#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 709 of 407
Évariste Galois
I was thinking for the for the first inclusion I could create a chain of extensions; i.e., $ K \subset K(\sqrt{\alpha_1})\subset K(\sqrt{\alpha_2}) \subset \dots \subset K(\sqrt{\alpha_n}) = K_1$ with $x = \sqrt{\alpha_i}$ for some i, which then means that $[K_1:K] = 2^n$. But to be honest im not sure if this is correct.
Évariste Galois
As x is in $K_1/K$, then $x \in K_1$ but x is not in K; so $x = \sqrt{\alpha}$ for some $\alpha \in K$. Then I would use my argument above. Also, the finite Galois part is alright.
Évariste Galois
Any hints are welcome 🙂
Actually, the chain is wrong, the following is what i meant:
$K \subset K(\sqrt{\alpha_1}) \subset \dots \subset K(\sqrt{\alpha_1})(\sqrt{\alpha_2})\cdots(\sqrt{\alpha_n}) \subset \dots \subset K_1$
Évariste Galois
Is there an easy way to see that $\sqrt{2 - \sqrt[3]{2}} \notin Q(\sqrt[3]{2})$
MasakaBakana
It is easy to see that it has degree at most 2, but I need to see why it can't have degree 1
Consider its minimum polynomial, which is precisely $x^6 -6x^4 + 12x^2 -10$. So $[\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2+\sqrt[3]{2}}: \mathbb{Q}] = 6$. Thus, if it WAS contained, then we would have $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2+\sqrt[3]{2}}) \subset \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt[3]{2})$, which is impossible by their respective degrees.
Évariste Galois
So the degree 6 of that element is actually what I want to find... However, I don't see how you were able to calculate the minimum poly so easily
Yeah i used a calculator lol, im sure there is a better way
Ultiamtely, I want to see that $[\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2 - \sqrt[3]{2}}: \mathbb{Q}] = 6$.
It is easy to see that $Q(\sqrt[3]{2}):Q$is deg 3, so I needed that $Q(\sqrt{2 - \sqrt[3]{2}}) : Q(\sqrt[3]{2}) > 1$
MasakaBakana
if I can show it is > 1, I know it must be deg 2 and I have the deg 6 I want
Im not sure you can argue it that way
You can
Ok, thanks
It satisfies a degree 2 polynomial over Q(cbrt(2)) so it has degree at most 2
MasakaBakana
Yeah but you still dont have that $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2 - \sqrt[3]{2}})$ is an extension of $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt[3]{2})$ right?
Yeah you do
Évariste Galois
we can take the square
Take the square, subtract 2, then multiply by -1
And you have cbrt(2)
So it’s an extension
Fair enough
Oh nice, and then you just have the minimum polynomial of the nested root over cbrt(2) and so by tower law you get the 6. Right?
Idk I’d just try to write sqrt(2 - cbrt(2)) as like
a + bcbrt(2) + ccbrt(2)
The latter is what a generic member of Q(cbrt(2)) looks like
Try to find some contradiction
Maybe square both of them, then start equating stuff and you run into problems)
¯_(ツ)_/¯
Hey @next obsidian could you help me with this by any chance?
I have no idea
I am not good at field theory
Ahh thats too bad
Ultimately would the goal not be to show x^2 is in K?
If I understand what K(sqrt(K)) is
But that can’t be right
Yeah, the definition of K(sqrt(K)) is just weird.
Is it just taking square roots over and over?
If so, what you proposed works I think
Every degree 2 extension in not char 2 is generated by a square root
Using the structure of an abelian 2-group you can get subgroups of order 2^n, 2^n-1,…,1
But then with my argument I get that $|Gal(K(x)/K)| = 2 not 2^n
Yeah, but the thing is that if, say, $x = \sqrt{ \alpha_{j-1}}$, then $|Gal(E_j/K)| = 2^j$ not $|Gal(K(x)/K)| = 2^k$. Because $x^2 \in K$, so $|Gal(K(x)/K)| = 2$
Évariste Galois
Also, just to make sure I am not messing up, if $x \in K_1/K$, then $x \in K_1$ and x is not in K, right?
Évariste Galois
What is the definition of a group being of "exponent 2"? As I understand it, it is just the smallest number a for which g^a = 1 for all g in G.
Can someone give me a small hint for this ? :
Let A be an integrable commutative ring. Show that A contains a sub-ring which isomorphic to Z or Fp for a prime p
there is a homomorphism Z->A where 1->1. consider the possible kernels
i helped you with something similar a while ago in the group case
take the idea from there and do the same thing here
Ok I understood
It's the exact same thing than in groups in reality
I've made note with "groups" and "rings" I should mix them up
Ok I just have to figure out why the order of an element in a domain is always prime
good one to think about
I am gravely confused by the reasoning of why f(x) cannot be factored as a product of polynomials of deg 2. Why can one conclude it like this?( I mean the polynomial of deg 2 could be of the form x^2+ax+b, so why can one just plug it in and conclude like this?
It's because the proof is wrong
As far as I can tell it wants you to plug in t = x^2 to get t^2 - 10t + 1 and then notice that this has no rational roots, as t would need to be +-1 y the rational root theorem
but this doesn't suffice
Take for example
(x^2 + x + 1)(x^2 - x + 1)
If I computed this correctly, this turns into x^4 + x^2 + 1
plug in t = x^2 to get t^2 + t + 1 which has no rational roots
but clearly x^4 + x^2 + 1 factors as the product of two quadratics because I literally started off by writing it that way
okay, thanks for the explanation....so I just assumed it could be factored and arrived at a contradiction. Does this look legit to you?
I didn't fully look over it, but this sort of thing seems right
cool thanks 🙂
I'm not sure if you can actually WLOG b,d = 1, I think you might technically have to handle them both being -1
but this is definitely what you should be doing, this sort of thing is how I've done this many times in the past
ohhhh okay, not a big problem
Send the question here
You mean [ℚ(π³) : ℚ] = 3?
What is π here?
If it's the usual circumference/diameter π then this is not true
If π is transcendental, degree would be infinite
Because all powers of π are linearly independent over ℚ
That is also transcendental
Those should be algebraic. At least of rational multiples of pi
Weird q but for this sort of thing, does exhibiting a factorisation of x^4 - 10x^2 + 1 over R work (using the fact R[x], Q[X] etc are UFDs)?
Like x^4 - 10x^2 + 1 = (x^2 - 5)^2 - 24 = (x^2 - 5 + sqrt(24))(x^2 - 5 - sqrt(24))
etc
I think you can prove [Q(cos(p*pi/q):Q] <= q pretty easily, but stating a general theorem probably would require us to study Chebyshev polynomials like in the answer (or explicit calculations)
tldr I'm not sure
What was your thought process for this?
Nope definitely not.
cos(π/3) is 1/2, so the degree is 1.
cos(π/6) is √3/2, so the degree for that is 2
(and this pattern surely doesn't continue)
I hope I'm not getting ligmad but what number 
f(p, q) = [Q(cos(p*pi/q)):Q]
Yeah.

how familiar are you with computing Galois groups of binomials?
is that a standalone exercise or is it part of something bigger?
@steel crane To compute the degree of an extension of the sort Q(b):Q, you have to find the dimension of Q(b) as a Q vector space. So there are a few things you get immediately from ring theory if b is algebraic over Q:
- There is a map f: Q[x] → Q(b), where x is a variable, defined by mapping x to b.
- ker f is a principal ideal.
- ker f is a prime ideal.
- Since Q[x] is a principal ideal domain, prime ideals are maximal, so Q[x]/ker f is a field.
- By the first isomorphism theorem, Q(b) then contains im f which is a field containing Q and b so contains Q(b), so Q(b) = im f so f is surjective.
- So you need to compute the dimension of Q[x]/ker f as a vector space over Q.
- ker f is generated by a unique monic polynomial, which is called the minimal polynomial of b over Q.
- 1, [x], [x^2], ... , [x^(deg(min poly of b) - 1)] is a basis of Q[x]/ker f.
This gives you the degree of the extension
Now try computing the degrees you were asking for. You just need to find the minimal polynomials of all the things mentioned. The minimal polynomial is, immediately from the definition, the least degree monic polynomial that the element b satisfies
Does anybody have a motivating example of why one would care about an algebra over a field?
How do you define Algebra over a field?
polynomial rings
Maneta, I would basically say it's a vector space with a bilinear product.
Ryu, I'm not sure if you're replying to me but that's actually why I'm curious about (associative) algebras. I've seen them pop up in various type of "nonlinear algebra" topics. For example, I skimmed something about an algebraic version of signal processing. I've seen them other places too.
Is there like a nice structure theorem about them? I have a very small amount of representation theory that I know but I'm under the impression that the representation theory of algebras is studied and that's another thing I'm curious about
all finitely generated algebras are quotients of polynomial rings, that's the first thing i can think of for "structure theorem". it's also not particularly deep, so maybe not what you're looking for
Hmm, I see. I think Lie Algebras (And Lie Groups) have to do something with it and that's related to Physics if I'm not wrong
lie algebras and algebras are different things
Hmm, I remember that Lie Algebras are algebras too, I think the bracket is billinear too
the bracket is antisymmetric, so it couldn't be the product for an algebra.
that said, there is an intersection between the two in what's called a poisson algebra
algebra equipped with an extra lie bracket structure satisfying a leibnitz rule
This is where I remember what I said 🤔
That's Introduction to Lie Algebras of Karin Erdmann and Mark Wildon
Maybe is the definition of "Bilinear map"
i see where i was wrong
i was thinking of algebras as being associative to begin with
you are right
symmetric, not necessarily. that i was wrong about
maybe i spent too much time thinking of algebras as polynomial rings lmao
As an example, the representation theory of algebras is important because the representation theories of groups, quivers, and lie algebras can be stated as special cases of it
The category of representations of a group (resp. quiver, lie algebra) over a field is equivalent to the category of representations of the group algebra (resp. path algebra, universal enveloping algebra) over that field
Associative algebras are just rings which are also vector spaces over the base field at the same time. So this is just extra structure over being one of the 2 things and can be helpful. For example, in topology you can study homology and cohomology, and the construction of cohomology has an extra step, but it is easier to compute just because there is extra structure on the cohomology (cohomology is an algebra, while homology is just a sequence of vector spaces)
What's a quiver? 👀 I have never heard of that algebraic structure
It is not an algebraic structure. It is just a directed graph but you are allowed to have multiple edges between pairs of vertices and you can also have loops at a single vertex
The way associative algebras arise is often as the set of endomorphisms of a vector space V. The prototype for a ring is the ring of endomorphisms of an abelian group A, which has + as pointwise addition, and * is composition (non commutative ring in general). Algebra is sort of a generalization where instead of abelian group, we talk about a vector space, and instead of group endomorphisms, we talk about linear maps
You can replace vector space in the above by module over a ring R, and then you'll get the notion of an algebra over R
So they are also natural things to study, since they arise in a similar way as rings do
@long obsidian
can anyone explain to me the intuition behind the differences between chain complexes and cochain complexes
like I know that they 'go' in the opposite direction but what does that mean precisely
a way of visualising it
That is it. The only difference is the numbering
just reverse the arrows bro 
wew did you watch robot 
I can't post my chitti gifs in here moldi don't taunt me like this
Like a Category 👀
The difference is basically just convention, you could always write it the other way, but sometimes one is way more natural
Like you might start with an object A, then form a cochain complex by embedding A into an A^1
Then something like A^1/A embedded into A^2
ye it's the thing underlying a category, you take a category and forget that there a an arrow composition
finite categories are just straight up quivers
So it becomes natural to have the indexing go A^0 -> A^1 -> …
are infinite categories also just quivers moldi
Other times you start with A and have A^1 with a map A^1 -> A
yes
And then it’s natural to have a chain complex
In the same way that infinite abelian groups are just sets
but the adjacency matrix isn't finite
I can't do funny lin alg to it

With finite category, do you mean n-category?
I have absolutely no idea what that means
but!
no
I don't
I mean a category with a finite number of objects and isomorphisms
n-categories also have underlying quivers
hahha
spooky
I thought that because when you refer to "Infinity category" you mean this https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/infinity-category
Wait bruh when you said infinity category you meant a category with infinitely many objects?
Oh you said infinite category 
I said infinite 
we stan


Thank you so much! That's something along the lines of what I was looking for
Actually this might be very useful thank you
Thank you also! I have to retake my smooth manifolds qual so hopefully I can get some more intuition out of looking at lee algebras lol
what is this theorem called?
it looks a little bit like snake lemma
but the conclusion is completely different
I guess this is like part of the zig-zag lemma
What does "multiplication in K[G] extends that in G" mean?
is it that $a_s s \in G$ ?
mns
$$\sum_{s\in G} a_ss\cdot \sum_{s\in G} b_ss = \sum_{s\in G} \left(\sum_{s_1s_2 = s} a_{s_1}b_{s_2}\right)s$$
Blitz
G can be replaced by any monoid
If you take G = {1, x, x^2, ...} then you get polynomials over K
I would say that product in our algebra is another element in our algebra ?
since as_1bs_2 is also an element in K
nice one, thanks!
Yes. In general we assume a_s and b_s are equal 0 for almost all s
But here G is finite so
We don't have to assume that
Roger that, thanks!
what does it mean by saying left action is affine?
i searched google but didn't get many hits for that
Aut(K/F) probably means the automorphisms of K which fix F
i couldn't imagine any other meaning for it
By default automorphisms fix the prime subfield (Q in the case of characteristic 0 fields, Z/p in the case of char p) so you can think of Aut(K) as Aut(K/Q) in the characteristic 0 case.
K/F isn't a field, it's a field extension 
K/F is a fraction
By definition, a Ring (R,+,×) is a non-empty Set R equipped with two Binary operations '+' and '×' such that it forms an abelian group under '+' operation and a semi group under '×' operation, and '×' is distributive over '+'.
My question is do '+' and '×' specifically define addition and multiplication operations, or could they be any two different binary operations?
they are two arbitrary binary operations
like in the def of a ring there are certian properties that must hold, such as assocsiativy, ,distribuitivyt, etc
between the + and x operation
but there are + and x operations besides teh usual notions of + and x that satisfy these requirements
u can think of the + and the x as more o f just lables
for me personally i like to think of a ring as just an abelian group with an additional multiplication operation attached to it
and this multiplication operatiokn acts nicely with the addition operation nin the group
note however one warning that usually if a group is considered (without a ring), the bin operation of the group will be denoted by multiplication
but if the group is part of a ring structure then it will be denoted as addition
just note that so that u don't like get confused
but both the + and the x mean arbitrary binary operations
Thank you for the detailed info !
By definition, a cyclic group G is a group where an element a in G can be used to express other elements in G as the integral powers of a.
I don't really get the "integral powers of a" part.
Consider a Cyclic group of rotational symmetries of a triangle. The symmetries are at 0°, 60°, 120°,... which can be simply expressed as {0°, 60°, 120°} since 0° is same as rotating the triangle by 180°, rotating by 60° is same as rotating by 240° and so on.
Now how does the concept of "integral powers" come in this situation here?
here the group is written additively
so the meaning of integral powers is not to take powers but instead as multiplication by some integer
so 2*60 is 120 and so forth
in additive groups a cyclic group is one in which every element may be written as an integer multiple of a generator
Ohh I see
Usually a group is written multiplicatively so the meaning of integral powers is indeed taking element to an integer power
Tysm for the clarification 👍
Np
rotating by 0° is the same as rotating by 180°
what is a chain complex with zero differentials?
So i have a chain complex of free abelian groups with differentials d_n
I now have a chain complex (Z_n) where Z_n is the kernel of d_n
a question says let (Z_n) be the chain complex consisting of the groups Z_n with zero differentials
but I can't quite understand what zero differentials means
do the maps just stay the same
The differentials map everything to 0
Yes
And they are 0 on the entirety of Z_n
Because Z_n is the kernel of d_n
oof
ye

quick follow ub
up
If i define B_n to be the image d_n+1(C_n+1) and consider the chain complex (B_n) then the differentials here are also zero no?
I mean possible differentials
Yeah, im(d_(n+1)) is contained in ker(d_n)) restriction on it is 0
So we proved the fundamental theore of finitely generated abelian groups in linear algebra using the smith normal form. Is there a smith normal form over PIDs so that this proof can be generalized to the fundamental theorem of finitely generated modules over PIDs?
I believe it generalises directly to general PIDs
Thank you Moldi I was doubting myself 
Anything for you bro
Given an additive functor on R-modules, do we just introduce a chain complex structure when applied to a chain complex in the obvious way
Thanks I wasn’t sure since we found it using euclidian division
Ye but you'll notice that all you actually need is the fact that gcd(a,b) is a linear combination of a and b
Euclidean division is a way to explicitly compute the linear combination
But existence is enough for SNF
Didn't get the question. Are you asking if an additive functor A → B induces an additive functor Ch(A) → Ch(B)?
The construction for a general PID uses a chain of ideals rather than direct computation of the gcd doesn’t it?
I really need to revise com alg 
We might have seen different constructions then lol
In the end you get a chain of ideals ye
Of the ideals generated by the diagonal entries in the SNF
Yeah, which for Z-modules naturally corresponds to the method using the gcd
Cool
I don't get it
That's just the end result
How can an end result be equivalent to a proof approach
ok lol
That was a stupid question tbh
I mean mine
F
I did not remember the construction being 4 pages long 
Kraft Macaroni
is this true?
iirc Hom is not exact
I think this is right
Wait so it's correct
This is correct
It seems to hold because the sequence is split from what I read
Yes
Split SESs are characterized by equations
If the first map is i and the second is j
You have
ji = 0
And there exists a left inverse i' of i, a right inverse j' of j, such that
ii' + j'j = identity on B
The maps (i', j') constitute a splitting of the SES
Check that if F is a functor which respects addition of homomorphisms (so that F(f+g) = Ff + Fg) then (Fi', Fj') constitutes a splitting of the sequence you get after application of F
Does that make sense?
yeah kinda
oh sorry I meant the first statement
I swear homological algebra is the justification for abstract on this thread
Also the if G is projective part is wrong
G injective right?
It is true for (not necessarily split) SES if G is injective
oh okok
Ah that’s fair
I have a cyclic group of Integers mod 4.
H is a subgroup of G here.
How can I start making cosets of H without them overlapping
,rotate
The group and subgroup is under addition btw
Wait so
Wait shouldn't it be 0?
I'm confused
Ohh wait
It's mod 4
Yeah
Is this right
,rotate
ye
Ty o7
Previously subgroup H had both left and right cosets fully identical, it is a Normal Subgroup of G.
Now using this I tried creating the quotient group. Is my approach right here?
Q is the quotient group here
Yes it is
If it splits you have a map going the other direction, so applying functionality tells you that the map you need to know is surjective has a one-sided inverse
Alternatively you can identity the middle with the direct sum and then it also kinda becomes obvious
Oh shit I missed that the ses is supposed to be split
I don't think so. Because the cosets of H in Z/4Z are ${\overline{0}, \overline{2}}$ and ${\overline{1}, \overline{3}}$.
giannis_money
That looks correct to me
That's what Pencil wrote too
Yes but it doesn't match what they wrote for Q
this is what they wrote
rather than Q = ${{\overline{0}, \overline{2}}, {\overline{1}, \overline{3}}}$
giannis_money
well they use $\overline{0}={0, 2}$ to denote the coset of 0. that's pretty standard. and they don't use the bar to denote general elements of Z/4Z
{0, 2} looks like the equivalence class of 0 to me, like wise for {1, 3}
I don't see the issue ngl
Denascite
but the elements of ℤ/4ℤ are themselves cosets. because here we're finding the quotient group of a quotient group
so?
it's just notation
pretty standard to not use the bar for Z/nZ
or generally whenever from context it's obvious what is meant
hmm.. fair enough i suppose. i guess i'm not used to this sort of notation
I feel like using $\overline{a}$ or $[a]$ is just stuff you use when learning these concepts. later on you just drop that
Denascite
maybe a different example from analysis, do you know L^p spaces?
no
ok then forget it
tbh I still don't know why we don't just use x*N for cosets of G/N from the start
I haven't used overlines or [] since first year as Denascite says
ngl i'm fairly new to group theory so this explains it
in a few weeks or so you'll notice that you don't need the overlines or [] anymore to know what you are talking about. only early on it's useful to not get confused
how are subrings containing the base field a subfield of the extension
They aren't in general, unless they happen to be fields.
(which will automatically be the case if the field extension you're talking about is finite)
It suffices that the extension is algebraic
Right.
But yea in particular this is true for finite extensions
i know that if its finite then it is algebraic
What is the context of your question
For some algebraic field extension of F show that every subring of the extension containing F is a subfield
my approach is to find the inverse of some algebraic element
and showing that this element is an element of the subring
I figured I could use the minimal polynomial in a clever way
well, the smallest subring containing some element alpha is F[alpha]. But F[alpha] = F(alpha)
and i guess since your extension is finite you can induct kinda
oh its an algebraic extension nvm
actually this works to find inverses of any algebraic element
I have a question. If 1, s, ..., s^{n - 1} are distinct and s^n = 1, how might I go about showing that
(1 - s)(1 - s^2) ... (1 - s^{n - 1})
is a nontrivial linear combination in 1, s, ..., s^{n - 1}?
assuming no relations among the s^i except for s^n = 1
my current solution is if it were a trivial linear combination then setting zeta = root of unity would be a contradiction. but i was wondering if there was a more straightforward way to show this
That's an excellent strategy. Note that if a is your algebraic element then the existence of a minimal polynomial tells you that F[a] has finite dimension as a vector space over n.
It this happening in a field? Or integral domain?
And linear combination over what?
well, the s's are elements of a galois group, so they are a multiplicative group but as far as i know they dont have any nice properties in regard to addition other than the fact that 1, s, ..., s^{n - 1} are linearly independent
and i guess i mean linear combinations in the integers
actually wait no, the characteristic of the field could be nonzero, so linear combinations over the integers or some Z/pZ I think?
So we're in a Galois field extension F/K and your polynomial is computed in the ring of K-linear transformations of F?
oh yes
Probably K-linear combinations too, then.
actually i think I realized this is false in nonzero characteristic. If char F = 2, then
(1 - s)(1 - s^2)(1 - s^3) = (1 - s - s^2 + s^3)(1 - s^3) = 2 - 2s^2 = 0
but i think its at least true in characteristic 0
I have a question.
Let G be a group. Show that Inn(G) cannot be nontrivial cyclic.
what is Inn(G) isomorphic to?
G
no, that's not the case, take any non-trivial abelian group for a counterexample
The roots of X^n-1 are 1, s, s^2, ..., s^{n-1} so have the factorisation X^n-1 = (X-1)(X-s)(X-s^2)...(X-s^{n-1}). Divide by X-1 and have 1+X+X^2+...+X^{n-1} = (X-s)(X-s^2)...(X-s^{n-1}), sub X=1 and then you're done. Except the claim obviously isn't true for some characteristic and some n as you already said. I am kind of guessing what your question is a bit since it lacked some details
I don't think that works in the context Frank gave afterwards. The ring s lives in is not nice enough to be sure we have the only roots of X^n-1.
you saying I can't just solve the problem I want instead of what was asked :p
Consider that Inn(G) is isomorphic to G/Z(G) where Z(G) is the centre of G, see if you can come to a contradiction by assuming this quotient is non-trivial and cyclic
Ty
I see thank you for giving me an insight on this.
is it ok if we have lines crossing in a subgroup lattice
Yeah for sure
After reading this definition (source: Wikipedia), is it necessary that the group has to be additive [(R,+) here], resulting (I,+) to be additive too?
I previously asked a question here and thanks to JustKeepRunning's answer, a Ring can have two arbitrary operations other than addition and multiplication
In that sense, can we define an Ideal with an operation other than the addition operation?
Oops here is the screenshot
As two different binary operations:
+: S×S -> S
. : S×S -> S
Acting on a Set S
Basically maps an ordered pair to an unique element in S
Right. Then I don't get your question. You can define a ring in which the "addition" operation is denoted £ and the "multiplication" operation is denoted ✓, as the symbols used to denote these operations are irrelevant
Ohh
Basically, I asked does it has to be the usual addition and multiplication operations in math
Nope. You can define rings such as
R = {True, False}
- = Exclusive or
. = And
Boolean operations
And you can check that this forms a ring
Ohh
But we don't have any numbers around
I see, thank you for the clarification 👍

how do you say abelian group in the group presentation
like I have <a,b,c|a^2 = b^2 = c^2 = 1>
am i just supposed to include all the ab = ba
and what not
That would get tiresome fast but that's certainly a way to do it
is there a better way
You could always write [a, b] = 1 instead
hmm im not familiar with the notation
And not include "=1" part since it's not needed
It's the commutator
ahh ok
<a, b, c|a^2, b^2, c^2, [a, b], [a, c], [b, c]>
my task is to find the distinct cosets for
$K=\mathbb{Q}[x] /\left\langle x^{2}-1\right\rangle$
i use the division algorithm applied for F[x]. and get
$K=\left{a+b x+<x^{2}-1>: a, b \in \mathbb{Q}\right}$
is this what it mean of distinct cosets?
Ji
all the polynomials in this quotient ring are of degree 1
the way i wrote this down in my homework assignment is that x^2 -1 = 0
in the ring
and so x^2 = 1
and thats exactly what you have
so yeah
i would agree with your answer
oh nice, thankss
@charred flume yes, each element of Q[x]/(x^2-1) can be written uniquely as a+bx+(x^2-1) using Euclidean division
Those are all the cosets, with no repetitions
how do you find the basis of $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{3}+\sqrt{5})$ over $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{15})$
Ji
i can solve it if it's over Q
but i dont understand how to do it in like $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{15})$
Ji
is it the same?
[Q(sqrt(3)+sqrt(5)):Q(sqrt(15))] = 2
meaning the first 2 basis of Q are the only basis?
So basis is just 1, sqrt(3)+sqrt(5)
please request a new nickname
How do we find the minimal polynomial for this?
My classmate was telling me of a way using a system of equations, but it doesnt really make use of the theory.
The original approach I had was to use the automorphisms of $Q(2^1/3)$ but this extension isnt galois
imma just spit
Q(2^1/3,p) is Galois though for p cubed root of unity
and 1 + 2^1/3 +4^1/3 is in this extension
does the identity (1+x+x^2)(x-1)=x^3-1 help?
You can find all the conjugates of this in ℂ, that gives you the polynomial in factored form
Yeah kind of what I did
The polynomial comes out to be ||x³ - 3x² - 3x - 1||
idk why I expanded it out by hand but I checked with Wolfram this is correct 
It's not so bad is it? $1 + \sqrt[3]{2} + \sqrt[3]{4} = 1/(\sqrt[3]{2}-1)$. The candidate for the min poly is immediate by multiplying through by $\sqrt[3]{2}-1$, re-arranging and cubing. The result needs to be checked that it is irreducible (e.g. Eisenstein)
Greenman
In fact since it's a cubic, don't even need Eisenstein. Rational root theorem will do
That is nicer than what I did lol
Don't need either, since we know that this element has degree a factor of 3, and it is not rational
It's not immediately obvious to me that 1+cuberoot(2)+cuberoot(4) is not a rational number, but is my brain lagging?
If it were, then degree of cbrt2 over Q would be 2 or less
because 1+x+x^2 = p/q would then be an equation it satisfies
Ah yes, you're right. Alternatively what you can do is just check x=+/-1 as well for irreducibility if your brain lags like mine
I'm stuck how to go ahead and frame the quotient group.
Should I use equivalence classes and check if one of them is a normal Subgroup of Z and create the quotient group?
You quotient by the equivalence class of 0
That's how you obtain equivalence between congruences and normal subgroups
In yet other words, the definition of your relation R already has the general shape of "how to make an equivalence relation from a (normal) subgroup".
Consider an Additive Group of Integers (Z,+) with (H,+) being the subgroup of Z, where H = {...-2,0,2,...}
H is a normal Subgroup since its left and right cosets are fully identical
After finding the Quotient Group Z/H, I found that for z in Z, when z = 1 and z = -1, I get the same set. Will the Quotient Group for this actually be {-1,0,1} or {0,1} or {-1,0} (with bars on top of each element)
1 = -1 (mod H = 2Z)
So it’s either of the latter two
Well I mean
Okay it is also the first one, but this is using the convention that you just remove duplicates in a set lol
But usually you want to write down distinct elements, so you should stick with one of the latter two
I see, thank you 👍
well actually it'll be {0+H, 1+H} = {0+H, (-1)+H}
Ohh okay 👍
I have a question about derived functors. What's L_0 and R^0 supposed to be. I'm given a definition which plugging n = 0 should mean that I have some map d_0, but I don't have any map like that
The map d_1 is supposed to map P_1 into P_0
It’s just F
and I only have map epsilon which maps P_0 into A after that
However you compute it
It should become the cokernel of the map FP_1 -> FP_0
But the fact that you have P_1 -> P_0 -> A -> 0 exact tells you that the FP_1 -> FP_0 -> FA -> 0 exact
This exactness tells you FA is the cokernel of the map
You’re looking at the homology of the chain complex
FP_1 -> FP_0 -> 0-> 0 -> …
And that ends up being the cokernel of that last non-trivial map
yeah that makes sense, thanks
I mean, they don't assume that the functor F is additive or even anything about its exactness, but I guess it works the same way
H_0(TP_A) where P_A is the deleted complex, so I guess d_0 is just the map into 0
I don’t get what you mean
If you take homology at FP_1 -> FP_0 -> 0
You just get FP_0/Im FP_1
And the fact that this is FA follows solely from right exactness of F
Oh wait are you trying to do this for F not right exact?
If so then you’ll get garbage
You can try to left-derive an arbitrary functor but it won’t be even close to anything useful
Well, the book didn't tell me anything about exactness yet
Then well it’ll still be the cokernel of FP_1 -> FP_0 by construction
But that isn’t going to be anything tractable unless you assume F is right exact
as for additive, I was wondering because if you have deleted complex for example, then isn't it interpreted like P_1 -> P_0 -> 0 -> 0 -> ...
So don't we need F to be additive so that F0 = 0?
I mean
I think no?
0 is uniquely determined by maps in and out of it
It being final and initial and all
Well… idk maybe
But just assume it is additive or take the definition to be the homology of
-> FP_1 -> FP_0 -> 0 -> …
Or something
Or really you should probably just assume F is additive since you’re doing this in an abelian category or maybe an additive one
hmm... well this is just to introduce Tor and Ext functors so I guess I can assume everything is additive anyway
What's the difference between Aut(X) and Sym(X)?
I've seen group actions being defined both as a homomorphism G -> Aut(X) and G -> Sym(X)
Kinda depends on what they’re defined as but if I had to take a guess, Aut(X) = structure preserving automorphisms. So if say X was a group, then group automorphisms. Then Sym(X) = all bijections
But this is a guess, it really just depends on what that author has defined those to be
Ah alright, ty!
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this is my lattice, its missing generator symbols but each element is order 2 and the group is abelian
apparently im missing one more subgroup in the second row, but I cant find it
second row from the top
Look at those elements in the third row that have less lines going up than the others
ahhh
wait, whats the connection between the number of lines and what they're connected to
like, did you immediately look for that
Because on this group every non identity element should be indistinguishable from the others
The group has lots of symmetries
id say this works
Yeah that's good
Couldn't we do that with any even equivalence class of R?
Because, [0] = [2] = [4] = .....
R there means an equivalence relation, not the reals
Let $G$ a groups and $H,K$ subgroups, if i know $d(H)$ and $d(K)$, what can i say about $d(H \cap K)$?
Or x1
what does the d mean?
minimal number of generators
I haven't seen that notion for the number of generators before. Maybe d is for dimension.
But idk if you can say anything about the intersection of the two groups. Its definitely the case that the number of generators is bounded above by d(H) and d(K) lol
It's not true
i've been trying to find a counterexample hahaha
i was pretty sure it was wrong
ah, found one [incorrect]
what do you mean?
Hmm wait I'm being silly
like F(a,b) in F(a,b,c) is not an example
wait
yeah
whoops lol
i was also trying to do something with free groups
bc of the embeddings of large rank free groups in smallrank ones
Yes
i wonder if you can get like, C2 x C2 x C2 as the intersections of two subgroups each generated by 2 elements
wait
isn't this like obvious
no no no
i was wrong
mb
HMMM
oh wait what was it?
Because it says and not or
oh lol yeah
i would like to say on the record I didn't say you were wrong before you called yourself silly :P
I thought at first you found like exotic copies in F(a,b) or something
No lol
wait so
The or question is still more interesting I guess
we can find an example where d(H cap K) < min(d(H), d(K)) and an example where d(H cap K) > d(H)
can we find an example with d(H cap K) > max(d(H), d(K))?
yeah
hahaha
also a cool thing this made me find out: the intersection of two subgroups of the fundamental group corresponds to the pullback of the associated pointed covering spaces
woah!
oh wait I actually did have a problem related to this I think
in my intro group theory course
that the kernel of the map G * H -> G x H is free of rank (|G|-1)(|H|-1)?
I think?
Oh actually this tells us you can't have an intersection subgroup of rank 3 from intersecting two rank 2's
That's wild
Yeah shamrock that actually makes sense, pullbacks are intersections in a category of open sets
Right
yee
I was thinking about something else involving pullbacks in lattices today actually but i forget what it was
(yes I know they're meets)
(I was thinking about some specific lattice)
Right I guess it's just because the thing you're mapping too doesn't matter because of the join, so any pair of arrows is going to factor through the join
So you may as well do the pullback of the join
right
i had another thought like this recently, this = "reframing something simple (intersections) in terms of something complex (category theory)"
you know how a scheme map X -> S can be thought as like a family of schemes parameterized by the points of S, namely the fibers?
like if X = Spec k[x,y,t]/(xy - t) and we project out the t-coordinate onto Y = Spec k[t] then the fibers are the different sets xy-c for c in k, and this is like a family of hyperbolas degenerating into two intersecting lines?
Not really
oh
well then instead of what I was going to say, this is just a cool thing to think about
imo
like X = Spec k[x,y,t]/(ty-x^2) over Y = Spec k[t] is a family of parabolas, but as t goes to 0 the two halves get closer and closer together
and then at t = 0 they fold up into a single line
So the scheme that lies above a point c is Spec k[x,y]/(xy-c)?
For the first example, yes
and on the algebra side this is because $k[x,y,t]/(xy-t^2) \otimes_{k[t]} k[t]/(t-c) = k[x,y]/(xy-c)$
Shamrock?
this is actually because of how fiber products work. the inclusion of c into the line A^1 = Spec k[t] corresponds to the ring projection k[t] -> k[t]/(t-c), and (using intuition from set theory/topology) the fiber of f over a point p should be the pullback with the inclusion of p
and pullbacks of schemes correspond to pushouts (tensor products) of rings
but yeah just thinking in terms of like setting t = c is also good
like that's the geometric picture
oh sorry I mean xy-t not -t^2
typo sorry :(
so the ty-x^2 thing is also really cool
the parabolas whose two sides degenerate into a line
and this is because at 0 you get x^2 = 0, which isn't just a line but a line with multiplicity two!
the ring k[x,y]/(x^2) sort of "remembers" that it's coming from the degeneration of of two halves of a parabola into one
Yeah so there's not really a single definition of multiplicity
like "double line"
because we can have different ways of doubling it
like $\mathrm{Spec} k[x,y]/(x^2, y)$ versus $\mathrm{Spec} k[x,y]/(x^2, y^2)$ versus $\mathrm{Spec} k[x,y]/(x^2, xy, y^2)$
Shamrock?
(note that (x^2, xy, y^2) = (x, y)^2)
wait
that last one is wrong umm
i think i have fucked up
okay first off for the yt-x^2 example we actually Spec k[x,y]/(x^2)
Spec k[x,y]/(x^2, y) would be a double point 🤦♂️
well, what I said is still true but it's about doubled points not doubled lines haha
the first one is like the origin in A^2 but it remembers a tangent vector in the x direction, the second one is like the origin which remembers a tangent vector in both the x and y direction, and the third is like the origin but it remembers the entire tangent space?
I think that would be right
okay i jumped ahead to something there
i think i'm too stoned to give this explanation justice emma sorry :(
it is really cool and useful to think about scheme maps as parameterized families of schemes tho
also true in differential geometry and kind of for fibrations too
in differential geometry you have like smooth families of maps being important for transversality
very possible!
I'm just writing out everything and it's kind of working
idk
I should do more of that actually
What paper do you want to read
I'm triyng to find it sory
something about proving basic things in ag about sheaves using internal logic
I'm reading a paper by Steve Simpson and his student Basu about the muchnik topos
Yeah I've seen those sort of things vaguely
Although I don't understand it
The muchnik topos is basically the sheaf topos on the muchnik degrees viewed as upwards closed sets of turing degrees
So basically all of the upwards closed sets of turing degrees form a topology on the Turing degrees
And you just look at the sheaf topos on that
Basu got his PhD basically for coming up with the idea it seems
i think it was this https://arxiv.org/abs/2111.03685
cool!
lmfao
Yeah I feel weird about that
I really need to know that theorem about turning classical theorems to intuitionistic
like the thing that says if you can prove P classically you can prove ~~P intuitionistically?
Idk let's see
I'm looking at the theorem that says that a geometric formula holds at a point implies it holds on a neighborhood
That's really neat
Because that says that the set of points it holds on is open I guess
And here's an interpretation
I think
It defines a map to the subobject classifier
And the preimage of false in that should be closed
oh
But this seems plausible
like is this defining an interpretation?
it seems like the subobject classifier is like the object of truth values
if im using my meme brain
Okay so the subobject classifier is the open sets I think
Is that true? I saw that in that paper I was reading
Like we are looking at sheaves on X
idk I'm also just reading slides rn lmao
oh that seems suspicious
umm what about the constant sheaf with stalks {0,1}?
that would make sense
so a map phi : F -> {0,1}_
should tell us a subsheaf
we could let G(U) = { f in F(U) : phi(f) is the constant 0 function }
is this a subsheaf?
yes!
One sec
Yeah so we're basically saying the same thing I think
You view the constant sheaf as the set of open sets
The paper I was reading was defining sheaves to be their set of sections
Yeah this is good
anyway I do think this is pretty reasonable now, the geometric formula could define a local evaluation map
and then the set of 0's are going to be the things which don't satisfy the formula
and then you would want the set of 0's to be a closed set
so you probably put the sierpinski space topology on {0,1}
I think this is actually why the theorem is true unironically
lol
although I should read the proof
It can't be arbitrary, because then R/~ won't be a group or a set of left/right cosets
so i dont think we've actually shown in class that finite degree extension => finitely generated by algebraic elements so could someone check my proof of this? Let $K\subset L$ be an algebraic extension of finite degree $[L:K]=n<\infty$. We proceed by induction on $n$. There's nothing to do for $n=1$ so we consider $n>1$. In this case, $\exists \alpha\in L\setminus K$, and we have $[K(\alpha):K]=m | n$, $m> 1$. Hence $[L:K(\alpha)]=\frac{n}{m}<n$ and by induction $\exists \alpha_1,....,\alpha_r$ such that $L=K(\alpha)(\alpha_1,...,\alpha_r)=K(\alpha,\alpha_1,...,\alpha_r)$.
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
Simple enough, just wanna be sure im not making any mistakes
Looks good
Yo
so.... rubiks cube.
its just a group of symmetries right
each turn is an element of order 4
and this somehow connects to all the possible combinations of the rubiks cube
which according to google is 43 252 003 274 489 856 000 combinations
rn im thinking that there are six sides so the group is generated by six elements
so 6^4 elements so far
maybe i can get more elements by just rotating the whole cube
Way simpler proof, let alpha1 through alphan be a generating set for L as a K-vector space. It is then obvious that L = K(alpha1,…,alphan), and each alpha is algebraic as L is algebraic over K
right of course
lol
If you want to remove the “finite algebraic” part and only do finite, then just notice that a transcendental element forces the degree to be infinite as if t is transcendental then 1,t,t^2,… are linearly independent
As a linear dependence gives a polynomial t satisfies
i mean finite => algebraic
yeah i had that i just added algebraic cause im used to just saying finite algebraic
Yeh
Yes
But my question was if [0] = [2] = [4] = ...
Why we only use [0] equivalence class here.
Ordered-pairs with (2,2n) also gives a number that is even when both are subtracted. Same for (4,2n) and (6,2n) and so on. Is it defined to use only the equivalence class [0] in my previously asked question, or are we even allowed to use [2] or [4] and so on
yes, [0] = [2] = [4] = ...
anywhere you write [0] you can write [18] without changing its meaning
if that pleases you
What do you mean by only? You just wrote the same thing in different ways
We use the equivalence class of 0 specifically because 0 is the neutral element
👍
Ty all
quick question about latticies, how is a lattice a set? if that is the definition
v is a basis of linearly independent vectors
Its a set of vectors
right, but doesn't the sum make it a single vector?
or am I miss understanding something
You are misunderstanding
Its the set of all such sums
Just draw a picture
yeah I know how it looks on a picture but I'm a little confused about the math behind it
is a infinite essentially?
The black points form a lattice
how does it become a set of vectors, as in my mind I'm seeing that above example, then it becomes a_0 * v_0 + a_1 * v_1
${nb_1 + mb_2 \mid n,m \in \mathbb{Z}}$
nyamin
Thats the above pictured example
ohh right
so just to double check
when you say in math n in Z it means the set of all n in Z
basically just "iterating" over everything
This is called set builder notation
right
In set theory and its applications to logic, mathematics, and computer science, set-builder notation is a mathematical notation for describing a set by enumerating its elements, or stating the properties that its members must satisfy.Defining sets by properties is also known as set comprehension, set abstraction or as defining a set's intension.
Your question is not really about lattices, its about how to read set builder notation
yea perhaps
but what's a_i indexing into then?
it would make more sense if it was just a
No
oh
Do you understand this example?
Yes
And those integers don't need to be the same
Thats why there's 2 separate letters n and m denoting them
yeah
but what difference would it make to the example here if it was a instead of a_i
a is a vector I suppose
You could write it like ${\sum_{i=0}^n a_i v_i \mid a \in \mathbb{Z}^n}$ if you wanted
nyamin
nyamin
${v_1, ..., v_n}$ is a set of linearly independent vectors in $\mathbb{R}^n$
nyamin
oh I see, thanks <3
I'm pretty sure I get it now
when drawing it was fairly easy to understand, but the set part wasn't very clear at first
Learn set builder notation
Yeah, I apparently need to do that
Let G be a finite group with a representation rho on V over C where dim V >= 2. The corresponding character fulfills chi(g) is real and >= 0. I have to conclude that rho is reducible. My approach so far was to say that reducibility would mean there is an invertible matrix P such that all Matrices rho(g) can be put into upper triangular form by P. However i don't know how to conclude the existence of such a matrix just by knowing that the sum of the eigenvalues of all the matrices is real and greater 0. I feel like i won't come very far with this approach but i also don't really have anotehr idea. Any hints would be appreciated
Hint : ||Assume that V is irreducible and derive a contradiction from the irreducibility of characters||
Hello, guys, i have some difficulties with this exercice :
Let E be the set of continuous functions from [-1;1] to R which are affine on [-1;0], [0,1]. I have to proove that E is a 3 dimension R-vector space
but i don't really know how to proceed here and all my theorem looks unnecessary here
(i hope this is the right channel) i don't need answer, just a help pls
What does it mean to be affine on [-1,0] and on [0,1]?
well, an affine function from R to R is basically a so called "linear" one
expression of the fonction in [-1;0] and [0,1] can be write like that : ax + b and cx + d
You should be able to check if all the properties of a R-vector space hold, so your problem is only with the dimension, yes?
yes with the dimension
it's a new concept that i saw a while ago^^
Let f be an element of E. Doesn't T(f) = (f(-1), f(0), f(1)) give an isomorphism?
those are functions consisting of these three points, connected with lines
no additional information is given in the structure of functions in E
yes
I'll keep looking, with the supplement you brought, thank you
If T is an isomorphism, and (1, 0, 0), ... is a basis for R^3, then a basis for E will consist of functions T^-1(1, 0, 0), ...
So piece-wise linear functions f with f(-1) = 1, f(0) = f(1) = 0, etc
Hopefully this drawing makes it clear
Is there any theorem that ensures that given an element g in a group G there is a homomorphism f:G -> G such that f(g) = g and f is not the identity ?
This is not true in general, but it's almost always true. If G = Z/nZ is cyclic of order 2 then the only homomorphisms G -> G are the zero map and the identity, and the 0 map doesn't fix the generator. If there is some non-central element h such that hgh^-1 = g then we can take f(x) = hxh^-1 (but if h is central then this will be the identity).
So if g is such that there is no f≠id with f(g) = g then C_G(g) = Z(g)
In particular g is central
when does conjugation fail?
Take G to be abelian
Also, there is a family (for n >= 2) of groups Gn fitting into a short exact sequence 1 -> C2 -> Gn -> Sn -> 1 ("the double cover of Sn") which I am told by the internet has trivial outer automorphism group but a unique central element
Wait
I got flipped up again ugggh
This is a very confusing condition to me
I keep getting it negated in my head
Oh, if G has such an element g then G must be abelian
Because the condition on g forces C_G(g) = Z(G), so g is central and then C_G(g) = G so G is abelian
Now consider the family of maps f_n(x) = x^n. If G has an element h whose order k does not divide m = |g| then f_{m+1}(g) = g but f_{m+1}(h) ≠ h, as if h^(m+1) = h we would get h^m = 1 so k|m. Hence f_{m+1}≠id but f_{m+1} fixes g. This is valid when k or m = infinity with the convention that infinity is divisible by everything and divides only itself
So if g has infinite order this doesn't say a lot, but if we restrict to finite G this says exp(G) = g, ie x^|g| = 1 for all x in G
Oh well we know G is abelian, so if we restrict to the finite case we can just look at the classification
this be kinda cursed 💀
Why is C_G(g) = Z(G)? The right-to-left inclusion is obvious.
Suppose h was an element of C_G(g) not in Z(G)
Then the automorphism γ(x) = hxh^-1 fixes G but does not fix every element, ie is not the identity
This contradicts the assumption that any endomorphism of G fixing g is the identity
haha np
I'm writing out a classification rn
I wanted to ask for some suggestion or hints for this hw problem but on the other hand I'm honestly clueless and just wanna give up >___< ...
never heard of this criterion before but the prof just casually put it in homework
If g generates G, it's impossible. Otherwise you have a short exact sequence ‹g› -> G -> G/‹g›
Which might not split unfortunately
A solution must restric to the identity on ‹g›; in particular, preserve ‹g› so descend to G/‹g› -> G/‹g›
Is this process reversible?
What have you tried?
Note that usually irreducible mod (something) => irreducible, because a factorisation that holds absolutely will also hold mod whatever.
lol my classification is 203 words over the limit
The only possible element $g$ of a finite group $G$ such that ``any endomorphism of $G$ fixing $g$ is the identity'' is (up to isomorphism) when $G = \prod_{k=1}^r\prod_{j=1}^{m_k} \frac{\Z}{p_k^{a_{k, j}}\Z}$ for distinct primes $p_1,\ldots,p_r$ and $0 \leq a_{k, 1} < a_{k, 2} < \ldots < a_{k, m_k}$ for each $k$ where $g = (g_{1,1},\ldots,g_{1,m_1},\ldots,g_{r,1},\ldots,g_{r,m_r})$ for generators $g_{k,j} \in \frac{\Z}{p_k^{a_{k, j}}\Z}$. Using the formula $\mathrm{End}(G) \cong \prod_{k=1}^r\mathrm{End}\left(\prod_{j=1}^{m_k} \frac{\Z}{p_k^{a_{k, j}} \Z}\right)$ and thinking about the element $(1,\ldots,1)\in \prod_{j=1}^{m_k} \frac{\Z}{p_k^{a_{k, j}} \Z}$ we can see such $g\in G$ are counterexamples. Now consider a general finite group $G$ and $g\in G$ such that any morphism $G\to G$ fixing $g$ is the identity. As I said earlier $G$ is abelian, so either $G = 1$ (which is in the family of counterexamples) or $G = \prod_{k=1}^r\prod_{j=1}^{m_k} \frac{\Z}{p_k^{a_{k, j}}\Z}$ for distinct primes $p_1,\ldots,p_r$ and $0 < a_{k, 1} \leq a_{k, 2} \leq \ldots \leq a_{k, m_k}$ for each $k$ where $g = (g_{1,1},\ldots,g_{1,m_1},\ldots,g_{r,1},\ldots,g_{r,m_r})$ for elements $g_{k,j} \in \frac{\Z}{p_k^{a_{k, j}}\Z}$. If for some $k, j$ we had a nonidentity endomorphism $\alpha : \Z/p_k^{a_{k, j}}\Z \to \Z/p_k^{a_{k, j}}\Z$ fixing $g_{k, j}$ then we could define an endomorphism $\varphi : G \to G$ which applies $\alpha$to the ${k, j}$ coordinate, and this fixes $g$ but is not the identity. So each $g_{k, j}$ has the property in $\Z/p_k^{a_{k, j}}\Z$. This forces $g_{k, j}$ to always be coprime to $p_k^{a_{k, j}}$, since if we could write $g_{k, j} = da, p_k^{a_{k, j}} = db$ for $d\neq 1$ then $(b+1)g_{k, j} = bg_{k, j} + g_{k, j} = g_{k, j}$, and the endomorphism $f(x) = (b+1)x$ is not the identity because $f(1) = b + 1 \neq 1$ as $1\leq b < p_{k, j}^{a_{k, j}}$.
So $g$ is a tuple of generators of the various $\Z/p_k^{a_{k, j}}\Z$ if we had $a_{k, j} = a_{k, j+1}$ for some $k, j$ then we could swap those two factors of $G$ and multiply by appropriate elements to find an automorphism fixing $g$ but not everything else in $G$. So this shows $(G, g)$ is of the form I described.
So the kicker is that if G is finite and not of the form I described above here, which is a family of very special abelian groups, then every element g has such an automorphism
I'm not sure about the infinite case
I feel like there should be a more intrinsic characterizations of these elements btw
Maybe that all of the projections are surjective on ‹g›?
For the infinite case if g isn’t in the center you could just take conjugation by g
can anyone give me a hint on how to show eisenstein criterion follows from the schoenemann's criterion?
@wild solar Eisenstein criterion as in, x^n+a_1x^(n-1)+...+a_n is such that p divides a_1, ..., a_n and p^2 does not divide a_n, then this polynomial is irreducible over Z[x] ?
what if you take a = p and denote the polynomial in Eisenstein criterion by f(x)
Then f(x)-(x-p)^n has all coefficients divisible by p, is of degree less than n, and at x = p it's equal to f(p) where f(p)/p is not = 0 mod p
so f(x) is not irreducible modulo p^2
I started off by assuming a polynomial satisfying the eisenstein criterion, but then I dunno what to do
let me think >____<
If f(x) were reducible in Z[x], then we could write f(x) = q(x)k(x) where q(x), k(x) are monic polynomials of non-zero degree. Then q(x) and k(x) have the same degrees when taken mod p^2 as well, so f(x) is reducible mod p^2
contradiction, so f(x) is irreducible in Z[x]
I think like I shouldn't have said all this, but I was solving as I was writing it 
Hi, I tried proving it till the point I proved f(x) is irreducible mod p^2. But how do I use this to prove f(x) is irreducible over Z and hence over Q by Gauss's lemma?
@wild solar well you can't prove that f(x) is irreducible over Z if you don't assume further something about the coefficients of f(x)
you can still prove it's irreducible over Q though
oh wait
because say, something like f(x) = 2x isn't irreducible over Z
the ring coefficients are what's blocking it from being irreducible
it only asks for proof of eisenstein criterion follows from schonemann's criterion, but I just did that, right?
do you want to prove it's irreducible over Q then?
by proving that a polynomial satisfying eisenstein's criterion also satisfies the schonomann's criterion
okay I'm kind of confused by my own logic
it only implies irreducibility mod p^2
then yes
but I thought irreducibility over Q or Z are the same thing
sorry, I'm kinda lost
no, because in Q every non-zero element is invertible, in Z we don't have that
to study irreducibility in Z[x] you need the notion of so called primitive polynomials
Gauss lemma here says that irreducibility is the same over q and over z
I remember my prof said that Gauss lemma shows that irreducibility over Q and Z are somewhat similar, but I don't remember very clearly what he said

it doesn't, something like 2x is not irreducible over Z
This one has leading coefficient 1
you need it to be primitive, so that the coefficients are coprime
2x can be reduced as 2 times x
well originally I thought amelia wants to prove it for when the leading coefficient is 1, but it's not necessarily 1 here
I still don't know how to proceed from irreducible over Z mod p^2
The leading term is just x^n
I meant the starting polynomial

If p is reducible in z then it's reducible mod anything
what do you mean by p
Ah sorry the polynomial




