#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 703 of 407
I think the thing is that complex conjugation commutes with those automorphisms of L fixing Q
since L will be formed by appending real elements to Q (since otherwise complex conjugation would be an automorphism and it wouldn't be of degree 3)
So we have two generators of order 2 and 3 which commute, hence they generate Z/6
ah
and then is what I said before enough justification to state Z/3 and Z/2 exist as subgroups in the first place?
(I already showed the extension is degree 6)
Tbf any group order 6 will have those subgroups lol
fair enough
but does my explanation make sense?
then we have Q(omega) has two automorphisms: the identity and the map omega -> omega^-1 which forms a cyclic group of order 2
this is the part I am most curious about being right
But ye it does to me, was gonna say yeah yours is more descriptive than just saying 'groups order 6'
ok cool
I guess also you can point out that w's minimal polynomial over L and Q coincide too as x^2 + x + 1 and so yeah the only automorphism is complex conjugation
wait what
w's minimal polynomial over L and Q coincide too as x^2 + x + 1
agreed
and so yeah the only automorphism is complex conjugation
how
Ok ngl I'm sleepy that was pointless to say, I mean automorphisms of L(w)/L but then that's clear ig
$R = \mathbb{Q}[i] = {a+bi:a,b \in \mathbb{Q}}$
what do multiplicative inverses look like in this
μ₂ (pomodoro role)
Well you can compute them like you would normally over C right
like evalute the system of eqns you get from trying to solve xy = 1 for x,y \in R
Oh i meant like \frac{1}{a+ib} = \frac{a-ib}{a^2 + b^2} right
Multiply numerator and denom through a-ib ye
yeyeye
conjugate go brr yea
very dumb question but why do we need to get the i out of the denom in the first place
oh wait
cuz if we dont it's not contained in the set
and wouldn't be an inv.
im picking up what you're putting down
I assumed that's why you meant by "what do inverses look like" anyway ig
not written by me but is this valid?
why did we need this to show that there exists a maximal nilpotent ideal? doesnt zorns lemma assert that?
No
Or uhhh
Oh I see, Zorn’s gives you a maximal one
But you want a nilpotent ideal such that all other nilpotent ideals is contained in it
ye im not understanding the rationale behind this line of the proof
Zorn’s doesn’t immediately give you that
It just gives you one with no larger nilpotent ideal
uhhhmmm
There’s a difference between
J such that if I is nilpotent, I < J
we just need a largest dont we?
ohhhhh
Not maximal
where is this from btw
ive never heard this
I mean I think this isn’t really precise, but this is what it means more often than not
Really you should say “maximum” or “largest, which means…”
But just in my memory people use largest to mean a maximum element, not just a maximal one
ah okay
elements in Z[i] dont have multiplicative inverses right (besides obvious choices)
and only some in Q[i] do...?
im working on this
equivalent claim is me thinking abt it
is F = Q[i]?
and only some in Q[i] do...?
all nonzero elements of Q[i] would have multiplicative inverses by virtue of being a field

should've specified but yes
but ok that first claim
is it like subtly saying that beta is invertible in Z[i]
meaning that it must be +/-1 or +/-i
ah okay, no. they mean multiplicative inverse of beta in Q[i]
well ye, its like if u is a rational then there are integers, p, q such that u = p/q = pq^{-1}.
this is still weird tho
hol up
methinks contradiction
i try
or contrapositive...?
ok nvm, any hints might be appreciated 
are you trying to prove the "equivalent claim"?
To get the equivalent claim from the first one, they are just multiplying both sides of u = alpha beta^-1 by beta
i mean yeah lol that;s how i wrote it
but idk if it;s any easier to prove
u got any ideas on how to approach :/
like easier to prove without assuming the first claim?
you can ignore the equiv claim, that's just me talking to myself, the first one is thee one im being asked to prove
ah okay, its a clearing denominators thing
you have u = (p/q, a/b), and you want to multiply u by something that gets rid of the denominators
qb is obvious choice but doesnt i get in the way of simplifying that out
maybe i just messed up before, i'll try and work it out again
ok the i does get in the way
wdym?
like
it gets in the way of simplifying or trying to solvee
an element of Q[i] is a/b + x/y i
The current time for nitezba is 01:41 AM (EDT) on Thu, 28/04/2022.
a;sdfa;ks
1/by is the invertible beta
ay + bxi is the gaussian integer
that's it isn't it...
ye
μ₂ (pomodoro role)
it can't be just an arbitrary Q right?
probably an indeterminate. i.e. its the ring of polynomials with coefficients in Q
🤦♂️
what the fuck is this proof tho
oh wait nvm
🔨
but wouldn't it be better to say that it's not necessarily in Q[x], since there might be a chance it is
there is a difference between Q[u] where u is an element of some field extension and Q[x] where x is indeterminate. x^-1 is never in Q[x]

this is something that can be proven too. If p(x) \in Q[x] is the inverse of x, then xp(x) = 1 (can you get a contradiction from here?). solution: || xp(x) = 1 while degree(p(x)) + 1 = degree(p(x)) + deg(x) = degree(xp(x)) = deg(1) = 0 so degree(p(x)) < 0 which is impossible. ||

last one i'll ask help on but If k is a field, then k[x] = k(x).
just a nudgee might help
are you being asked to prove this?
because ||it isn't true||
prove or disprove
a brief nap later i realize it's false
i suppose how obvious that is depends on how these are defined. also a nap from 2am to 3am 

it wasn't a willing nap
i'll try and prove it and be back soon

i need to come back and actually understand this better later but i think this is right
Q(pi) is necessarily a field ofc, but Q[pi] doesnt have multiplicative inverses for all elts
again the uninstantiated use of x should prob be treated as indeterminate
Let x just be an indeterminate
Polynomials vs rational functions, obviously the former isn’t a field
it's my proof 
ahem ||you've already done the work||

So I mean secretly
Q(pi) is the same as Q(x)
And similar for [] but that’s because pi is transcendental over Q
This kinda just makes your life harder tho to prove it
isn't this just first iso?
im being asked to prove it but like

@thorn delta im only pinging bc of the hour but can you verify this proof please 👉 👈
I don't think Z/4Z and (Z/2Z)^2 are isomorphic as rings because they aren't even isomorphic as groups
The claim isn't true and not sure what your proof is supposed to show (assuming the usual definitions)
I think it is. You can take || R=S and let f be some endomorphism that isn't an iso for example ||
|| trivial ring ||
|| ah hmm ||
it's a negation of For isomorphic commutative rings $R$ and $S$, then any ring homomorphism $f:R \to S$ is an isomorphism.
μ₂ (pomodoro role)
bc i suspected it to be false...?
It's true in one special case
when
What do you think
i mean my gut tells is me false so im not really sure
Say R = S for simplicity
wait do you mean my negated claim is true in one case or the original claim is true?
actually back of the book says that this claim is false 
How do you define com ring homomorphisms
how you'd expect with the condition that f(1) = 1
Then that claim is true even for non-trivial cases
This one
Because take S = R = Z
Then f(1) = 1
And f(n) = nf(1) = n
So any homomorphism of Z must be an isomorphism
ok i can see that
i will have to think about that in the morning bc i think i agree
in which case the book might be wrong but i dont have any errata to check
Originally I thought about R = S = trivial ring
Because if you don't demand that f(1) = 1 then you can just map eveeything to 0
And only trivial ring remains
f(1_S)=1_R is true when a ring homomorphism is onto - you can prove this
for all rings
@silent osprey
ye
and this is one to one
Actually, what?
if i may bother with one last thing, this claim is true right...?
Are you talking about general homomorphisms or the isomorphic ones
like you can't necessarily generalize a group homomorphism to a ring homomorphism right? i cant find an example but i cant see that being true
general
general homomorphism
There exist functions f:R to R such that f(x+y) = f(x)+f(y) but f isn't measurable
So in particular is not a homomorphism of rings
To answer this
ok wait but how is this not a ring homomorphism
It is a ring homomorphism

It's actually a monomorphism
Sorry, I should have said, not continuous, since you might not know what measurable means.
i do not unfortunateley
You can construct solutions like that using axiom of choice
Consider R as a vector space over Q
Then any such f is a linear map on this space
You can use axiom of choice to pick some basis of it
And then map basis vectors to basis vectors in some non-trivial way
That's how you construct solutions to this
Which are not continuous
You can require f(1) = 1 too if you want
f: Z[i] -> Z where f(a+bi)=a+b should also be a counterexample to this right?
Yeah
sorry but im still thinking about this, you can take out the n only bc theyre isomorphic to begin with right
No
You can take out n because it's a homomorphism
f(nx) = nf(x) in any ring
Using the property f(x+y) = f(x)+f(y) you can prove that
Why the last sentence true. ?
how can i see that C[x,y]/(xy) and C[x]\times C[y] are isomorphic after inverting some elments
I think if I invert x
What about f being an isomorphism guarantees that o(G) is coprime to m?
I'm doing the forward direction of this proof, and I'm not really sure what I can use
perhaps it's best to prove the contrapositive
what happens if m and |G| aren't coprime
Assume m and |G| to be not coprime. Then, there exists some integer that divides both of them?
yes, that's the definition of two numbers not being coprime
using that you should be able to show that f isn't injective
by taking elements of a certain order (I'm not sure how much you can assume here, but you can always do this since finite abelian groups are products of cyclic groups)
So, there exists some integer that divides m and |G|, so we have some x in G such that px=1?
sort of
you probably want to find some x in G such that f(x)=mx=0 (where 0 is the identity in the abelian group G)
try showing this for the cyclic case (Z/nZ)
and then see how the argument carries to the general case (like I said any finite abelian group is isomorphic to some product Z/nZ x ... x Z/mZ)
ah i was about to ask if they were all isomorphic to some product
something smaller than the order of G
like, if m=rk and o(G)=rt, then any x of order t should work
So basically, if $gcd(m,n) \neq 1,$ there's some prime $p$ such that $p|m$ and $p|o(G)$. Since G is a finite abelian group, there's an $x* \neq 0$ such that $mx* = 0$.
beeswax
Is this what you're saying
GoT it
so by contrapositive you have the converse of this
Wait, where does the p dividing m and o(G) come into play
This is my proof: if $gcd(m,n) \neq 1,$ there's some prime $p$ such that $p|m$ and $p|o(G)$. Since G is a finite abelian group, there's an $x* \neq 0$ such that $mx* = 0$. But $f(0)=0$ for any $m$, so injectivity fails. Since the contrapositive is true, then the forward direction holds
beeswax
it doesn't have to be prime |G| could also divide m and it would still not be an isomorphism
So it can be any integer k that divides both m and o(G). But how does it play into the mx*=0 and f(0)=0
Z/2Z for example the only numbers that would not be coprime are 2^n
Z/3Z 3^n
and so on
the reason being take an element from Z/3Z and mutiply it by 3^n
it would be zero
cause it's divisible by 3
after you show this base case
you move on to the products
which is slightly more complicated but not by much
Z/nZ x Z/mZ
the order is nm
the numbers not coprime are n^k *m^j
Hi, does anyone know how to prove that (x^2 - yz, xy - zt) is not a prime ideal in k[x, y, z, t]. Should I just keep playing with the combinations until I could come up with an counterexample? Is there a more systematic way to do it?
It suffices to show that the image of (xy - zt) isn’t prime in k[x,y,z,t]/(x^2 - yz)
The main benefit to this IMO is that you can replace x with sqrt(yz) because that’s what you’re saying x is, something squaring to yz
This might make finding some factorization of xy - zt more clear
To be clear I don’t have a proof, but that’s my first instinct
Thanks, I'll think about it
Essentially the same question from earlier, but I want to prove that
f:G->G defined by f(x) = mx (G is a group, m is an integer)
is an isomorphism, with the assumption that the order of G is d and
gcd(m,d)=1. Also, G is finite and abelian
Trying to use the gcd assumption, I have this so far
since gcd(m,d)=1, we have integers u,v: um + vd =1. So:
x = (um+vd)x = umx +**vdx** = umx + 0 = umx.```
I don't know how this contributes to proving isomorphic, because since G is finite, f is surjective iff bijective. So I don't get why I can't just
f(x)=f(y)
mx=my
x=y
It’s an isomorphism because it has an inverse
um+vd=1 for some integers u and v, then g—>ug is the inverse of your homomorphism
Does g->ug fean f(g)=ug
I don’t follow this
Im just not sure how to use the gcd assumption in proving the bijection part
If $R$ is a ring, then $\operatorname{Hom}_R(-, R)$ is a (contravariant) functor from right to left $R$-modules. Does it reflect isomorphisms, i.e. can we conclude from $\operatorname{Hom}_R(M, R) \cong \operatorname{Hom}_R(N, R)$ that $M \cong N$?
expectTheUnexpected
Hom(Q,Z) and Hom(R,Z) should both be trivial
Gotcha. What if M and N are fgp though?
What does fgp stand for?
finitely generated and projective. It should be true there, I guess
Yeah
Idk why but this exercise made me feel smart
Prove that if K c L is an algebraic extension of odd degree, then K(a) = K(a^2) for all a in L\K
The proof is just so simple but magical I love it
Is it just that if it weren’t then K(a) is degree 2 over K(a^2)?
Yeah K(a) is at most degree 2 over K(a^2) but it has to be of odd degree so it’s degree 1
I know it’s easy but I struggled on this for 1h and love the simplicity of it in the end
Sometimes the solution is the “dumbest” thing
Yeah
Just like, the simplest thing you decide is too dumb to work
I was trying to write a explicitly in terms of a^2 by trying some expressions with the minimal poly of a and it wasn’t working out
I had a proof once where I like took a set theoretic cover of a field
And the proof involved intersecting with that
It felt so stupid because that isn’t even a sub field anymore
Monke brain
I thought my proof was surely wrong and I checked Bourbaki (in French lol) and their proof was literally the same
Bourbaki must have been pretty monke brain too then
🦧
Let $f=X^8-3$ and let $\alpha$ be its real root. I need to prove that $\mathbb{Q}(\alpha^4)$ is the only quadratic subextension of $\mathbb{Q}(\alpha)$.
So I set $K=\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{D})$ with D a square free positive integer and I think I proved that 3 always ramifies in $\mathcal{O}_K$, so $D=3D'$ with $D'$ and 3 being coprime, but I don't know how to conclude, can someone tell me if I'm on the right track at least?
Gio
can anyone tell me what F_H means in the 2nd question there?
The fixed field of H I assume
Fixed field i assume
Jinx
I have an idea for this problem, but I don't know much advanced theory, so what I'm going to propose might not work
the factorization I found is $3\mathcal{O}_k = (\sqrt{D},3)^2$, I don't know if that helps
Gio
This is what I came up with @chilly ocean , I've skipped many steps and not everythign is justified
I think something like this could work
Mans is out here checking #groups-rings-fields solving literally every Galois theory problem asked
After you take your Galois theory exam or whatever you’re gonna be the most powerful Galois theorist on earth
Ahahah, to be honest I've grown quite fond of it, it has become my favourite course in undergrad maths
You might know some more theory about this that I don't so feel free to disregard what i sent, if that is the case
In my lecture notes we defined the Vector Space generated by some set M via the following: It is the vector space of all maps $f : M \rightarrow \mathbb{K} , f(m) = 0$ for almost all m. As we know every element can be written as linear combination $f = \sum_{m \in M} f(m) \delta_m$. Now it says that we can write this aswell as $f = \sum_{m \in M} \lambda_m m $ where $\lambda_m \in \mathbb{K}$ and $\lambda_m = 0$ for almost all m. and says that we can think of that space as the finite linear combinations of elements of M with coefficients in K. I can't make the connection between these two ways of expressing that space. The first combination is a function from M to K, the second is just some formal sum. How should i think of this and why is that natural?
In case it's relevant. The way where this becomes relevant for me is in the definition of regular representations
chrisply
lambda_m is f(m) and delta_m is m
ok thats what i thought
but i mean its not like there is an isomorphism between some spaces right?
or is the space of these formal sums a vector space aswell?
well
oh lol i htink it is
or is it?
yeah nvm this was kind of a dumb question. I just wanted to make extra sure that i have the right picture going on. Especially since i have been a bit rusty in algebra
I'm too stupid to find things out on my own so I need any help I can get, thank you very much
I doubt that very much, maths is just hard
I've added some more justification to what I said before
I don't quite have that the traces of sqrt(d) \alpha^i are always zero, but I think it's true from playing around on wolfram alpha
what is the galois group of that extension?
$\text{Gal}(\mathbb{Q} (\sqrt[8]{2}, i) / \mathbb{Q}) = \left\langle \sigma, \tau \middle| \sigma^8 = \tau^2 = \text{id},~ \sigma \tau = \tau \sigma^3 \right\rangle$
so like
not quite dihedral
τ=id?
Spamakin🎷
ok yea now it's 100% correct
so I know I'm looking for normal subgroups of this Galois group (call it G)
because I know all the extentions are already seperable
but how do I know those are the only ones?
about that
are you sure about $\sigma \tau = \tau \sigma^3$
yea
$\sigma$ maps $\sqrt[8]{2} \to \zeta_8 \sqrt[8]{2}$ while fixing $i$ and $\tau$ maps $i \to -i$ and fixes $\sqrt[8]{2}$.
Spamakin🎷
but you must get that $\sigma$ maps $\zeta_8 \to -\zeta_8$ and $\tau$ maps $\zeta_8$ to $\zeta_8^7$
Spamakin🎷
and it all checks out
$\sigma \tau( i) = \sigma( -i) = \zeta_8^7$
$\tau \sigma^3(i) = \tau (\zeta_8^5) = \zeta_8^3$
is what I am getting
sigma fixes i
$\tau \sigma^3(i) = \tau (-i) = -i$ and $\sigma \tau( i) = \sigma( -i) = -i$
Spamakin🎷
also this is literally straight from Dummit and Foote
so I shall take them as correct
ah okay
so suppose I figure out if $\mathbb{Z}/8\mathbb{Z}, D_8, Q_8$ are normal or not in this not-quite-dihedral group
Spamakin🎷
how do I enumerate through other groups
is there a quick way to do this using Galois theory?
This might help
This as well
So you determined the splitting field is $\mathbb{Q}(i, \sqrt[4]{2})$ right?
Spamakin🎷
that's good
yeah thats what i got for splitting field
typically when people ask these questions
they want the Galois group identified as some more "basic" or common group
so your Galois Group really looks like what common group?
how many groups of 4 elements are there?
The Galois group is not correct
Complex conjugation should be an automorphism too
It should be D_8
Ahh yeah good point 👍
hint there are 2
uhh z4 is order 4
cool
and then the Klein 4 group https://groupprops.subwiki.org/wiki/Klein_four-group
so which one of these does your Galois group look like?
unfamiliar with klein group 1sec
Klein 4-group is Z/2Z x Z/2Z
bingo
cool thanks yeah that makes sense
so you would write $\text{Gal}_{\mathbb{Q}(i)}(F) \simeq \mathbb{Z}/4\mathbb{Z}$
Spamakin🎷
ig this is also a Kummer extension more generally right which is cute
Oh so like if you have a field K of characteristic p say containing an nth root of unity (with n coprime to p, or any n if char 0) then adjoining a root of x^n - a gives you an extension whose Galois group is cyclic
In this case the important thing is Q(i) has a primitive fourth root of unity and we're appending a root of x^4 = 2
ooooo
So the general theory is like oh this is cyclic
ok I've seen those before just didn't know those have a name
Oh fair lol
oh yeah okay so yes the main ting on this is that the galois group of Q(i,2^1/4)/Q(i) embeds in like uh
oh the group of 4th roots in Q(i) so Z/4Z
I know that in the finite dimensional case, V* tensor W is isomorphic to Hom(V,W), given by f tensor w to (v to f(v)w). Also, in the infinite dimensional case I know this can be false. But what about when W is finite dimensional and V is infinite dimensional? Does the map still work? Thanks
Anyone have tips for computing the (left) maximal ideals of a group algebra?
I've tried computing every ideal manually, but realized that will take many hours. Is there a better way of doing this?
<@&286206848099549185>
Have you tried #❓how-to-get-help
no one in this channel has helpers as ping
helpers still see it, you know
so was this a rulebreak or not?
not that i can see but it might as well be equivalent to shouting into the void
it's kinda hard to suggest anything when people don't know exactly what you're doing like what have you tried
Fair enough, currently I've just been approaching this by a pretty much bruteforce strategy
Wondering if there is some theory which is built to deal with these sorts of questions
depending on your ring you should be able to compute classes of ideals at once
my strong suit is def not rings... but idk if you're looking for a quick solution and you don't actually need to do it by hand you could use sage or something
i recently started using sage and it's amazing
how do you use it?
install, type sage into terminal and it opens a python environment like if you were to type python into your terminal but i has a collection of tools for dealing with algebra objects. i've only used it for group theory but you can create your objects and then like find ideals for example very quickly
i'm not sure which doc group algebra will be in
ahh that sounds great! thanks!
actually they're in the algebras doc
section 5.9
yw ! i hope it helps @upper cape
it is true that if f(x) in F[x] has a splitting field E, then g(x) = a*f(x) for nonzero a in F has the same splitting field E, right?
it doesnt change the set of roots
I need to find all abelian subextensions of the splitting field of $f=X^8-3$ over $\mathbb{Q}$, so I computed its maximal abelian subextension, which I will call $E$, which should be $\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_8,\sqrt{3})$.
I think I showed that $E$ can't be the entire Galois group since $G_{\mathbb{Q}f/\mathbb{Q}} = G{\mathbb{Q}f/\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_8)} \rtimes G{\mathbb{Q}_f/\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt[8]{3})} $ and that $\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_8,\sqrt{3})$ is a subextension of $E$, and that $E$ contains $\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_8,\sqrt{3})$.
I used the fact that $\mathbb{Q}_f/\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_8)$ is cyclic of degree 8 to narrow E down to either $\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_8,\sqrt{3})$ or $\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_8,\sqrt[4]{3})$ but in order to show that the second one is impossible I had to prove that it is normal "by hand" and I had to find two elements which don't commute by using a presentation of the Galois group I had found before.
I don't think that this is the quickest way of doing this and it's probably not even correct, does anyone have any better ideas?
Gio
I can show more of my work if necessary
This map is an isomorphism whenever W is finite dimensional, and V can be whatever
Note that the map is always defined, it's just not an isomoprhism in general
Yes
I mean, not f, you can use a different letter, like p. p(g)=ug. Then p is the inverse homomorphism of f
the radical of A is defined as the set of all elements in A that annihilate every simple (and hence semisimple) A-module, but why is every A-module annihilated by rad(A) necessarily a semisimple A-module?
nvm got it
companion matrices are already in rational canonical form right?
ok thank you! just making sure
How would one go about finding all of the irreducible monic polynomials contained in F_3[x] of degree less than 4?
It's anything which can't be factored into roots with coefficients 0, 1 or 2, correct?
Wouldn't that be nearly all permutations of such polynomials? My highschool algebra is lacking...
?
Just find all $a_{0},a_{1},a_{2}$ such that $a_{0}+a_{1}x+a_{2}x^{2}+x^{3} \neq 0$
Cogwheels of the mind
Yes, my root finding skills are just nonexistent
Is there a general algorithm/method to doing so?
$\begin{pmatrix}1&0&0\1&1&1\1&-1&1\end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix}x\y\z\end{pmatrix}= \begin{pmatrix}0\-1\1\end{pmatrix}$
Cogwheels of the mind
$F_{3}^{3}-$ set of solutions
Cogwheels of the mind
I see. Thank you.
any hint on how i might go about showing that x^(p-1)+x^(p-2)+...+x+1 is irreducible over R for p prime?
i know how to show it over Q but doing anything over R always seems troublesome to me
well, it's false isn't it?
that's completely possible
this is in the context of finding $[\mathbb{R}(e^{\frac{2\pi i}{p}}):\mathbb{R}]$
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
and i just sort of assumed it would be $p-1$ like it is for $\mathbb{Q}$ but it could be lower sure
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
just not sure how to approach it
irreducible polynomials in R have degree 1 or 2 though
am i being stupid
could you quickly explain why, itll come back to me if ive seen it before
this is sounding more and more familiar by the second 😂
yeah
I was almost questioning myself haha
this is even something i proved in a linear algebra course im pretty sure lol
small brain moment
so was the condition of taking prime primitive roots of unity superfluous then?
probably to trick us like i got tricked
most likely
I don't think you need the full strength of the theorem that every real polynomial has a complex root, and its complex conjugate is also a root, to do this question @wooden ember
$(X-\zeta)(X-\zeta^{-1})=X^2-(\zeta+\zeta^{-1})X+1$ and $\zeta+\zeta^{-1}$ is real (e.g. geometric reason). So your extension is degree 2.
Greenman
yeah, but it always serves as motivation to think of the polynomial you put out
thanks though
Ah right, I can see that and the discussion you had was good. My motivation was more the picture of the complex roots of unity
yeah i see what you mean. I didnt really to try and build up the polynomial by forcing X-zeta to be a factor, ill keep that in mind in the future
Hi all! Has anyone read J.A. Greens paper on Characters of general linear groups?
is it generally a hard problem to show that two simple extensions are field-isomorphic (or not)? Even for algebraic extensions, i just completed an exercise to show that $\mathbb{Q}(i)\not\cong\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{-5})$ and it involved introducing what i assume is what ive heard people refer to as the integral ring of $\mathbb{Q}[i]$ and $\mathbb{Q}[-\sqrt{-1}]$. It seems like problems of this type can easily require your to delve further into algebraic number theory, am i wrong?
limbostar
Can someone help me with this? (Didn't know whether I should put this in #point-set-topology or here but I'll go with here)
Let $G$ be a profinite and procyclic group (i.e. $G$ is profinite and there is some $g \in G$ such that $\overline{\langle g \rangle} = G$).
I wanna prove that the open subgroups in $G$ are precisely the ones of the form $G^n$ for some $n \in \mathbb{N}$.
To see that $G^n$ is an open subgroup, note that $G/G^n$ is a finite set, hence $G^n$ has finite index in $G$. Since $G$ is profinite (more generally, compact) the closure of $G^n$ is the intersection of all open subset $U \subset G$ that contain $G^n$. Hence if $x \in \overline{G^n}$, then every open neighborhood $U$ of $x$ has non-empty intersection with $G^n$. So there is some $v = xu \in G^n$ where $u \in U$. Hence $x = vu^{-1} \in G^n$, so $\overline{G^n} \subset G^n$. Hence $G^n$ is closed and has finite index and thus is open.
I'm having trouble showing that every open subgroup is of this form though. Some help (and possibly corrections on my first part of the proof) is greatly appreciated!
shu
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hey guys! quick question if you don't mind
i am reading the proof of the following theorem
and don't understand something
why is the minimal polynomial of this form, and why is it separable?
any help would be appreciated :)
The coefficients of this polynomial are symmetric polynomials in the images of alpha under the automorphisms so it is easy to verify that each coefficient is invariant under each automorphism, hence by the galois correspondence the coefficient belongs to L. Minimality is easy to prove. It is separable since L/F is galois hence in particular it is separable.
why is minimality easy? i don't immediately see it
Let p(x) be the minimal polynomial. Alpha is a root, and applying some automorphism to both sides of p(alpha)=0 we see that the image of alpha under any automorphism is a root of the minimal polynomial
awesome thanks chmister. that wasn't bad at all
Np
so how would you go about showing it in this case?
Similar shenanigans to what i was describing above?
Greenman
In this particular instance, you can do a brute force calculation if you hate yourself.
Greenman
yeah i see
I meant cube root 3 there lol on the left
i mean it's gross but it's not so bad
Right, but the problem does not scale well when you ask similar questions for higher degree roots.
i was thinking more about applying deeper theory to problems that seem innocent like this
Perfect, because there IS wonderful theory to cover exactly this stuff
i dont know how i feel about problems that seem easy needing complicated results
i swear my opinion on the matter switches on a weekly basis
I know exactly what you mean
It seems obviously true that something like the cube root of 3 should not be expressible as a linear combination of powers of cube root of 2, but it's not obvious
Check out Keith Conrad's expository paper on traces and norms. You can view field extensions as vector spaces, where the elements of the field extensions are linear maps from the vector space to itself (by multiplication).
The really cool part is that the trace of an element (defined in the paper) is essentially equivalent to the coefficient of the second highest power of an element's minimal polynomial
And this trace is k-linear (where k is the field we extended from), so it makes investigation equations like cuberoot(3) = a+bcuberoot(2)+c*cuberoot(4) MUCH easier
characteristic polynomial wants to know your address
There's also so much more than this too. For instance, somebody asked in this chat (and the algebraic number theory chat) about whether sqrt(d) is in Q(eighthroot(3)) if and only if d=3, in the algebraic number theory chat they talked about ramification of primes and stuff to rule out a lot of d
But yes to answer your original question, absolutely. A lot of this stuff is non-trivial
is there an elegant way to do this
actually is there a general tactic for disproving isomorphisms
my first idea is to just make a multiplication table and show the obvious but i dont wanna do that
I_4 is Z/4Z which is ugly but not my choice
F has no zero divisors because it's a field. what about Z/4Z?
2
well

i guess that's similar to what you were going to do
I guess the same argument works for showing that F_q and Z/qZ are not isomorphic as commutative rings unless q is a prime number, since Z/qZ always has zero divisors for non-prime q
i guess a general strategy is to look at properties that are preserved under isomorphism. like zero divisors, units, order, etc. another way is to try to directly construct an isomorphism and show that leads to a contradiction. (for example, if f: Z->Z[x] is an isomorphism, then we must have f(1)=1, f(2)=f(1+1)=2, etc., and by induction f(n)=n for any integer n. but then nothing is mapped to x, so Z is not isomorphic to Z[x])
thank you
can someone give me a nudge for how to prove that four-elt. fields must be isomorphic
it cant be hard but im missing sumn
I am confused by one of my exercises once again: They ask me to prove that a map $\rho : G \rightarrow End(V)$ that satisfies $\rho(gh) = \rho(g)\rho(h)$ is a representation of G iff there exists a $g_0 \in G$ such that $\rho(g_0) \in GL(V)$. So if $\rho$ is already a representation this is obvious. I don't see where i need the existence of such a $g_0$ to show the other direction. Can't i just say that $id_V = \rho(gg^{-1}) = \rho(g)\rho(g^-1)$ and immediately conclude that $\rho(g)$ is invertible and thus that $\rho$ is a group homomorphism from $G$ to $GL(V)$ I just don't get what this g0 is supposed to be doing here.
chrisply
ah lol i need it to be able to say that rho(1) is indeed the identity. wow i write it out here and all of a sudden i see what i am missing
writing things out has a way of doing that
i'll just blame my ongoing corona infection that im so pepega
any hints tho
The easy way is to just try and put a field structure by hand. The hard way is to say that any field of four elements is the splitting field of x^4-x over F_2 hence they are isomorphic
idk what a splitting field is 
by hand it is
ive been trying contradiction to no avail
Ah, unfortunately that is the only “conceptual” way I know how to prove it. By hand isn’t so bad in this case though since it is only 4 elements
what if i show that in two arbitrary fields of order 4, the same equations must hold
like 1+1 = 0 and so on
is that enough?
How do I answer this last part?
is it enough to say no because every group of order 4 has a subgroup of order 2
which must correspond with a proper subfield? (By the Galois correspondence)
i guess i mean like, in order for a four element set to be a field it must be constructed a certain way and only that way, does that guarantee iso
yea
Basically build it up in such a way
that there is only one possibility

is the uniqueness of said constructioon implied?
yea because you show basically every choice is forced by the field axioms and the fact you have 4 elements
huh so that's how you systematically define a field norm
interesting
Is there a part of the Galois correspondence that allows one to count the number of distinct intermediate fields of a specific size?
By size you mean the degree of the extension?
If so then yea you can just count the subgroups with that index in the galois group
The correspondence gives you
[E^H:E^G]=[G:H] where E is the galois extension. Take G to be the galois group of E/F and you get that E^G=F by definition
Idk if there's a better way to do this
is there a way to construct an inverse when V is infinite dimensional? I am aware of how to do it when the dimension of V is finite, but if its not it would involve an infinite sum
Infinite dimension != Infinite sum. Infinite sums don't make sense unless you have a norm anyways
Yeah I know, i was referencing a possible inverse where you take a basis of V and its dual, and define the inverse to be f(phi)=Sum_i(ei* tensor phi(ei) ), which would not make sense with infinite dimensional V
Well, given a basis each element can be uniquely written as a finite linear combination of some basis elements, so you could still define a map in a similar way
If i'm understanding you correctly
I think I get you know
Yeah so the issue is that the definition on the inverse relies on taking the entire basis of V and summing it, but this doesn't make sense if V is inifinite dimensional
Only finitely many of the e_i will be mapped to a nonzero element by phi
Since its codomain is finite dimensional
So the sum you mentioned will always be finite
Wait
No i'm saying nonsense sorry
I have to think about this for a bit
phi could simply send things to others that are linearly dependent but not necessarily zero right?
Exactly
Phi is supported on some finite dimensional subspace, so you could choose a basis for that subspace and send phi to the corresponding tensor sum, but this will most likely not be well-defined because there's no unique completement to the kernel
You could define the inverse on the basis elements of Hom(V,W). Fix a basis e_i of V and f_j of W, then the basis elements are some phi_ij which send e_i to f_j and otherwise send all other basis elements to 0. These get mapped to e_i* \otimes f_j, then every linear map is a finite linear combination of these. I think this would work but I fail to see where finite-dimensionality of W comes into play
like if anything i'd think V would need to be finite dimensional
Yeah i dont see it either...
I've got a question,
if ф on V over K is an endomorphism and ф² = id why must char(K) ≠ 2 so that ф is definitely diagonalizable.
Like what is the intutive reasoning for this.
Actually, I think it is correct. Say WLOG your space is some F^n then V^* \otimes F^n\cong (V^\ast)^n, and Hom(V,F^n) is isomorphic to (V^\ast)^n as well via just composing with the projection onto the i-th coordinate. I'm still not sure if what I described would give an iso in this case tho
You only need a basis for W to construct the inverse. Specifically, if $(b_i)$ is a basis for $W$ and $(b_i^)$ is the dual basis, the inverse is given by $f \mapsto \sum_i b_i^ \otimes f(b_i)$.
radiateur-man
The original question was talking about Hom(V,W) and V*\otimes W when W is finite dimensional and V maybe isn't. What you described is the case where V is finite dimensional and W maybe isn't
This is just not true afaict
You can take F_2 x F_2 and just do the map (x,y) -> (y,x)
That wasn’t really communicated
then I am sorry
Yeah, that's the question, why must it be ≠ 2
But that’s false
It mustn't as chmonkey just proved
I literally produced a counterexample
minimal polynomial is (t - 1)(t + 1) and diagonalizability is equivalent to the minimal splitting into distinct linear factors
I think I might be phrasing something wrong
you are
So what I mean is why does exactly 1 + 1 ≠ 0 result in that ф is diagonalizable. I see that there would be a counter example if 1 + 1 = 0, but I don't see why exactly 1 + 1, and not for example 1 + 1 + 1 = 0
char not 2 implies these are distinct factors
dumbo
No, you need them to be distinct irreducible
In that case this is the Chinese remainder theorem
For a counterexample, take f = g = x
and char = 2 would imply they are the same?
Yes it is sufficient by the Chinese remainder theorem
alright I am gonna think about it, thanks!
yes
there is probably a more elementary way to do it, but that's the first thing that came to mind
ah, i remember
You can just directly prove that 1,-1 are eigenvalues and their eigenspaces split the space
try writing every vector as a sum of a 1-eigenvector and a -1-eigenvector
sniped me
You need 2 to be invertible for this proof to divide by 2 for the decomposition
Lol
Oh yeah I misread, just take my answer with V and W swapped then @tardy yacht
When V is infinite dimensional it's not an isomorphism
That's what I was thinking, thanks
hi all
i'm trying to do this exercise in lang but struggling a bit with trying to prove that the kernel of the map from A/B to A^f/B^f is contained within A_f/B_f
It seems like the kernel will be a subset of A_f/B, which is not really what I want...any hints would be much appreciated :))
Hello
I have been given an assignment to classify all groups of order 36. We have been taught the concept of a semi-direct product but i can't seem to use it properly for the assignment.
Can someone outline a procedure? I don't have much ideas (except for the number of sylow subgroups it can have and what are the abelian ones)?
this outlines it nicely: https://math.berkeley.edu/~wodzicki/257/G36.pdf
Thanks for the PDF
I tried reading it but i got a bit lost in the first paragraph itself
Why are they considering the action of G on the left cosets of G/P?
limbostar
In general, that map from $V* \otimes W \to Hom(V, W)$ is injective and its range is all finite-rank maps. Thus, if either $V$ or $W$ is finite-dimensional, it is an isomorphism.
(Indeed, if $\phi_i \in V*, w_i \in W$ for $i$ from $1$ to $n$, then $\sum_i (\phi_i \otimes w_i)(v)$ is in the span of $w_1, \dotsc, w_n$ so range of $\sum_i \phi_i \otimes w_i$ is finite-dimensional. If $T \colon V \to W$ with range $W_0$ having $w_1, \dotsc, w_n$ as a basis, there are maps $\nu_1, \dotsc, \nu_n \colon W_0 \to k$ taking ``coordinates in the $w_i$ basis'' (i.e. the dual basis to $w_i$). If $\phi_i = \nu_i \circ T$, then $\sum_i \phi_i \otimes w_i \in V* \otimes W$ maps to $T$.)
Raghuram
We consider the exact sequence 0->Z->Z->Z/pZ->0 and apply Ext(-,Z/pZ) on it perhaps?
I'm trying to do a problem but I'm not really sure what it's actually asking:
Given $\beta = \sqrt{a} + \sqrt{b}$ for some $a \neq b$ positive square free integers, find the polynomials in $\beta, \beta^{-1}$ with rational coefficients such that $\sqrt{a} = f(\beta)$ and $\sqrt{b} = g(\beta)$.
I'm confused by what 'polynomials in $\beta, \beta^{-1}$ with rational coefficients' means. Since the polynomials have rational coefficients, where does `in $\beta, \beta^{-1}$ come in? The section is on field extensions.
Grenadilla
If I have a group G of order |G|=2^4 *17 can sylow theory tell me anything about the number of subgroups of a given size?
For instance, I feel that there is a unique group of over 2^4. But I'm not sure if I can also say something about the number of groups of order 17 by similar reasoning.
There is a unique sylow 2-group and a unique sylow 17-group. Because number of sylow 2-groups are 1+2k |17 for some k, you can’t have 17 sylow 2-groups so it’s unique. Similarly, number of sylow 17-groups is 1+17u |16 for some u, so u has to be 0
Why can't you have 17 Sylow 2 groups?
Maybe we can…?
I agree re Sylow 17 groups
Okay so this is going to be a semi direct product then
Okay so are there nontrivial semidirect products of a group G of order 16 with a group H of order 17? This is an action of G on H, or a map from G to Aut(H). Aut(H) is cyclic of order 16
It seems like there are nontrivial actions
Thank you I think there are 17 slow 2 groups.
I wanna compute the Galois group of f(x)=x^3-3x+1 over Q. I.e. take a splitting field and compute Gal(F/Q)
I figure that as the degree is 3 and it's potential only rational roots are 1 and -1, but neither are roots, so by gauss's lemma the polynomial is irreducible in Q. Then [F\Q]=degree(f)=3. Then by the correspondence |Gal(F\Q)|=[F\Q]=3. But Z/3Z is the unique group of order 3 up to isomorphism. So Gal(F/Q) is Z/3Z up to isomorphism
I saw a solution where someone said it was A_3 but I'm pretty sure they were just being fancy and thinking about how the roots are permuted, but in the end A_3 isomorphic to Z/3Z
I'm not sure if my reasoning is valid. If this is all correct then someone veryifying it for me would be appreciated.
An irreducible polynomial of degree n must have Galois group that is a transitive subgroup of S_n, and that's all you can say just from the degree. It is not true that its size must be exactly n: take x^3-2 whose Galois group is S_3, a group with six elements.
In other words you have more work to do to conclude that your Galois group is Z/3Z
is there anything useful that comes out of quotienting K by the img(f) in a homomorphism f: G -> K
I could really use help understanding this part of the proof. I don't understand why we can find subgroups of gal(L/Q) where G_i is normal in G_i-1 and they have index 2. This is not clear to me
Actually, the normal aspect just comes from solvability. The index 2 part is the one I'd like clarification on
http://www.math.huji.ac.il/~arielweiss/wp-content/uploads/2019/03/Galois-theory-chapter-11.pdf
Consider giving this page a read -- in particular, it shows that an irreducible cubic has Galois group A3 when the discriminant is a square number, and S3 otherwise.
If I have an nxn matrix with all 1's in the diagonal, and all the other entries were 1/2, is there an easy way to calculate this determinate?
Based off a few mathematica tests, it looks like the answer is (n+1)/2^n
But I couldn't tell you why... this post is the closest I could find
https://mathoverflow.net/questions/271379/on-the-determinant-of-a-class-symmetric-matrices
<@&286206848099549185>
Double checking: If I have a matrix, I know i can add or subtract rows, but I can also add or subtract columns right??
and this is due to the fact that the transpose of a matrix has same determinant?
You mean when doing row-reduction?
yes
If you're solving a system of linear equations, then no
Column reduction will get you a different answer
If you just want the rank of the matrix or to find out if it's non-singular, then you're fine
Let $f(x) = x^5-x-1$. Show this polynomial is irreducible mod 5 and conclude it is irreducible over $\mathbb{Q}$.
Espio
I've done the first part, show it's irreducible mod 5, but I'm not sure how to conclude it's irreducible over Q. What theorem is relevant here?
I'm having trouble seeing that if I have a invertible Gram matrix, then the vectors or linearly independent.
For finite-dimensional real vectors in {\displaystyle \mathbb {R} ^{n}}\mathbb {R} ^{n} with the usual Euclidean dot product, the Gram matrix is {\displaystyle G=V^{\top }V}{\displaystyle G=V^{\top }V}, where {\displaystyle V}V is a matrix whose columns are the vectors {\displaystyle v_{k}}v_{k} and {\displaystyle V^{\top }}{\displaystyle V^{\top }} is its transpose whose rows are the vectors {\displaystyle v_{k}^{\top }}{\displaystyle v_{k}^{\top }}.
If the Gram matrix is invertible, then V is invertible also, and thus the vectors are linearly independent.
${\displaystyle \mathbb {R} ^{n}}\mathbb {R} ^{n} with the usual Euclidean dot product, the Gram matrix is {\displaystyle G=V^{\top }V}{\displaystyle G=V^{\top }V}, where {\displaystyle V}V is a matrix whose columns are the vectors {\displaystyle v{k}}v{k} and {\displaystyle V^{\top }}{\displaystyle V^{\top }} is its transpose whose rows are the vectors {\displaystyle v{k}^{\top }}{\displaystyle v{k}^{\top }}$
MasakaBakana
Hold up lol
I copied from Wikipedia
Basically G = V transpose * V, where V is the matrix whose columns are the vectors generating G
If the Gram matrix is invertible, then V is invertible also, and thus the vectors are linearly independent.
So if my polynomial is irreducible mod 5, it is also irreducible over Z? Where does that come from?
chinese remainder theorem should apply generally right? like for two ideals I,J of a ring R, it's true that $R/(I \cap J) \cong R/I \times R/J$?
μ₂
The post you replied to was weeks ago, just so you know
i know
i was rereading a discussion i had with john a while ago
moreso just linking myself to it but asking something somewhat independent of it
actually I and J would need some requirement right
like what's the equivalent of coprimeness for ideals
disjointness?
i just mean that it suffices to show irreducibility over Z
Definitely, I’m just not sure how to show irreducibility over Z. The question asks to show irreducibility over Z/5Z first but I don’t know how to use that.
showing that reducibility over Z implies reducibility over Z/5Z seems nicer
if G and K are just groups or rings, im(f) might not be a normal subgroups/an ideal. however, if G and K are abelian groups, vector spaces (or R-modules), K/im(f) is called the cokernel of f. it kind of "measures" the surjectivity of f in the same way the kernel measures injectivity of f
wait when is im(f) not a normal subgroup
f: Z/2Z->S_3 where 0->id, 1->(1 2) for example. i'm pretty sure {id, (1 2)} is not normal is S_3
comaximality (ideals I and J of R are comaximal if I + J = R)
@spiral wolf yes it is true that irreducible mod p implies irreducible over Q (if the lead coefficient is not divisible by p), this is what your question means by "conclude"
Very nice in fact, I'm pretty sure just the same factorisation would work
Gotcha. Does this theorem have a name or is it just what it is?
are F-algebras also F-modules??
you tell me
To be honest with you, I'm not sure if it has a specific name. One thing to note: if irreducible over some mod p, then irreducible over Q, but the converse is NOT true. To memory: i think x^4+1 is reducible for every prime but irreducible over Q
I think it is true
Hello, is it possible to find the solution of this equation analytically?
I'm assuming that it's possible with lambert w function but problem is that septic function
This is the primary form of the equation
I already found what I wanted by just plugging into wolfram alpha, but just curious
Sweet Jesus
is that fucking johnny sins chilling in #groups-rings-fields
your last one was amazing bro
Thanks! I'm just trying to get in character for my next performance
Disregard, I figured it out. It just had to do with the definition of solvabiliy, which was way easier than I was making it out to be
anyone have any examples of a ring homomorphism with domain Z[i] with the principal ideal of some gaussian integer as the kernel? say, ker(φ)=(1+i) for example?
sure, take any principal ideal in Z[i] and consider the quotient map
true... i was looking to see if there were any less trivial ones because i wanted to do an example of utilizing the fundamental ring homomorphism theorem to find a ring isomorphic to Z[i]/(1+i)
at least im pretty sure thats using it correctly
You can explicitly define e.g. the map into Z/(2) that maps a+bi to 0 if a and b have the same parity, and 1 if the parity is different, and show from first principles that it's a homomorphism.
Shouldn’t Z[i]/(i + 1) = Z?
Like you’re just claiming that i = -1 now, but maybe it’s more complicated
I would do this, write this as
Z[x]/(x^2 + 1, x + 1)
It’s Z/2Z
Nvm
:)
Oh sure duh
i = -1
So i^2 = (-1)^2
So -1 = 1
And indeed (x²+1,x+1) contains (x²+1) - (x-1)(x+1) = 2.
can you explain what you mean by this? im a little lost
I mean when you mod out by (i + 1) you’re in effect setting i + 1 = 0
So in the quotient i = -1
This is just a way to get an idea as to what ring a quotient should be, this is why Z[x]/(x^2 + 1) ≈ Z[i], you’re saying x^2 = -1 aka x = i
Then you construct a map Z[x] -> Z[i] sending x to i and then apply 1st iso
In this case though because i satisfies the relation i^2 = -1 the map Z[i] -> Z sending i to -1 isn’t a ring homomorphism mainly because you’d need for 1 = -1
So instead you could think “oh it should go to Z/2Z” and the map is sending i to -1 = 1
And then show that this works or whatever
Or you do this computation
First you quotient by x+1, which says x = -1
So then you’re looking at Z/((-1)^2 + 1) = Z/(2)
im not sure where Z[x]/(x^2 + 1, x + 1) is coming from
if anything i would think its Z[x]/(x^2-2x+2)
Because Z[x]/(x^2 + 1) ≈ Z[i]
The specific isomorphism sends x to i
So now you apply the 3rd iso
You know that under this identification you’re looking at
(Z[x]/(x^2 + 1))/(x^2 + 1, x + 1)/(x^2 + 1)
The reason is that the ideal (i + 1) pulls back to (x^2 + 1, x + 1) under the map Z[x] -> Z[i] sending x to i
There's one of the isomorphism theorems that says (R/I)/f(J) = R/(I+J) where f is the quotient map R -> R/I.
This can be used to swap around quotienting by x²+1 and x+1.
is this material usually taught somewhat early on in an abstract algebra course?
bc none of this sounds familiar and im wondering if its because my class is being taught out of order
Not really
It’s not usually taught like this, you figure it out or someone explains it to you
At least that’s how I learned this
And I bet lots of others
Yeah, sounds about that.
I'm sure textbook authors try to make it such applications somewhat clear when they present quotients and the isomorphism theorems, but it's one of those things that just need a fair amount of examples to gel -- and the isomorphism theorems tend to come so early that you haven't seen many relevant example yet at that point.
If there is a field extension of degree m*n, when does there exist an extension of degree m in between?
Ok so I feel with the theorems in the second picture the problem in the first picture should be easy but idk I don't know where to start
I don't really get the relevance of the fact that L/F is a splitting field
I feel (b) => (a) is just immediate from (3)?
Okay, so I have a question. Say there is a chain of field extensions $F\subset K_1 \subset K_2 \subset L$, and let $M$ be the Galois closure. If $\sigma \in Gal(M/F)$, is it true that $[K_2:K_1]=[\sigma(K_2):\sigma(K_1)]$? If so, why?
dackid
Okay, it should be good now.
It's true. I was able to prove it to myself
anyone have any ideas?
Probably has something to do with every element of f being written as a linear combination
I no sure
hm
It depends on the characteristic of F
The only time you'll run into issues is when char(F)=p where p is prime
dackid
Hope that helps
x^p - t is irreducible but not separable over F_p(t)
In fact the roots are all the same
hey instead of blocking text out, you could just use parentheses
Wdym
oh just that a few days ago i also saw you posting a screenshot of a book and blocking irrelevant text out and i thought
you could just use parentheses to indicate the relevant part of the text
then less effort i guess
well i'm assuming that's what you're trying to do lol
how should I think of the quotient ring $$\frac{C(\bR)}{\langle \mathrm{id} \rangle}$$? I know it's equivalence classes of $f \sim g \iff f-g$ is linear, but what does this ring look like?
xdres
are you sure that's the equivalence relation here?
oh wait no it'll just be "has a root at 0"
so the elements of the quotient are just determined by their value at 0? so it's iso to R?
i'm not sure about that. you're saying that if f has a root at 0, then f(x) = xh(x) for some continuous function h. but what if f is not differentiable?
if you were instead working with C^\infty(R) or even the ring of analytic functions, i'd see it, but i don't believe it here
hmm yeah true, e.g. cbrt(x) I guess?
that works
The ideal is exactly the functions where f(0)=0 and f'(0) exists.
if a field has no finite extensions does that make it alg. closedd ??
Yes; a polynomial without a root always gives rise to a finite extension.
I’m still getting used to finding and adequately labeling quotient rings. Is it appropriate to describe Z[x]/(2x^2 -4, 4x-5) as F_2 for terms of degree 2 or higher, F_4 for the linear term, and just regular Z for the constant term?
Anyone have any ideas? I took another stab at it and made no progress
No. The ideal contains 8(2x²-4) = 16x²-32 and also contains (4x-5)(4x+5) = 16x²-25. Subtracting these, we see that the ideal contains 7, so unless something collapses it further down to (1), everything will end up modulo 7.
(I found this by attempting polynomial division of 2x²-4 by 4x+5, but multiplying the numerator by whatever is necessary to keep the coefficients of the quotient polynomial integers).
Then, since we're working modulo 7, we can multiply 4x+5 by 2 to get 8x+10 which the same as x-4 modulo 7, so x=4 in the quotient ring.
And therefore the quotient ring is just Z/7Z.
(We can check that 2x²-4 indeed maps to zero in Z/7Z when we send x to 4).
This maybe just indicates I don’t fully understand what’s allowed and not allowed, but does the quotienting by the 4x-5 alone at least bring us to F_4 for all terms besides the constant?
My understanding is based entirely on converting any instance of a coefficient 4 or higher to a lower degree coefficient of 5, and then similar for any 2 coeff to a 4 two degrees lower
by setting one of the monomials in each divisor equal to the other one
Not really. That would be the case if we were quotienting by 4x instead of 4x-5.
But isn’t the difference just that the modulus causes a roll over in the constant term’s value
Well yes, but because that difference is there you can't just say that the x^1 coefficient works modulo 4, because that would mean, for example, that 1x and 5x are the same thing.
Yeah, I guess I was glossing over the carry-over arithmetic
Would it make sense to describe it as F_4[x] with the property of any multiple of 4 adding 5 to the term one degree under, or at that point is the arithmetic different that it’s silly to phrase it with reference to F_4, and you should just describe the elements from scratch?
It's very much different. As soon as we have a polynomial with nonzero constant term in the ideal, all of the nice levels in the original polynomial ring begin to blend together, and we can no longer speak meaningfully about the degree of a term or coefficient.
Also beware that F_4 does not mean what you think it means.
You mean Z/4Z, the integers modulo 4.
F_4 means the field with 4 elements, which is a different ring.
Even when you adjoin x to it?
Ohhh they’re only equal when n from F_n is a prime right?
Yes, F_p is the same a Z/pZ when p is prime.
Got it, thank you!
yeah
so these are the automorphisms I've found
I just don't know how to get the corresponding fixed fields
Spamakin🎷
That's a pretty good conjecture
Actually wait
What does this formula have to do with trace from linear algebra
It looks like it's because it's the sum of the independent basis vectors @barren sierra , which seems to be similar to taking the sum of the diagonals in the matrix
Hm I see
That's what I see at face value at least.
ok so intermediate fields are $\mathbb{Q}(i), \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2}), \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{-2})$
Spamakin🎷
The respective minimal polynomials are $x^2 +1, x^2 - 2$ and $x^2 + 2$. But then by part (d) all of these have trace 0 since $a_{d - 1} = 0$ for all of these.
Spamakin🎷
is that right? that feels wrong.
I guess by part (a) we can't have that $\mathbb{Q}(\alpha) = K$ since $\text{Tr}_{K/\mathbb{Q}}(\alpha) \in \mathbb{Q}$
Spamakin🎷
Question, what is Emb_F(K,L) in your definition?
It turns out to be equal to the trace of “multiplication by α” viewed as a F-linear map on the F-vector space K.
I think
the set of field homomorphisms from K into L that fix F
Hmm, so why is that not the same as the Galois Group of L over F?
cause not every homomorphism is an automorphism
also you can't compose them without restriction
Do kernels in the category of unital rings exist?
There is no 0 object, so you can't define kernels
How do you use that to define kernel?
Just replace the 0 object by initial object in the definition
Then there may not be a 0 map between A and B for arbitrary rings
Are you not defining kernel of f as equalizer of f and 0?
Yes, but kernel could still exist, for example any morphism has a cokernel which is always trivial
No, you can't say equalizer of f and 0 exists if there is no 0 map
Z/2Z → Z/2Z there cannot exist a 0 map here
I'm defining kernel using the definition on nlab, not kernel pair
So it's a certain pullback
Oh. How do they look like
Look at the construction of pullbacks as subobjects of products
Like for the map R → zero ring, the kernel would be R x Z
Which looks weird lmao
Quotients appear in pushouts
{(r, n) : f(r) = n•1_S} right
yes
Thank you for your help

I'm trying to prove that $|\text{Aut}(L/K)|$ divides $[L:K]$ for any finite extension $L/K$, but have no progress. Any ideas?
Porphyrion
I'm avoiding using Gal because L/K isn't Galois.
i think you can measure the failure of |Aut(L/K)| = [L : K] using the fixed field of Aut(L/K)
L will be galois over the fixed field of Aut(L/K), so things are nicer
actually hmm
ah okay nice, npnp
This follows from Grothendieck's Generic Freeness Lemma. Assume that $m$ doesn't intersect $\bZ-{0}$. Then by the lemma there is a nonzero integer $x$ so that $K_x=K$ is a free $\bZ_x$-module (this is localization). But it's also a vector space over $\bQ$, and it's not hard to show that a nonzero $\bQ$-vector space isn't free over $\bZ_x$ (for example, in a free $\bZ_x$ module you can't divide certain elements by a prime $q\nmid x$)
So $m\cap \bZ\neq {0}$, which implies $K$ has positive characteristic, so by regular Nullstellensatz it is a finite extension of $\bZ/p$ hence finite .
hi, quick question, I got told that this wasn't a proper definition, could someone help me make it a proper one as I'm a little unsure what is wrong with it.
The \textit{Number Theoretic Transform} is a generalized form of the \textit{Discrete Fourier Transform} over the ring $R_q = \bZ_q[X] / \langle X^n + 1 \rangle$. NTT is defined as the following: let $\omega$ be the $n$th root of unity for the polynomial
[Xi = \sum^{n-1}{j=0} x_j \cdot \omega^{ij}. ]
fisu
I have this following question: So if I have a field F_2, it is clear to me that the polynomial x^4 + x + 1 is irreducible over F_2. However, how can I see that it is reducible over F_4?
So, I know that if F_4 is a simple extension of F_2 by a root of a irreducible deg 2 polynomial over F_2.
The only irreducible deg 2 polynomial over F_2 is x^2 + x + 1, so if I take a root, ie I take alpha such that alpha^2 = alpha + 1, then F_2(alpha) = F_4. However, how do I find the irreducible polynomials of small degrees (deg 1,2,3) in F_4? So in this notation above, F_4 = {0,1,\alpha, \alpha^2 = \alpha + 1}
What does the last sentence mean? "let omega be the nth root of unity for the polynomial ...", that sentence doesn't make sense gramatically.
One way to see that it cannot be irreducible in F_4 is to note that the polynomial splits in F_16, which has only degree 3 over F_4
That works, but I also want to get practice trying to find irreducible polynomials of small degree too. It was easy to do in F_2, but I don't see how to do it in other finite fields
For degree 2 and 3 irreducible is equivalent to having no roots, so you just have to check for all elements of F_4 that they are not a root.
Any deg 1 poly is irreducible trivially. Over F_4, there are 3^2 = 9 of them right?
sicne the coefficeints can be 1, alpha, or alpha^2
The constant coefficient could be 0 so 3*4
To be honest though, it's pretty rare to work with explicit elements of finite fields other than Z/pZ, it's usually much more convenient to use Galois theory arguments.
It is
Since alpha is a unit
But x+1 divides alpha x + alpha
Yes but they differ by a unit. Irreducible means that whenever f=ab either a or b is unit.
Just like 2 is divisible by -2 in Z but it's still a prime number
i see
Or X+1 is divisible by (X+1)/2 in Q[X] but it's still an irreducible polynomial
But we often restrict to monic polynomials though to get a single representative for each equivalence class of (multiplying by units)
So if we only look at irredicble monic polynomaisl over F_4 of degree 1, There is
x, x+1, x + \alpha, x+ alpha^2, only four right?
Exactly
The product of any two of these gives a reducible poly of degree 2, and any other monic polys of degree two I find are automatically irreducible?
Yes
Eariler you said deg 2 irreducible poly over F_4 is equivalent to having no roots. I don't see why that is the case
Over F_2, I see that
That's true over any field
oh yea thats a brain fart
Because if it's reducible it has a degree 1 factor and thus a root
Same for degree 3
not for 4, since 4 can split as 2 deg 2
So over F_2 we could list out those deg 2 polynomails that dont have a root by making sure they have an odd number of terms. This only gives x^2 + x + 1
Since the only two coeffiiencts are 1 and 0
But F_4 doesnt have a similar criterion
Not really, you have to check for each of the four elements of F4 if it's a root
So for example, if I considered this reducible deg 2 polynomial (x+1)(x + alpha^2) = x^2 + (alpha + 2) x + alpha + 1, I don't see what this coefficient alpha + 2 in F_4 is. F_4 = {0, 1, alpha, alpha^2 = alpha +1} so all the other coefficients are in there
Remember that 2=0
Since the char(F_4) = 2, we have 2 = 0 right?
Yes
I see that x^4 + x + 1 must factor into 2 degree 2 irreducubile monic polynomials of F_4. However, there are 6 such irreducible monics polynomials over F_4, so 36 total combinations... I know what all 6 irreduicble polynomials look like, but how do I see which ones factor x^4 + x + 1 without manually checking all 36 combinations?
For each of the 6 irreducible monic polynomials you can check if it divides x^4 + x + 1 using polynomial long division
And then if it does you automatically get the other factor
Is -1 =1 in a field of power 2?
You mean characteristic 2?
yea
Yes
ty, it was still painful to go through them, but it worked
