#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 216 of 1
yeah
do you know what gf means?
i can give more explicit hints, but I think if you write out really explicitly what f, gf, [gf] all mean and then use the fact that g is null homoptopic you will get the answer
Is it not the map g composed with the map f from S^n to X right
and then I think gf is null homotopic and I would have a nullhomotopic map from S^n to Y?
Is there something here
yeah this the idea
just fill in all the details
sorry for being so not directly helpful but this is such a good exercise
ok nice! thanks a lot!
No this was very good ^^
Good to think through it
that was a good direction
welcome
So I'm trying to show that p:SxS -> S#S (# is the smash prod ) induces trivial maps in homotopy and nontrivial in homology. I guess since we know S#S is S^2 helps us in the homology case but I'm completely stuck in the homotopy case
Anyone have a tip on where to start?
is S just S^1
yeah
compute the homotopy groups
you can compute the map in homology explicitly i think but visually it makes sense
Ah I got the homotopy now I believe. I first calculated the homotopies incorrectly so I though it wouldn't come explicitly, but I think I'm getting it to work
well i think the problem is pretty trivial if you just write down pi_n of both spaces
which you know well enough
(obviously pi_n S^2 is hard but it turns out it doesnt matter)
Yeah the groups turned out trivial on one side
yeah
then for homology if you think about the actual quotient for T^2-> S^1 smash S^1
the cellular/simplicial approx is ‘obvious’
lmk if u want help computing it but yeah just get a grip on why its true visually first
then you can make it work w any formalism
ok thanks ill try!
This is a basic question so idk if it belongs here. Is a Topological space obtained by $\mathbb{R}\times [0,1)$ paracompact? I've seen $\omega_1 \times [0,1)$ being used as a counterexample because $\omega_1$ is an uncountable set, so it seems like replacing that with $\mathbb{R}$ should also work if that's the case.
Exynouz
So I guess this map turns out to be a map from reduced homology of T^2 to S^2 but how do I make sure it's not trivial
take a generator of H^2T^2 and think about visually what happens to it
under the quotient map
one such singular generating chain consists of the entire surface of the torus
what is the image of the surface in S^2 thought of as T^2/~
okay thanks!
Well... Nvm
ok I might be stupid but I'm having a ton of trouble parsing this definition
could someone give me an intuition for what this is saying?
you're not stupid for having trouble parsing this definition because this is garbage
seems like an extremely complicated way to just say "equals the graph of a function up to a permutation of coordinates"
who writes like this 
Overall I'm not sure what is the point of the condition that the elements of K are increasing
for the sake of digesting this definition it's good to keep an example in mind
e.g. the circle
this prof has no lectures and only notes that look like this :^)
near (1, 0) it's locally the graph of the function sqrt(1 - x^2), in the form (x, sqrt(1 - x^2)), but near (0, 1) it's locally the graph of the function sqrt(1 - y^2), in the form (sqrt(1 - y^2), y)
This is the shittiest definitions I've ever read I think, the idea is drowned in an ocean of futilities
no lectures
F
and minimal pictures
F
On the other hand there I was recently reading evans, who seems a bit too handwavy about "locally C1", defining this as equal to the graph of a C1 function up to rotation and relabeling coordinates
would you rather have this? 
I might say yes
anyways with the circle, what is it saying?
i outlined it here
but i can go into some more detail if you'd like
oh lmao sorry I'm blind
right, that's only local because that equality stops somewhere
or uh
it would be not local if that equality worked everywhere
i think you're on the right track
the circle isn't globally the graph of a function because then you'd run into issues (if it were then the function would be multivalued)
wth
I guess the part I'm having the most trouble parsing is what K and L actually represent
but you can patch together the graphs of functions to get the circle!
I think that's the part that isn't clicking
the idea is basically "locally a graph but we're being looser about which coordinates are functions of which"
So is it just that around each point, you can find a sufficiently small open ball, the intersection of M and the ball looks like a graph?
yes

what the fuck that's so clear
this was clearly written with that one type of extremely pedantic student in mind
u know the one im talking about
You have two steps in front of you
ok now I need to connect that to this definition to this
the prof is writing these notes as we go, maybe that's just how his brain works lol
I disagree, a pedantic student would prefer a short def
Lee - the book is called like Smooth Manifolds or something right?
I can probably find a copy
if I can't, I'll take you up on that
already found a pdf lol
popular book huh
anyways, what are K and L here
is it just a way to like pick different restrictions on different coordinates?
the list of indices labeling the function coordinates and the ones labeling the variables, I think
like terra's example for the circle, in some regions, the graph looks like $(x, y(x))$, while in others $(x(y), y)$
I think he really wanted to point out that they could be in any configuration or something
~S^1
you wan to account for different cases, because the default definition of a graph would be $(\bm{x}, f(\bm{x}))$ where the variables are neatly separated
~S^1
OH I THINK I SEE
Like it's not necessarily (x1, ...,xK) = f(xK+1,..., xn)
Right you're just picking out some of the coordinates
and then delta is making them be very close to the corresponding coordinates of the point p
and you're sending those to the other variables
Yes
which are also not too far from the corresponding coordinates of the point p
and you take the graph of that function
and it looks like your M
or if you intersect it with the small epsilon/delta rectangle, it equals M
I think we can "improve" his definition by introducing a permutation $\sigma \in S_n$ ....
Jean-Jérôme
anything u could do to the given definition would be an improvement
did you see this profs statement of the gauss-bonnet formula
inb4 lee has a perfect and flawless statement of it
is this like
at least accompanied by a picture
no
this might be okay if it were
scroll up a lil to see my profs definition of "locally equal"
hahahahahhaa
I'm saving all of your comments for the course eval
Hahaha
no differential geometer mathematician writes like t his
"or a book that actually got edited" holy shit haha
find literally any book on diff geo, I doubt it can be worse than the notes
definitely going in the course eval
"Lectures would be helpful"
"I'm sure they would be"
this dude does not deserve even a shred of decency in the course evaluation
he's widely regarded as one of our best profs, and apparently he's a great lecturer. Even his non diffgeo notes are usually positively regarded
But he's just... not doing online school well
and the fact that this is a degree requirement
and the GPA boost
I don't know why diffgeo is a degree requirement
but 
I'm like 80% done this course though
well, 60%
but in a week I'll be 80% done
there are 5 assignments worth 100% of the grade
on the bright side it's almost over
and I'm done 3 of them
on the last one I wrote "I'm turning dL into -4dt here because it gives me the right answer. I don't know why it works" (paraphrased) and still got full points on that question lol
ok
he isn't even proving inverse function theorem. this was proven in calc 3 lol
inverse function theorem 
@prisma seal you should take this up with a person in your department
complain
this is not an acceptable amount of instruction
Like it won't help you now, class is almost over. But it's worth reporting it in case this person is teaching online in the future
this person has been doing this for 2 terms
have students complained to people who aren't the prof?
that prof should lose tenure for that level of bs lol
thats below the bare minimum by a lot
he's widely regarded as a great prof in non covid terms
yeah but the dept could try giving him a slap on the wrist
course evaluations aren't just read by the prof? but I don't know if anyone has gone to the dean or anything
probably wouldnt do much
course evals are often read by others
for non tenured profs they are incredibly important in fact
I agree it probably wouldn't do anything, but I would recommend contacting the dean
Like this is literally not a course
this person is not a prof, they're a lecturer, but they are on an indefinite contract
i mean it's best to be direct about it
rather than an eval
you could get maybe a couple of students to sign some google form
maybe yeah
what would that accomplish though?
he's normally a great prof, I don't think the department can compel him to record lectures
and I definitely don't want him fired
no, no lectures at all @gritty widget
there are office hours once a week that last 40 mins
what's his objection to virtual lectures??
2 much effort
#point-set-topology message this is all I know lol
they make it sound like they have no choice lol
is this a correct solution? and is there a better method
where is this from
This is more succinctly stated as saying a map Spec B -> Spec A has the scheme theoretic fiber over a prime p in Spec A as
Spec (B (x)_A kappa(p))
In this case you have A = Z, B = Z[x1,...,xn], and kappa(p) = F_p
that was quick
could anyone please answer this
basically my question is,
- is it possible to calculate the great circle distance using calculus of variations?
- Will it assume a spherical or an oblate spheroid Earth?
- Is this any more of less accurate than the Haversine or the Vincenty's formulae?
im not sure this belongs here lol
yea but no idea where to put it
i just saw geometry in the channel heading so
and within "early university" there was no geometry so i had no idea where to put it
Yeah, this sounds quite geometric, if you ask me
the contraction part of this proof makes me feel uncomfortable
is it even right
this is in lawson’s spin geo btw ty
Is covering the fundamental group normal for a first topology course?
mine did
not in much detail but we at least saw it and like
computed pi_1 S^1 = Z
cool, thanks
mine did 1-5 and 9
2-5, 9
my class is trying to speedrun chapters 1 through 9
we skipped some of the smaller and less relevant stuff throughout the chapters
also
we did not do 1
i forgot that 1 is set theory
my copy calls it 1
I'm low key annoyed by some of the sections we're skipping, like why skip quotient topology >:(
and I haven't found the time to independently sit down and go through that yet 
I only know some embedded manifold stuff from self study
Thst sucks sphere
Space filling curves aren't that like, deep imo. You can pick it up
They're really cool
Don't get me wrong
but you can sort of just read the section
(or not read it)
@ripe moss it seems to say that the surface parametrized by (x, y, f(x,y)) with f being C^1 is contained in a plane iff the isothermal coordinates (u,v) of f are obtained from a nonsingular linear transformation of (x,y)
it's a well known result that any sufficiently smooth surface (dim = 2) locally has isothermal coordinates exist
so this seems to say if you can get those "easily", i e. just via a linear transformation, then the surface is (part of) a plane
what book is it from?
I am rather stuck in ii.)
I'm not quite sure what the hint is trying to hint at
what does the 1 point space have to do with this?
in the definition of proper map, what Z can you plug in so that you get a statement about the closedness of f: X → Y
i'm pretty sure this is false
endow the cofinite topology on an uncountable set, then consider any non-empty open set
@fathom cave
no the topology im trying to prove this is on euclidean topology @gritty widget
i should have mentioned it
also i have a confusion with a definition. so i wana make sure i have understood it
a defintion of saturated set says "A subset B of X is saturated if B is an intersection of open sets" so does this intersection has to be countable? i dont thnk so because the defintion does not mention it.
No, it doesn't have to be countable
my first idea is to take balls of radius 1/n around every element of the complement
You have to write (a, b) as an intersection of closed intervals?
ye
[a+1/n, b-1/n]
I hope you can do the closed interval one on your own
that one is trivial
Everything in life is trivial
ty
you don't get the million
That was never an option then
lol no
I know we joke around, but it's genuinely astounding to me that one boxers aren't just trolling me. Every now and then I have to remind myself yall are being serious 😂
it is also astounding to me that two-boxers are so petty that they would give up a million for a <10% chance of getting $1,001,000
whatever man
😂
I feel so lost rn
about the exercise?
no this boxing thing
lol
box = space homeo to [0, 1]^n
two box = box \sqcup box
i dont need 1000 really
the "paradox" is to explain how two-boxers can be so silly
anyway, i will not talk about it further in this channel
one box
dominant strategy is a bad model here
util maximization is the correct model
its not a question of anything but what game theory to use imo
the wikipedia analysis is more or less correct that the only hard part of this problem is the under specification
actually i change my mind this is trickier than i thought bc of how underspecified it is
idk are questions that just dont have enough information interesting
i don't think the interesting part about this question is finding the correct answer, and rather thinking about why both answers feel weird
I saw somebody say they would counter the predictor by just flipping a coin to decide whether to pick 1 or 2 boxes
but if the thing is truly an omniscient predictor, it necessarily knows the result of your coin flip as well
in a deterministic universe, perfect knowledge of the future of any subset of the universe should extent to perfect knowledge of the future of the entire universe, or at least everything in the same causal bubble, no?
they only feel weird because the question itself is insufficiently phrased though
I mean I don't think there's a better phrasing
It basically just comes down to "do you believe a perfect predictor like that can exist"
huh
how is that relevant its a hypothetical
if you assume the predictor is perfect the answer is trivial is it not
there is barely a decision tree at that point
the issue is mostly about how reliable the predictor is
yeah well then i guess you're questioning if the predictor is really perfect or not
hence "do you believe a perfect predictor like that can exist"
again not relevant
its not about whether i believe it, it is a hypothetical
the question does not specify whether the predictor is perfect
in the situation, your know the predictor is highly reliable
that is meaningless
why
if he has a .00000000000001% chance of being wrong
its very different
from a 10% chance
I think 2-boxers don't really take seriously the proposition that if you converge on taking 2 boxes, then the predictor will have successfully predicted you do just that
they think of the predictor's decision as "set in stone" and that they can then cheat it
it doesnt tell you anything
again my entire point is
it depends on the % chance
of the predictor being wrong
or even like
whether its a percent chance
it could depend on the choice
or the player
or anything
the predictor is so underdefined that the question is meaningless
it's not though
it is
let us say 99% accuracy
the details of it don't matter, you're supposed to assume it has the advertised property
thats not the original question oxide
it says “very reliable”
this is like being asked to show that x is greater than 5
and choosing x to be 6
lol
well in most discussions i've seen, they always take the accuracy to be >=90% at least
it just boils down to basic arithmetic i dont wanna do
it probably still matters as 1mil>>1 thou
I thought it does just that
You could tell me the predictor has 100% accuracy and I would still take both boxes.
now that doesn't make sense
if the predictor is omniscient, then you can either get 1000 or 1 million, no other choice
The accuracy is irrelevant because he has already made his prediction when I make my decision.
lol
correct
this is nonesense to me
if you take both boxes you'll only get 1000 then, no chance of 1mil+1000
😂
oh ok
I'm legit not
I think 2-boxers don't believe the predictor has the property "If you end up doing scenario X, the predictor correctly predicted your doing scenario X"
the problem is trivial if the predictor is perfect
but that should be implied by it being 100% accurate
I thought oxide was at first. One boxing makes no sense to me.
you are all children, I would simply be the predictor
I know which box contains the 1 mil and so can take it myself
do you mean 1-boxer ultra
i hope you know you're all falling into the trap
"To almost everyone, it is perfectly clear and obvious what should be done. The difficulty is that these people seem to divide almost evenly on the problem, with large numbers thinking that the opposing half is just being silly."
Anyway, watching tv, I will argue again another time.
oh lol sorry ultra
this is just pretentious and annoying lol
I'll ask one more question to max just in case he interprets it differently
also, montero is very very good
Yeah
if the album is this good
i will cry
lil nas x will bring the hot boy summer we so desperatley need
You wake up, you've never heard of the problem before. You are told the predictor has already made his decision. So what you do now does not affect the prediction. Do you take one or both boxes?
I simply cannot
no thats not a sadcat
I don't see how this changes anything. In the problem it's your first time hearing about it
I don't think it changes anything either. But I think it makes 2 boxing more obviously correct.
but if you take 2 boxes, the predictor will have predicted your taking 2 boxes
Luna I feel like you are making a classic error
of trying to use like
weird real-world logic
for a hypothetical problem
😂
the predictor is perfect
you can make any choice
and the predictor already predicted it
thats the assumption
I think the issue is that like
hyptheticals really aren't that interesting
if you don't have faith in the hypothetical
if you start saying "what if" you realize how limited hypotheticals are
Well, yes, I am interpreting it as my choice cannot change the prediction because the prediction happened first. If you just remove that, then sure you can one box
i think the most interesting thing is really what people take away from this
But if you remove that assumption, there's literally no paradox so that's obviously not what is intended
this is equivalent to a perfect predictor
if you assume the predictor is genuinely accurate as advertised, whatever you end up doing will be predicted by it already
what is intended is to ask a question that is malformed to produce faux-intrigue
its just silly
but under an additional assumption of a perfect predictor the answer is easy
No comment. Back to my TV.
I just realized this whole scenario is reminiscent of Minority Report
is it a true nerdsnipe
i feel like a nerdsnipe involves solving a problem
this is just inflammatory hahaha
well maybe not an actual one, but in the spirit of it
me and ultra came to the same conclusion basically instantly after I re-read the problem statement
same
ahh! wow, that takes me back. I did an undergrad research project on minimal surfaces, that was one of my sources
minimal surfaces 
Is the fibre here just f^{-1}({y})?
yeah
he uses upper star for pre image
instead of -1 because it is not strictly an inverse
ok sure
just some sort of direction to what I'm supposed to do is good
cuz I don't even know how to start for some reasons
then I think the idea is that for any space Z, f*({y}) x Z is a subspace of X x Z and you can use the proper property to show (ii) of compact
suppose you have an open cover of f*({y})..... reasons reasons QED
Yeah, I did start with that at some point
but I didn't know what to do with that fact
how would I be looking for a finite subcover is seriously beyond me
what's meant by "the product characterization of compact spaces"?
ah
its the ii.) statement
woah, never heard this
well, I am equally as confused
apparently the proof requires zorn's lemma
and I'm using apparently because I have no idea what the proof is
since its non-examinable so its not given
so I don't have the slightest bit of intuition why this is even remotely true
wtf textbook is this lol
and I am in that stage of doing my problem sheets where my single braincell is just playing bohemian rhapsody non-stop
its my notes
yeah its just an odd approach to this stuff
okay let me think for a second sorry was distracted
Okay I am trying to look up one lemma to make sure something is true haha but I know how to do it i think
take your time
Yeah okay i am correct
So i am not sure how much of a hint you want, but the strategy here is indeed to use 4.19.ii and the original definition of proper together
In particular you want to notice that
Let F be the fiber
FxZ -> {y}xZ -> Z is the same as the projection FxZ -> Z
So the steps I would take are
- Show (or cite, hopefully) that the restriction of a closed map f is closed, so that FxZ->{y}x Z is closed
- Show the projection is closed
- Hence F is compact
oh, so you apply f x idz to the F x Z?
yeah
i should be more careful and say that the restriction of fxid to FxZ is closed
rather than just f by itself
oh right, F doesn't have to be closed...
It will be for nice spaces but in general no
np
Question, how does the question of convergence translate from metric to topological spaces?
Better yet, does it?
Yeah
You take sequences and just say for any nbd of a point, eventually the sequence lands inside that nbd
If this is satisfied for every neighborhood of a ppint L, then L is a limit point of the sequence
So does the neighborhood have to be an element of the topology?
Why is that by the way?
Consider a topology X,empty set
That is definitely a new concept
Every single point is a limit point of ever sequence
Oh because the only neighborhood of each point is X
Okay, so if we considered an element $x_n\in \R^+$ where $\tau :={\R^+,\emptyset,(0,n) for each n\in \N}$ then we say x converges to any point in the set $(0,\ceil{x})$
There we go
There we go. Does that logic check out?
Well, technically it is a discrete space anyways
Are you talking about the constant sequence with value x?
x isn’t a sequence so it can’t converge to anything unless you do what sham says
One second, I want to rephrase
also, is x in the set N? If so, why are you taking the ceiling? If not, it's not in the set on which τ is a topology
So the issue is that x is an element, not a sequence. Are you thinking of the constant sequence with value x?
Technically I am trying to think of a sequence that would 'normally' converge to x in the normal euclidean metric
And I guess another notable restriction is that (x_n) has to be increasing here
Man, this did not pan out how I wanted it to 😆
The issue is that you’re still saying x converges to...
You need the sequence of x_n to converge to points
Yea, I'm scrapping that. I really don't think my thought process represented at all what I wrote
Okay, let's say $(x_n)\to x\in \R^+$ with the normal euclidean metric
dackid
Another requirement is $(x_n)\leq x$ for all $n\in \N$
dackid
sure
Okay, now consider the topology I had earlier
considering
With respect to that topology, would we say that $(x_n)$ converges to any point in $(0,\ceil{x})$?
dackid
no
I definitely agree with that
Pretty sure it converges to any point in [floor{x}, ceiling{x})
So what exactly would we say this converges to if we consider that topology
But that's not a set in the topology
Who cares
It’s points in your set
Actually I think it converges to any point in [floor{x},infinity)
So then why don't we just say it converges to x?
It does
it does converge to x, but also lots of other things
Convergence isn't unique outside of metric spaces (and certain classes of topological spaces)
The 2nd part is what I am trying to understand
Your topology doesn’t distinguish points very well so you can converge to lots of things
Take a point in the set I described
Sure 🤔
Umm, there needs to be an x_n in any open neighborhood of 3?
Yes
That I'm not as sure as I thought I was
Oh wait....
We see in the open sets (0,3),(0,4),(0,...) That every x_n is in each set
Well, because we explicitly said $x_n\leq 2$ for all $n\in\N$
dackid
Yea, that is true
So what exactly is an open neighborhood? I think that is where the confusion is
I know it w. r. t metric spaces
Oh, that's vague af
Well, I mean that can be any set containing x
I thought it needed to be restricted by the open sets in the topology
open neighborhood always means that slim, the terminology concern would be if you just said "neighborhood"
Well, for our topology, (1,2) is not an open set in the topology
So since it wasn't, I thought that we couldn't use it as a neighborhood
I understand that, I was just trying to tell you why I was confused
Okay, anyways, so then I am actually not too sure I understand why this converges to 3 anymore
I'll give you the metric variant, and you can translate over to topological spaces
A sequence $(x_n)$ is convergent to a point x if for any $\epsilon>0, \exists N>0$ so that: $\forall n\geq N: d(x_n,x)<\epsilon$
dackid
So for sufficiently large n, we can always find an open set, in this case $B_{\epsilon}(x)$ so that $x_n\in B_\epsilon(x)$ for all $n\geq N$
dackid
How so?
Ah, the first part
So for any open set, we can find a sufficiently large N so that...
Okay sure. Let me restart that part
So for any open set containing {x}, we can find a sufficiently large N so that $x_n$ is in the open set for $n\geq N$
dackid
How's that?
Okay sure
Let's let x be 2 like last time
This certainly still means that a limit point is 2.
But I am not sure sure how this would suggest 3 is a limit point
Because can't we choose a sufficiently small open set, say $(3-\epsilon,3+\epsilon) in which it is not true?
So it does have to be an open set in the topology
Ohhh okay, cool! In that case any open set that contains 3 also contains the necessary x_n
Ahhh, okay
Open sets of X helps me get that down
So then the limit points of this sequence would be in $[2,\infty)$
dackid
Got it! I understand now.
So is that why we only really considered Balls in a metric space, since those are the only open sets?
Ah okay. So it was sufficient enough to show convergence
slimvesus
Ahh, okay. That makes a lot of sense now.
Ohhh, interesting
This was very helpful. Thank you very much
so here's something i'm wondering about:
how would i go about computing the complement of a trefoil knot?
for context, i know some basic topology and very very basic knot theory, so like. ELIU i guess?
what do you mean by computing this?
Do you mean computing various invariants of this complement?
i mean the complement is a 3-manifold, right
what i'd like is some kind of intuitive representation of that manifold
like... "start with a polyhedron and glue these sides in this way"
that kinda representation
if it makes any sense
the most i know about knot complements is the Not Knot video if that helps any
Oh I see
Hi ! Would anyone have a reference in mind (other than Cerf's paper) about Cerf theory please ? :)
really when looking at hyperbolic 3-manifolds you care a lot about the fundamental group (see Mostow's rigidity theorem), so really what you can do is compute the fundamental group then if you want something explicit just find an explicit representation G in PSL(2,C) and then your quotient is H^3/G
hm
"The polyhedron and glue these sides" is specifically for 2-manifolds because they can be (all?) constructed like that
for 2-manifolds you would start with a polygon no? 
okay, how do i compute the fundamental group of the complement of a trefoil
oh yesh polygon mbmb
unfortunately 3 manifolds are quite finicky to handle but the rough summary on how to deal with them is usually from geometricization conjecture it reduces to looking at discrete subgroups of one of 8 groups
so the fundamental group is somewhat tricky to compute but a rough idea is
- select a bunch of generators by kinda cutting the complement up into simply connected components
- figure how to glue them by van karpen
intuitively van Kampen is kinda like
observing what relations are there between possible loops around the knot
lemme try to draw how we can do it for trefoil
man
so you kinda like draw a bunch of loops then i think we can move g1g3 and g2g1 to each other
@west spindle they keyword to look up it called the wirtinger presentation
it provides a nice algorithm for computing fundamental groups of knot completments
(under the hood the wirtinger presentation is just repeated van Kampen but its much simpler than trying to work this out yourself)
if you imagine hard enuf you can see that g2g1 = x = g1g3
ngl that image i sent is garbage i should learnt how to draw these better 
but yea look up what max said there's prob a book with way nicer images
for more general treatment of hyperbolic 3-manifolds i quite liked Albert Marden's book Outer Circles (i heard he has a more updated book may want to see that instead)
Help! I got tangled up with an Alexander horned sphere!!

"Help! I got tangled up with an Alexander horned sphere!!" this sounds like one of these bad mobile game visual novel screenshots
this kinda stuff
Hey, maybe a trivial question but how would I prove that the composition of smooth maps is smooth? It feels like I can just say "trivial!" so I'd appreciate a pedant chiming in 🙂
Smooth maps between open subsets of R^n or between arbitrary smooth manifolds?
smooth manifolds
Then I guess it just follows from the correpsonding statement for open subsets of $\mathbb{R}^n$, since a map $f : M \to N$ is smooth if it is smooth if composed with charts, i.e. $\phi \circ f |_{\psi^{-1}(U)} \circ \psi^{-1} : U \to V$ is smooth, for charts $\phi,\psi$ of $M$
Lartomato
yep ok so I needed to mention that I am composing with charts
Yah, that's the manifold-philosophy
A function between two manifolds has property P if it has the property in every chart
nice okay, seems like I will be saying that a lot
And then the important trick is that, if you have a composition $f \circ g$ of smooth functions, you can write the composition in charts $\phi \circ f \circ g \circ \psi^{-1} = \phi \circ f \circ \tau^{-1} \circ \tau \circ g \circ \psi^{-1}$ for appropriate charts $\phi, \psi,\tau$, and then it's simply a composition of smooth maps on $\mathbb{R}^n$
Lartomato
Some details to carve out, making sure that all domains and codomains make sense, but that's the general idea
yeah good enough for me, thank you
np!
so
i'm trying to think about ramification in ℤ[i] geometrically
since ℤ[i] = ℤ[x]/(x² + 1), it suffices to consider prime ideals of ℤ[x] containing (x² + 1)
wait, let me find that picture
it would be the [(x² + 1)] curve right
but then how would you know that (2) is ramified and (4n+3) is inert purely through algebro-geometric techniques
Hey guys, i'm doing a paper in the link of symplectic geometry and analytical mechanics (with extension toward Weyl/Clifford algebra), have you got any goooood book/paper to read about the link between symplectic and mechanics ? because all i have read so far isn't that great, i mean, doesn't emphasis the link
@gritty widget probably the better channel for this is #groups-rings-fields or #advanced-number-theory
oh thanks, but i'm now in the process of understanding the answer on my own
Would anyone be willing to help out?
<@&286206848099549185>
This should be in #geometry-and-trigonometry
Can anyone prove that the perimiter of Minkowski sum of convex figures is the sum of the figures perimiters(basically perimiter is linear to Minkowski sum)? I see why this is intuitively true, it's trivial for polygons, but i don't know how to provide a rigorous proof.
<@&286206848099549185>
does anyone have an intuitive explaination for why the first betti number of the projective plane is 0? basically this thing in the picture. Why don't we have gaps or holes? Is it obvious that any loop on this thing is homotopic to the identity?
The first betti number being zero doesn't necessarily have to mean that the space is simply connected, iirc it only means that the abelianization of the fundamental group is trivial
good question tho, never thought about it
Wiki says the first fundamental group is ℤ/2 which makes sense when you think about the loop goingfrom the center up and from the bottom back to the center; when you move the lower part to the right, the upper part is going to go to the left, so you won't be able to contract it
But if you take double that loop then you can leave the first peek-through as is and move the other peek-through around
Oh wait I forgot that ℝP² is literally SO(3, ℝ), that's why that reminded me of the SO(3)-Argument
isn't SO(3) = RP^3?
Ah yes, sorry.
But it also has 2-torsion for similar reasons, doesn't it?
Yeah, our good boy SU(2)
I remember that because years ago I claimed that SU(2) and SO(3) were isomorphic, and haven't been corrected. This was very embarrassing in retrospect.
(of course their lie algebras are isomorphic, which is what I meant)
I always mix up which one covers the other
(if I think about it for a second as like, unit quaternions acting by rotation I remember, but formally I mix them up)
idk you can try remembering a phrase like „real rotations have torsion!“
so SO(3) is not the one being simply connected
yeah I mean as I said, if I think about it I can rederive which is which
But SO(3) and SU(2) are very similar symbols
so my monkey brain mixes them up
Anyway, my intuition for that would be that ℝP² is double-covered by S², which is simply connected. Now this fact almost transports over to ℝP² – we just introduce a little torsion in the form of π₁(ℝP²)=H₁(ℝP²) = ℤ/2ℤ. But the betti number doesn't see that, so it's not a „one-dimensional hole“.
is there anyway to translate that so a monkey like me can understand? xD
For that I think I'd have to understand the matter better, lol
But also like what's your background, are you comfortable with notions like „simply connected“?
if you can draw a loop in the space and continuously deform it so that it becomes a single point, it's called simply connected
so like if you have a surface, it would be something without holes
or something with genus 0 like a sphere
so a disc, a sphere
whereas an annulus or a torus are not simply connected
So now the set of homotopy classes of loops in X (given a chosen basepoint, let's ignore that atm) is called the fundamental group π₁(X)
Group law is given by [γ] [δ] ↦ the loop we get from traversing first γ then δ
This is one of the many constructs that allows you to talk about 1D holes. Other ones are the first homology group H₁(X) and the first Betti number b₁(X)
H1 is, although constructed entirely differently, actually the abelianization of π1, i.e. the group you get when you add the equation „gh=1“ to π1.
So in some sense π1 is a bit more general, but that difference doesn't matter in our case, since ℤ/2ℤ is abelian.
@pale sky how have you defined the Betti numbers?
I think lux is thinking of Betti numbers in terms of the homology groups
(correct me if I'm wrong lux)
But since you don't seem to be super comfortable with the term simply connected I think you might be thinking of these things in terms of like, the simplicial complex structure
if not, sorry for assuming
I'm largely making stuff up as I go, my algtop knowledge is all over the place. But yeah, Betti numbers are the free rank of the homology groups for me.
yeah thats how betti numbers were defined in my course as well
lux's definition
i was wondering about the intuitive understanding of betti numbers, i believe for betti 1, this is the number of non trivial loops, but im not sure if this is the case for non orientable spaces like the projective plane
we have learned it rigorously in this way but i want to develop then intuition too
Yeah so number of loops is mostly okay but it gets weird in the presence of "torsion"
In the case of RP^2 we have a nontrivial loop which if you do it twice is trivial
The Betti numbers sort of don't see elements like this
(but the homology groups do)
Yep, so essentially the betti numbers only measure such types of loops that cannot be „undone“ by just walking along them a few more times. Which is not a phenomenon that would make sense with our visual interpretation of a „hole“.
the thing that's weird here is that finite order elements in an abelian group are linearly dependent just on their own
So the rank can't detect them
thank u for the endorsement gristle
parallel transport 
parallel transport is when you pick up a lil vector and push it along a curve
im doing the exercise in do carmo that says that parallel transport not depending on curve implies that the manifold is flat

Does anybody know of a simple example of a smooth surface with principal curvatures k1 > k2 > 0 with a point P at which k1 is minimized and k2 is maximized?
I had to construct one of these this morning and it was really nasty to build up. Nobody else seemed to be able to come up with any simple example.
sorry so by k1 > k2 do you mean you want this to happen everywhere?
Like pointwise I mean
this seems annoying so I want to make sure I've got the question right first :P
Nope, just at the origin of some nice parametrized chart
Wait so just at some point?
Yep.
the one which minmaxes?
Yes
I tried constructing this extruded catenary (which clearly has k1 > k2 = 0 at the "trough" of catenaries), "pinching" the extruded surface while leaving the catenary arclengths unaltered (getting k2 maximized at the pinched catenary), then holding the "trough" of catenaries constant while squeezing the extrusion ends together (varying arclengths of the catenaries)
for sufficiently short extrusions (given a particular "pinch" magnitude) this makes k1 a local minimum
hard to explain
I'll think about it
it does work but it's not simple by any means
Unfortunately I am bad at geometry 😔
me 2
this was my shitty illustration of the deformations
first is the extruded catenary
second is after pinching
after that you just squeeze the ends together to get a diamond shape while holding the red line at k2 in the second image constant
with catenaries hanging from the perimeter
hi, im working through munkres' introduction to topology, and im baffled by this sentence: why do we need X to be compact for the sup metric on C(X, Y) to be defined?
because the metric rho(f, g) can be infinity if X is not compact
Hello, for the red part, isn't $\overline Z_0\subsetneq\ldots\subsetneq\overline Z_n$ only locally maximal so idk. For the blue part, isn't it $n+1=\dim A\left(\overline Y\right)$?
@brittle widget
This is from Hartshorne chapter I
the dim of k is 0 since the transcendence degree is 0 over k, so the dim of A(\overline{Y}) is only the height of m which is n
@brittle widget idk if this answers your question, and idk what you're asking with the first part
Ah yes, we are considering Krull dimension right, not topological dimension
yeah
For the first part I don’t get how the correspondence implies $\operatorname{height}\mathfrak m=n$
@brittle widget
I only saw how $\overline Z_0\subsetneq\ldots\subsetneq\overline Z_n$ cannot be extended to a longer chain
@brittle widget
since each of the \overline{Z_i} are closed and irreducible, you know that I(Z_i) are prime ideals and this gives you a chain of length n contained in m @brittle widget
Epicgay are you using Hartshorne to learn varieties?
Unless it’s a course text only use it for exercises, it has such a shit treatment of varieties
Yeah I heard, but I thought learning AG with a single book would be more convenient
read shafarevich to start
you can't really learn about varieties in that few pages and you can go decently far without seeing all of that algebra right at the beginning
I’ll have a look. About my question it suffices to show if $I$ is irreducible in $\bar Y$ then $Y\cap I$ is irreducible in $Y$.
@brittle widget
@bitter yoke but how do you know that that chain is maximal over all prime ideal chains?
Ah maybe not, die texit
why do all your messages have strikethrough lol
so people look at TeXit's output not my code
you can have texit delete your orignal post
Shamrock (chazzed up)
it doesn't work after 5 mins
oh
oh, I like editing my original post
@bitter yoke you came back
Hi does anyone who first proved that a general quartic has 28 bitangents? I've searched for a while and think it might be Plucker, but am not sure. Thanks!
hey this is a really stupid question, but for hatcher 2.3.2, what is $\prod_i \tilde{H}_i(X)$ if not $\bigoplus_i \tilde{H}_i(X)$?
seastaralgebras
is the indexing set finite or infinite ?
i believe hatcher does mention that it is 0 if X is a finite-dimensional complex
the indexing is N
So the two do not need to agree in general
and you have to think about what universal properties you want
at a guess, Hatcher wants to talk about projections or the universal property related to them
(although for most spaces we care about we have homology bounded above in which case the two agree even though the indexing is infinite)
wait i thought the indexing was finite, it doesn’t actually specify in the problem
I would very much assume that he is taking the product of all the homology groups
if it is written exactly as you have it
ahhhh okay that makes much more sense
this is very common notation for topologists
Because most of our invariants have obvious indexing
so if you omit the indexing
you mean all of them
i just took a break from a lot of riemannian geometry so i got too used to finite indexing
thank you!
Can someone give me a hint with the this? Prove that every Cauchy Sequence has a subsequence that is a Fast Cauchy Sequence.
If I recall the definition of fast cauchy sequence correctly, it should be trivial
Here's a slightly strong hint, that I will put in a spoiler
||if you want to find a subsequence that converges faster, the naive idea is to just pick a term in the sequence, and then wait until you see another term that satisfies the "fastness" bound. Your goal is to prove this naive approach works||
this is unhelpful and pointless
Well, it distinguishes it from a problem that involves eg using heavy theorems
I generally prefer to give fewer hints rather than many. (I will admit that your hint is probably more helpful than mine, and is not too "giving it away")
But eg slims is too helpful
Well, it is up to vhp, how strong of a hint he wants 🙂
Honestly, I am having such a hard time learning Topology that I really don't care if you give me too much of a hint xD Thanks, guys!
does anybody use Massey for algebraic topology lmao
there isn't a single rigorous proof in the first chapter i skimmed through
in fact there aren't even any proof sketches
he just vaguely describes everything
It was a good companion to Hatcher but it is not recommended often
I think you are wrong about a lack of proofs, you are probably reading an intro chapter
which many math books have
perhaps
is this supposed to be a rigorous definition of connected sum
feels like just a vague description to me
thats perfectly rigorous
just fold and glue
so i wouldnt even really call it algebraic topology
I am not even sure what you think is lacking rigor in that description
its honestly more rigorous than I'd write it
Low Dim'l Topology frequently has descriptions like this
well you can use the same description for a generalized connect sum in higher dimn
but yes
low dim topology is often visual where there is no risk of ambiguity (or, provably no ambiguity, as in this case)
"it is clear that S1#S2 is a surface"
Yes
What's the definition of a surface?
Go through the properties
And check they're all there
Omitting details is not the same thing as a lack of rigor
a connected 2-manifold i think
if your defn of "rigorous" is spelling everything out
then every subject is "like this"
ok im bad at math so i prefer to have everything spelled out for me
This is how you get better
You ask yourself a simple question "Wait - this is not clear why this is a surface"
Then you start thinking
(in higher level textbooks, there are no exercises, and filling in details like this is how you make sure you understand what you are reading)
When you read papers, they expect you to have these things down
Or be able to get up to speed fast
im gonna try hatcher and see if i feel more comfortable
does hatcher have manifold stuff
Hatcher doesn't really do things all that rigorously in the way you're expecting it
Are you trying to learn manifolds? Alg. Top? Diff top?
What is your background?
im taking algebraic topology
Hatcher has manifold stuff to answer your question but he doesn't focus on manifolds
(nor do most algebraic topologists)
he certainly doesn't have what most people in this channel would call manifold stuff
does the Euler Poincare characteristic have something to do with algebra lol
e.g. metrics, smooth structures, etc
why are manifolds in an algebraic topology book
$\chi(M)=\sum_i (-1)^i b_i$
bored and salty
because alg. topology concepts are very well illuminated by manifolds
where $b_i=Rank H^i(M,\matbb{R})$
bored and salty
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i might have gotten the sign wrong there i didnt google it
but the point is that euler char is determined by (co)homology
yea i saw in decarmo that is was a topological invariant that lets you classify compact 2 surfaces
guess i'll see the cohomology stuff later this quarter
Yes dim 2 is odd because its compact orientable manifolds are completely determined by euler characteristic
its very rare to get such a nice classification even of a rather tame group of spaces
i see
can't wait to finally see what tf a cohomology is lol
i've heard so much about them, hope im not disappointed
cohomology is a central tool in basically every algebraic-y field of mathematics
not just topology
is there quick and dirty explanation of it
The classic is that rational cohomology counts holes in a space
More honestly, cohomology measures obstructions to important phenomena
and its hard to get less vague than that bc it is really general
so ur saying it can be used to calculate topological invariants like genus and the euler characteristic basically
it is a topological invariant
that is far more important than either genus or euler characteristic
(both can be thought of as summaries of cohomological information, but cohomology has far more information than either in general)
So like, usually if you know cohomology of a space X you don't really care about its euler characteristic anymore
because euler char is just less useful
In differential topology, the deRham cohomology (which turns out to be equivalent to the cohomology you'll learn about in your algebraic topology course) helps us glean global information about a manifold using some local information.
Euler characteristic is still sometimes more useful than individual cohomology groups
That being said, Euler characteristic is like an alternating sum of (dimensions of) cohomology groups
So it’s a looser invariant, you can have a lot of cancellation in this alternating sum that is separated at the level of individual cohomology groups
i said this above haha
my point is if you ask whether I'd rather have euler char or cohomology
the answer is obviously cohomology
this seems false unless you mean literally just one cohomology group
?
oh sorry i somehow quoted the wrong msg
this one
Ah
yea so there are examples where the cohomology groups behave very irregularly but their alternating sums behave very regularly
Are you worried about like, cases where the alternating sum is somehow hard to compute
from the individual summands
no generally the alternating sum is easier to compute once you know what it is, but the individual terms that end up cancelling in the end are a mess
i mean even if the sum is all you get from coho its certainly no less useful
and its often much more info
i just dont really get what you're saying about euler char ever being more useful
I'm thinking of a few examples where we only know conjecturally what the individual cohomology groups are but we know what the Euler characteristics are just fine
and you can verify this conjecture in particular examples but it involves a lot of analysis
yea fair enough I'm just splitting hairs here
that the importance of cohomology was to compute things like euler
my point is if you already know cohomology
this is kinda pointless
it depends on what you're trying to compute, in general cohomology is a finer invariant and it shows up all over the place
or, if not pointless, an afterthought
I have shown that Mf is the pullback of f:X->Y and ev1:Y^I->Y, where ev1 is the evaluation function at the endpoint. And I got that the universal map from Z ->Mf is (a(z),b(z)) when a:Z->X and b:Z->Y^I. And now if I have the pointed nullhomotopy H I can make a map phi:Z->Y^I by z -> Hz that is the path of the homotopy at z. Now by the universal property (since this given diagram can be filled to commute by g and the map phi) g~ is the unique map taking z to (g(z), Hz). And now I'm a bit stuck as to how this would be in bijection with the homotopy. Any hints? I do think this would work.
Ah, I think by this construction I have shown that indeed a pointed nullhomotopy gives us a unique lift g~. Now I need to somehow show that such a lift gives rise to a nullhomotopy but I can't tell how to approach this. Could this have something to do with homotopy lifting property?
And furthermore since Hz at every z defines H completely I think g~(z) = (g(x),Hz) and H being in injective correspondence is pretty clear but surjectivity is unclear
So I think the only part I'm missing is that given such a lift I would need to have a nullhomotopy of fg, no?
what exactly is $\mathcal M$ here
Based on the descriptions it looks a lot like the pullback of $X\overset f\to Y\overset{ev1}\leftarrow FY$ where $FY$ is the subspace of $Y^I$ consisting of pointed maps seems to somewhat match your description
a cute cat ٩(˃̶͈̀௰˂̶͈́)و
with this you can draw your pullback square. The commutativity condition tells us that given $g:Z\to X$ and $h:Z\to FY$, we require $fg=ev1\circ h$
a cute cat ٩(˃̶͈̀௰˂̶͈́)و
you can get some info from this and using the some form of the tensor-hom/smash product/something adjuncstion
you should obtain that h is a nullhomotopy of fg
(for sufficiently nice spaces we have the smash product is a tensor product)
I need a bit of help. I'm not too sure how to prove the function in (ii) is well-defined 🤔
show that if [x1]=[x2] then p(x1,y)=p(x2,y)
by assumption you have p(x1,x2)=0
and throw into the integral
or jus throw into the axioms
works as well
cuz if you have a<=b and b<=a, then a=b
The integral was just an example, we don't care about that one
then have to use this
Yea, I figured, and I can see exactly where that is going since x_1 relates to x_2
yesh
Is that the only thing we need to consider for it being well defined?
cuz it shows that for any a,b in [x],[y] p(a,b) a constant, hence independent of the representative
yeee
in general if you see quotients to show map is well defined jus show it is constant on each "coset"
Out of curiosity, how would we go about it if we changed both x and y at once
Actually, it's a direct consequence
Sweet. That was super easy!
And (iii) is even easier
Yes correct, this Mf is the mapping fiber/homotopy fiber exactly as you described. Can you expand a bit on how to show that h is the nullhomotopy? And isn't it a problem we need to assume the existance of the map h since it wasn't given, or can I assume it?
it comes from the smash product adjuncation thingy if you've seen it before
if not it isnt too hard to proof
define $F^0(X,Y)$ as the subspace of $Y^X$ consisting of pointed maps and let the constant map be its basepoint
then we have for locally compact something
$$Hom(X\wedge Y,Z)\cong Hom(X,F^0(Y,Z))$$
where hom consists of pointed maps
this plays well with homotopy so can quotient by homotopy
a cute cat ٩(˃̶͈̀௰˂̶͈́)و
Hmm alright I might have seen that one, thanks! Do we get the map h straight from the diagram given? How do we know we can complete the xommutative square for Z
mm ye so here we let Y=I