#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 710 of 407
yes, because we're trying to conclude the statement of Eisenstein lemma
And that's equivalent
may I ask how to prove this
Take mod of everything
The leading coefficient is 1 so the degrees of the factors don't change
3x is reducible over Z but it's not reducible mod 2
So a non trivial factorisation in z gives a non trivial factorisation mod p^2
The leading coefficient of 3x is not 1
the statement of Eisenstein criterion doesn't imply that your polynomial is irreducible over Z in general
It does when the leading coefficient is 1
But amelia didn't assume a_n = 1
......
here the coeffiecient wasn't assumed to be 1, it only gets "inverted mod p" to 1
What's Eisenstein criterion then
I wrote that x_0*a_n =1 mod p(x_0 an appropraite integer) is this what you're referring to?
Ah I see
I was trying to ask amelia that and check if the leading coefficient has to be 1. But I got thrown off by what she wrote
she said before that yes, it has to be 1
On Wikipedia it doesn't need to be 1
yes, but they study irreducibility over Q
instead of saying that f'(x) is irreducible mod p^2 implies f(x) is irreducible mod p^2, say that
f'(x) is irreducible mod p^2 implies f'(x) is irreducible over Q, which implies f(x) is irreducible over Q
and that would be it
I tried using the contrapositive, as @hot lake suggested. Does this look right to you guys?
sorry but why? Is there any justification?
Like I said before, you can't prove that f(x) is irreducible over Z from (assumptions of) Eisenstein criterion
so what you wrote must contain some kind of error
oh
yes, I see the error
if f(x) is reducible, it doesn't mean that it can be written as g(x)k(x) where deg g, deg k > 0
that works for fields (when deg f > 0), but not in general rings like Z
:(
example is that f(x) = 2x is reducible over Z, but can't be written as a product of two polynomials of positive degree
I still don't understand how you got this implication relation
well if f(x) is reducible over Q, then it can be written as f(x) = q(x)k(x) as you tried to write it, and we can assume q(x) and k(x) are elements of Z[x] (since f(x) is an element of Z[x])
how is this related to Z mod p^2?
well it's kind of how you wanted to prove this, but we replace Z with Q because in Z weird things can happen
and that q(x) and k(x) are elements of Z[x] is important, because then we can reduce them mod p^2
sorry I'm kind of slow, we have only mentioned fields in one lecture, as this is an introduction to rings and fields course
kk makes sense
In general f(x) = a*g(x) where g(x) is a primitive polynomial and a is an element of Z
and g(x) being irreducible does mean that we can write it as a product of two polynomials of degree > 0 over Z
but we can have this annoying coefficient on the front, that's why it doesn't work over Z
jesus now I know what went wrong I shouldn't have said yes cuz in our textbook a_n doesnt have to be 1

now everything's starting to make sense
Thank you both so much for your patience
🌹
You're welcome
I was studying principal ideals and thought to do a practice problem about it. 2Z (or a subgroup of even Integers, of the additive group contained in a Ring of Integers) is surely a principal (two-sided) ideal according to my research, but I'm unable to properly use the definition of a two-sided ideal here to prove ideal I is indeed a principal one.
Generating element seems a=2 here because I is a subgroup of even Integers
You have to show that the ideal generated by 2 is the same as the ideal of even integers
So you have to show 2 inclusions
Pick an element in one, show that it is also in the other
Also, 2-sided is not important, since multiplication is commutative
Any left or right ideal is automatically 2 sided
I see
Similarly in an abelian group, all subgroups are normal
I am still unable to properly understand this definition of a two-sided principal ideal
Is the definition RaR = {xay | x,y in R} not correct?
That won't be an ideal
Not necessarily closed under addition
The given definition is the closure of that set under addition
I see , thanks 👍
Ahh I get it now, every element xay is always a finite sum of such elements in the set 👍
ok, so suppose our chi is irreducible, then take the 1 dimensional trivial character which is also irreducible. Then <chi, chi_trivial> > 0 since chi(1) = dim V >=2 and chi_trivial(g) = 1. According to orthogonality relations we must now have that the representations of chi and chi_trivial are isomorphic which isn't the case since dim V >=2? Is this valid?
Yes that's the solution I had in mind.
For any nontrivial character the sum of the values is 0 because of orthogonality with the trivial character.
alright, thank you
It's still the case that the group is abelian in the infinite case, that bit of the argument doesn't require finiteness
Because as you say g must be in the center, but then if there was a non central element h then f(x) = hxh^-1 would be a non identity morphism fixing g
Oh yeah obviously you’re right
I should’ve probably actually read what you’d written in full
If anyone read that I apologize
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/741191/composition-of-irreducible-representation-and-surjective-homomorphism why is the first equality of the chosen answer correct? I don't see how you get there so quickly
$\sum_{g\in G} \alpha(\varphi(g)) = \sum_{h\in H} \sum_{g\in \varphi^{-1}(h)} \alpha(\varphi(g)) = \sum_{h\in H} \sum_{g\in \varphi^{-1}(h)} \alpha(h) = \sum_{h\in H} |\varphi^{-1}(h)| \alpha(h)$
Shamrock?
For an epimorphism the fibers all have size equal to the kernel
But |G|/|ker φ| = |H| by first iso, so all the fibers have size |G|/|H|
(α is all the stuff with characters, I just didn't want to write it out)
@fiery berry
Also I think this might be wrong, I wrote some stuff out about Z/p^aZ × Z/p^bZ on a whiteboard which I now realize is wrong. I think it might just be products of cyclic groups of prime power order (which would be even more restrictive!)
Is there name for a Field-like structure which also allows multiplicative inverse for 0?
Riemann sphere comes close by adding ∞ to C and things like 1/0 become well-defined, but here 0 - ∞ remains undefined. Is there no way to close all numbers under addition and multiplication - without creating an exception for 0?
"wheel"
Okay yes correction to this, you actually can't have multiple p_k group factors. It suffices to show there's an endomorphism of Z/p^aZ × Z/p^bZ for a < b which fixes (1,1) but not the entire group. Take φ(n, m) = (n, p^(b-a)n + (1 - p^(b-a)) m). This is a well defined endomorphism with φ(1, 1) = (1, 1) and φ(0, 1) = (0, 1) - (0, p^(b-a)) ≠ (0, 1), so φ ≠ id.
This means the final classification is that if G is a finite group and g in G is such that every endomorphism φ : G -> G fixing g is the identity, then G is actually cyclic generated by g
Which is a much nicer classification
The Riemann sphere is an example of a wheel induced by the field of complex numbers
@chilly ocean Yes, I will look into wheel theory. However, I think Riemann sphere does not have 0-infinity or negative infinity anywhere on it. That's the extension I am looking for.
it does, those are again infinity
depending on how you want to think about it
thats exactly what i needed, thank you
Is there some correspondence between algebraic varieties and ideals of some ring? I think this is Hilbert's null. But I'm not sure
Boy oh boy oh boy oh boy
over algebraically closed fields, that's right. there's a one-to-one correspondence between algebraic varieties (specifically, algebraic subsets of A^n) and radical ideals in K[x_1, ..., x_n], and more
to say the very least
It’s way more than that, once you upgrade to schemes every single ideal gives a different closed subscheme so you don’t even need to restrict to radical ideals
Although to be fair when your ideal isn’t radical life kind of sucks
I think the statement for varieties is a bigger theorem
Like if we restrict to radical things, the affine scheme version is practically definitional
But for varieties this is the content of the nullstellensatz
And for non radical ideals it still feels more like a matter of definitions than a big theorem like the nullstellensatz
Like the proof that I(V(J)) = r(J) in Spec A is entirely formal, bc V(J) now has all these non closed points
This lecture is part of an online graduate course on Galois theory.
We define Galois extensions in 5 different ways, and show that 4 f these conditions are equivalent. (The 5th equivalence will be proved in a later lecture.) We use this to show that any finite group is the Galois group of some finite extension.
a bit before 8:00 Borcherds puts that K = M^G
where G is the Galois group, and M is a field extension of K
he says this is the fixed points, but is there something I'm missing that the notation should be reflecting?
using a group as an exponent seems interesting
does it have to deal with conjugation?
It’s just notation
Like it literally is notation for the fixed points of a group action
I am having trouble with this proof, specifically in (3). I've tried reasoning about this and I understand it when f is separable, but what about the inseparable case
D is the discriminant of the polynomial
when f is separable we have a very neat formula for the norm, but in the inseparable case that formula doesn't work
if f is not seperable both sides are 0
if f is not seperable, then obviously D(f)=0. For the other side, note that f'(alpha)=0 because it's a double root
I have a question. Let $G=S_p$ (permutation group), and $P$ a sylow p-subgroup, so we can assume $P=\left<\sigma\right>$ where $\sigma=(p12\dots p-1)$. Then I'm supposed to show that $|N_G(P)|=p(p-1)$. Any hints?
Porphyrion
doesnt sylow 3 state that $[G:N_G(P)] = n_p$, where $n_p$ is the number of p-sylow subgroups
Pappa
so it would suffice to show that there are (p-2)! p-sylow subgroups
np
$S_n = {n : n^2 - 81n + 1681 = p, n \in \mathbb{Z}^+}$\
Where $p$ is a prime. Find the least $n_2 \notin S_n$.
can anyone of you solve this problem using abstract algebra
I have found a solution using number theory
this definition doesn't make sense, S_n can't be parametrized by n
this is my solution
sorry it should be n'
ದೀಪನು
how can S_n depend on n?
it depends ig
and forgive my set knowledge
just assume that Sn is a collection of some n which satisfies the condition
how can S_n be a set of n
cud u elaborate this plz
$S_n = {n : ... }$ makes no sense
Blitz
aah, how shud I correct it
I don't know
I just want to say that $S_n$ is a set with elements n, such that $ n^2 -81n + 1681$ is a prime for $n\in\mathbb{Z}^+$
ದೀಪನು
you can't use the variable n to denote both the index of S_n and elements of S_n
this is simply ambiguous, who knows how the parameter n comes into the picture
ok simply assume that Sn is a solution set for the problem
what problem
the one I put up
it doesn't make sense
I meant for all values of $n$ such that $n^2 -81n + 1681$ is a prime
ದೀಪನು
yeah, what about them
S contains these values
okay, we have some set S = {n : n^2-81n+1681 is prime}
yep
and you want to find its least element
nah
the least element of its complement*
least x not in S_n and belongs to Z^+
Note that (m-40)^2-81(40-m)+1681 = m^2+m+41
yep euler primes
but can u use abs alge for this?
coz I have solved this using num theory
that's what I meant in the first place!
Is is always true that the characteristic of a ring is the generator of its principal ideal (if there exists one)?
"its principal ideal"?
Sorry let me reframe
Is is always true that the characteristic of a ring is the generator of the principal ideal contained in it (if there exists one)?
There's in general no such thing as "the principal ideal".
Oh
And the characteristic of a ring is not even an element of it, so it cannot generate any ideal.
The characteristic of a ring is the generator of the particular ideal in Z that is the kernel of the unique homomorphism from Z to the ring.
That might be what you're remembering.
Ohh yes that was what I was trying to remember about
Thank you o7
I have a meta-question about infinite galois extensions
So given L/K and on the other hand Aut(L/K)/1
We have the usual galois connection \varphi: H\to Fix H and \psi: E\to Stab E
Iirc we already know that \phi\circ\psi =id, so every subfield in the lattice is already closed in the sense of the closure operator \phi\psi
So it's natural to look at the closed subgroups in the sense of the closure operator \psi\varphi
So it's clear that the closure operator satisfies extensivity, monotonicity, and idempotence
But
- why does it have to form a topology, ie why is the union of two closed sets closed again
- Even further, why does this happen to be a group topology? That's not a pretty strong property for something that just drops out of a galois connection.
(not sure if #point-set-topology would be more suitable?)
Do the closed subgroups determine the entire topology on a topological group?
Because the galois connection just tells us those
Maybe you can prove that the union of 2 such closed subgroups is an intersection of closed subgroups from the connection
Then they'd form a basis of closed sets, and you could look at the topology they generate, which should be a group topology because nice basis
But you'd have to show that this coincides with the Krull topology? Unless this is how you define the Krull topology
What do you mean by topological _sub_group
We just have one topological group, we're not really considering all field extensions between L/K at the same time when we look at this one galois connection, right?
I need to look up the precise result but afaik these closed sets already form the entire topology of the group
ye I meant topological group
I will take a look at the details later. I think looking this result up will clarify things, perhaps it's just a base and I was wrong.
Usually you'd define the Krull topology in other ways, then show that the closed subgroups in that topology correspond to closed elements of the lattice
Union of 2 subgroups can not be a subgroup in any non trivial cases, so it's not even a basis
Lmao you're obviously correct
Thanks
Hey guys! I was doing some representation theory and noticed that my characters aren't irreducible... I wonder what would be my next move to decompose them?
I thought about finding invariant subspaces of V (the vector space) but I am kinda stuck
are \Q and F_p the only base fields?
or is it possible to have base fields that aren't countable/etc and if so what's their name?
Base field is just any field when you’re considering a field extension
Q and F_p are the prime fields / prime sub fields because every field is an extension of exactly one of those fields
But eg if you’re thinking about C as an extension of R then R is the base field
oh weird, idk if I've been taught that base field = prime field or just assumed it myself, but I always thought they were the same
good to know
because every field is an extension of exactly one of those fields
but yea that answers my question
weird to know you can't construct different prime fields, but neat
Uniqueness follows because what your prime subfield is determines the characteristic
F_p iff char p
And Q iff char 0
ah yea
As chmonkey says there are very natural.
If you have a field $K$, the canonical morphism $\mathbb{Z}\to K$ factors as $\mathbb{Z}/p\mathbb{Z}\to K$ with $p=0$ or prime. Using the field of fractions property you get a morphism $\mathbb{Q}\to K$ or $\mathbb{F}_p\to K$ induced by $1\mapsto 1$
Adrien
any tricks for the galois of a somewhat arbitrary polynomial?
i can prove it has 3 real roots and 2 complex
so it's a direct product of \Z_2 and some subgroup of S_3 right?
or is it more complicated than that
You'll need to be more careful. if your polynomial is irreducible, for example, you can show that it has galois group S_5
Suppose $M$ is an $R$-module, where $R=\mathbb{C}[G]$ is a group ring. For any $x\in M$ can we have an isomorphism of the form $$Rx\cong Ry\oplus Rz\oplus T$$ for some $y,z\in M$ and $T$ some torsion module?
K零ꓘ
Take y = x, z = 0, T = 0 🤡
If things aren't allowed to be 0 you should be able to get a counterexample by taking G to be the trivial group/taking action of G on M to be trivial and then the given decomposition can't happen for dimension reasons
@hot tinsel
i phrased it poorly, I am given a group $G$ acting on $M$, so like my beginning choices are fixed. Now i want to show that direct sum of cyclic modules is not cyclic.
K零ꓘ
well if y and z are given then the internal direct sum of Ry and Rz may not exist
if they are already linearly dependent
Is it that you want an example where this happens?
I apologize for the vagueness, I am like trying to do something and I thought to see the problems in a module setting. So can a cyclic module be decomposed as internal direct sum of cyclic submodules? In the case when $M$ is a complex vector space as well?
K零ꓘ
Yes it should be. Take G = C_3 = {1, x, x²}. Look at R = ℂC_3 as an R module. This is cyclic, but decomposes as the direct sum
R(1+x+x²) ⊕ R(x-x²)
I hope this is right, do check the final decomposition
Thanks a lot i will try checking the details
How do I prove that if a module is flat then it disappears on Tor_n(•, B) for all n > 0?
Surject onto it with a free module (or something you know has no Tors), and stare at the resulting LES very hard
Thanks, got it. That was pretty cool
(b) < (ai) < (b) so (b) = (ai) for all the latter ai
primes are non units
@sharp sonnet wym
wait i misread lmao
replace the word prime with irred
irreducible elements are not units
so 1 = rx has no solution in x
so its not in the ideal generated by r
(r) cannot contain 1
yes
Why is P principal
@chilly ocean what ring is R
Commutative ring with unity
Then it doesn't have to be principal iirc
In k[x, y] where k is a field the ideal (x, y) is maximal but not principal
What does (x, y) mean
Ideal generated by x and y
We need some assumptions on R
What does that mean
I assume PID or smth given what was said about ascending chain conditions?
The smallest ideal containing both x and y
So my professor said that $\left(\mathbb{Z}/9\mathbb{Z}\right)^{\times} \cong <2>$. This is not correct right? Because $2^3 \ne 1$, and $2^2 \ne 1$, and also $2^9 \ne 1$.
Évariste Galois
Consider 2^6
Yeah 2^6 is 1 mod 9
So $<2> \cong \mathbb{Z}/6\mathbb{Z} \cong \left(\mathbb{Z}/9\mathbb{Z}\right)^{\times}$. Right?
Évariste Galois
Seems like it
Ok, i was a bit confused because 2^6 = 1 mod 9 not mod 6
I’d just work in (Z/9Z)* directly ngl
Going through Z/6Z seems like a hassle
Especially since I’m assuming you’re taking Z/6Z as an additive group which confuses my brain when it’s mapped to a multiplicative group 
Yeah that is probably better; I have another question tho, more related to galois theory. I need to prove or disprove wether the 36-gon can be constructed with ruler and compas starting from the subset ${0,1,\zeta_9 + \zeta_9^{-1}} \subset \mathbb{C}$. I know that the 36-gon is constructible as 36 is the product of a power of two with the product of distinct fermat primes; more precisely, $36 = 2^2 \times (2^{2^0} + 1)(2^{2^0} + 1)$. But how do I approach it with the set above?
Évariste Galois
36 is not a product of a power of 2 and distinct fermat primes
Because 3 and 3 are not distinct
So it can't be constructed just from {0,1}
Lol how could i not see that. So how do I know if it can be constructed from {0,1,\zeta_9 + \zeta_9^{-1}}? @runic hemlock
it can
because from Re(zeta_9) you can get zeta_9 (just build a perpendicular and intersect with the unit circle), and now just bisect the angle (zeta_9, 0, 1) twice
So let me see if I understand what you mean. So, zeta_9 = cos(2pi/9) + isin(2pi/9), and zeta_9 + zeta_9^{-1} = 2cos(2pi/9), so since you can construct cos(2pi/9) by dividing 2cos(2pi/9) by 2, you obtain that you can construct the real part of zeta_9. Then, if you build a line perpendicular to the real axis going through Re(zeta_9) you intersect teh unit circle exactly at zeta_9. Then, a line going through the origin and through zeta_9 will make an angle, say alpha, with respect to the real axis. Finally, if we bisect alpha, which is possible, we get zeta_18; bisecting it again, we obtain zeta_36. So, we may construct the 36-gon.
Is this a good argument @runic hemlock ?
yes
Nice, this really helped. Thanks!
is bourbaki still readable for algebra?
It's most likely not
yeah I guess so xd
It's very readable but it depends of your goals
It's not a standard textbook
Well, it would be mostly for references
Hello. Is there a simple and intuitive proof of the fact that the countable direct product of Z-module Z is not free?
What if you just prove that it's not projective
It will be good if it has a simple and intuitive proof.
Yeah, exactly
Well if you just take product of Z and then a map into the free sum on the generetors, how would you extend it to the whole product?
By generators I mean that 1 is only on one coordinate and the rest is 0
On the free sum it has to be the identity, right
But say, what does something like (1, 1, 1, ...) gets mapped to
Let's think about it
Hmm... I don't think this approach really works
If it's not here then it probably doesn't exist
orbits of H in X means {hX : h in H} or {xH : x in X} ?
Oh god I read this construction last month it's so damn awful 
I think it means the first one
I would also recommend looking at Serre instead of Lang 
It also has this construction
this is Serre
Wow this is indeed impossible to read
What is A…
Also X/H suggests orbits means the second option?
Oh damn lol
At least no undefined variables in this one but this is way too beginner unfriendly still
oh my bad
Ye the set of orbits is {Hx : x in X}
What would be more beginner friendly? I think its just the notation that kills it
Thanks!
Haven’t looked at abstract algebra textbooks in a while, someone else should answer that
My rep theory course used lang and it was horrible
Serre was a million times better
But this section is still horrible lol
Lang gives this construction as an exercise
Ikr, I have to concentrate to figure out what’s going on in that screenshot
And I’m not a beginner
Ok I kinda need help understanding what's going on in there. I don't understand the orbits
Like Hf = {hf : h in H} and f in Hom(A,C)
take f1, according with that construction we have (h f1) (a) = f1(h a h^-1) for all h in H which is again a function in Hom(A,C) since A is a normal group
What I can't see is how does h would "change" something in f1
Because class functions are constant on conjugacy class this wouldn't change anything? But then how many orbits would we have?
Can we describe such orbits?
Conjugacy classes of A, but now you are conjugating by something in H
Maybe take a small example of a semidirect product and see what the construction gives
I haven't tried that myself but I assume that would give some idea
Good point
uh what?
When you say constant on conjugacy classes, you mean f1(a) = f1(b^-1 a b) for all b in A
But now this b is in H
Because you started with a character of A
oh I see
yeah
indeed
I think I see how it changes
Thanks
Will do some example
I have a basic question about working with modulo integers. There's a question from dummit here:
Would I be allowed to do the following in a proof?
Let $b = \dfrac{n}{gcd(a,n)}$ (which satisfies $1 \leq b < n$ since $gcd(a,n) \leq n$ and $1 < gcd(a,n) $), then
\begin{center}
$ab = a\dfrac{n}{gcd(a,n)} = \dfrac{a}{gcd(a,n)}n \equiv \bar{0}\cdot\bar{1} = \bar{0}$.
\end{center}
Suppose by contradiction there exists $c \in \mathbb{Z}$ such that $ac \equiv 1$ (mod $n$). In other words $ac = nx + 1$ for some $x \in \mathbb{Z}$, then
\begin{center}
$\dfrac{ac}{gcd(a,n)} = \dfrac{nx+1}{gcd(a,n)}$
\end{center}
\begin{center}
$\Rightarrow \dfrac{a}{gcd(a,n)} \cdot c = \dfrac{n}{gcd(a,n)} \cdot x + \dfrac{1}{gcd(a,n)}$
\end{center}
\begin{center}
$\Rightarrow \bar{0} \cdot c \equiv \bar{0} \cdot x + \dfrac{1}{gcd(a,n)}$
\end{center}
\begin{center}
$\Rightarrow \bar{0} \equiv 1$
\end{center}
resulting in a contradiction.
HimmyHow
you should use judson
What's judson?
Oh okok, thank you for the recommendation!
yeah it's really nice for beginners.
what's the difference between product amd intersection of ideals
wikipedia says it's encoded by the Tor functor but i don't really get it
Well, product is contained in the intersection
But converse doesn't have to hold
For example, take (x)
In k[x]
Then (x)^2 = (x^2) is a proper subset of (x)
That wikipedia line seems interesting can you send the full quote
Or is that all it says
I guess Tor(R/I, J) is the kernel of the multiplication map I ⊗ J → J
Follows from tensoring the exact sequence 0 → I → R → R/I → 0 with J
And using the fact that multiplication R ⊗ J → J is an isomorphism
But if every ring is a domain anyway then the kernel should be 0 🥴 so what does this even do
No this is wrong not everything is a pure tensor lol
You probably heard this one already but I learned Algebra from groups to fields using Dummitt and Foote. With it, since it is so popular, you are able to get solutions for proofs which is absolutely amazing and not something you have for less known I guess.
0->a->R->R/a->0 is exact
It leads to an exact sequence
0 -> Tor_1(R/b, R/a) -> R/b tensor a -> R/b -> R/b tensor R/a -> 0
I guess you need to manipulate this sequence now
Tor_1(R/b, R/a) is isomorphic to kernel of the map R/b tensor a -> R/b tensor R
Given by Id tensor inclusion
R/b tensor a = a/ab -> R/b as Moldi noticed so this is just (a \cap b)/ab
Consider a ring homomorphism f from Z×Z to Z, which in terms of Binary Relations is defined as:
f = {((a,b),c) | (a,b) in Z×Z and c in Z, c = b, b=a}
It's kernel is {(0,0)}. From what I have researched is that the cokernel of this homomorphism is Z/im(f).
Since Z is an abelian group under addition, it's subgroup {(0,0)} under addition is a trivial normal Subgroup of Z, which is the smallest amongst all other normal subgroups of Z (although any normal subgroup of Z might work here). The underlying set of the subgroup is also the image of the kernel of f. This subgroup is also an ideal in Z.
Hence, the cokernel of f will be:
cokernel(f) = Z/im(f) = {a + im(f) | a in Z}
Infinite cosets will be formed here, each singleton containing a distinct integer. Hence the quotient ring which is the cokernel will be {...{-2}, {-1}, {0}, {1}, {2}...} or just {...-2,-1,0,1,2...}
Is my notion of understanding cokernel correct? What does it really indicate here?
This is not a function from Z x Z to Z!
That is the wackiest way I’ve ever seen someone “define” a “function”
I'm confused now lol
Like for every (a,b) in Z × Z, there exists c in Z
If ((a,b),c) = ((a,b),d), c=d
We cannot treat (a,b) as a single entity?
The problem is that your function is only defined on pairs of the form (a,a)
Yes, we can, it’s an element of ZxZ
Because you imposed that condition in the set definition
So considering a ring Z × Z with only pairs (a,a), will it be a ring homomorphism then?
Then it won't be called Z x Z, but yes
The ring of pairs of integers of the form (a,a) is isomorphic to the ring of integers
(a,a) ↦ a
a ↦ (a,a)
are homomorphisms that are inverses of each other, so are isomorphisms
Ohh I see
Thank you very much 👍
Wait so is my cokernel correct?
I guess both the kernel and cokernel are trivial and the homomorphism is also bijective, so it could be correct
Hi guys
This is my working for question 1 im not sure if im doing this right at all
Can someone tell me if it is
what kind of question is this lol
"for which sets does it have an identity" for the ones that have indentity?
This seems alright to me.

it's asking you to find which sets S are such that this operation has an identity element
Yeah @pastel cliff I think you misunderstood the question.
my take is you're not going back to the definition of what an identity element is and writing that out to see what happens
rational root theorem might be helpful here
for e]
Oh oops yeah I didn’t check E. Just use RRT.
I just used the fact that since it’s irreducible in F_3 it would be irreducible over Z
Or you can use some other irreducibility lemmas like Eisenstein.
Since f is monic
an identity for a law of composition is an element e of the set S s.t. for all elements s of S, es = s
okay
And 3 is prime
Yeah that works too great job bruh
Thanks
the law will have an identity if there's an element that satisfies this
what i mean is like
the sets for which that "law" (im just thinking of it as an operation) has an identity are just the ones that have such an element that satisfies es = s for all s in S
or maybe i need to be more specific to the ab = a operation?
im definitely overthinking this lol
yeah keep going
I mean isn’t the identity commutative too? We need ea=ae=a
true, but what they wrote was sufficient for making an important discovery so I didn't want to side track with that until after
Oh okee
i'd be rich if you gave me a dollar every time someone posted "i mean (solution to the problem)" in this server
Oops

i get it tho
this is what happens when i get cocky when starting a book on something i kinda know lol
Any hints for exercise 2
focus on combining this @pastel cliff
Can i use eisensteins criterion here
all you need to show is that it is not reducible
Thanks
so close
sure, not the terminology I'd use but sounds good
set with one element 
appreciate the guidance
i took an algebra class this past semester but then did 0 math for like 3 weeks so now im trying to do most of the problems in Artin 
will be in here frequently
I like artin, it's a good book for review, and if it's ever too terse or whatever you can always look at a different book
it seems to focus a lot on LA
at least early on
idk if i like that or not
kinda embarrassing that the ch1 problems are taking some time too kek
well it's good you're attacking them head on and not running away from them lol

What book is this
trying to stick to the idea that there are no bad problems, only ones i can do and ones i can learn from
Artin
Oh that’s a good one, you’ll have fun for sure
Good luck in your study of AA broskie
merci
this is more of a meta question but is this a valid proof by contradiction? like should i be more explicit about it being contradiction?
im trying to make my proofs shorter (i tend to be overly verbose)
yeah i changed that to distinct
really you don't even need it to be a proof by contradiction, you've just shown that if there are two inverses then they are necessarily equal
you can make it shorter 😉
proof by "because I said so"
proof: "see p. 87 of (ancient book lost to library burnings)"
i love these
actually this is unintentionally a good example of what i mean
should i have statements like "we can see that this is a contradiction since..." or "this contradicts our original assumption and thus..."
are these usually redundant or is it just author's preference
if you're submitting it as homework then you might want to include them
i'll take that to mean it's preference
but nah im just reviewing easy stuff and typing up for practice
Hello
- Is to show that A is a subring of Q and I had to determine A* which I did
For the second point, I have to show that m is a the unique maximal ideal of A but I struggle a bit
Can someone give me a hint pls ?
You only have to show that the sum of 2 non-units is also a non-unit (why?)
Does the first isomorphism theorem hold for Lie groups? As in like, does it respect the topology of the manifolds?
Whenever you have a quotient by an equivalence relation ~ defined for any kind of object X, the following holds
There is a canonical "quotient" map
X → X/~
which respects ~ (equivalent things have the same image)
such that whenever you have any map
X → Y
that respects ~, there is a unique map
X/~ → Y
making the relevant triangle commute
If this is what you mean by the first isomorphism theorem, then yes. But the induced map X/ker(X → Y) → im(X → Y) will not be an isomorphism in general. If X → Y was surjective to begin with, this new map will also be surjective. If ~ was saturated with respect to X → Y (meaning 2 elements with the same image must be equivalent) then this map is injective. So if both hold then you get a bijective homomorphism. So if your first isomorphism theorem is about the isomorphism im f = X/ker f, then it reduces to the question of whether there exist bijective homomorphisms of Lie groups that aren't isomorphisms
So if you take G to be discrete top on ℝ so 0 dimensional Lie group and H to be ℝ with usual manifold structure, then the identity map works as a counterexample
lee's introduction to smooth manifolds
ahhh yes so the generalisation of the first isomorphism theorem is something akin to the path lifting lemma
Oh I was talking about maps of Lie groups of different dimensions in my counterexample 🤦
Thanks Terra and Moldilocks!
Hi. I've been solving this problem for a while. Any hints or guides? Appreciate any help.
A,B,C and D are all block upper triangular (it's still defined for non-square matrices)
a_ij = 0 for i > j
My bad but I don't see links
I've been trying for 1h30 now
I got a lot of things but I can't conclude
Ahh you fine
So the point right is you wanna show the set of non-units form a unique maximal ideal
the set A - A* precisely
Can you see why it’s maximal (if it is an ideal)
Not really
Well suppose it is not maximal
I can't use anything but the definition
Then there exist some ideal J \neq the whole ring such that m is a strict subset of J
But since m is the set of non-units, what does J necessarily have to contain?
Wait a minute pls
I would say 0 but it isn't helpful
1 would be interesting but it is in A*
Well every ideal contains 0
Well m is the set of non-units, J is a strict superset of m
So what does J have to contain?
Got it?
no
1 ?
Yeah exactly
J has to contain a unit
So J has to contain 1
So J is the entire ring
Contradiction! Thus the set of non-units is a maximal ideal
contradiction because J =/= A
Wait pls
How did you see that
Because I developped what does "sub set strict" means
And I got it
But how do you see it
Well m is the set of non-units, J is a strict super set of m
Well so there’s a difference between subset and strict subset right
There is an element of J which is not in A-A*
Ok I understand
Now can you see why this is unique?
There is a detail I want to understand first
Yeah what’s up
Why this element has to be 1 ?
I just know there is an invertible
Then you know ideal is closed under scalar multiplication, so r^(-1) r = 1 is an element of the ideal
Yes exactly
I feel bad
Anyways I'll try this
Oh you are fine
It's some trivial stuff I have to know this
Keep in mind that maximal ideals do not contain units
For now I have that if A\A* is a subset of I_0 or I_0 is a subset of A\A* I have a contradiction
I_0 is the maximal ideal I obtained by supposing A\A* is not unique
Yeah exactly
But now I have to treat the other case
Alright so now you know that if A\A* is an ideal, then it is uniquely maximal
I'm not exhaustive, am I ?
What other case are you worried about?
The uniqueness of the maximal ideal more less comes from the fact that every non-unit ideal is necessarily a subset of m
Okay?
A\A* not a subset of I_0 AND I_0 not a subset of A\A*
But second gives me an element of I_0 a which is in A* so 1 is in I_0 so I_0 = A which is a contradiction because I_0 is maximal
Right so I_0 has to be a subset of A\A*
If it’s a strict subset then I_0 is not maximal
If it’s equal to A\A* then well A\A* is unique
I didn't get that
ok I got it
since A\A* is maximal
then A\A* = I_0 or I_0 = A
first is false since it's strict
so I_0 = A
I_0 not maxi
ok
I can show it with the definition but it seems to be too long
So if you ask that then there is a shorter way
I mean that sounds like a fine proof
So in general the only thing you actually really need to show is that the sum of 2 non-units is a non-unit
The product of a non-unit with any other element in the ring is always a non-unit
When you told me that
This fact is true in any commutative ring with 1
I thought about irreducibility
Huh interesting
I have to prove that A\A* < A first no ?
If you want to know more I guess
subgroup
Oh dear
c:
So to show something is an ideal
You only have to show that it’s closed under addition
And that it’s closed under multiplication by any element in the ring
Now I mean an equivalent defintion 😂 is that an ideal is a subgroup of the additive group and closed under scalar multiplication
But in practice you only have to verify 2 things
Hi, I'm trying to show that the mapping cone of the Hopf map is homeomorphic to CP^2. Any hints?
This sounds more like a question for top?😂
oh whoops wrong channel lol
Lol you fine
Why did I receive a definition like that then
French math be weird?
They call compact “quasi-compact” 😂
Well it’s just an equivalent defintion
The longer defintion might be better from a structural viewpoint 😂
But yeah, this type of ring the question asked you is what’s called a “local ring”, which are rings where it has 1 unique maximal ideal
Maybe it’d help to look into that?
I'm currently trying to convince myself about that
Local rings play a really important role in ring theory bc it turns out you can actually turn a general commutative ring with 1 into a local ring in a process called “localization”. And it turns out many of your favorite properties of a ring (ex. Zero, injectivity, surjectivity) is true if and only if it’s true in every localization of that ring
But that’s really beyond the scope of your course
Btw I'm Belgian x)
Yeah his ring is actually Z_p, which clearly is a local ring with the unique maximal ideal pZ_p. Z_p/pZ_p is isomorphic to Z/p since p=5Z is maximal
Sorry 😂 xD
Yeah exactly 😂 maybe that way would have been shorter honestly
It also conveniently answers whether the unit group is cyclic
Finite fields!
Yeah… it will be so nice if it is from commutative algebra course… so many steps can be omitted…
Yeah my initial suggestion was 😂 to just show sum of 2 non-units is a non-unit
I guess in these later classes you can get very hand wavy
That’s equivalent to the ring being a local ring right
Yeah
I wonder what kind of intro to abstract algebra class toys with a local ring 😂 like that
Z_p = Z/5Z ?
Oh okay that's the limit of my course like Scarlet said xd
Yeah don’t worry about it 😂
Every year I learn that last year was hard because we were not using handy methods to solve exs
Though since your course is teaching you about quotients
Localization is not too far off the tree
It comes with experience. I am sure you will be just fine
It's not about understanding the objects but if I use a property of smth that's isn't in my course I will have to prove it during my exam
Well I mean who doesn’t like an extra lemma written on the exam 😂 Jkjk
With pleasure I'd like to understand localization
xD
Well if you are interested 😂 I think you should look into it
Can we find groups $G$ and $H$ such that $G\times H$ has a normal subgroup $N$ that contains neither $G\times 1$, $1\times H$ or any other normal subgroup of $G\times H$? Basically I'm searching for an example of a product group where the lattice of normal subgroups has an isolated chain (with minimal non trivial element $N$).
MrMonday
Thanks for your help Scarlet
No problem! Glad I was helpful
Hey guys can someone give me a hint for exercise 3?
I might be wrong but C_4 times C_4 has normal subgroup C_1 times C_2, it doesn’t contain any other normal subgroup except for the trivial group
So every element of your ideal is essentially
f(x)(x - 2) + 5g(x)
f(x)(x -2) + 5(integral polynomial) + 5k
Now given some integer polynomials h(x) can you show that h(x) - one of 1, …, 4 can always be decomposed to the expression above?
Hi everyone. I've been solving this for a while. Kindly give a hint on how to approach this problem.
I am planning on taking a course in Lie Algebra next semester would you recommend learning this subject or no 😂
My professor sucks. Moreover it's difficult that you have to master differential geometry and algebra to understand it.
It also depends on whether the class will start with matrix Lie group or you just go straight ahead to general Lie groups
I took a class on analysis of manifolds this semester and my only exposure to “lie things” have been lie brackets, levi-civita connections, and Riemann curvature tensors
You think that’s sufficient enough to start?
Thanks i will work with this
Oh you are right, but that's unfortunately not what I'm looking for. I misphrased what I actually want :/ We get an embedding of the normal subgroups of G times the normal subgroups of H into GxH by sending (N, N') to NxN'. I wanted to exclude all of these as well. Unfortunately C1xC2 is precisely one of those. Ideally I'm searching for a normal subgroup of GxH that is both maximal and minimal in the lattice of normal subgroups of GxH (so nothing bigger except GxH and nothing smaller except 1x1) and not of the form NxN'.
:') very likely
100%
It's one of the most beautiful areas of mathematics imo
Although not a fan of the courses / books that just look at different matrix groups
I know less DG than you and I've been fine
Humphreys is great
Thank you so much!
Representation Theory and Lie Algebra are very foreign 😂 subjects to me but I think it will be great
f(x)=f(2) mod I, and f(2)=r mod 5 for some 0<=r<=4, so f(x)=r mod I
Sure, G=H=S_3,N={e,(12)(45)}
I mean G=S({1,2,3}),H=S({4,5,6})
Oh or simply <(1,1)> in Z/2Z times Z/2Z
is ℚ x ℂ x ℚ x ℂ is isomorphic to ℚ² x ℂ² ?
I just have to define the morphism which moves the components ?
yes
Hello,
1 : Show that [..] is isomorphic to the product of 4 fields which are
Q[X]/(X-1) times Q[X]/(X²+X+1) times Q[X]/(X+1) times Q[X]/(X²-X+1) (I did that question)
I struggle a bit for 2nd one which says :
Determine all P(X) in Q[X] s.t X^6 - 1 divides P(X)²
I found that
X^6-1 divides P(X)² <=> P(X)² mod (X^6-1) = 0 mod (X^6-1)
But from here I don't really know what to say
You're almost there: X^6-1 divides P(X)² iff P(X)² = 0 mod (X^6-1). But Q[X]/(X^6-1) is isomorphic to a product of 4 fields: by this isomorphism, P(X)² = 0 mod (X^6-1) iff P(X)² is sent to 0 in all these fields
So, P(X)² = 0 mod (X+1), P(X)² = 0 mod (X-1), etc.
yes exactly
I found that
But it's useless
because I have that P(X)² is in (X+1) ... P(X)² is in (X²-X+1)
So P(X)² is in the intersection
But the intersection is (X^6-1) 🤣
In french we say "I bite my tail"
use the fact theyre all irreducible
Since they all are fields, there are domains so P(X)mod(X^6-1) * P(X)mod(X^6-1) = 0 mod(X^6-1) => P(X)mod(X^6-1) = 0 mod(X^6-1)
I conclude that P(X) is in (X^6-1)
Don't undo what you did
P(X)² = 0 mod X^6-1 means it 0 mod the 4 other bits
Now, let's see. When is P(X)² 0 mod X+1 ?
Well, it means P(X)² = (X+1)Q(X), for some Q.
Ok, now because P(X)² is a square, in fact, (X+1) must also divide Q(X), so we can say P(X)²=(X+1)²R(X), for some R(X)
And in fact, we now know R itself is a square.
So, P(X)² is 0 mod (X+1) iff P(X) is 0 mod (X+1) iff P(X)=(X+1)Q(X), for some Q.
The same holds for any irreducible polynomial.
So, doing the same argument, P(X)² is 0 mod (X^6-1) iff P(X)=(X+1)(X-1)(X+1)(X²+X+1)(X²-X+1)Q(X)=(X^6-1)Q(X) iff P(X) is 0 mod (X^6-1)
Ah sorry, I didn't read this
This is correct
I've done exercise 6 and now trying to do 7. I'm trying to use previous exercise but can't proceed and maybe I'm not in the right path to follow
Maybe try to show that if u,v are transcendental over F? Then K(u) ≈ K(v)
Hint: a transcendental element is like a formal variable
for 7c) does this make sense? The cardinality of G being less than or equal to 2
@hidden haven @shell agate thanks btw
thx too
but there are normal subgroups that have cardinality greater than 2 so I don't understand
np bud
normal subgroups dont have that property
oops
kk
I'm reading this book on abstract algebra, and they mention that a cyclic group is a group that has an element a such that it is equal to [a], then mention [a] consists of all $a^n, n > 0$. Problem is, then they define the positive integers as a cyclic group of 1 or -1... how? Wouldn't that just be the set {1}?
Duhon
the positive integers isn't a group, do you mean integers?
a^n means applying the group operation to a, n times. the group operation in the integers is addition
Integers relative to addition
Ohhh
Gotcha. They exemplified earlier with multiplication
So I thought we were talking about that still
Thanks
Ok so I showed that K(v) =~ K(f(u)/g(u)) but i don't see how result follows 😦
When i have that morphism
And it isn't precised that it is a morphism of what structure
It is ambiguous right ?
I mean it's gonna be either groups or sets right
"morphism of sets"
Why not rings ?
are these rings?
I don't know
The first question asks me to prove that 1+p mod p²Z is invertible in Z/p²Z
And then I have to prove that the order of that element is p in (Z/p²Z)*
So I guess it is the additive order and then multiplicative ?
rings have an additive identity ("0") and these don't, so all you can say looking at them is that they are groups, under multiplication. so f is a homomorphism of groups
So by Z/p²Z they mean (Z/p²Z,.) ?
$\bZ/p^2\bZ$ is a ring, and $(\bZ/p^2\bZ)^\times$ means its group (under the ring's multiplication) of units
TTerra (ping spam = block)
^ so here it is the additive order ?
group (under the ring's multiplication)
Oh okay
it says "order in (Z/p^2Z)*"
Consider a set of mappings S and a mapping of those into S itself (say integration). I guess S can't be a group because integration isn't a binary composition, and also because some functions can't be properly integrated. What would S be then?
Integration is a linear operator
I guess, but it does map a function (a mapping) into another one doesn't it?
Yes
Well, then I guess it does count as a mapping
But it isn't a mapping that takes 2 values and mixes them together with some rule into a single thing, so what would S even be?
Not a group/semi-group/subgroup for sure
S together with integration?
Yeah
some unary algebra
Well, haven't gotten to that part yet lol
But I'm guessing a similar thing to generators and cyclic groups exist in there?
It means a set A together with operation u:A to A
cyclic groups in something that isn't a group... right
I guess, but is there some definition/notation for it?
for an unary algebra?
Yeah ig
it's just denoted as a pair (A, u)
Gotcha, thanks
There's a general notion of algebra, which is a set together with a family of n-ary operations (where n can be different for each operation)
we can demand an algebra to satisfy some equations, and then this class is called either an equational class or a variety
we can talk about subalgebras of a unary algebra, of their congruences, quotients, products
things such as first isomorphism theorem etc. hold for those as well
Interesting. Well, thanks for the help
Oh. I thought you'd inquire about this more. Sad

but yes, you can talk about generators and "cyclic algebras" in an unary algebra too
by itself this is not a very interesting concept, so to study it algebraically you'd like it to satisfy some equation, like semigroups satisfy associativity for example
hello
I want to describe explicitly what are the elements of order 2 in this set
So what I did is :
I'm searching all the P in Q[X] such that
P²mod(Phi_5) = 1 mod (Phi_5) <=> there exist T in Q[X] : P²-1 = T * Phi_5
What is Phi_5?
Phi_5(X) = X^4 + X^3 + X^2 + X + 1
I noticed that everytime I want to explicit elements of a quotient like this one I often get a horrible equation
i think $\bQ[X]/(\Phi_5) \cong \bQ[e^{\frac{2\pi}{5}}]$
Pappa
isnt the most useful thing ever
Yeah, so in particular the quotient ring is a field.
In my course
I have a property which is "Phi_5 is irreducible in Q[X]"
Of which only -1 has order 2.
Is it useful to know that it is a field ?
Yes, because we know that in a field (or more generally an integral domain) a polynomial cannot have more roots than its degree.
In particular there cannot be more solutions to t²=1 than the two that Q already has.
How did you obtain that equation ?
I have to process all the informations
x²=1 is what make an element have order 2 (if it doesn't have a smaller order).
and here x is an element of Q[e^2pi/5] ?
oh okay
I.e. a primitive fifth root of unity.
I couldn't have found that by myself
So everytime there is a quotient we try to find an isomorphism to see the elements more clearly ?
With a bit of experience you will recognize x^4+x^3+x^2+x^1+1 as (x^5-1)/(x-1) -- so it's the polynomial whose complex roots are exactly the fifth roots of unity, except for 1.
I started from X^5 - 1 lmao
Okay I see
Thanks both of you @tribal moss @cursive temple
Troposphere's solution doesn't use any explicit characterization of (the roots of) this polynomial though, other than that it's irreducible to conclude that the quotient is a field
(But, for full disclosure, the way I convinced myself that this particular polynomial is irreducible was by noticing that its roots are the primitive fifth roots of 1, such that if one extends Q with one of them, the all the others automatically follow. Christophe's class might have followed a different path to that fact, though).
Oh, alright. How I think about this is using Eisenstein criterion
That's how my prof did prove
We used the fact that p divides the binomial coefficient p
k
A nice fact is that every cyclotomic polynomial is irreducible
That looks like the argument Blitz was describing.
Yeah, it's the same thing that I was thinking about
Can I ask what were the intuitions for this ?
I don't have smth similar in my course I think I'm quite curious
well once you know $\Phi_p(X) = \frac{X^p-1}{X-1}$ modding out by it means $X^p-1=0$ and so $X^p=1$ so $X$ is a $p$th root of unity.
Merosity
The general intuition is that Q[x]/(P) where p is an irreducible polynomial, gives Q[alpha] = Q(alpha) where alpha is a complex root of P.
Yes I understood that
Okay I think I will check some proofs for more details
thanks guys
I think you need more. Check out Loring Tu Introduction to Manifolds. He does a great job introducing the topic.
The standard proof of this fact, for n not prime is very cool
Over Q the rational numbers. This is not true for any arbitrary field.
Hi, so I'm confused about the definition of an FG-module. In Dummit and Foote it seems to mean a vector space V with an action FG x V -> V, but in other places it says it's a vector space V with a multiplication G x V -> V with some properties. Why is there a discrepancy?
Or is it actually the same thing by linearity?
It's not the same thing, but by linearity, you can extend it to FG x V -> V.
Ah ok that's what I meant, but essentially the two definitions are equivalent right?
Basically, yes.
Amazing, thank you! 😄
Oh one more question, in this case do they technically mean unital left FG-module?
Yeah, it will usually be a left module. If by unital you mean there is some element e that acts on V as an identity, then yeah.
I see, thanks a lot!👍
Hi, I've been prepping for my final exams and there are a few exercises I've been struggling with, could anyone provide the solutions:
-
Show that there are no group homomorphisms $$\varphi: S_9 \to \mathbb{Z}_7 \times \mathbb{Z}_3 $$ whose image is $$\mathbb{Z}_7 \times \mathbb{Z}_3$$
-
Let $$g = (12)(345)(678)$$ and $$h=(3456)$$ (elements of S8) Show that $$ \langle g, h \rangle $$ has an index two subgroup.
Cursor
For 1, the first isomorphism theorem implies S9 / ker(\varphi) = Z3 x Z7. In particular, |ker(\varphi)| = |S9| / |Z3 x Z7| = 17280, hence ker(\varphi) is non-trivial. The kernel of \varphi is a normal subgroup of S9, but the only non-trivial normal subgroup of S9 is A9, which has order 181440.
yeah, that's where most of the work is hidden anyways
For 2, the not smart but completely valid way to approach it is to compute the order of the <g, h> by writing out elements and then probably using Sylow or something
Yeah, the question says not to do that actually
or at least
it says you can do it without doing that
understandable, i'll think about it a bit more
Hi everyone. Does anyone know what is the centralizer of the lie algebra of the set of upper triangular matrices?
For part a) of the proof can someone explain to me why for the associativity argument. The proof has used the brackets in this way? Like why can't I immediately go from right to left since composition of permutations is associative
We’re proving that composition of permutations is associative. You cannot assume what you’re proving
or can you
Ok why does the proof use the brackets in this order
like what is the reasoning behind it
I'm assuming the action you have from Sym(S) to S is a function written x -> xf, where x in S and f in Sym(S)
x((fg)h) is the image of x under the element (fg)h of Sym(S)
This is the same as first taking the image under (fg), then the image under h. So, it is the same as (x(fg))h.
x(fg) is now the same as (xf)g
so (x(fg))h is the same as ((xf)g)h
I take x, send it to its image under f, send that to its image under g, and then to its image under h.
Same as taking x, sending it to its image under f, then to its image under (gh)
That is, x(f(gh))
And there we go
(fg)h and f(gh) agree on x
But there's nothing special about x
So they agree everywhere on S
That is, f(gh)=(fg)h
does anyone happen to know what the coproduct in the category of inverse semigroups is?
or if we have one lol
Inverse semigroups can be treated as triples (S, *, ^-1) where (S, *) is a semigroup, and ^-1 is an unary operation satisfying the equations x = xx^-1x and x^-1 = x^-1xx^-1
Since they're an equational class, I think that necessarily means they have coproducts
No wait, this doesn't tell us about the uniqueness of x^-1 as an inverse I think... so it's a different structure
this article defines them as a variety i. e. equational class
they just need more equations than what I wrote
check this for existence of coproducts - they are also called free products in the context of universal algebra
ok thx. im more interested in an explicit coproduct so ill look at this some other time maybe. exploring some other ideas first
You'd probably want to take your inverse semigroups S and T, take their free product as a semigroups with involution, and quotient by some equations to make it an inverse semigroup
The construction of free inverse semigroup on wikipedia might be helpful
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inverse_semigroup#Free_inverse_semigroups
nicely explained, thanks
IIRC in one half of Birkhoffs HSP theorem you essentially introduce the „Free algebra modulo equations“ (ie congruence + substitution closure), which is a particularly important construction.
Why does the coproduct exist? The coproduct of A and B in an equational theory T is just the free product A\star B modulo T.
Why does the free product beteeen A and B exist? Well, it's just the Term algebra over A \sqcup B modulo the equational theories Eq(A) and Eq(B).
tl;dr you can always force equations to hold and that makes everything work
(Modulo mistakes because ||I'm tired, drunk, and took this course 4 years ago||)
I never got the reason for notation 53
if it's not standard why use it
can anyone tell me why is one allowed to write f(x) like this , as (x-a)g(x) where g(x) has coefficients from F(a)? Pls help I'm going crzay with this...many thanks, algebra is hard.
a is a root of f
So you can just rip away a factor of (x - a)
You can use polynomial long division to prove this
okay, but why deos g(x) has coefficients from F(a)? And how does this help the proof?
Because a exists in F(a)
I’m sure you showed that if K is a field then K[x] is a Euclidean domain
Applying this with K = F(a) let’s you conclude that you can factor out (x - a) inside of F(a)[x]
It helps the proof because g(x) is now of lower degree than f so you can apply induction
actually that does not sound familiar...I'm gonna try to find that in the textbook, but sounds like it makes sense.
I mean
many many thanks
This is just saying
Take p,q
Then you can write p(x) = h(x)q(x) + r(x) where r has degree < q(x)
This is dividing p(x) by q(x) with remainder r(x)
If you assume that p(a) = 0 and q = (x-a)
Then
- r(x) is a constant since it has deg < deg q = 1
And then if you plug in a you see
p(a) = h(a)q(a) + r
But then you get 0 = r
[since r is just a constant now]
So you showed that if a is a root of p, then you can write p(x) = h(x)(x-a)
You might’ve seen this proof in high school or something, or maybe it was just stated without proof but
You probably learned like, if f(a) = 0 then you can write f as (x-a)g(x) for polynomials over the real numbers
yeah
That’s not the theorem
You need it to be a Euclidean domain
In order to do division with remainder
okay
I can try to produce the proof right now
I think the key is that every polynomial (after multiplying by a unit) is monic
a lot of the times I do't remember what theorems I learnt
Probably by induction… 🤔
Yeah I mean there’s a lot to remember
And if you don’t use a theorem you tend to forget it
Okay so let’s try to prove this by induction if you want
I found something that says if R is a UFD then R[x] is UFD
Or you can try to find a proof
Yeah that one is still not what you want
Although that’s super useful
What you want is that if F is a field then F[x] is a Euclidean domain
Basically you just want to be able to do polynomial long division
it'd be great if I could understand it
Okay so

If we induct on the degree this seems good
So the statement is that if you have p(x), q(x) nonzero then you can write
p(x) = h(x)q(x) + r(x)
Where r is lower degree than q
Or 0
So we’ll induct on the degree of p
The thing we want to divide by q, with remainder
So if it’s degree 0 then this is easy
Just let h(x) = 1, q(x) = p(x) and r(x) = 0
The degree 1 case is also pretty easy, and this is kind of how we’ll do the general one but it’s worth writing out
So first of all, if deg q(x) > deg p(x), we can let h(x) = 0, and r(x) = p(x)
Maybe take a second to verify that this works
Also I don’t think we’ll even need induction lol
But whatever
wdym
oh okay
Does the proof make sense so far though?
yes