don't have a counterexample.
Can someone verify my proof?
Since Spec(A) is a subset of X and the closure of n is X, we know that for every point p in Spec(A), all open sets containing p must contain n. In particular, Spec(A) contains n. However, we know that the closure of the [(0)] ideal in the spectrum of an integral domain is Spec(A). Thus, n is contained in the closure (in Spec A) of [(0)]. This implies that all open sets containing n in Spec A must contain [(0)]. Since we can "zoom in" on Spec A instead of all of X when computing the stalk, this proves that the stalk of X at n is the same as the stalk of Spec A at [(0)] which is the fraction field.
"If s vanishes on V, it also vanishes on U"
Why is this true?
the scheme is assumed to be integral
Because the vanishing set of s should be a closed subset of U, but it vanishes on V and V is open in U, hence dense (via irreduciblity)
This looks okay to me
Thanks
$[\mathbb{R}(\theta) : \mathbb{R}] = finite$
Yes ツ
why will the minimal polynomial for theta have odd degree?
what's theta
how many simple finite extensions of R do you know ?
btw, the intermediate value theorem easily shows that any odd degree polynomial with real coefficients has a real root
yeah
im trying to understand why there are no finite extensions of R that have odd degree
except 1
well how do you make field extensions
quotient by an irreducible element ?
yes, quotient of R[x] by an irreducible polynomial
so if you want to show that R has no nontrivial finite extension with odd degree
you have to show that R[x] doesn't have any irreducible polynomial of degree 3,5,7,...
I'm glad you got the answer to why will the minimal polynomial for theta have odd degree?
😅
do you know an irreducible polynomial of even degree
in R ?
yeah in R[x]
yeah
so then, you know a nontrivial finite simple field extension of R ?
I don't think it's a trick question
well usually C is introduced as R[i], which makes it a simple extension
no I was just wondering why you said you didn't know of any simple finite extension of R
oh
lol
yes
i thougt
you were asking if there was any intermediate simple fields
or atleast thats what i thought
ah
if $a/b \cong 0$ then $a \cong b$?
Or x1
with a and b groups
b is a subgroup of a?
yes, a normal subgroup
If a/b \cong 0 then b = a
lol the notation is so confusing 
what happens with stuff like ℝ[x]/(x-α)²
that is no longer isomorphic to an extension
i was told that this is now in the territory of algebraic geometry
Idk what kind of answer you expect lol
but it is a 2 dimensional vector space over R and an R algebra ig

Here's an different argument that I came up with: Let $\nu$ be the generic point of the scheme. Notice that it suffices to show that the map from $O_X(U) \rightarrow O_{X,\nu}$ is injective. Assume that the stalk of $s\in O_X(U)$ is $0$. For each $p\in U$, there is an affine scheme $U_p\cong Spec A$ for some $A$ an integral domain. For each $q\in U\cap U_p$, let $B$ be a basis element of $U_p$ corresponding to a basis element of $D(f)$ of Spec A. Then the map $O_X(B) \rightarrow O_{X,\nu}$ corresponds to the map $A_f \rightarrow Frac(A)$. Since the latter is injective, so is the former. Since the stalk of $s\in O_X(U)$ is $0$, we have that the stalk of the restriction of s on B is 0. However, this must mean that the restriction of s on B is 0. Gluing over $q \in U\cap U_p$, these glue to 0 in $O_X(U\cap U_p)$. Since $p$ was arbitrarily chosen from $U$, these then glue to give us that $s$ is 0.
Have a Banana, Bitch
This looks reasonable to me
Thanks
Also, i realized that my proof of the stalk being the same as the fraction field was unnecessarily long. Since generic points are unique and closure in open sets = closure in ambient set intersected with the open set (provided the set we are taking closure of is contained in the open set), n would have to be the generic point of every open affine subscheme. However, each spec A an open subset of X would need to have A be an integral domain. Thus, n would literally be the point [(0)] in each affine open. So the stalk at it would be the localization which is the frac field
Nice
I think it should be isomorphic to the dual numbers?
Which are intuitively the real numbers plus infinitesimals "to first order" in that there is a non-zero element (x - alpha) whose square is 0, mimicing a first-order infinitesimal whose square is second-order and hence 0.
I see... so what about when this α is a multiple root of a larger polynomial
i.e. what is the behaviour of R[x]/P(x) where P(x) has a multiple root
😳 IDK
🤔
That's fine if there are products of powers of different irreducibles
But for /(power of irreducible)
🤔
Seems a bit weird TBH
well it was the source of my original question
Maybe you could think of it as (dual numbers)/(irreducible - epsilon)
i.e. adding a 1st-order infinitesimal epsilon, and a "almost root" of the irreducible, alpha, so that p(alpha) isn't 0, but is epsilon?
Not sure if those are isomorphic though
Isn't alpha in R?
No it was generalised from there
.
I see
Is this right?
I think, more formally, it would state that
( R[x]/(x^2) )[y]/(P(y) - x) isomorphic R[y]/(P(y)^2)
at least for an irreducible P
I figured it out
Seems like an analysis question?
Though I'm not sure
Maybe try asking on the analysis channel too
any hints for part b ?
use part a to represent an element in gH as g(g^-1h^-1gh)
and then compute the nth power
ya that works.
why didnt I think of that. it was not very difficult.
I've been struggling to see why the reduced expression must involve all sigma_alpha?
intuitively something like, if it is missing sigma_beta then beta will not get sent to -beta, but thats not quite right
Show that locally Noetherian schemes are quasiseparated
Can someone help me out with this?
I probably need to use this somewhere, but the fact that noetherian spectrum does not imply noetherian ring seems to be causing problems
What do you mean by locally noetherian ring? A_p is noetherian for all p or Spec A is a locally noetherian scheme?
ah okay
I have shown that any affine open in the scheme can be written as a finite union of noeth. spaces
Let U be an open affine
Yup
There is a cover U_i where U_i = Spec A_i for A_i noeth.
Yup
Intersect U with U_i
Yee
We can cover this intersection by open sets that are distinguished in both U_i and U
Yup
These must be noetherian because A_i is noetherian so (A_i)_f must also be noeth.
Yes
Union these covers over i to get a cover of U by distinguished open sets which are noeth.
Right
Use compactness of U to get a finite subcover
Yes, so U is actually noetherian
I'm confused by why you said you could only cover by noetherian spaces
This gives us that U can be written as a finite union of noetherian things
Use this
Where though?
You have U covered by distinguished opens
If U = Spec B call these opens D(f1),...,D(fn)
Since they cover U you have (f1,....,fn) = (1)
Then (f_1,...,f_n) = B
Why?
You chose them to be simultaneous distinguished opens with a noetherian ring
So B_fi ≈ C_g for some noetherian ring C, the functions on one of your global cover elements
You already said they're noetherian
I totally forgot that these were schemes
Thanks for the help
hey guys if x^8-x = x(x-1)(x^3+x+1)(x^3+x^2+1) over Z2[x]
How do i construct a field of 8 elements by using roots of this polynomial and Z2
Cuz there are 2 irreducible factors that dont split over Z2
So which do I choose to provide the root?
x^3+x+1 or x^3+x^2+1 or does it not matter?
Im supposed to use Kroneckers theorem which allows me to assume there a larger field that contains these factors, Z2 and the root of the factors
field extension*
so this method of talking about finite fields is a little bit different than what I think you're trying. You seem to be familiar with how we can start with a field, like Z2, and then get a field extension by doing Z2[x]/(f(x)) where f(x) is an irreducible polynomial. Then, we get an extension with the same degree as the polynomial
instead, over here we're working in the algebraic closure of Z2, maybe call it F. The algebraic closure of Z2 is actually infinite. Then, we are looking for subfields of Z2 with cardinality 8.
in the closure, x^8-x has 8 roots (you can check that the polynomial has no double roots because it is separable)
these 8 roots actually form a subfield of the closure
you don't need to do Z2[x]/(x^3+x+1) (though that would get you an isomorphic finite field of order 8), because we are starting with an algebraic closure, then going down (rather than starting with Z2 and going up)
the thing you need to prove is that these 8 roots actually do make a subfield of the algebraic closure
from factoring, you already see that it has 0 and 1 as roots, which is a good first step
then, you need to show it is closed under addition, multiplication, and respective inverses
damn so i have to find 6 more roots from those other 2 degree3 polynomials?
How does one go about that
you don't have to do it super concretely, you just need to show abstractly that it works
it might be easier to generalize?
LIke the question is asking me to construct a field with 8 elements by adjoining suitable roots from that polynomial to Z2
oh
well if that's all it wants then I think your original strategy is fine
take an irreducible polynomial of degree 3 over Z2
Z2[x]/(x^3+x+1) is isomorphic to field w 8 elements but isnt Z2[x]/(x^3+x^2+1) ?
whats the diff b/w these
they're actually isomorphic
yeah no problem lol
I am trying to prove the part in b) which says that if A is Noetherian then U is quasicompact. I proved that U is locally Noetherian using the fact that U is covered by things of the form Spec((S_f)_0) where S is graded ring and that S must be finitely generated as an A algebra. There was an earlier exercise where we proved that locally noetherian implies quasiseparated. I don't know how to go from here
I don't know much about this stuff and don't know what book you are using. But if X is union of a finite number of quasicompact things, then it is quasicompact, right? U is covered by a finite number of your Specs, which are each quasicompact, right?
You should be able to leverage S being noetherian (finitely generated over noetherian implies noetherian) to show that Proj(S) is a noetherian space, hence every open (in particular, U) is quasicompact
To show that two applications $\phi, \phi' \in \mathcal{L}(V)$ have the same eigenvectors, is it sufficient to show that ker$(\phi-\lambda.Id)=$ker$(\phi'-\lambda'.Id)$? For $\lambda$ some eigenvalue of $\phi$ and $\lambda'$ of $\phi'$
𝔻аniil
what are your thoughts on this?
I think that it is true but I would like to ensure myself, and if not to have a counter example...
What I wrote above must hold for all eigenvalues lambda,lambda' i guess
yes. it’s saying that every eigen vector of $\phi$ is an eigen vector of $\phi’$ and vice versa. further, you can show that $\lambda\phi’(x)=\lambda’\phi(x)$ for any eigen vector of $\phi$ or $\phi’$
coycoy
alright, thank you
Ideal generated by 3
3*7=1 so the ideal is the whole ring
Z_10[x] is a polynomial ring.
3*7 is still 1 there
im not really inclined in this area, but what is significant about 3*7?
ideals are closed for multiplication by members of the ring
3 is in the ideal and 7 is in the ring
and 3*7=1
so since 1 is in the ideal
every other ring element is in it too
oh so you can kind of generate everything else?
O ok yes
This means the statement is false right ?
yes
Because there is only one element in Z_10[x]/(3)
yea
And in Z_3[x] there are more than one element



