#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 713 of 407
Okay wait here's how you make cosets
a + H or left coset of H, where H≤Z, where say, H is a group of even Integers, then the left cosets are:
a = 0:
0+H = {...-2,0,2,...}
a = 1:
1+H = {...-3,-1,1,3,...}
Do that for right cosets too
I gtg for dinner
Ight, thanks for the help. Later can ya help me with quotient groups?
Sure
when does xy even have finite order
G is finite 
ok yes
but do you just have to define the order xy yourself
and maybe some induction shebang
consider constructing a homomorphism from G to D_2n
im confused bc the generators of D_2n dont have order 2
one does
oh wait
xy would map to the second generator in D_2n
yes thats correct
I will be taking full credit 
guys does anyone understand wut this mean
if the top part is tldr, R is a subring of the ring S, and \alpha is an element of S
i don't get the red part
wut does it mean to view M as an R[\alpha] module
isn't M and a R module
and also wut does R[\alpha] mean
Faithful means that the annihilator of M is 0
R[alpha] means take the map R[x] -> S which sends f(x) to f(alpha), and take the image
It’s all polynomial in alpha with coefficients in R
You know how to interpret this as an element of S because S is an R-algebra
But according to the text, M was assumed to be an R-module rather than an S-module, so it's not a priori clear how multiplication with alpha should work.
Perhaps it's a typo and M should have been an S-module from the beginning.
"carrier"?
this isn't a standard term, you'll have to elaborate
the addition is the one you expect, and the multiplication is (n + r)(m + s) = nm + ns + mr + rs. the multiplicative identity is 1 + 0.
in tuple notation (less suggestive), (n, r)(m, s) = (nm, ns + mr + rs) and the multiplicative identity is (1, 0)
I think they mean the underlying set
cartesian product, but that's for them to tell us
what is a symmetric generating set for a group/subgroup?
btw. If I have G a group, N a normal subgroup of G and H a subgroup of G. Then the direct product G = NH implies that every g in G can be written uniquely as g = nh for n in N and h in H. Does it also need to satisfy g = hn?
Direct products and inner semi products are different.
What you're asking about is inner semi product
How so?
Inner semi product is defined as G = NH = HN, and we can see NH or HN is a subgroup too.
This type of product is called frobenius product, and this is a subgroup generated by both N and H.
Secondly
The normal subgroup N = {(0,y,z)} and the subgroup H = {(x,0,0)} form a semi direct product?
Direct products can be thought of as "Cartesian Products of groups"
Because NH would be different from HN
since NH implies (x,y,z) and HN results in (x,y,z+xy)
Actually this one is a direct product
In a direct product, say you have two groups G and H
With same or different binary operations
(and indeed N cap H = (0,0,0)
Then G×H is called direct product where we do the Cartesian Product G×H, st (g,h) belong to G×H, and the binary operations (say G has ° and H has •) are defined componentwise
(g,h).(i,j) = (g°i,h•j)
Here (i,j) also belongs to G×H
And G×H must satisfy axioms for being a group
Yeah we're not doing that here, I was just saying direct and semi direct products are different.
leaf
Why people care about characterizing projective, injective and flat $R$-modules¡'
?
Potitov06
ex: projective modules allow you to generalize the characteristics of free modules
so essentially it allows u to use properties of free modules to more general modules
if thats wut u meant
oh also
in this proof here
of the lemma
does anyone know what the $\delta_{ij}$ stands for
JustKeepRunning
because it was not defined previously in teh book
so ima assuming that means its like a common symbol that stands for smth
?
In mathematics, the Kronecker delta (named after Leopold Kronecker) is a function of two variables, usually just non-negative integers. The function is 1 if the variables are equal, and 0 otherwise:
or with use of Iverson brackets:
where the Kronecker delta δij is a piecewise function of variables i and j. For example, δ1 2 = 0, whereas δ3 3 =...
What is a quotient group? The book I'm reading isn't quite getting it through
It's like a group consisting of cosets
Ie if you have G/N it's just all the closets with the operation being aN*bN=abN
Like for example the quotient group Z/4Z has the elements 4Z, 1+4Z, 2+4Z, 3+4Z
It's a group you obtain after some identifications have been made
Formally, you let G/N to be the set of equivalence classes of the equivalence relation x ~ y iff xy^-1 is in N, N being a normal subgroup of G.
Then on G/N we can introduce a group structure with product defined as [x]*[y] = [xy], where [z] denotes the equivalence class of the element z in G.
You can prove that this definition doesn't depend on the choice of x and y, so the operation on G/N is well-defined
Why we care about such equivalence relation, is because those kinds of relations are the only ones "preserving" the group structure
In abstract algebra, a congruence relation (or simply congruence) is an equivalence relation on an algebraic structure (such as a group, ring, or vector space) that is compatible with the structure in the sense that algebraic operations done with equivalent elements will yield equivalent elements. Every congruence relation has a corresponding q...
and by that I mean congruences
one can prove that for groups, those are precisely equivalence relations of the form x ~ y iff xy^-1 is in N for some fixed normal subgroup N.
Congruences are kind of equivalence relations, that defining operations on equivalence classes in the same way, it can turn out to be the object of the same type if and only if the equivalence class is a congruence
So if we want to obtain a group by quotienting, this can only be done using a normal subgroup
that's why they are important
This is a quite remarkable property of groups, and similar thing happens for rings. But for general kinds of structures, it's not enough to consider some special subset
You need to work with congruences
That's the case for example, for monoids and semigroups. If you want to consider quotients of those, you need to consider congruences instead.
Also why they usually don't cover what congruences are in the theories of groups and rings, it's simply not needed. It does give you a better picture though, imo
Hm, and where did the G go in this?
That's where a and b come from.
I'm in $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2})$ and I want to know if $x^2 - 3$ has a solution, I would do:
$$(a + \sqrt{2}b)^2 - 3 = a^2 + 2\sqrt{2}ab + 2b^2 - 3 = 0$$
Apparently I can kill the $2ab$, but I'm not sure why?
if it weren't, it would imply sqrt(2) is rational
cause you could then just solve for it in terms of all the integers in the equation
Why would it imply sqrt(2) is rational?
cool
Awesome, thanks mero
you're welcome 👍
Yesterday we saw what were cosets. I hope you now know what are left and right cosets from our previous example.
Now we use these invariant subgroups to divide the whole group into different cosets.
Only the normal Subgroups of a group have the property to do this. Since for a normal/invariant subgroup N, its left and right cosets are equal, we define G/N as a set of all N + a, a is in G.
(N+a = a+N, so it doesn't really matter.)
So basically a Quotient group is a set of all cosets of a normal subgroup, such that the normal Subgroup divides the underlying set of a group into equal disjoint cosets.
In terms of equivalence classes as Blitz said, consider a relation R. A relation is always a subset of the Cartesian Product of two sets say A and B. A relation is then defined as a set of ordered-pairs (a,b) where they can be defined as per your wish.
So if xy^-1 is in N, which is a Normal Subgroup of G, and x and y^-1 (y inverse) are in G, you can define the Equivalence (Congruence) Relation (Blitz used ~ to denote their equivalence Relation).
R = {(x,y) | xy^-1 belongs to N}
And R is a subset of the Cartesian Product of the underlying set of G and G.
So if (x,y) is in R, we say "R(x,y)" or "x R y" or "x is Related to y".
This is how you formally define a binary relation.
An Equivalence class [x] is basically a set of all y values for a specific chosen x that are related to x in relation R.
(Say you have {(0,1),(0,2)}, then [0] = {1,2})
So G/N in other words is also a Group of all such equivalence classes.
And as Blitz correctly said, we can again induce a group structure on G/N, with a product operation specifically defined as [x]*[y] = [xy]. [xy] will be in G (follows closure property of being a Group). This is one of the notable properties of a Quotient Group.
Example of Quotient group is the famous Z/nZ or "Integers mod n"
So $G/N = {N+a| a \in G, N \trianglelefteq G} = {[x] : | :[x] = {y | (x,y) \in R, xy^{-1} \in N}}$
Pencil/Idris
$N \trianglelefteq G$ means N is a Normal Subgroup of G, where N may be equal to G
Pencil/Idris
So you can say [x] = N+a here.
Ok, that does clear it up. Thank you pencil
Welcome
suppose F[x] is polynomial ring, where F is finite field, then number of ideals of ring is finite or not? How to check that?
i don't think so. (x), (x^2), (x^3),... should all be different ideals. all the nonzero elements in (x^n) should all have degree at least n because F is a field
okay thanks, what about R=Z[X]/(p(x)) where p(x) polynomial over Z[X] of degree 2022
ideals of R are in bijection with ideals of Z[X] containing (p(X)). so what are the ideals containing (p(X))
(f(x). p(x)) for any f(x) in Z[X] right
almost
so in this case this is also infinite
(f(x).p(x)) is contained in (p(x))
ahh yes
is there any polynomial over Z[x] of degree n whose number of zeros are more n?
no
so then p(x) have finite roots and some factors are there, so then ideal generated by factors of p(x) contain (p(x)) then number of ideals of R will be finite isn't?
ok that's what i initially thought too
but there are also ideals of the form (f(x),n) where f(x) divides p(x) and n is some integer
so i think it's infinite as well
oh yes Z[X] is not PID so
ye
is there exist irreducible polynomial over Q for any positive degree?
x^n-2
proof: ||eisenstein||
What does the notation $(\mathbb{Z} / n\mathbb{Z})^×$ signify?
Pencil/Idris
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
multiplicative group of integers mod n?
its elements are cosets of integers mod n which are coprime to n
Ah makes sense, thank you
I just noticed an inconsistency in my notes and I wanna ask
by convention, does an order in a number field have to contain 1?
or do we also consider ideals of the ring of integers orders
for example
What does an "order" mean in this context?
the one from wikipedia says an order is a subring
so yeah probably?
unless there is a different definition
I'm a bit confused about splitting fields & how to construct them.
I'm trying to construct one for:
$$x^6 - 8 \text{ in } \mathbb{Q}$$
And I've started by finding one root $\sqrt[6]{8} = \sqrt{2}$, then use roots of unity and get all my roots $\beta = e^{\frac{2i\pi}{6}}$, so $\beta^k \cdot \sqrt{2}$ for $k$ = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 are my roots.
Then chucked them all into the field:
$$\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2})(\beta \cdot \sqrt{2})\dots(\beta^5 \cdot \sqrt{2})$$
However I seem to be missing the last step to shrink this down to: $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2}, \beta)$.
I think I'm generally confused about the process of even constructing them.
thats all
im pretty sure you did it
Yeah but how do I shrink it?
I mean i guess it's just noticing the produce of some of them become each other.
But idk, not sure if I'd notice it.
i think by adjoining both root2 and beta that automatically includes the 6 elements adjoined individually
i dont think you need to adjoin the six roots individually
its more that you get a splitting field from those 6 roots
Ah right, but those 6 roots are simply products of beta and root2
yeah
Hmm I guess that works
how do you know it reduces to that?
is that the question?
i think you just need to check individually
Nah, I think I understand it
Oh wait maybe not
I just thought a field which has beta and root2, will have to have all powers of beta and root2
And so no matter what, the field that contains all the roots is the same as the field that just contains beta and root2
i thought this was true also
yeah
thats how it works out
also ur latex hasnt loaded for me lol
Same here
@olive edge
I guess the last step is just recognizing that you can use beta and root 2 as generating elements for the splitting field
yea
Does anyone have a good place where I could find resources and cheat sheets relating to group theory?
Konrad notes are pretty helpful
And where would I find those?
just google
A subring must either have or not have 1 depending on your definitions
It's a finitely generated Z-submodule in a number field containing a Q-basis of the field (so a lattice) which is also a subring (I think it doesn't have to have 1 at this point)
I think "including 1" means it does have to have 1
or I guess they mean they include 1 as a generator
okay, it's still confusing
to me its a generalisation of a ring of integers, only dropping the requirement to be integrally closed, so i still want O \cap Z = Z, in particular i want to be able to write O = Z[a_1, ..., a_n]
i also probably want a distinction between orders and ideals in orders etc
would definitions like conductor and the ideal class group even work without having 1 in your order
who allows subrings without unit, absolutely deranged 
Are quotient of euclidean rings always euclidean?
Z is euclidean domain, but Z/4Z isnt even integral domain
funnily enough its true if you quotient by prime ideals
since those are maximal and fields are euclidean domains
it’s also true if you quotient by maximal ideals 
thanks wew
thank you
Wait, maximal ideals are prime, not the other way around in general.
we are in an euclidean domain
Oops, gotcha, then those are equivalent, nevermind then
@sharp sonnet yea that makes sense, just in one point in my notes we referred to ideals of the ring of integers as orders. That was probably just a mistake on the professor's part and really it's just that they are lattices that are also closed under multiplication
In the following definition of the rank of an abelian group, is torsion of G/F included so as to ensure we have the largest possible free abelian subgroup?
I assume the concept of torsion is as given in the decomposation of Abelian groups: every Abelian group can be uniquely (up to isomorphism) decomposed the direct sum of two parts, where the first part is the 'free part' and the second one is the 'torsion' part which is, by defination, not free.
so, a Corollary: the torsion of G/F is G/F.
as you can again use the decomposation to G/F, since any subgroup of an abelian group is again abelian.
since the torsion of G/F is itself, we are done, as we've got the largetst possible free abelian subgroup
@civic tapirhope this helps, and hope I'm correct on this...
and now we can say that the rank r is well defined, since the uniqueness of the decomposation.
@cedar path Ah you're right, that helps a lot, thanks!
remark: the free part is by defination, a group which is free generated. But the 'torsion' part is obtained by no other defination, but only because: they're the complement of the 'free part'.
you're welcome
or we can say, an element of G is a torsion element if it has finite rank.
Then we define the torsion subgroup of G to be the set of all torsion elements.
One can verify: the torsion elements form a group.
In this way of speaking, if G/F is torsion, then every elements of it has finite order. So the torsion of G/F is itself.
so if rank(G) = 0, then G is finite.
oh sorry
I made a mistake on this. G is not necessarily finite
I'm reading a paper and I've run into this definition, what is the definition of the curly C on the right? like just C(I) with no sigma
$\mathscr{C}$?
TTerra
fuck you texit
$\mathscr{L}$
Wew "Boötes Void" Tbh ⊗
hmmm
sorrynot wondering about the latex, wondering what it means, but yeah it's a mathscr
what it means is the definition you see :^)
the definition defines C^(sigma)(I)
the definition of C^(sigma)(I) references C(I)
I do not know what C(I) is
what is the paper?
Have I proven this correctly?
i tried looking at some of the references given around where they used that notation and couldn't find it at a quick glance :(
Ty for trying! I did the same and also didn’t see anything so I assumed it was standard
mathematicians make their content accessible challenge literally impossible
Whoops… yea.
What is the following type of group $^2B_2(8)$
matthew
$$
\text { Describe the group of the polynomial } x^{4}-5 x^{2}+6 \in \mathbb{Q}[x] \text { over } \mathbb{Q} \text {. }
$$
Ji
i think it is asking for the galois group
the Galois group of a polynomial $f\in F[x]$ is the Galois group of a splitting field $K$ over $F$, which is the group of $F$-automorphisms of $K$.
Joseph
@rustic crown Apologies for the bad lighting, but I belive I fixed it. I also used slightly clearer notation.
okie, i'll take a quick look
Ok thanks 🙂
It’s my first proof and I’m only in 11th grade. Wanted to learn abstract algebra for fun.
that should be -38 * alpha^2
Shoot…
tnx
Ok well the whole proof is wrong now since -38 isn’t prime. @rustic crown
yea, but it doesn't work with 19 either
you want to find a prime which divides 9, but whose square doesn't divide 9
and sadly there is no such prime, only prime divisor of 9 is 3 and square of 3 does divide 9
there's a nice trick which you can use to change the polynomial slightly, such that you could apply Eisenstein's criterion to it
tell me if you would like a hint @celest cairn
Ok, and sure!
so our polynomial is K(x) = x^4 - 38x^2 + 9, right? the thing to notice is that K(x) is irreducible if and only if K(x+1) is. Can you show K(x+1) is irreducible?
I’ll give it a try, might take me a while though since I just got into this subject.
okie, good luck uwu 
Thanks for the help 🙂
np 
is the flow of my proof correct?
i'll prove the last line later
but am i on the right track?
you forgot to mention the negative roots respectively, but apart from that it's all correct so far :)
ohh rightt thanks
I can't possible percieve how this could be the case
like surely N_k is always isomorphic to F_2 given that it's just a group with two generators
there are free subgroups of F_2 that are isomorphic to every other finitely generated free group (including the free group on countably many generators)
The quantifiers are so wrong on that
yeah F_2/N_k should be ZxZ/k by that presentation for a start
nevermind, misread it 
the fact that it's saying prove rather than construct makes me think of funny universal property memes
could be a start?
moldi don't stare bleak me
I imagine you would just find k+1 generators
of N_k?
probably
they'd have to be free
Ye
bobbicals do you know about Schreier transversals/generators
nope
_ _
the fact that F_2 contains all the other free groups broke me at first but I think I see it now
cos you can take longer and longer words as generators
This should be easy using covering theory lol
yes covering theory sounds appealing
Take cover of figure eight corresponding to this subgroup
And should that it has F_k+1 as its fundamental group
I am just not sure how to visualize normal closure with covering spaces
You have the cover corresponding to the subgroup H and you want to find the cover for the normal closure of H. It will be the smallest Galois covering that also covers the cover of H
is this cover just the cover that goes around the first ring once and the second ring k times
my covering space skillz are very bad, how do you relate the fundamental group of the cover S^1 to the fundamental group of the figure 8
My guess is that the smallest Galois covering over this would be a circle with k circles attached to it at its boundary
S^1 doesn't cover the figure 8
This is figure 8 covering itself, with one circle covering itself via identity and the other one by a k fold map
Yes, but bouqueted at different points
In the sense that there can't be a point at which more than 2 lines intersect
Since covering maps are local homeomorphisms and there are no such points on the figure 8
oh yeah
so k+1 circles sitting in a line and kissing
okay I will see where this leads me, thanks
I think it will be one central circle and k circles kissing it's boundary
I mean that's a Galois cover of the figure 8
That also covers the cover corresponding to <a, b^k>
Just need to check that it's the smallest such cover
So that it is the cover corresponding to the normal closure
yooo how to prove X^2 + X -1 is irreducible in Z_3[X]
Check if it has roots
This works for any quadratic or cubic polynomial because of the factor theorem
uhmm yeah my problem is how to factor this polynomial
ahh i get it now, just found a way
Why the linear group SL(n,F), a group of n by n matrices with determinant 1 under the matrix operation over a field F a "special" linear group?
I mean, it is a subgroup of the general linear group, but what is so "special" about this Subgroup
they got determinant 1, seems pretty special to me

Special is by definition what opposed to general
wikipedia says "These elements are "special" in that they form an algebraic subvariety of the general linear group – they satisfy a polynomial equation (since the determinant is polynomial in the entries)."
though you could just as well call any of the other matrix groups special
{I} is pretty special.
i wonder where the term "special" for this group first showed up
no reference is given for that wikipedia excerpt, by the way, so i'm assuming it's just another "these things satisfy this nice property, so let's use this nondescriptive english word to refer to them"
and the proof of this fact is:
- consider the function det over the manifold GL(n). It's clearly a smooth funcion.
- compute the differential of det. It's called Jaboci formula: d(det) is non-zero at the non-vanishing points.
- Using the implicit funciton theorem, conclude that the level set at a for a non-zero is a submanifold of codimension 1. In particular, when a=1, the level set is the special linear group.
it's just the zero set of a polynomial lol
if you're working over R or C or something, and if you want to prove things about manifolds, then yeah
zero set of a polynomial of high degree and multiple variables can be very complicated. You know this is the topic of Algebraic geometry. For example there can be singularities involved. But what we want to show here, is the zero set of det polynomial-1 has no singularities. Otherwise, it's not a manifold.
"algebraic subvariety" just means zero set of polynomial
which is what wikipedia wrote
for example, this is not allowed
i know
so that's why one has to do the step 2
let me rephrase
yeah, I mean as smooth submanifolds.
if one only consider algebraic things it's done.
that is what is being done
we're doing algebra, not differential geometry
though you could still talk about smooth algebraic varieties i guess
okay, so let my argument be the complement of yours but not related
(via jacobi criterion)
How does it do that though 
what do you mean?
Like how do they satisfy a polynomial equation
Ah wait
(since the determinant is polynomial in the entries)
So the determinant forms a polynomial = 1
Makes sense
strictly speaking we're looking at the polynomial det - 1 and its zero set, but yeah
if you're not sure of it being a polynomial, look at that long ass formula for det involving permutations
👍
and to check it's a submanifold we need something more....
I'm not into algebraic geometry yet
Surprisingly I love how this topic connects linear algebra, abstract algebra and algebraic geometry :o
"i love how this topic connects..." is something you might find yourself saying a lot from now on
IIRC if a curve has singularities then we can just embed it in a higher dimensional space and still view it as an algebraic variety
you mean blowup?
I don't think it's using anything that complicated, but it might be a blow up - Miranda covers in his early chapters
On my phone but found the part
This probably is a blow up tbh
My geometry is a bit weak
But Miranda is a really accessible point into AG
ok so this has been SEVERELY bugging me because i just cannot understand the difference between an affine algebra and a group algebra
going to translate this shortly
this is what the screenshot says:
We want to show that for diagonalizable groups the affine algebra K[G] of the group G is isomorphic to the group algebra of its character group X*(G):
K[G] = K[X*(G)].
Remark. Of course, the notation K[G] in the left and right hand sides of this formula have completely different meanings:
- on the left is the affine algebra - i.e. a subalgebra of the algebra of functions,
- on the right is the group algebra.
The affine algebra depends contravariantly on G. The group algebra depends covariantly on X*(G) - but, of course, the character group X*(G) itself depends on G contravariantly.
and its come to my attention that
put simply i have no fucking idea what "affine algebra" or "group algebra" even mean in this context
or what the difference between them is. i'd like to know.
like ok the affine algebra is a subalgebra in the algebra of functions. but WHAT subalgebra is it?
each of these seems to have a basis indexed by elements of the group but i plain and simple dont understand the difference
and google is not helping either
and im growing increasingly desperate and increasingly distressed about this
<@&286206848099549185>
Are you sure it's not just a diff name for it
Affine algebra usually means finitely generated as an algebra
literally says "affine algebra" and "group algebra" have COMPLETELY DIFFERENT MEANINGS
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/317228/affine-algebra-of-an-algebraic-group
From this it seems that the affine algebra is the coordinate ring of a group scheme? I am not completely sure
It is the representing object of the scheme as a functor apparently
This might be the functor of points thing
Viewing affine schemes as representables out of k-Alg
is that the only definition
i wish there was something non functorial
cause this one just
MAKES NO SENSE TO ME
i just CANNOT grasp it
Idk lol you'll need to find someone who can translate between functor of points and sheaves
I think Arianna was the who told me about functor of points so you might have some luck asking her
whomst?
@golden pasture
well i guess now that you've pinged her i don't need to do it a second time 
wat
huh
is that a "huh this makes no sense to me" or a "huh idk what youre asking"
ngl im confused too
Does this definition make sense in context? Coordinate ring of the group as an affine scheme?
not really
i mean like
ok
coordinate ring of the group
is that the same as the ring of functions on the group
Oh that's actually also what the functor of points thing should translate to lol
if not then i'll flip
Ye ring of polynomial functions
i dont see any functor of points here
that's the affine algebra?
i dont even see anything close to a scheme
The SE I linked treats affine schemes as representable functors
Ye that's what I'm guessing
i mean sure but
that feels super overkill for smt that looks like
just some group algebra
Lol idk what exactly functor of points is then, because I assumed that whole approach of spaces = functors was called that
it prob is trying to say smtsmt
K[G] is really a confusing notation and anyone would think it's a group ring of G over K
G is finite here right
oh
monkas i thought it was saying that
er
sure but
i thought K[G] was referring to the group algebra 
Lmao
nobody said that
okay but what is the group algebra then
You take character group and then the usual group algebra
Do you know the usual group algebra?
no
i don't think so
unless it's the one where you consider functions of finite support instead of poly funcs
but at this point i'm seriously doubting all of my knowledge here
and i must assume i know ABSOLUTELY NOTHING AT ALL and EVERYTHING I'VE KNOWN SO FAR IS A LIE
This should be easy to find online, you define the algebra to be the vector space with basis the group, and define an obvious multiplication
Obvious in the sense that it just bilinearly extends the group multiplication
Bilinearly/distributively
ngl idk whats happening there is K[G] some object representing some functor

notation wtf moments
is it possible to not involve functors in this
literally the word functor is going to make me fucking cry
im too pea-brained for such abstraction
Coordinate ring of G, which is the same as the algebra representing G as a functor of points scheme
According to the SE post
um
You can see this example of a group algebra.
Afaik, and according to Wikipedia, a group algebra is a commutative group ring, or a group over a commutative unital ring 
it feels so wrong to say finitely supported functions
In other words, a group Algebra is a set of all linear combinations of k in field K and s in group S as:
k1s1+k2s2+...+knsn if S is finite
ok first clarification first
what exactly is G here
it is a group scheme right
ah wait
my brain just unshutdown itself
G is a affine group scheme
so K[G] here basically means like
"spec K[G] = G"
you could think of it that way
meanwhile X*(G) is some group so K[X*(G)] is the group algebra - i.e. the vector space over K with basis X*(G) and multiplication defined in the obvious way
my brain is too fried from doing pde in chinese
rip
Ah wait yes
If the ring in group ring R[G] is replaced with a field K, forming K[G], this is literally just a vector space over K
Yes
It's a K-algebra
I don't like the world literally, because it's not exactly one and the same thing
how is this true?
if we have a glide reflection $m = t_v \rho_\theta r$ then doesn't $m^2 = t_v \rho_\theta r t_v \rho_\theta r = t_v \rho_\theta t_{rv} \rho_{-\theta} r r = t_v t_{\rho_\theta r v} \rho_\theta \rho_{-\theta} = t_{v + \rho_\theta r v}$
ally 🌈
not $t_{2v}$
ally 🌈
where have i gone wrong
<@&286206848099549185>
Given an infinite separable extension, it's obvious that there are infinitely many embeddings of it into its algebraic closure right? Like otherwise you could take finite subextensions of arbitrary degree, find however many embeddings you want and extend those to distinct embeddings of the infinite extension (Say by Zorn's Lemma), so you can find arbitrarily many embeddings i.e. there are infinitely many. Is my reasoning correct?
this seems correct to me
i figured it out
v is on the glide line so rho_theta r v = v
Is lie bracket [-,-] defined as [-,-]: g×g -> g, where [X,Y] = XY-YX, or could it represent any alternating bilinear map that satisfies the Jacobi Identity?
not every lie algebra has as its lie bracket a commutator
I see
That's how you would define the Lie bracket on an algebra, but not every Lie algebra needs to come from an algebra
XY and YX might not even make sense in gneeral
it makes sense if you're working in an algebra, as moldilocks says
Well here g is a vector space
no multiplication of its elements is defined in general, so no writing XY and YX for you without more information
Alright, thank you both 👍
Ah it depends upon context, for vector spaces it is defined as the cross product X×Y
in R^3, sure
but "cross product" is not defined in general
I see
R^3 with the cross product is indeed a lie algebra
Thanks again
isomorphic to the lie algebra of the lie group SO(3), which should say something geometrically
something something rotations of R^3
3D rotations in R^3 right
around the origin yeah
👍
I see stuff like $G/H$ written a lot but do people ever write $\frac GH$?
gmod
I've seen it a few times. can't remember where. and I absolutely hate it
Wikipedia has a convention of writing $\frac{R}{I}$ instead of $R/I$ when considering a quotient of a ring by an ideal. Ig it kinda looks better
Porphyrion
why do you hate it? it looks like a fraction like $\frac15$ unless you write that as $1/5$ for some odd reason
gmod
I see, I agree - it makes more sense imo
I'm trying to prove that every degree 2 extension is normal. I know the fact that a subgroup of an index 2 is normal. How can i use this to prove that extension of degree 2 is normal
Fundamental theorem of Galois theory should do the trick but I'm not exactly sure how
well can't really explain it. but I just don't think it looks good. I just like G/H more for some reason. maybe because you often include it in sentences and it looks better in that case. in a text I would write 1/5 instead of a fraction. or i'd probably write 0.2
here the fraction stands out completely while R/I fits in nicely
fundamental theorem feels a bit overkill for this, but part of the theorem is that the fixed field of a normal subgroup is normal
but I think it's more insightful or natural to prove it just by consider how an irreducible quadratic factors
if you have an irreducible polynomial x^2 + ax + b with a root p in your extension, what can you say about the other root q in relation to how your polynomial factors?
the fraction notation for quotients is pretty good to get rid of brackets
the butterfly lemma in the normal / notation would look like $((A \cap C) B)/((A \cap D) B) \cong ((C \cap A) D)/((C \cap B) D)$
Pappa
i guess you dont necessarily need the brackets around the (A \cap C)B- terms
I do this whenever the quotient is just really long or I have stacked quotients, otherwise I use \sfrac
In some contexts it's useful to quotient both from the right and the left
And G/H keeps a sense from which side we do
That's why it should be prefered
But normal fraction is ok too. Just not always
For rings it doesn't matter, addition is commutative
In group theory, a field of mathematics, a double coset is a collection of group elements which are equivalent under the symmetries coming from two subgroups. More precisely, let G be a group, and let H and K be subgroups. Let H act on G by left multiplication and let K act on G by right multiplication. For each x in G, the (H, K)-double cose...
Does someone know why a discrete subgroup $\Gamma \subset \mathbb{R}^n$ that is cocompact (i. e. $\mathbb{R}^n/\Gamma$ is compact) is a lattice?
Anton.
Someone linked a script, but it just says that this is a corollary of another prop. and my case is less general
Yes, it's pretty straightforward like this, its just -a-p and hence splits
but was looking for alternative solution in which i use Galois theory.
fair enough
part of the theorem is that the fixed field of a normal subgroup is normal
I have missed this part of theorem appearantly xD
or Hungerford didn't mention it
yeah, at least that's how i learned it
i can try to outline the proof here
Suppose F/k is a Galois extension with Galois group G, let H be a normal subgroup of G and let E denote the subfield of F fixed by H. Then G acts on the set of embeddings of E into the algebraic closure of k by embedding E and then restricting the automorphism of F to E, which necessarily sends elements to their image in another embedding
moreover, this action is transitive, which essentially follows from uniqueness of splitting fields
so the idea is that given an embedding i, the stabilizer of i under the action of G is equal to the subgroup of G containing the automorphisms of F which fix i(E)
a basic fact from group theory is that stabilizers of elements in the same orbit are conjugate, hence if H is normal, then H is equal to all of its conjugates
thus, i(E) = E for all inclusions, hence E is normal (and Galois)
oh damn this is interesting, never seen this before
thanks guys
lirmirit
From what I understand, if we talk about objects in 2D, those objects would be chiral if they have no reflectional symmetry (i.e. they are different from their mirror symmetry)
How would this concept apply to general objects?
thank you so much 🙂
What is your exact definition of a lattice
I can give you the general outline
Choose the one you like best: discrete subgroup of IR^n?
Thanks 🙏
why algebraic closure is the largest algebraic extension?
So iirc discrete + cocompact implies you're a full lattice.
The general idea that I know is by contrapositive, proving a non lattice is not cocompact.
First convince yourself cocompact is equivalent to having a (pre)compact subset K such that K+L=R^n for your group L.
Suppose you have a discrete subgroup with non-full span, say L with span_R(L)=W<R^n.
By isomorphism suppose WLOG that W is R^m. For any compact set K, you can find v whose m+1st coordinate is greater than all those of K, then v is not an element of K+L (since L is inside R^m it cannot change the m+1st coordinate)
There are surely other proofs, this is the most elementary one I know of
You should try proving this, to see if you understand what the algebraic closure is
Thank you, I'll look at it tomorrow, it's really late here.
oh that's really simple i see
You got it?
yes
👍
i mean its an algebraic extension which is algebraically closed but then we can show that since it's algebraically closed, there is no larger algebraic extension
wtf... these people need to be stopped
exactly
That notation is whack I don't think I've ever seen division right to left be written like that
So in other words, K doesn't have any proper algebraic extension but itself. But that's just the definition so K must be closed
or am i missing something? why is this an exercise? xd
what book is this?
Hungerford's Algebra
ah nice thanks
Seems pretty much correct
Let Kⁿ be the maximal algebraic field extension of K contained in F.
Then Kⁿ is a subfield of F
If Kⁿ = K, it implies that K has those elements of F that are algebraically closed over K
K is also a subfield of F.
Hence K is algebraically closed 👍
Really appreciate your help! Understood.
No problem!
Glad I could help
fwiw there are definitely nicer ways to do this
but this is the way I thin kabout this
👑
A weak order is a broad class of such orders where any one of the relations x<y or y<x holds (strong connectedness), or none of them hold (transitivity of incompatibility) making x and y incomparable; with some additional properties if any.
Total pre-orders are weak orders that are transitive, reflexive and have strong connectedness.
Is my understanding correct
How could you do the 3rd exercise? I did it but idk if it's correct
post your solution
I am 99% sure it is incorrect/doesn't prove anything, if you still want it tho
Yeah thinking again it just doesn't do much lol
Especially since U doesn't commute under addition
Are your rings not defined to have a multiplicative identity?
Because that would always be left cancellable
So that seems like a redundant condition
That wouldn't do much about it not commuting under addition tho
Or do you not need that for a ring?
Just asking what the definition of a ring is for you
Well, they are abelian under addition, are closed under multiplication (a*b is in the group if a and b are) and distributive laws hold (namely n(a + b) = na + nb and same for right multiplication)
Ah so multiplicative identity doesn't necessarily exist? Interesting
Wait multiplication needs to be associative right
According to the book it needs to be a semi-group under multiplication, so not necessarily has an identity
Not sure, probably?
Yeah probably
I see
is this Jacobson?
Yeah
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/833270/rings-with-noncommutative-addition
This argument should work with 1 replaced with c
hah. I read this book
did you like it? I was thinking of picking it up as well
notation is bad but yes
Ok so I think I found a way to show that the set U commutes under addition
$$ca = cb$$
$$ca + cb - cb = cb + ca - ca$$
$$(ca + cb) - cb = (cb + ca) - ca$$
Since $cb = ca$:
$$(ca + cb) - ca = (cb + ca) - ca$$
$$ca + cb - ca = cb + (ca - ca)$$
$$ca + cb - ca = cb$$
Duhon
At least when c is involved, so if c is a zero then U doesn't necessarily commute
Is any of this even correct?
I mean ig you can repeat the same steps with a = b
You're starting with the assumption that ca = cb?
You need to show that a+b = b+a without this assumption
Gotcha
I just cancelled the c in the last step to say $b + a - b = a$, which cannot be true unless they commute in order to do $b - b + a = a$
Duhon
That any good now?
is SL2Z index two in GL2Z
applying first iso to the determinant we get that GL_n(Z)/SL_n(Z) iso to C_2 so yeah I think so
Hi, does anyone have any good abstract algebra book suggestions that have wording and notation that is easily understood?
Try that one book by Artin
I think it's just called "Algebra"
Easy to find pdfs online, tho official/hardcover versions might be hard to find outside of the US or other English speaking countries
Lang's Algebra
jk, but see pinned messages in #book-recommendations
or, actually, I think #books is off the ground now?
You could try Thomas Judson or classical book from Dummit and Algebra ( the former one is simpler)
Ok! Thanks guys! 🙂
Hi guys
I think I've spent the whole evening trying to tackle question b)ii) 😅
anybody got any ideas?
Hmm, if it is true at all, then my gut feeling would be that you can probably make one by defining f(s) by transfinite recursion. Something like, in each step,
1) if there is an s and g such that f(s) is already defined but f(g·s) isn't, then pick such a combination and define f(g·s) to be g*f(s).
2) otherwise, if there's any f(s) such that f(s) hasn't yet been defined, pick the smallest such s (according to a fixed bijection between S and an initial ordinal), and define it to be the smallest s' that is not yet in the domain of f.
3) otherwise, you're done.
The trick would be in proving that when both actions are free, then whenever you reach case 2, then f already satisfies f(g·s)=g*f(s) for all s in its domain so far and all g.
would K(u_1,...,u_n) be splitting field over K for corresponding separable polynomials of u_i?
Wait, I missed that everything is finite, that makes it much easier.
For a free action, each orbit is in bijection with G once you pick an element of the orbit to represent 1.
Since S and G are finite, there are the same finite number of orbits according to · as according to *.
Just pick some way to match them up.
^^^ @vague granite
I ended up reading something like you pick an s’ to write every s as gs’ and then f(gs’)=g*s’?
Yeah, that works if |S|=|G| so there is just one orbit. But if there are multiple orbits, then you need to pick a representative of each orbit on each side of f.
So the Galois Correspondence Thm tells us that if a field extension corresponds to an S_n group, then it has an A_n normal subgroup corresponding to a normal field extension of degree 2 (reiterating to make sure I'm not slipping up with basic logic). is there any kind of relationship between this new intermediate field extension and the base field/field extension themselves? obviously this implies there's an irreducible quadratic in this field that will induce the full field extension, but does this quadratic have any strong relationship with the original polynomial or so on?
I'm guessing that a lot of this is, more or less, a case by case basis, depending on what polynomial you choose the answer may be obvious what subfields are fixed by a particular subgroup and what not, but in general it's seemingly random as the Galois group only tells us about the structure of the automorphisms together, not the automorphisms themselves. is this reasonable?
figured a bit of it out.
elements of A_n preserve the sqrt of the discriminant
so the normal subfield that it predicts is exactly K(delta) where delta^2 = Delta = discrim of the polynomial
can someone help me with this one?
Since 0 is never a root you only need to consider p on the multiplicative group, which is cyclic. Then notice any m relatively prime to p^k - 1, x^m is bijective on the cyclic group. Therefore conclude that you can replace x^m-1 with x^{gcd(m,p^k -1)} - 1, so assume m divides p^k - 1. Lastly, remember that for cyclic group, how many elements satisfy x^m-1 when m divides the order of the group
@upbeat fulcrum
Let $k$ be a field. I know that for a finite dimensional division algebra $D$ with center $k$, its dimension is a square, and the dimension of any maximal subfield is the root of the dimension of $D$. Moreover, if $K$ is maximal, then $C_D(K)=K$ (This is an iff). Does the same result hold for a general CSA? If $A\cong M_n(D)$ is a CSA, then $\operatorname{dim}_k(A) = m^2n^2$ if $\operatorname{dim}_k(D)=m^2$, then firstly, is it true that for a maximal subfield $C_A(K)=K$? And if not, does it still hold that $[K:k]=mn$?
ShiN
I already prove the theorem, I was hoping for the help in (1)
this one
does anyone know where is this from?
Why is this "clearly" the case? Am I missing some standard group theory?
Both lattices are free abelian groups of rank n
You can find bases of both lattices that are stacked (see smith's normal form) so you get necessarily that the index is finite
Another way to see it is that if you choose a basis for $\Gamma'$, you can find a representative of any $x \in \Gamma/\Gamma'$ that belongs to the fundamental parallelogram of $\Gamma'$. There's only a finite number of points of $\Gamma$ in this parallelogram
Digiteraat
Is there any situation in which the Galois group of the characteristic polynomial of a matrix is interesting?
you can think of the matrix as representing multiplication by an element on a field extension represented by a vector space over your base field, so it'd end up being the galois group of this field extension I think
Thank u
Ahhhhhh okay thank you
Is there an abstract way to see that Z cannot be a profinite group? Like along the lines of „finite groups have property P and P is preserved by limits“
i was trying to go for an argument along the lines of "profinite groups are exactly the Hausdorff, compact & totally disconnected topological groups and Z cannot have such a topology", but it is indeed possible to equip Z with a topology that makes it Hausdorff, compact & totally disconnected (identify it with {0} \cup {1/n : n in N} as a subset of the reals), but I supposed this means that the set can't have a group structure compatible with the topology
so uh that's not an answer, but a very interesting question
i think one way would be to say that it's compact hausdorff which means we can put a Haar measure on it, and so the group can't be countable.
as translation invariance will force each singleton to have the same measure, but then they all need to add up to like 1
how do i show x-a is prime in C[x]
im thinking taking p*q=r(x-a)
where p,q,r are polynomials and a is complex
and then using a degree argument
degree of p=0 and q=1 or vice versa
and degree 0 cant be in (x-a) ideal
so (x-a) is prime?
you could use the fact that f(a) = 0 if and only if (x-a) divides f(x)
I like this! Good one
interesting example, cause it meets all the requirements except the group structure. Another way that meets all but one is the image of the integers in any p-adic integers is hausdorff, totally disconnected, and a topological group but not compact (although the integers are dense in the p-adic integers, and the p-adic integers are compact)
I wonder if it's possible to meet everything except hausdorff or everything except totally disconnected too
Ok so I'm not sure if this makes sense, but if $I$ is the set of all integers, then $I$ is an ideal of the factor group $I/I$ right? Just so I can condense the 2 concepts
Duhon
So what if R is K[x]/(x^2)
and we choose the prime ideal (x)
if we take f = a1x+a0
then quotients with x give a0 and localizing gives a0/1
so f(x)=a0/1
However my book says it should be 0.
Gonna bump this. I didn't have time to ask my prof
Oh I like that
I need to remember that CompHaus is preserved.
So you used the property that a haar measure has finite measure on compact sets, right?
I'm not sure if this answers your question or is at all relevant, but here's a statement from Guillot chapter 6 that may be useful
Commutant means centralizer
The proofs are in the book also
Well if it's a maximal subalgebra it's in particular a maximal field
I'll check it out thanks!
I was just reading this section of the book recently 😅
How convenient
I still wonder if there's a simpler way to do this for my case but probably not
@uncut girder is this a corollary of double centraliser in the book?
Nvm I thought about this for a sec and it's actually simple. I just needed the shift in perspective from only thinking about fields to thinking about simple commutative subalgebras in general (Which is the proper generalisation going from division algebras to CSAs)
Thanks!
Its a corollary of whats called "the commutant theorem" in the book
Do you have any intuition about this? I'm still trying to process the statement of this theorem
Hmm, not really. The only intuition I really have is the fact that for maximal subfields (and commutative subalgebras) it gives the square root of the dimension, and the fact take taking the centraliser is like asymmetric.
Centralisers are weird, if you're starting with smth noncommutative you aren't even guaranteed your original algebra will be inside, but if you take it twice it has to be inside since you're forcing it.
All this to say I don't have much intuition for why this is true, or why, besides formally for the proof, we need a CSA. Maybe look into balanced modules tho.
bumping #groups-rings-fields message
show what book says
f = x.
a_1 = 1 and a_0 = 0.
Yep.
Both are pretty simple to check. We can write the limit as an equalizer, and since finite groups with discrete topology are cHaus, so are their products and so the Equalizer is a closed subspace of a product and so stays cHaus.
And yep we needed it's translation invariant, finite on compacts and countable additive.
How can i show that character degree graphs of A_n where n>=15 are complete graphs ?
I know that vertices ( set of all prime divisors of degrees of irreducible characters are is the set of all the primes <= n )
but how do i show that product of any two prime divisors ( vertices ) divides some degree of a character so that there is a corresponding edge?
Is there any theorems that say something about the subgroup of non abelian group (alternating group, dihedral group, symmetric group) are normal subgroup?
Idrk such theorems about them, but for symmetric groups, the kernel of the group homomorphism f: S_n -> {+1,-1} where {+1,-1} is a group under multiplication, where +1 is the Identity; and f returns +1 for even permutations, the kernel of this homomorphism, that is, the set of all even permutations that map to +1 (the Identity) is the normal subgroup of S_n under the group operation of S_n (composition of functions)
And all subgroups of a symmetric group are automorphism groups or permutation groups
The kernel of any homomorphism is normal, and conversely any normal subgroup is the kernel of some homomorphism. This is why normal subgroups are defined
I'll add that the converse is true in a trivial sense (Although maybe less so if you define normal subgroups as kernels of homomorphisms). if you have a normal subgroup N, then G/N is a group, so the quotient map G->G/N is a homomorphism with kernel N
That is the general case by the first isomorphism theorem 

Also $Z_{p^k}[i]$ is basically a polynomial ring with integer coefficients from the field $Z_{p^k}$ right where elements in the ring are of the form a+bi?
Pencil/Idris
lol
i read it as letting x be arbitrary element of R
that was weird on my part
A primitive element is a generator of the multiplicative group of a finite field. Is there a term for the generators of its additive group?
The additive group of a field F can only be cyclic if the field has prime order
Because otherwise it properly contains a cyclic group (the one generated by 1 assuming char F > 0) which isn't contained in any larger cyclic group
If char = 0 then it contains ℚ which isn't cyclic
So yes, the name would be ±1 then lmao
ah right, thanks!
If $R = M_2(\mathbb{F})$ and $R^n \cong R^m$ as $R$-modules, by restriction of scalars can we say this implies $R^n \cong R^m$ as $\mathbb{F}$-modules, and therefore that $n=m$?
Average J∘du=du∘j enjoyer
.
yes, but the ring of integers mod p^k is not a field (for k > 1)
yep 

yes
because then the dimension over F will be 4n = 4m
and F is embedded in R
Can someone help me unpack this example of localization of a ring? In particular, I don't understand how ``$A_P$ can be identified with the ring of all rational functions on $k^n$ which are defined at almost all points of $V$".
adi
for ref. the textbook is Atiyah & MacDonald's Comm. Algebra
well recall that an ideal p of the polynomial ring defines a subset of k^n, ie. the subset of all points on which all elements of p vanish
for instance suppose p is maximal, then this subset is simply a point.
Localising at p then is (in essence) just adding inverses to all the polynomials which do not vanish at this point
so if for example p= (x,y), then the polynomial xy+1 does not vanish "at" p.
inverting it gives you 1/xy+1, this rational function is defined on all of k^n except on V(xy+1), ie. is defined at allmost all points
Just to clarify on your example: Do you mean to take the prime ideal (x, y) in the parent ring R[x, y]? In which case the variety defined by it is just the point (0, 0), at which the polynomial xy+1 does not vanish. And is it so that (1/xy+1) is the 'inverse' subsequently supplied to it in the localized ring?
Finally, the text talks about being defined at almost all points of V, whereas you spoke of being defined on all points of k^n except V. Is this an error in the text? Or is it because you're referring to different varieties? I'm not clear on this point.
As for the first point, that is what i was referring to yes and yes xy+1 gets mapped to a unit in the localised ring whose inverse is 1/(xy+1).
What the text means is the same as what I mean.
I dont know how much you know about varieties but you can define a topology on k^n whose closed sets are exactly given by sets of the form V(I).
Turns out that in this topology open sets (complements of the V(I)) are always dense.
As 1/xy+1 is defined on k^n\ V(xy+1) it is defined on an open set and thus on a dense subset of k^n, which justifies the usage of almost all points in the text.
Thank you
Any ideas how to go about this exercise? I can't see how I could prove the hint.
what are your thoughts on the question?
Suppose phi is a non zero map
So there is an x in Q such that phi(x) is non zero
Im guessing the contradiction is to get to the conclusion that phi is not a homomorphism
it's not the way i'd have done it, but why not give it a shot and see if it works?
it's only been a few minutes
phi(x) = n*phi(x/n), so phi(x) is divisible by all natural numbers
it's probably easier to show that such a homomorphism must be zero than to show that if a function Q -> Z is non-zero it's not a homomorphism
but i wouldn't give up so quickly
hm, Ill try both ways
or you can just use what blitz wrote, if you didn't feel like playing around with the problem
its been a few days since I looked at this, I think ill play around with it abit just to re familiarize with the definitions
that would be a good idea
just mess around with the assumption that phi: Q -> Z is a homomorphism and see what you can get from that
Hi
Why do we require that an action is transitive when defining blocks?
could you provide more context?
Well I see that on wikipedia the definition is what is our characterization and vice versa
We’ve defined block on a transitive action B = B^g or their intersection is empty
And I’m wondering why do we need action to be transitive there
where on wikipedia?
I've been stuck on the following problem, any ideas? $f \in S = R[x,y]$ is a 420 polynomial if we can write $f(x,y)=g(x^4,y^{20})$ for some $g$ in $S,$ and we define $T(f)$ as the corresponding $g.$ If $f, g, h$ are 420 polynomials and $f=rg+sh$ for some $r, s \in S,$ prove $T(f)=uT(g)+vT(h)$ for some $u, v \in S.$
aadfg
weed polynomial
weed polynomial
weed polynomial
Weed polynomial
I've been pondering on a question about groups and I can't find any information on it since it's really specific, but are there any procedures to find how to transform permutation A into permutation B?
an example that explains my question better would be:
assume group G are the integers under addition, let's assume permutation A is the number 4 and permutation B is the number 9. Is there any algorithm that tells us the steps we need to take to transform the number 4 into 9?
and in another sense, if we have a set of actions A that act over a system S, is there an algorithm that tells us the actions we need to take in sequence to take a specific permutation of system S into another permutation of system S?
in this specific example, we could make the system a number, and we have a set of actions that increases the number by 1 and another action that decreases it by 1 {+, -}, does anybody have any idea on how to take a permutation in this system into another permutation in terms of the actions we have available automatically?
Ok, but any ideas? It's a real problem, no joke
To prove inverses map to inverses in a group homomorphism, is it fine to do something like this (as an example):
(G1 has ° operation and G2 has + operation)
f: G1 -> G2; g1 = g2
f(-g1) = f(-g1 ° 0)
=> f(-g1 ° 0) = f(-g1) + f(0) = -g2 + 0
=> f(-g1) + f(g1) = -g2 + 0 + f(g1)
=> f(-g1) + f(g1) = -g2 + g2 + 0
=> f(-g1) + f(g1) = -g2 + g2 = 0
what is g_2 supposed to be?
element in G2
which
f(g_1)? f(-g_1)?
f(g1) = g2
g1 maps to g2
and -g_1 is supposed to be the inverse of g_1? likewise for g_2?
just so i understand your notation
Yes 
so in the second line, you wrote f(-g_1) + f(0) = -g_2 + 0. presumably you did this using f(-g_1) = -g_2?
Yes
you can't do that, since that's the thing you're trying to prove
Wait
Oh
Yeah right
Thanks
I'll try again
if you want a hint: ||apply f to both sides of g_1 ° (-g_1) = 0||
Got it 
I really need to get good at writing proofs lol
it's one of those skills that takes a while to develop
Hi, I have a question.
In this equation, I don't understand how I got my x and y values. I used a Diophantine equation calculator that showed me some of the steps. How did I get x=38 and y=-133?
These are obviously the correct answers because when I plug the values in, I get 19, which is what the equation was originally equal to.
I mean you can always invert A and then apply B? But I’m not sure that’s what you may have meant by steps?
You just multiplied 2 and -7 by 19
You have 1=2*25-7*7. So then you multiplied both sides by 19
Ah ok thanks 🙂
this is all subgroups of dihedral group d12 (the hexagon), how to find the subgroups D6 and (Z_2)^2?
identify a triangle inside of the hexagon. now any symmetry of the triangle would give you a symmetry of the hexagon 
for Z/2 + Z/2, pick your favorite reflection and a 180 degree rotation
does this mean linear transformations of complex projective space preserve circles? That's mad
wait no that's sounds totally wrong i must be misinterpreting
i think im getting confused by the fact that they talk about C^2 and C when clearly the projective complex plane is hiding somewhere
is it more like, a linear transformation of C^2 induces a non linear transformation of CP?
yeah cause the induced map is more a map of the riemann sphere which is CP right? I guess this belongs more in #real-complex-analysis though
i can follow this proof until the very last paragraph where it says “in cases 2,3, and 4, we repeat the argument one or more times”, what would we even be repeating there?
also epsilon is the identity permutation
i actually do understand the proof, and how it would lead to a contradiction, i just don’t get that one part
I assume the part that says "the last occurrence of x is one position further left than it was at the start"? You repeat the argument to keep pushing the x to the left
Let E_1(n) be the matrices that permute rows in a nxn matrix
Let E_2(n) be the matrices that add varying rows in an nxn matrix
E_1(n) and E_2(n) have trivial intersection afaik, so what is their semidirect product in GL(n,F)
They just use F's additive and multiplicative identities so
What does it mean to say that an ideal "meets" a subset of a ring?
non-empty intersection
sean
never mind sorry i got it, just needed to think a bit 👍
i don't understand here why it "clearly suffices to prove that if G is finite, abelian, then G admits a cyclic tower"
did you figure it out
if we have a cyclic tower on G_i/G_(i+1) then we can append {e} to the end, and then pull it back into a cyclic refinement between G_i and G_(i+1) [using the homomorphism from G_i -> (G_i/G_(i+1))]
and then i think we can do this between each pair of consecutive subgroups in the abelian tower
i'm not 100% sure if it works
this looks correct i think
if a_2 is in (a_1), then there is some r such that a_2 = ra_1
but a_1 = a_2c, so a_2 = ra_1 = a_2cr and cr=1, so c is a unit
Tq
I don't know much about abstract algebra and this might be more linear algebra but
Let V be a vector space of dimension n with scalar field F
Let V_B be the set of full-rank basises of V, a subset of P(V)
Let GL(n,F) act on P(V) such that the output is the image of the subset under the partial function of the action.
GL(n,F) acting on elements of V_B is transitive afaik since there is only one change of basis matrix for 2 basis, but my question is: is this action free? in other words, does GL(n,F) permute the set of basises?
idk the permutation group of V_B is isomorphic to GL(n,F) tho
when we consider the bases as sets then we can change the "order" of them without changing the basis. stuff like $\begin{pmatrix} 0 & 1 \ 1 & 0 \end{pmatrix} \cdot \left{\begin{pmatrix} 1 \ 0 \end{pmatrix}, \begin{pmatrix} 0 \ 1 \end{pmatrix}\right} = \left{\begin{pmatrix} 1 \ 0 \end{pmatrix}, \begin{pmatrix} 0 \ 1 \end{pmatrix}\right}$
Denascite
Hi, does anyone get this? I need a hand.
Not algebra, #probability-statistics might be better to ask ig
a ring is boolean if and only if both operators distribute over each other. Fact or fiction?
Is there a way of solving this Diophantine equation using the Euclidean algorithm?
there are other axioms as well
But boolean implies both operations distribute over the other?
Fact.
In fact, all rings have operators that distribute over each other. It is one of the axioms for a set equipped with two operations to be a ring
If you define a Boolean operation V as:
x V y = x + y + xy
And . for usual ring multiplication (x.y is abbreviated as xy here),
x.y V x.z = xy + xz + xxyz = xy + xz + xyz = x(y+z + yz) = x.(y V z)
And since Boolean rings are commutative
x.(y V z) = (y V z).x
For any x,y,z in Boolean Ring R (this makes R also a Boolean Lattice)
Distrubutivity holds.
And as ryu sama correctly said, distributivity isn't the only axiom for a set equipped with two operations to be a ring. With distrubutivity, a ring must be an abelian group under ring addition, and a semi-group under ring multiplication, though some people and authors define the ring to have the multiplicative Identity making it be a monoid under multiplication.
In general if we only see a Boolean Ring, it always has two elements only, since it is an associative algebra over GF(2).
Great example could be Integers modulo 2.
In this also distributivity holds.
x.x V x.y = x V xy = x + xy + xxy = xx + xxy + xxxy = x(x + xy + xxy) = x(x V xy) = x(xx V xy) = (xx V xy)x, for x and y in R.
And for a Boolean ring, xx or x² = x due to idempotency
That is why above xxyz = xyz (for Boolean Lattice)
Indeed
Wikipedia has also nicely explained this, and even nLab. You can also check them out
x+yz = (x+y)(x+z) ?
Not necessarily
Easy calculation shows that for a Boolean ring this is equivalent to xy = xz
If x = 1 and y =/= z then this isn't satisfied
Any non-trivial Boolean ring doesn't have this property
Let $R=K^{n\times n}$ be the Ring of $n\times n$ Matrices over a field $K\newline$
interpret $R$ as a (Left)module over itself$\newline$
~Martin
I am looking for a decomposition of this module into a direct sum of indecomposable sub modules
I found this in my script:
R is a euklidian ring and M a free R-module
then there are indecomposable elements $f_1,\dots ,f_s \in R$ and $t,n_1,\dots ,n_s \geq 0$
such that
$M \cong R^t \oplus R/(f_1^{n_1})\oplus\dots\oplus R/(f_s^{n_s})$
~Martin
i have found theorems that say that this is possible, but not really a way to do it
are you asking for a general procedure to compute this, or are you asking about the case you wrote above, where you view R as a module over itself?
the case i wrote above
R is not a Euclidean domain, it isn't even an integral domain
also, I'm not sure what theorem you're referring to here. It looks kinda like the classification of finitely generated modules over a PID (since euclidean domains are PIDs) but you also state the hypothesis that M is a free module, in which case there are no modules over the form R/(f) since those would be torsion submodules of M
I'm trying to prove that the group of units of the ring of integers of $\mathbb Q(\xi)$ where $\xi$ is a primitve $p$-th root of unity for an odd prime $p$ is a direct product of the set ${\pm \xi^j:0\leq j \leq p-1}$ and a (multiplicative) free abelian group $U\subseteq \mathbb R$ of rank $\frac{p-3}{2}$.
\\
I used Dirichlet's Unit Theorem to show that it's a product of the roots of unity and a lattice, and then I showed the roots of unity are exactly $\pm \xi^j$, now all I have to do is show that $U\subseteq \mathbb R$. The hint I have says to consider the totally real subfield $L = \mathbb Q(\xi + \bar \xi)$ and to compare the rings of integers. I found this field is totally real, with degree $\frac{p-1}{2}$ and hence its group of units is just ${\pm 1}U'$ where $U'\subseteq \mathbb R$ is a free abelian group of rank $\frac{p-3}{2}$, but I can't seem to show that $U=U'$. Any hints?
ShiN
∂∂𝑥 and ∂∂𝑦, are they elements of a Ring or a Vector Space??
I'm not claiming x + yz = (x+z)(x+y). Of course this is not true for non trivial Boolean rings and y≠z.
I'm specifically saying for x(y V z) = xy V xz, for any Boolean ring (more specifically a Boolean Lattice)
If we only see a Boolean ring with two elements, basically an associative algebra over GF(2), then x(x V y) = xx V xy = x V xy also holds true.
Why do we have that matrices over a field are nilpotent if and only if its characteristic polynomial is x^n?
Nilpotent implies that the matrix satisfies x^m = 0 for some m, so its minimal polynomial divides this so must itself be of the form x^k. All factors of the characteristic polynomial appear in the minimal polynomial, so that must also have the form x^n
I don't get the end?
The minimal polynomial divides the characteristic polynomial right?
If you go to the algebraic closure, every root of the characteristic polynomial is a root of the minimal polynomial
ie every eigenvalue is a root of the minimal polynomial
You can use Jordan form to prove it
There's also a more elementary argument
Which you should be able to find easily by googling something like eigenvalues are roots of the minimal polynomial
you can simplify the argument a little if we don't talk about minimal polynomial at all. if a is an eigenvalue of A with eigenvector v, then 0 = A^n v = a^n v which means a = 0. so only root of the char poly is 0.
but yea this requires you to go the algebraic closure or at least the splitting field of the char poly
I think I do get why all factors of the characteristic polynomial appear in the minimal polynomial by working in the splitting field of the characteristic polynomial and using https://math.stackexchange.com/a/101284
To conclude from there, we use that x divides the characteristic polynomial. Is this correct?
Oops I don't think so, I'm lost
We use the fact that x is the only irreducible divisor of the characteristic polynomial, because it is the only irreducible divisor of the minimal polynomial
But use det's argument instead
Much simpler
Oh yes of course, thank you so much!
True, but I wanted to understand yours too haha
Thank you so much @hidden haven and @rustic crown
Np 
Can’t you do something much simpler? If a polynomial vanishes on A then you can evaluate that polynomial at A, multiply by an eigenvector on the right and factor out the eigenvalue vector so you’re left with the polynomial evaluated at the eigenvalue
So in particular minimal polynomial vanishes on all eigenvalues
Works, but if you accept Jordan form then it's a one liner
The minimal polynomial is the gcd of the minimal polynomials of all the Jordan blocks, while the characteristic polynomial is their product
« If you accept Jordan form » is a big if lol considering this could be a result you would prove when you learn about eigenvalues
Hence 
what are the prerequisites to studying differential algebra? it looks interesting but idk if I can learn it yet
should I be familiar with algebras and stuff?
did you get inspired by the talk lol
no I was taking a shit last night and thought like "differential geometry exists, what about differential algebra?" so I looked it up and yeah
I just forgot to ask until now
based
You should probably know what an algebra is if you want to study algebras with extra structure
But there shouldn't be much needed beyond that
alright ty
You use those in symbolic integration actually
use what?
differential algebras
I was reading a book called Symbolic Integration I by Bronstein out of boredom once
that's how I know
i've been asked to find a subfield, $L = K(l_1, ... l_m)$ of a finite field extension $E = K(e_1, ..., e_n)$ such that the minimial polynomials of $\forall i, e_i$ are equal over $L$ and over $K$.
Quarky
this seems impossible to me
my reasoning so far is suppose $E$ is a degree $t$ extension and $L$ is a degree $t$ extension. $[E:K] = [E:L][L:K]$. Some theorem tells us that $E$ is isomorphic to $K$ over a minimal polynomial, and same for $L$. But clearly the degrees can't be equal without messing up the multiplicativity of the field extension degrees.
Quarky
i'm guessing that what I'm going wrong here with is "what minimal polynomial am i quotienting by"
but it isn't clear
What you said is only true for a simple extension
If you.mean that E is K[x] quotient by some maximal ideal (m)
okay, time to stare at it some more
I've already shown that (a) > (b) > (c)
Now I want to show that (c) > (a) but got stuck i think
Is there a simple proof of the fact that the group of units of the subring O of the quadratic extension field is infinite?
I could see it for special cases like √2,√3 etc but not generally
look up pell's equation
In this problem, what does the notation R - {0,1} mean?
- is an alternative to \setminus (in this context)
Ah, okay, thank you!
Np
I mean an algebraic proof of it
