#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 712 of 407
Yes but if it is not zero?
For finite dimensional V, pick a non zero vector v_1. If this doesn't already span V, the function x → <v_1, x> is linear with rank 0 or 1, so it must have a non trivial kernel. Choose non zero v_2 from the kernel, and continue this way
At every stage, the intersection of kernels of <v_i, -> is either non trivial, or the v_i will span the space
For infinite dimensional, I am guessing some Zorn's lemma argument should work
But I am not sure
Here you have to make sure that the next v_i you choose is not in the span of the previous ones
Not just that it is non zero
But this choice is always possible by counting codimensions
hmm wait
The way we learnt it in class is that this is only possible for characteristic different from 2
Then ig it don't work
Oh I mean I’m in the same class as Daniil so it’s not confirmation
Lmao
Consider the finite field $G F(16)$.
(a) The Galois group $G=G\left(G F(16) / \mathbb{Z}{2}\right)$ is cyclic and generated by the Frobenious automorphism $\sigma{2}$. Find $G$.
what does find G mean in my assignment?
isn't it already given? which is G = $<\sigma_{2}>$
or does it mean the isomorphism in $Z_{n}$. I've found that it is isomorphic to $Z_{4}$
i'm very confused on the instructions. pls help. Thx
Ji
Yeah that’s weird phrasing
It’s probably just the cyclic group order they’re asking
$\mathrm{G}=<\sigma_{2}>=\left{1, \sigma_{2}, \sigma_{2}^{2}, \sigma_{2}^{3}\right}$
is this correct?
Ji
if it actually is iso to cyclic of order 4 then yeah
tnx
based on the fundamental theorem of finite abelian groups, every finite abelian group is isomorphic to a direct product of cyclic groups, e.g. $$G_N\cong G_{n_1}\times\cdots\times G_{n_m}, \ \ n_i\text{ prime powers}$$ but does $N$ have to be an integer? what if it comes from a ring that is not a UFD? then does this break everything? or is this impossible to even do?
gmod
What is N denoting here
gmod
is this a stupid idea
Then what you have stated is not the fundamental theorem of finite abelian groups
It is the Chinese remainder theorem
There is a more general version yes
For a PID R, and coprime ideals I and J in R,
Moldilocks1337 ✓
Or stated in a simpler way, for a PID R and coprime elements a and b,
Moldilocks1337 ✓
@wise igloo
what is S_A referring to at the bottom there
small chapter on group actions in DnF
is it just the group of permutations of elements of A?

why should are group actions useful though
im understanding that a group G acting a set A essentially just creates a permutation of A - but what information can that give us about G?
it's often useful to understand groups as symmetries of some object
you probably did this with dihedral groups informally, without the language of group actions
Group actions are the reason we study group theory
We want to understand the symmetries of some object and symmetries of objects form groups so we abstract out a definition
The point of studying symmetries of an object is that often that the symmetries alone can tell us a lot about the object
For example in Galois theory you study fields by studying their automorphism groups, and that contains a lot of information about the fields themselves
it does feel like you're knocking on the door of group actions when talking about the dihedral group
One example of information about G is the orbit stabilizer theorem
Sylow theorems are also proved using group actions
moldi, not more than two days ago: "yeah i spend too much time answering in advanced"
uhhhh
If it is defined as G x S → S satisfying some conditions then that's slightly annoying
Have you seen vector spaces over fields
but authors proceed to be less formal about it immediately
oh ok
or modules over rings
they even say so to make sure you know 
Like both of them are examples of an object acting on another
Ye so a vector space is like a field acting on an abelian group by multiplication
ok wait does this group action talk apply to the dihedral group
It's a very analagous situation
ok here's another way to phrase the definition of group actions which most books do later but I find easier
Suppose you have an object X
X can be a set, a group, a ring, a vector space, a shape, etc
a jar
works
Let Aut(X) be the group of symmetries of X
When X is a set, this is the group of permutations
that makes sense
For the next 3, it is the group of automorphisms
For shape its like dihedral group thing
Now we want to do stuff with X
We could want to construct a new thing Y from it
With certain similar symmetries
Just 1 example
In this case, it makes sense to think of X not on its own
But as a pair, (X, G) where G is the subgroup of Aut(X) of "special symmetries"
These are the symmetries we care about
Sometimes an object has way too many symmetries and we don't want to think about all of them so it makes sense to restrict our attention to a subgroup
This is a group action
When X is a set, this is the group G acting on the set X
wait wait which part
the restriction to a subgroup?
this is funky
For now forget about earlier def
I'll tell you how they are the same
But you see how every element of Aut(X) acts on X right?
It does things to elements of X
By definition
It's a symmetry, so you can apply it
This "action" in fact satisfies the group action axioms that you have seen
Does that make sense?
ok an element of Aut(X) is a permutation of X
Ye
so saying an element of Aut(X) acts on X just means... permuting X..?
Yep
Every element of Aut(X) permutes X
And that's what a group action is lul
Now sometimes what happens is that you have symmetries of X and you wanna see how they act on Y, a subset of X
wait so then that definition of a group action as a map G x X -> X... how is that rewritten as the Aut(X) thing
Ye I shall tell
For example if you have the set X = {1,2,3,4} with the subgroup of Aut(X) we are concerned with being the subgroup generated by (12) and (34)
You see that Y = {1,2} is stable under the action of this subgroup?
Stable in the sense that elements of Y stay in Y
When this kind of a thing happens, you can "restrict the action" of G to this stable subset
Since elements of Y stay in Y when you apply the permutations in G, this restriction permutes elements of Y among themselves, and elements of X - Y among themselves
Sorry, the subgroup we took here

So it is now like elements of G are behaving like symmetries of Y, or elements of Aut(Y)
This restriction has therefore defined a map G → Aut(Y), where an element g is mapped to the permutation of Y that it acts like
Make sense?
Ye ok
Basically it turns out that this will always be a group homomorphism
And we want to call this an action of G on Y
So we generalize, and define
An action of a group G on a set X is a homomorphism
f: G → Aut(X)
The idea being that thus every element g of G is "acting" on X like the permutation f(g)
ok that genral version makes a little more sense
And we are just requiring that the elements of G act together nicely, which is the requirement of f being a homomorphism
Like their individual actions should play nicely with the group multiplication
In a way that happens in the concrete situation that I described above
So now this is the definition of a group action
The action is a map f which takes an element of G, and gives a permutation of X
Suppose now you have an element of G x X
It is a pair (g, x)
is this kinda why matrix multiplication equates to moving around basis vectors
Yes that is also an action
The ring of matrices acts on the vector space
Or the group of invertible matrices acts on the vector space
Notice that you can then do f(g), which gives you a permutation, and apply it to x, to get an element of X. So you get a map
G x X → X
described by
(g, x) maps to (f(g))(x)
Similarly, given a map
h: G x X → X
and an element g of G, you get a map
h_g: X → X
which fixes the first input to g, ie,
h_g(x) = h(g, x)
If this map h also satisfies the group action axioms that you know, then you can prove that h_g is a permutation (it has an inverse h_g' where g' is the inverse of g) and that this map
g → h_g
is a group homomorphism
The upshot of all of this is that
Homomorphisms from G to Aut(X) "are the same as" maps G x X to X that satisfy the group action axioms
Same in the sense that they contain the same data, you can recover one from the other, as I said above (check that the above processes for turning one thing to the other are inverses of each other)
So the definition you have seen is just an expanded out version of saying that you have a homomorphism from G to Aut(X)
Im having trouble showing that $H_n \subseteq \langle r^2 \rangle$. So far, if I take $x \in H_n$, then $x = g^2, g \in D_n$ Since $D_n$ is generated by $r$ and $s$, then $g = r^ms^k$ for some integers $m, k$ So then $g^2 = (r^ms^k)^2 = r^ms^kr^ms^k$.
Kurama
I think I should use the orders of r and s, as well as the relation rs = sr^{-1}. I've tried expanding g^2 = r...rs..sr..rs..s then using that relation, but that didnt really get anywhere
Ok so this is a subgroup of a dihedral group
Yeah
Any clue what I should do?
Looks good so far. Maybe you can specialise the m, k a bit. Really the only elements in D_n are {Id, r, r^2, ..., r^{n-1}, s, rs, r^2s, ..., r^{n-1}s}. So two cases to consider: when your k = 0 or when k = 1
Hope I'm not interrupting - I'm reading about Schur Weyl duality, but I'm just a bit confused about what it means here by 'induces a map':
Any help/suggestions would be appreciated!
oh ok. So when k =0,l then g^2 = r^{2s} = (r^2)^s in <r^2>.
I think you mean to write your 'm' instead of 's' here but yes looks good. What happens when you square in the case where k = 1?
Kurama
yep.. my mistake. I was using other variables in my written work so i got confused
Kurama
Yeah, that's correct. Another way of saying this is showing r^m.s = s.r^{-m}
Remember that r^m.s are reflections of the n-gon
No problem 😄
Remember that End_{CGL(V)}(V^n) is the set of GL(V)-linear endomorphisms of V^n. The preceding statement, that the actions of Sn and GL(V) on V^n commute, means precisely that that the image of the map CSn -> End_C(V^n) lies within the subset of GL(V) linear endomorphisms, hence we can redefine the map in (1) but restrict the codomain to GL(V)-linear endomorphisms. This is precisely the induced map
Ahh I see, thank you! Would you happen to know of any resources/be able tell me a bit about Schur Weyl duality? It's my understanding that there's meant to be a bijection between the irreducible representations of the symmetric and general linear groups, but the formulation in the notes I'm reading (https://tartarus.org/gareth/maths/notes/iii/Representation_Theory_2013.pdf) doesn't seem to make this clear (or I just haven't read it carefully).
Unfortunately I can't say that I understand Schur-Weyl duality myself, it's one of the things I've been meaning to learn more about. Just reading online about it from time to time, it seems there are a number of short articles/write-ups on it that you might find helpful if you just want a different perspective. I believe it is discussed in Fulton and Harris which some of my friends have recommended so that could be worth checking out, but I can't say how clean of an explanation it is
what are y'all's opinions on the Tits alternative?
Oh no worries, thanks, I've had a brief look at Fulton and Harris before, perhaps I'll go read the relevant parts in a bit more detail this time. 👍
it would be satisfactory to list the four possible cases and show why f(xy)=f(x)f(y) for each case, right?
where x and y are real numbers
Right
Alternatively if you recognizes that G is {-1,+1} under multiplication, you can probably just cite that this is the sign function which is multiplicative or whatever
true
alright ty
im stuck
I get the Z/nZ part
but not Z/(Z/nZ)
idk how to think about this
I mean it’s downright just wrong lol Z doesn’t even have any subgroup isomorphic to Z/nZ do I don’t see a single way to interpret this
Probably a typo
The answer is obviously nZ 
Wait I was just saying stupid shit what did you interpret it as
I was saying that for numbers a/(a/b) = b 
Oh
I thought you’re saying you should replace the (Z/nZ) with nZ
So it’s asking you to list the elements of Z/nZ
lol
Can someone confirm my understanding please:
So when it comes to dihedral groups, there are the ‘immediate/direct’ physical symmetries (which are the elements of the group) such as the reflections about the various lines of symmetry and the various rotations- all of which may themselves be represented as permutations. But there is also the perspective of viewing the immediate symmetries in terms of operations on two generator symmetries (and their powers), each of which may also be expressed as permutations.
Am I capturing the notion accurately?
It sounds like you are asking why does the typical presentation of dihedral groups agree with our geometric intuition, is that correct?
You may very well want to give that a read in that case
Let me take a look, because that may also be a question I have. But more so I’m just confirming that the notion of generator is really just an efficient means of expressing a group’s elements- they’re not the “actual” group elements themselves
Tricky to word, maybe I’m not conveying my thoughts well
Let me read your link
“Actual” group elements is usually not the right thing to say
You only care about these things up to isomorphism, so the actual labels you give these things don’t really matter
In one presentation of the dihedral group given relations and generators you have formal symbols which multiply in a certain way
If you instead think of the elements “as symmetries” then as a set these arent the same
But you only care about how the elements multiply, their multiplication table I guess
Ok I think I see. I am familiar with isomorphism so in light of that I suppose it’s irrelevant how the structure is expressed
Although it is revealing that 2n symmetries can be expressed via a set of 2 generators
I suppose so
I don’t really know what it tells you, but minimal number of generators is surely an invariant and some people care about them, but I’ve never particularly cared haha
I mean it makes writing down the elements pretty easy lol
Yeah I think I saw that mentioned too in the reading. Probably the main reason
Although, admittedly, I wouldn’t have guessed that all the symmetries could be achieved by means of compositions of a rotation snd reflection, maybe that’s why it’s more exciting to me initially than it ought to be
yeah that's what I find appealing about generators, kind of helps digest an otherwise large and unruly group into the bare minimum essentials to get anything which is neat
Yeah it’s very efficient
(And to dummies like me somewhat illuminating as to some structural info)
I think this is kinda intuitive though
If a symmetry on an n-gon preserves edge relations you just need to see where a single vertex goes then if the orientation got flipped
Namely if you single out a vertex v, and look where it goes
Then the neighbor of that needs to be one of v’s original neighbors so just go in one direction and see which one it is
Okay so now if you want to go even further there’s only one option because there’s only two vertices it could be, but you already used up v
So once you picked the first neighbor in a certain direction, you’re forced to just keep going along the polygon
This is fantastic
So you have a choice of wheee you put the vertex (how much rotation) and a binary choice on which neighbor goes where (the flip)
Yeah that’s the way D&F motivate it as well
But yeah I see what you’re saying. Pick any of the n vertices
There are n places it can go via rotation
Then subsequently a reflection is possible
Glad you enjoy
when I first started learned the definition of a group (before I formally started learning group theory), I knew of the existence of algebraic number theory
and im like how tf can that exist
the combination of two seemingly completely separate fields of math
but like there are so many instances where number theory concepts showed up in the group theory lectures (modular arithmetic, gcd/lcm, primes, etc) and it's super interesting
a lot of both early group and early number theory feels almost combinatorics-ally so there's a lot of cross over
permutations
wow you are early in group theory
if you haven't seen S_n yet
I have dumbass
every finite group embeds isomorphically into some group of permutations
I know
ok so there you go!
well the connections you made were great ones to see 
NT very quickly becomes ring theory 
no but maybe
eine seconde bitte
what
This lecture is the first lecture of my Berkeley math 115 course "Introduction to number theory"
For the other lectures in the course see https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PL8yHsr3EFj53L8sMbzIhhXSAOpuZ1Fov8
This lecture gives a survey of some of the topics covered later in the course, mainly about primes and Diophantine equations.
The tex...
I knew he'd probably have one
guys in a paper ima reading
they keep referring to a ring R'
which they call "the subring of R generated by 1"
am I wrong or is this not just the whoelr ing R itself
cuz i thought the ring generated by 1 was just the ring itself
or is this only for groups
i might be confusing myself
uhh not always I don't think
hold on
yeah like
take $M_n(\bR)$ to be the ring of real n by n matricies
Wew "Boötes Void" Tbh ⊗
the identity matrix doesn't generate the whole ring
the ideal generated by 1 is always the whole ring though
I think this is where the confusion is
yea becuase RAR = R right when A=1
rawr
Yep you got it bruh
wait so just for clarifcation
wut does the identity matrix generate
just the set of matrices where all elements are the same right
or not elements like
entries
it would just be all multiples of the identity matrix I think?
well no cause you can have like, $\begin{pmatrix} 4 & 4 \ 4 & 4 \end{pmatrix}$ which is not a multiple of the identity
Wew "Boötes Void" Tbh ⊗
oh oops wait
i meant like
where all entries in diagnals are $k$ for $0\leq k\leq n-1$
JustKeepRunning
and everything else is 0
yeah but you don't need to bound k like that
unless you're working in F_n
thx for your help
np
I'm bugging so hard right now
I can't understand well the tensor product of a right module M and a left module N over R.
If R is non-commutative that is
the following chain of equalities seem to be a contradiction
$(rs)(x \otimes y) = x(rs) \otimes y = (xr)s \otimes y = s(xr \otimes y) = s(r(x\otimes yu)) = (sr)(x \otimes y)$
Digiteraat
What am I missing here?
There’s no way to turn the tensor product into an R-module unless one of M or N is a bi-module
It is an abelian group
shit
a course on representation theory I'm following used the fact the tensor product is an R module
I maybe missed something
R is probably commutative
$R = \C[H]$ where $H$ is a subgroup of $G$ (which is a finite group)
Digiteraat
Hmmm
The tensor product in question is $\C G\otimes_{\C H}V$
Digiteraat
Well as far as I know unless you have a bimodule you can’t get a module structure out of the tensor product
which is how we defined the induced representation
Moldilocks1337 ✓
Oh
This applies to the above situation
Well CG is a bimodule
Yep
CG is a (CG,CG) bimodule
It's like the middle stuff cancels
You can multiply scalars on the left and they only get to stay on the left
Here you wanna view it as (CG, CH)
So that CHs cancel
bimodule means you can multiply on both sides?
r(s (x) x) = rs (x) x
Yes, but it’s more than that
(R,S) bimodule means that
(rx)s = r(xs)
So it’s like, “associative”
(A,B) bimodule means you can multiply by elements of A on the left, of B on the right
Ye such that this happens
Yeah ok makes sense
When R is associative
Any left module structure gives a right module structure
So everything’s a bimodule
So if you know what rx is, define xr to be rx
And when R is commutative it just works out
wait how
Maybe they defined the CH structure wrong then? They said $y(x \oplus v) = xy \oplus v = x \oplus yv$
Digiteraat
oh
commutative?
Didn't get this
I used oplus but I meant otimes..
ye
Yeah but I can still do something like above no?
But if x is in CG\CH it cannot
$zy(x \otimes v) = xzy \otimes v = y(xz \otimes v) = y(z(x \otimes v))$
Digiteraat
it's not even about jumping sides
What's wrong here?
well I get $(zy - yz)(x \otimes v) = 0$
Digiteraat
which seems pretty fishy to me
Ah ye zy goes on the left
The multiplication in the middle gets all forgotten
the definition we were given in the course was on the right
so the right CH-module structure is $y(x \otimes v) = yx \otimes v$?
Digiteraat
just to check
There is no right CH module structure
Once you tensor
There is only left CG structure
left CH-module structure no?
This is what happens
The Bs in the middle disappear
There is no nice way to define a B module structure on either side on the tensor product
Yeah I guess the thing is $\C G$ is a $(\C H, \C H)$ module
Digiteraat
so it works out
Here you want the result to be a left CG module
So you have a CH module V
(CH, Z) bimodule
You want to induce a CG module from it
So you tensor this on the left with the (CG, CH) bimodule CG
And you get a (CG, Z) bimodule, ie a left CG module
Ok thanks
why do you specify Z here?
I'm only intereseted in the fact V is a left CH module right?
Just wanted to phrase everything in terms of bimodules, since I stated the original result for bimodules
I mean it doesn't carry any information right?
But ye you can ignore the Z part
Ye
just to make sure i'm not going crazy, the homology at the middle term is Z/2 \oplus Z/2, right?
ye
bet, thanks
been trying to construct an SES of complexes such that the i-th homology functor is neither left nor right exact, but i suck at making counter examples
ended up skipping the exercise until i learned about cones and i think I finally figured out how to do it
what does it mean when a polynomial is said to be normed
specifcally, a sentence in a paper ima reading says "Assume by contradiction, that $p(x)\in R[x]$ is a normed null-polynomial of degree $3$"
JustKeepRunning
and they don't define wut normed means beforehand
so ima assuming that means it should be a common term that is well-defined
but i haven't seen it before
coefficient of x^n is 1
what does null-polynomial mean
isn't this called monic
yes
or am i misunderstanding u
I've heard both
then why are they caling it normed her
oh u mean like they are two diferents ways of saying the same thing
a vanishing polynomial
sometimes two different words can mean the same thing
or do you have a norm on your polynomial ring?
idt it means it in that way
cuz theres no well defined norm
at least not given in the context of the paper
vanishing of degree 3?
so i think wut u said is correct
vanishing like, has a root?
yea vanishing and monic ig
vanishing, like when u plug in any element of the ring u get 0
is your polynomial over F_3 or something?
oh I see
wut makes this interesting is that vanishing polynomila is not neceessarily the zero polynomila
no
nonzero vanishing polynomials necessarily have to be over finite fields, right?
its over the ring $\rho$ with four elements ${0,1,a,1+a}$ with $1+1=0$ and $a^2=0$
JustKeepRunning
not necessarily
the only important property of fields is that every function is a polyfunction
which follows from lagrange interpolation
of finite fields
and the converse is also established in a paper by Redei and Sleze
anyways i think wut u said is correct
@north sand
thx for your help
In this proof, the person used that G is the union of finite cyclic group <a> where a in G. But aren't we trying to prove that G is finite? So why can they say this isnt an infinite union, if that makes sense
there are finitely many subgroups so the union has to be a finite union
it is a union of subgroups
Round 2:
Let A be the subset of Z×Z, containing all ordered-pairs (a,a)
Consider a ring homomorphism f from (A,+,.) to (Z,+,.), which in terms of Binary Relations is defined as:
f = {((a,a),b) | (a,a) in A and b in Z, b = a}
It's kernel is {(0,0)}. From what I have researched is that the cokernel of this homomorphism is Z/im(f).
im(f) = {im(x) | for all x in A and im(x) = f(x)}
Basically the whole range of f which is Z.
Z is a trivial subgroup of Z, and all subgroups of Z are normal
Hence, the cokernel of f will be:
cokernel(f) = Z/im(f) = {a + im(f) | a in Z}
.
.
.
a = 0: {...-2,-1,0,1,2...}
a = 1: {...-2,-1,0,1,2...}
.
.
.
Hence Z/im(f) = {{...-2,-1,0,1,2...}}
Hence Z/im(f) = {Z}, which is trivial.
The kernel is also trivial.
The mapping is also bijective (only happens when both kernel and cokernel are trivial)
So this must be correct now right?
Interestingly, the cokernel here is also isomorphic to the image of the kernel of f, right?
Ah okay
Because the thing you have written is not a well defined function
f((a,a)) = a
Done
It is correct except I didn't get the last line
cokernel is isomorphic to image of kernel
Like they are both trivial so yeah?
The cokernel has one element
Image of kernel has one element (the additive identity of Z)
idZ + idZ = idZ
G/G = {G} could be also defined as G+G = G
So a group homomorphism G/G -> {idZ} is a group isomorphism
And both are trivial
So G/G is isomorphic to {idZ} or the image of kernel
Yeah, but the kernel itself is also isomorphic to the cokernel
Because the kernel is trivial too
to show homotopy of morphisms of complexes is reflexive, you can just set h = 0, right?
This is more #point-set-topology I believe
walter
Is it? If i'm understanding correctly he's asking about chain homotopy which while arising from algebraic topology is an abstract algebraic concept
Anyways, what is h in this case?
lol im far from an expert in any of this if you say it belongs here it probably does
It can honestly go either way
Like it's a concept at the very start of Homological algebra which is still strongly related to classical algebraic topology
So neither channel is wrong per se
It's more about context
Of which there wasn't, really
Fwiw, this came from a section on homological algebra
I meant h^i = 0 for all i, I was just lazy to type it out
I'm still not sure who is h in this case? Do you mean the like, prism morphism?
Where h^i: A^i -> B^i-1 in the definition of a chain homotopy
Wait nvm
It comes out to 0=0 in the definition
I misremembered the defn
Still works
The slightest bit. I'm taking a reading course on it this summer
What r u using
Last chapter of Aluffi's book
Been working through this for 2 years so I really wanna see it through to the end
Damn
Yeah I figure I can learn more of the details from Rotman or Weibel later
What does it mean for fundamental domains to be adjacent
If $D$ is the diameter of the fundamental domain (finite group) a then maybe two fundamental domains are "adjacent" if $\sup_{a\in A, b\in B}{d(a,b)} < D$?
oops
Migillope
How did they get (a b) (a c) = (a b c)? Should it be (a c b)?
Are these permutations?
Written in cycle notation?
If so, there’s actually competing conventions for how you multiply them
One is how functions work so you go right to left, so a goes to c
The other (what I prefer) goes left to right
So a goes to b, done
b goes to a, goes to c, done
Ah ok so it seems this video is done in the convention that you mentioned second
Yeah I believe so
Then that makes sense
If you’re drawing from multiple sources, they probably won’t say which they use
So just keep an eye out for it until you can see what convention they’re using
Like here, you now know they go left to right
All that matters is that you pick one, then stay consistent
If they flip-flop though, then 
RIP
fair
But there’s a couple things where it’s conventions like this
you can go between, but you need to just keep an eye out for what they use
For example, conjugate g by h, does this mean h^-1gh
Or hgh^-1?
It’s whatever you pick
Later if you see semi direct products, there’s also a left-right choice you have to make
So just be aware of it

are there any fields people care about that aren't isomorphic to some subfield of the complex numbers?
for those with a prime number of elements at least (say p), they're isomorphic to Z/pZ I believe, which is a subfield of C. I don't know the other ones, can you name an explicit example which isn't isomorphic to a subfield of C?
Noooooo
Z/pZ is not a subfield of C as they have different characteristic
what about function fields?
If you’re a function field over a number field you’re still iso to a subfield of C
Hi! I'm currently trying this qn but I'm kind of reallly stuck at trying to relate Z(G)\cap H_1 and Z(G)\cap H_2 to something that (at least im aware off) in rep theory
could anyone help give a bit of hint in the right direction
when they say H_i invariant vectors do they mean V^H_i is invariant under H_i or every element of V_H_i is invariant under H_i
The latter
i think i see what to do?
Can always rely on resident finite group theory expert
the fact that im not using the fact that the dimensions are equal is sus lmao
Take an element $g\in Z(G)\cap H_1$ and consider its action on any vector $v\in V^{H_2}$. $\forall h\in H_2$, $g(v)=gh(v)=hg(v)$ which means $h$ fixes $g(v)$ so $g(v)\in V^{H_2}$.
Isn't that the only hypothesis on H_i
this was my argument for one inclusion and then the other was symmetric so something is wrong lol
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
probably the fact that i dont know any rep theory and am likely misunderstanding the question 
oh i see it: just cause g fixes V^H_2 doesnt mean its in H_2 yeah
Ye
youd need H_1 and H_2 to be the largest such subgroups
which might be where dimension comes in idk
okay next time ill think before i write 
But the solution should probably be very similar lol
Like this seems like a lemma you would prove about elements of those intersections
While ive got you here ive got a question of my own and then ill put ari's question back to apologize for burying it
is it true that polynomials (over multiple variables) over F_2^n all reduce over some extension of F_2^n?
lol idk anything about multivariable polynomials
i swear i hate 2 it ruins everything
2 is the nicest prime in alg top lol
No signs and orientations to worry about, and graded commutativity becomes commutativity 
because i watching a video on finite geometry and at one point they say that the number of points on irreducible conics in PG(2,q) is q+1. I can show this for q odd by using an argument of quadratic residues in F_q but im struggling to show it for q even and starting to think these conics dont exist
so i guess the proper question is does every degree 2 homogeneous polynomial over F_2^n reduce in some extension
yeah I think they're all lines cause like x^2+y^2=(x+y)^2 or somethin
yeah for F_2 i agree
every element of F_{2^n} can be written as a power of 2 of another element for the sake of factoring out at least if that's the problem, idk I have to think about it more
alright thanks, ill put ari's question back now and think about this more
somebody answer this 
like the trivial ideas jus look at all your simple modules of C[G] but really the only time i see Z(G) coming in is like when doing a dimension count or something
nothing too much that helps sadge
o wait
V^{H_1} would just be some direct sum of C with the trivial H_1 action
so the restriction of the rep to H_1 is like
[C^dim] \oplus [idk]
i wonder if this helps
maybe say restrict to H_1\cap H_2 then perhaps ind back to H_1 for smt interesting
It is true in trivial cases when G is abelian or Z(G)={e} but
now how to prove for the intermediate cases
I went to make some food and was thinking about your response, I wanted to clarify a bit that because in $\mathbb{F}{2^n}$ we have all elements $a_i=a_i^{2^n}$ then we can take our diagonal forms $$\sum{i=1}^k a_ix_i^2 = \sum_{i=1}^k a_i^{2^n}x_i^2 = \sum_{i=1}^k (a_i^{2^{n-1}}x_i)^2 = \left(\sum_{i=1}^k a_i^{2^{n-1}}x_i\right)^2$$
Merosity
the real problem is finding a cute factorization for the non diagonal forms
which is probably not too bad since multiplying the two affine planes together is gonna give you k^2 variables to solve for k(k+1)/2 variables so it should be doable
like speaking about the coefficients here
yeah i realized that as well after i said i only agreed in F_2
im not sure what you mean here
a nondiagonal homogeneous quadratic form has k(k+1)/2 coefficients
an affine plane has k coefficients
oh right okay
so if we take two separate polynomials for two separate affine planes and multiply them together and set it equal to the polynomial for the homogneous
yeah
basically just equating coefficients and creating a big system of equations to solve, idk like probably this can be proved by induction or some other well known argument
tbf even before thinking about >2 variables, non diagonal forms in 2 variables kinda stump me
because upon creating a system for the coefficients i end up getting that it's solvable iff ax^2+cy^2=bxy has a root which is redundant lmao
well like (ax+by)(cx+dy)=Ax^2+Bxy+Cy^2 is what I'm saying
solve for the lowercase in terms of the upper case
yeah but like you end up winding back to Ax^2+Bxy+Cy^2 has a root (at least i did)
cause ac = A, bd = C, ad+bc = B and multiplying the last equation by cd gives Ad^2+Cc^2=Bcd
Hello guys, can someone explain me (or find any reference explaining) why the wedge product on free modules is a perfect pairing?
yeah I get what you're saying
Suppose WLOG $g\in Z(G)\cap H_1$ and $g\notin Z(G)\cap H_2$.
if somehow you can define some "minimal" $\mbb C[G]$ module $V$ such that $V^g=0$ which gives us $V^{H_1}=0$ and somehow? show that $V^{H_2}\neq0$
ari 亲
obv cant be too minimal else V=0
Hmm, this might be a bit of a dumb question, but how can one show a representation is not completely reducible? For example consider the natural representation of $S_3$ on $\mathbb{F}_3^3$, it seems that it's not completely reducible, but I'm missing the right argument.
Digiteraat
find a submodule that is not a direct sum basically
oh right easier way is
check if the jacobson radical is trivial
the result is trivial for Z(G) i wonder if you could lift the Z(G) module up hmm
actually
consider
if $g\in Z(G)\cap H_1$ and $g\notin Z(G)\cap H_2$
[V=\text{Ind}{H_2}^G\mathbb C{H_2}]
ari 亲
then clearly the element $1\otimes g$ is not an invariant under $H_1$, but $V^{H_2}=V$
ari 亲
i think this works?
Hmmm, I'm not sure I understand...
Also, in this case $Z(G)$ is the trivial subgroup if I'm not mistaken
Digiteraat
basically like
radical of a module is trivial iff the module is semisimple
furthermore here we have rad(M)=J_AM
hey what is R[x,y,z] / (x^2 + 1, y^2 + 1, z^2 +1, xyz + 1)?
quaternions 

yeah i think that's the quaternions 
yep it is the quaternions
then why is it commutative 
wdym
xy=yx
oh shoot wait
then it might not be theq uaternions?
is there any other ring that satisfies i^2=j^2=k^2=-1 and ijk=-1
cuz i know thats one of the fundamental relatoins of the quaternions
but like also the ideal doesn't seem to guarantee that ij=k, ji = -k, jk = i, kj=-i, ki = j, ik = -j
so i think it might not be "strong" enough to be the quaternions
@prisma shuttle is it possible to have a group homomorphism that maps two elements that commute to two elements that don't commute?
pretty sure no?
cuz if ab=ba
then \phi(ab)=\phi(ba)
or \phi(a)\phi(b)=\phi(b)\phi(a)
so the images commute as well
xy = (-1)z^2xy = z
So 1 = x^2y^2 = z^2 = -1.
It follows that 2 = 0 in this ring
If R is field of characteristic other than 2, then your ring is the trivial ring
ah well R is supposed to be the reals, so guess that's the trivial ring
yep
So possible lengths of element in S4 written as a product of disjoint cycles are: 4, 3, 2 + 2, 2, identity
so then all possible orders are the lcms, so 4, 3, 2, 1?
Is this what this question is asking?
Hey, could anyone share what kind of prerequisites there would be for studying Abstract Algebra?
👍
Pls ping me if and when you have an answer! Ty
@chilly ocean high school mathematics I guess... there's not any prerequisites per se. Just start with group theory and work your way up from there. A natural progression would be studying groups, rings, fields and then modules and then there's many paths to take from there
oh, I see, would you recommend Artin to start?
I haven't studied with it, but I think it's good
From what I've seen it's certainly a book you can pick up with very little prerequisites
But just know that it's a big book, and math is not your evening lecture 😅 you actually have to work your way through the exercises and such
It's also material that is usually covered in several years in uni
Nowadays with all the resources available and places such as this I feel like formal tracks aren’t necessarily as strict. It can be kind of fun to just ‘drop yourself in the pit.’ When something comes up that’s unclear or needs prerequisite, you just take that detour; you may return to the original track or chase that detour more, that’s another beautiful flexibility of it.
This is within reason, of course. Probably don’t want to start ‘too high up’
I'd still say it's logical to start with groups at least
get familiar with basic algebraic structures
since most advanced material assumes you have good knowledge of these
Well yeah I’d agree, within a discipline you want to follow a coherent or traditional presentation
If I'm working with permutation groups and I want to prove that transposing element r with element s, r<s, then that is the product of 2(s-r)-1 transpositions of adjacent elements, would I proceed by induction?
That sounds pretty reasonable
Technically the problem is interchanging row r and row s of a matrix, but I think using a permutation group would be easier
It’s actually the same thing
Transposition matrices form a group isomorphic to S_n
For nxn matrices
The base case is trivial. Assume that it takes r-s adjacent transpositions to move s to the initial r position. Then it takes r-s-1 adjacent transpositions to get r to the initial s position. The total adjacent transpositions are 2(r-s)-1. Now, for our inductive step, we want to interchange r with s+1. It takes r-s adjacent transpositions to move s+1 to the initial r+1 position by assumption. It takes 1 more adjacent transposition to move s+1 to the initial r position. It takes r-s-1 adjacent transpositions to move r to the initial s position, by assumption. It takes 1 more adjacent transposition to mov r to the initial s+1 position. For a total of 2(s-r+1)-1 adjacent transpositions.
apparently every group algebra can be made into a coalgebra, and it is possible to compute the coalgebra operations (comultiplication, counit and antipode) but i am for some reason struggling to conceptualize what this would look like and why
been over an hour now. might as well try pinging <@&286206848099549185> if only to see how little that does anymore.
Have you check out stock exchange
Lmfao, I assume you mean stack exchange?
Yeah 💀
Suppose $T:G\to End(V)$ and $S:G\to End(W)$ are finite dimensional representations (all linear spaces over $\mathbb{C}$). How can I show that $$dim(Hom_G(V\to W))=dim(Hom_G(W\to V))$$
K零ꓘ
I was thinking if I take a $A:V\to W$ which is $G-$linear then $A^t$ will be in $Hom_G(W\to V))$
K零ꓘ
Hi, I have a free abelian group $\mathbb{Z}^3=\langle a,b,c\rangle$ and I want to determine what the quotient group $\langle a,b,c\rangle/\langle a-b+c\rangle$ is. Are there any linear-algebra-esque ways of doing this?
map a to b-c, b to b and c to c into the free abelian group <b, c>
kernel of this map is <a-b+c>, so we get an isomorphism
here
makes sense, thankssss
Hey guys i am trying to find minimal polynomial of element $\frac{/sqrt{2}-/sqrt{7}+1}{2}$ over Q
horridharry96
horridharry96
Not really sure how to start here
I would make my life easier and find the minimal polynomial of sqrt(2)-sqrt(7) since we can always shift and scale the polynomial by a rational number afterwards
Alright
Did you figure it out?
also just fyi you can check your work with wolfram alpha
,w minimal polynomial of (sqrt(2)-sqrt(7)+1)/2
I'm doing 1.3
by first iso theorem on the determinant homomorphism i got $O_n/SO_n \cong C_2$ therefore $O_n/SO_n \times SO_n \cong SO_n \times C_2$
ally 🌈
not sure how to establish that $O_n / SO_n \times SO_n \cong O_n$
ally 🌈
you can think of $O_n/ SO_n$ as equivalent classes right
Toto_31416
it is a tedious computation
yeah
but first decompose any matrix in SO_n into a representative from the equivalence classes and an element in SO_n
perhaps the singular value decomposition helps
Are you sure this is true?
it is
but I'm going about it a different way
is this even true? O_2 has infinitely elements of order 2 but SO_2 x {I, -I} just has two such elements
The second one has three such elements, right?
(I, -I), (-I, I), (-I, -I)
But also O_2 is nonabelian while SO_2 × {I, - I} is abelian
oh yea i forgot about (I, -I) (i was thinking about it geometrically)
If I have the polynomial x^n - a in Z[x], then any rational root must necessarily be an integer right
by the rational root test
for odd it's true, {I, -I} and SO_n are two normal subgroups with product O_n and trivial intersection
yep!
Hello guys, can someone explain me (or find any reference explaining) why the wedge product on free modules is a perfect pairing?
well the observation that it has no rational roots is enough for this. think about it, how many way can you factor a degree 4 polynomial over Q such that no factor is degree 1?
ah, don't factor it over C. that gives us different information than what we're looking for
we're saying it has no rational root, which is same as saying it has no linear factor if you factor it in Q[x]
so among the partitions of 4
4 = 3 + 1 = 2 + 2 = 2 + 1 + 1 = 1 + 1 + 1 + 1
the only partition which doesn't have a 1 in it is 2 + 2
yep 
ah, then directly use something like Eisenstein's criterion
yep! 
is the orthogonal group ever abelian?
SO(2) is, O(2) isn't
to give an example
in general, SO(n) and O(n) for n > 2 will be non-abelian. the n = 2 case i outlined and the n = 1 case is trivial
how would you show this? can you somehow 'embed' a non-commuting pair from O(2) in O(n) to create a non-commuting pair in O(n)?
apparently you can do this for SO(n)
SO(n) is a compact connected lie group, so if it were abelian it would be a torus. but its fundamental group is finite
(n geq 3)
:)
i know what you meant, im just bringing in some extra firepower
oh cool, sounds fancy
I understand why psi is completely determined by its value on 1. But Im having trouble following the next sentence, why psi = phi iff psi(1) = phi(1)
Also, what is capital phi's relation to small phi
Yeah they're just matrices
Make the 2 by 2 matrix into an n by n block diagonal matrix with the identity as the other block
So a 24 element abelian group is isomorphic to one of
Z8×Z3
Z2×Z4×Z3
Z2×Z2×Z2×Z3
Indeed
or Z_24
Oh yes
Z_24 is isomorphic to Z8xZ3 btw. You’ll know you’ve covered all of your options if you look at the elementary divisors. I.e, 24=2^3 * 3^1, so look at all the partitions of the powers (3 and 1), and list them.
3=3=1+2=1+1+1
1=1
Then, doing all combinations of those partitions, you get exactly the ones you originally mentioned. These are exactly all of the (isomorphism classes of) abelian groups of order 24, no need to worry about any others. There are multiple ways to write the (isomorphism classes) of these abelian groups, e.g. Z_24 vs Z8xZ3, but that’s no problem.
Hi, I wanted to make sure I had the right answers for this system of equations.
Is (-1, 5) correct?
that's only one, there are 3 solutions
also -1=5 in Z_6 so might help you to restrict to residues from 0 to 5, like (5,5)
Ah ok thanks 🙂
might help if you consider the chinese remainder theorem and what the solutions are for Z_2 and Z_3
Hey thanks. But can you explain why Z8×Z3 is isomorphic to Z24 but not the others?
as for showing Z8xZ3 is isomorphic to Z24, let's do something a bit more general. If n,m are coprime, then ZnxZm=Z(nm). We claim that Znm = <(1,1)>. To prove this claim, we want to show any element (x,y) can be written as k(1,1) for some k so that ZnxZm is cyclic, and once we know it is cyclic we are done, since |ZnxZm|=nm (since the underlying set is just the cartesian product).
Thus, let (x,y) be given, and we want to find k such that k(1,1)=(x,y), i.e., k=x mod n, k=x mod m. Since n,m are coprime, this k exists by the Chinese Remainder theorem. Thus, ZnxZm is a cyclic group of order nm, so it is isomorphic to Znm.
Now, let's see why, for example, Z2xZ2 is not isomorphic to Z4, we can look at orders of elements. If Z2xZ2 were isomorphic to Z4, then there would be an isomorphism f:Z4->Z2xZ2. Then, f(1) would have to be an element of order 4, but Z2xZ2 only has elements of order 2 or 1 (i.e., (0,0) is order 1, (1,0),(0,1),(1,1) are order 2)
aw yus
thanks a lot
there's also a theorem that says that two finite abelian groups are isomorphic if and only if they have the same elementary divisors
so you'd need to prove this theorem, but it would tell you right away that Z2xZ2 and Z4 are not isomorphic
SkyTwX
For reference, this has been asked here:
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4372611/reference-request-for-proof-that-the-multiplication-map-is-perfect-pairing-for-e
I see, thanks
$105=3\cdot 5\cdot 7$, so the CRT gives you an isomorphism $$\varphi\colon\bZ/105\bZ \to \bZ/3\bZ\times \bZ/5\bZ \times \bZ/7\bZ$$ the question is now to compute the preimage of $(2, 3, 2)$ under this isomorphism. the easiest way to do is is by brute force and computing the $\varphi(x)$ for $x=1, 2, \dots, 104$.
you can see that $\varphi(23) = (2, 3, 2)$, so this is the result
Lochverstärker
I think it's easier to call it x then start with x=2+3n then reduce mod 5 and you have 2+3n=3 mod 5, so 3n=1 mod 5, and so n=2 mod 5, plug in n=2+5m and now you have x=2+3(2+5m)=8+15m now one last time reduce mod 7, 8+15m=2 mod 7 and you have m=1 mod 7 so you can just use that directly, x=8+15=23
you can also just use the proof of the CRT. it's constructive
I have heard somewhere that the order of a permutation is the LCM of the orders of its disjoint cycles from the decomposition.
Is this true? If yes can someone please cite a source showing this proof?
for this problem does $R_f$ mean the localization of $R$ by the ideal generated by f?
JustKeepRunning
cuz idt u can just localize at an arbirary element, the thing u are localizing by has to be an ideal
and in fact in some cases i think it has to be prime
and also wut does it mean for a localization to equal 0 again
Can someone explain to me the concept of an invariant subgroup and quotient groups? The book I'm reading just isn't quite getting it through for me
Do you understand the notion of cosets?
you localize at multiplicative subsets, not ideals.
ideals would always contain 0, and if you wish to invert it, the whole ring would collapse to the zero ring.
localizing at f refers to localizing at the multiplicative subset {1, f, f^2, ...}
it would help if you shared what your book says so no one here ends up repeating exactly what you've already read
I think so, having a set A and another B, AB is the set with all ab with a in A and b in B
I think that's it? Unless I misread
Lectures in Abstract Algebra by Nathan Jacobson, Basic Concepts
Well then there's our first issue lol, lemme see if I can find it here
iirc like a subset, but it fulfills the requirements for a group? And it is a subset of a group
I have some trouble getting the concepts fixated sorry
Which is also a group under the same binary operation of G
It's alright I also went through that
For example
Say a group of Integers
Which acts under a Binary operation +
Addition
So we define a group (G,+)
"A group G under addition"
Which means the positive integers are a subgroup?
Actually no
I mean, with all the positive integers in a group I+ (includes negatives). It's closed under addition. The positive integers would be a subgroup no?
It is a subset of I, group under the same operation, and also a group by itself
If you only consider positive integers
It violates this
It is not a group
Since a group must contain an inverse element
Oh right
And identity element as a result
Has to have an inverse, closed under the operation and identity
And associative
Hm, ight
Ight
And every subgroup is a group
Under the binary operation defined for the group
This is called Binary restriction
Basically you narrowed the domain of the operation that it can accept.
Okay?
Ight
Now subgroup H of a group G under a binary operation + is defined as H < G
Confusing notation
But you read it as "H is a subgroup of G"
Okay?
Gotcha
Let's move forward
Any group
Always has two trivial subgroups
Do you know what are they?
Itself and empty?
Right, I was gonna correct myself but discord died
Oof
Alright so let's move to real definition of cosets now
So you have a subgroup H
Of a group G
Or in other words
H<G
Under the operation, say +
Not all operations are commutative
That is why we have the notion of left and right cosets
Okay?
Ight
So first of all
We use cosets to divide the subgroup into equal disjoint sets
equal meaning of same size
disjoint meaning an element does not overlap between one or two cosets
Ok, but what would a coset really be?
A set
It's really a set
Remember cosets are not groups
We divide the underlying set of a group into equal disjoint sets called cosets
a group is a set under an operation right?
We do that to the underlying set of that group
Okay?
Take ur time to grasp these concepts, when ready u can tell me to move forward
I think their discord died lol
Sorry for the delay, had to take my phone away for a moment
I get it I think
Alright
Since not all operations are commutative
Like Subtraction and division
We have left and right cosets
Say a subgroup H of a group G
Under addition
Then the left cosets of H are defined as a + H, a in G
Read from here again, made minor corrections
$a+H = {a + h | h \in H}$
Pencil/Idris
ah okay
A trivial group (G,+) containing only identity e also has two trivial subgroups, subgroup containing e and the subgroup containing e 
Three friends, never claimed they were pairwise disjoint. ;)
hi moldi 
het 
gay
So I can't even wave back without being called gay 
I am back, currently in somewhere people might just call me to talk so I'd have to go momentarily
But ok, that's a coset
It's alright 👍
Take ur time
A left coset btw
A right coset is defined as $H+a = {h + a | h \in H}$
Pencil/Idris
For a subgroup under operation +
Got it
Now if a subgroup has right and left cosets same (or equal), we define that subgroup as the invariant subgroup or a normal Subgroup or a normal divisor
So basically an invariant subgroup is like associative but for cosets?
So if a + H = H + a for a subgroup (H,+), H is a normal subgroup of G
Associative?
That's called commutativity
I think
Yeah sorry lol
It is a+(b+c) = (a+b)+c for a binary operation +
Okay
So I hope you got what is an invariant subgroup right
Yep, commutative law but with cosets. The book makes it mighty hard to get tho
Need at least 50+ more iq points for their definition
Equivalently we can also say if $xax^{-1} \in H$ for every $x \in G$ and $a \in H$ where $H ≤ G$
Btw
H<G means "H is a proper subgroup of G", meaning H≠G
Pencil/Idris
And H≤G "H is a subgroup of G" where H can be equal to G
Gotcha
Remember that for a group of Integers under addition, every subgroup of that group is a normal Subgroup
Because Z is abelian (Z is group of Integers here)
Abelian group is a group that is commutative under the defined operation for G
Integers are commutative
Also I would like you to yourself find out why this is true as an excercise
Well, I'd think that's because if we have a group Z of integers, say {-a, -a + 1, ... , 0 , ... , a - 1, a}, a subgroup of that would be "shaving" off the ends of it, so for b <= a, the subgroup S would be {-b, -b + 1, ... , 0, ... , b - 1, b}. Now, that is still kind of the same thing as the group Z in that it is abelian (I think that'd be it?)
So this means it is normal
kinda don't wanna think about it


