#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 704 of 407
yea for sure, it was good practice tho. haven't done long divison in a while
Yeah it's still good to do some calculations at some point to get a feel for these finite fields, though I don't recommend going above F_4 
So I have a related question. I know F_p^n : F_p is a galois extension, therefore a normal extension. Moreover
x^4 + x + 1 is irreduicble in F_2, so if some extension of F_2 contains some root of x^4 + x + 1, it must contain all roots, since any finite extension of F_2 has form F_2^n, ie it is a normal extension. Then is the splitting field of x^4 + x + 1 = F_2^4?
Yes exactly
Wait, x^4 has 4 roots. so why isn't F_2^3? enough. I have seen by the prior discuession that F_4 is not enough since it splits only into 2 deg 2 factors
x^4 splits in F_2
i meant x^4 + x + 1 srry
The extension obtained by adjoining ONE root of an irreducible degree d polynomial always has degree d. Now when the base field is finite that extension is automatically Galois so the splitting field itself has degree d.
Yes I recall that now. So since x^4 + x + 1 is irreducible, i take some root beta, and adjoin F_2(beta). This is a extension which has deg 4 over F_2, hence the field has size 2^4

So I also recall this consequence from the Galois correspodnce the subfields of F_2^n are exactly F_2^d where d divides n. Then if I know the splitting field of x^4 + x + 1 is F_2^4, and F_2^8 contains a copy of F_2^4 as a subfield, is it true that x^4 + x + 1 must split also in F_2^8?
Yes
I general, F_2^4n must split this poly then right?
Yes
So how we constructed F_2^4 was we took b, a root of x^4 + x + 1, and extended F_2(b), but how can I use this to find the other 3 roots other than beta.
-
So I know 1, b, b^2, b^3 form a basis over F_2. since b has deg 4
-
This means that the elements of F_2^4 = {0, 1, b, b^2, b^3 .... } and in general any F_2 linear combination of them is an eleemnt of the field right?
In the F_4 case, we knew the elemetns were {0,1,alpha, alpha^2} since I only had to list four, but what is the general way to find all elements of a given finite field. I know such fields are all simple exntesion of their prime field
For F_p^d you can pick an irrducible degree d polynomial f over F_p and take the extension F_p(b) where b is a root of f, and then a basis is given by 1, b, ..., b^(d-1)
So all elements are F_p-linear combinations of those basis elements
And to count the size of field it is p^n since we have n basis and p possible coefficients in F_p right?
Yep
I see, so I know what all the elements of F_2^4 look like. They are all F_2 linear combinations of {1, b, b^2, b^3} where b is a root of the irreducible poly in F_2: x^4 + x + 1. Then the other 3 roots must appear as some F_2 linear combination of {1,b,b^2 , b^3}, but how would I go about finding those other roots?
The simplest way to find the other roots is probably to apply the frobenius automorphism
The forbenius homomorphism is an injective ring hom on a field F to F that sends z to z^char(F). For finite fields, injectivity implies automorphism
Since F_2^4 is a galois extension of F_2, the forbenius automorph must map roots to roots, that is it must make b to another root, but can it map b to itself?
Yes, and the most important thing is that it generates the Galois group, so by applying it repeatedly to b you'll get all the roots
Because the Galois group acts transitively on the roots
Right, since the forbeniious auto generates the galois group, we also have the galois group is cyclic, of order 4 in this case
Exactly, so after applying it 4 times you should get back to b
But more generally, if I have a cyclic galois group, is it always true that the generator never fixes any roots
It doesn't mean anything for a single element to act transitively, but the Galois group always act transitively on the roots, yes
Why is it true? Say the galois group is C_n the cyclic group of order n, and let g be a generator. Since the galois group acts transtively on roots, it is possible to map any root to another. Then since g is a generator if g fixes some root, then what is the issue?
it means that every automorphism must fix this root as well
If a root is fixed by every automorphism, then the root must be in the base field right? By that I mean if L is a galois extension of K, then L is the splitting field over K of some polynomial p. Then we have a root in K
Yes
But why is that an issue, that a root can not be fixed by every automorhpism
of nvm, i see why
p was irreducible over K
Yes, the Galois group acts transitively on the roots of any irreducible polynomial
Yup I see. But back to the forbenius automorphism. Since char(F_2^4) = 2, the and b was a root of x^4 + x + 1 which was irreducble over F_2.
The Forbenius automorphism sends b - > b^2 - > b^4 = b + 1 - > b^2 + 1 - > b^4 + 1 = b so it indeed has order 4 and the four roots are exactly
b, b^2, b+ 1, b^2 + 1 which are all elements in F_(2^4)
Exactly
You could check explicitely that those are all indeed roots of x^4 + x + 1 if you want
Yea, I will multiple them to check it
Luckily for me, I dont have to distinguish between + and - here since we have char 2
Yeah that's convenient there's no sign error possible in characteristic 2 
Yep it works :))
Next, if I move away from char 2 fields ):. Lets say I have the field F_7, so F_7 = {0,1,2,3,4,5,6}. To see x^2 + 1 is irreducible over F_7, it sufffices to just plug in all the values from 1 to 6 and see that none of them give 0 mod 7 right?
since if it has a root factor, it must have a root at one of the 6 pts from 1 - 6
Since F_7 is isom to Z/7Z
Indeed
Man I really hate finite fields, you would think they would be easier than extensions of Q since its finite, but I find it more confusing zzz
They have much nicer properties than finite extensions of Q and are easier in this regard, but they're indeed less intuitive (except for the prime ones).
One reason is that there's not really any canonical way to define F_p^n, you have to pick an irreducible polynomial of degree n over F_p and even though two different polynomials will give isomorphic fields there are many isomorphism and no canonical one.
So you have to make arbitrary choices to be able to talk about their elements, and even though they are finite computations quickly become to long to be done by hand, though computers are pretty good at handling them.
I actually have a question related to that. So for example F_p^2 is a simple extension of F_p some some irreducible degree 2 poylnomial. However, it is not the case that if I take another deg 2 irreducible polynomial, and extend by a root that those two extensions are the same, only isomorphic right
But the nice thing is that they have such a nice Galois theory that you often don't actually need to make explicit calculations and can get away with Galois theory arguments
Depends on what you mean by "the same" and "extending by a root". Usually the way we extend K by a root of f is by taking the quotient K[x]/f(x), and if you have different f then the elements of the quotient will be different equivalence classes, so the two fields won't be literally "the same" as sets.
They are certainly isomorhpic since they are simple extensions so we can just map one generator to the other, but not the same setwise
Well if you construct one using an irreducible polynomial f and the other using another g (of the same degree) then the isomorphism is not obtained by mapping the root of f you adjoined in the first field to the root of g you adjoined in the second field. It must be mapped to a root of f in the secodn field, which turns out to always exist (even though that might not seem obvious at first sight) but there are a several different roots that you can choose and they're not necessarily easy to find.
This is because the automorphisms act transtively on the roots of this irreducible poly, so it can not map to a root of g if they dont share roots. i see
yea, its not as simple as I thought it was then
Yeah the isomorphism must preserve the minimal polynomials
And the fact that there are a bunch of roots of f in the second field and no preferred one is what I meant when I said the isomorphism is not canonical
Coming back to this question, on the other hand if you fix an algebraic closure of F_p, and consider only subextensions of this algebraic closure, then there is actually exactly one extension of each degree, so adjoining a root of f or a root of g give you literally the same subextension, not just isomorphic ones.
The problem of course is that you have to make infinitely many arbitrary choices to define that algebraic closure, so it's definitely not better in terms of giving explicit descriptions of the elements
Then I don't see why this following question I have should be true. I know x^2 + 1 is irreducible in F_7, and of course i is a root of it. Then for F_7(i), it is also true that any quadratic (not even just monic irreducible ones) must split in F_7(i). Since this is a normal extension, It means that F_7(i) is the unique degree 2 extension of F_7 right?
This is more than isomorphism right? If F_7(i) splits every quadratic in F_7, then any deg 2 extension of F_7 must be = right?
If you mean literally equal as sets then clearly no
How would you go about showing that certain polynomials form maximal ideals in fields?
That would be the best way to show that R[x]/(x^2 + x + 1) is a field, correct?
There are no nontrivial ideals in fields
Oh do you mean polynomial rings?
yes this is the most common way to show that something like this is a field
also could someone help me with this question
Find all zero divisors and nilpotent elements of $\mathbb{Z}_n[x]/I,$ where I the ideal of vanishing polynomials over $\mathbb{Z}_n$.
JustKeepRunning
You can use the fact that K[X] is PID so the maximal ideals are those generated by irreducible elements
Note that this quotient is isomorphic to the ring of functions Z/nZ -> Z/nZ 
So the Forbenious automorphism on F_7(i) just gives the conjugation action. How canI use this to show that F_7(i) splits any quadratic in F_7? A quadratic in F_7 either has 2 real roots of 2 complex roots, but it is not even true that the real part of the roots need to be in F_7
plus what would a zero divisr/nilpotent even mean/look like in this isomoprhic ring?
Write down what's the condition for the product of two functions to give 0
And its shouldn't be too hard to identify from there the zero divisors
ok i got it reduced down to the set of all polynomials functions which have a nonzero element in the tuple (P(0), P(1), \cdots, P(n-1)) and which have a polynomial corresponding to these output values
but i only know that lagrnage interpolation resolves this problem over division rings; is there an analog of lagrange interpolation over non divisoin rings?
Hum right, I didn't thought about that
I think that every function over Z/nZ is still represented by a polynomial even though usual Lagrange interpolation doesn't work, but I'm not sure
By CRT it would suffice to prove it for Z/p^nZ
Hum nevermind, that's actually false
For example in Z/4Z if f is represented by a polynomial then f(0)+f(1)+f(2)+f(3) is always even, so you cannot represent all functions by polynomials
Kinda vague lol why not ask here
can someone explain what this theorem is saying
its on page 3 in this paper
idg what it means by F_n is uniquely determined by F, along with the iff statement and all the other uniquely determined stuff
shouldn't the F_n uniquely determined F intuitvely (like to construct F as a function that vanishes everywhere)
Let $I$ be an ideal of a noetherian ring $R$ such and $M$ be a finite $R$-module such that $IM=M$. Is it true that depth$(M,I)$ is finite?
Finitely Many Bananas
This is essentially the same as asking "can Ext_R^n(R/I,M) be 0 for all n"
Can someone check a proof for me?
Here's the problem:
Here's an extremely relevant proposition I used
Here's my proof
I think its correct

What does it mean for $$M\bigotimes_F V^\vee$$ to be an R-module but tensored over F? In this context, R is is an F-algebra, M an R-module and V dual an F-vector space
alyosha
I have to show that this is a short exact sequence given 0->U->V->W->0 is exact
I'm trying to show injectivity and surjectivity of the most natural possible maps
does anyone have any hints?
Is F a field? If so, you want to first show the dual sequence is exact. From there writing a basis for M replace M with F^(+)alpha for some alpha. Then show that tensor product distributes over direct sum. The result is that you basically just multiplied your exact sequence
You can multiply by R-coefficients on the left using the fact that M is an R-module
yes
but then what does it mean to tensor over F?
You just form the normal tensor product
If it helps, M is also an F-vector space
You can multiply by F-coefficients by sending the elements in F into R via the algebra map
Then you define your action of F on M by going through R first
so does it mean that ax\otimes b = x\otimes ab if a is in F but not when a is in R
Yup exactly
thanks, then i was also wondering what this means?
does it mean this for all v in V?
I have no idea what this means lol
f_w and f_w' are elements of W dual and psi: V to W
im trying to show injectivity
but im not sure what it means for two tensors to equal
Yeah idk sorry
I don’t think about this concretely like this
I am using more general stuff
I would first show that the diagram consisting of the dual VSes is exact
Then you don’t need to worry about the dual
You just have to show that tensoring an exact sequence remains exact
are you suggesting that I first show that 0->W dual ->V dual -> Udual -> is exact?
Yes exactly
Then you can simply show that given an exact sequence, tensoring with M will keep it exact
doesn't the tensor functor only preserve exact sequences when M is flat?
But you’re tensoring over F
So over F it’s a vector space
Aka has a basis over F
Yeah?

Actually wait
I think I have another proof
This one is gigabrain though
Every exact sequence of vector spaces is split exact
This is preserved under applying functors
Oh wait
Nvm I think this won’t work you need to show exactness in the middle
Hehe whoops
Well wait
The dual is left exact and this argument shows it’s actually exact as well
Similar for tensor products
¯_(ツ)_/¯
hey i was wondering if anyone could point me in the direction of getting started understanding symmetry groups? (ie U(1) and SU(2) type stuff) from a more intuitive understanding? I feel like i can't find anything on how the naming scheme works or even anything on the specific symmetry groups in general
Actually i now see how you can argue that the ses is exact, but that's when you see them as F-vector spaces, however it seems that I need to prove exactness while considering all those tensor products as R-modules, does your process still hold?
Exactness is measured via image and kernel
So it doesn’t matter what you view them as modules over
In fact, you can just consider exactness as abelian groups
but don't image and kernel depend on the homomorphism?
Yes, but it won’t matter
The maps still exist, like umm
If the map was R-linear
It’s also F-linear
I think you should spend some more time thinking about it, but what it’s linear over doesn’t matter
It’s because of how the R-module structure is defined
Basically like
R only acts on M
And it’ll be like rm (x) n maps to rm (x) phi(n)
When you had a map phi:N -> L or whatever
Could you be a little more precise about what kind of thing you're interested about these groups? Are you looking for ressources about the general theory of Lie groups, or about their use in physics, or you just want to understand the naming scheme?
If it's just the naming scheme then it's not particularly difficult : O(n) is the group of n by n real orthogonal matrices while U(n) is the group of n by n complex unitary matrices, and adding S means you add the condition of having determinant 1
So O(n) correspond to linear transformations of an n-dimensional real vector space preserving the inner product, or equivalently symmetries of the (n-1)-sphere (in dimension 2 and 3 that's just the reflections and rotations which are easy to visualize)
And SO(n) just adds the condition that the orientation is preserved, so you keep rotations but not reflections
For U(n)/SU(n) it's similar but now you're looking at transformations of an n-dimensional complex space which preserve the complex inner product. It's harder to visualize for n>=2, but it's really analogous the the real case.
If you want to learn more about Lie groups in general Bocherds has a nice lecture series about them
Borcherds is king
true
ok I thought about it a bit more, and I just don't understand how M is also an F-vector space. I know that R is an F-algebra, but I don't know how that is relevant?
If R is an F-algebra we have F < R as F is a field
yes
From there, given x in M and a in F, we can define a•x just pretending a is in R
As we know how to make sense of a•x when a is in R because M is an R-module
This doesn’t actually even require F < R, if F wasn’t a field so R being an F-algebra just meant we had a map phi:F -> R, we could define a•x to be phi(a)•x
This is something called “restriction of scalars”
Because in the case F < R we’re sort of restricting our scalars from everything in R to just those in F
If you look up restriction of scalars you’ll see it’s an adjoint to something called extension of scalars which is given by tensor product :)
Ok yeah sorry, that was dumb
thank you so much for your explanation!
this is an example from lang's algebra i came across
OHHHH!!!!
im wrong
sometimes you just gotta rubber duck debug
No, you are right. There is no such canonical map, for example when G=Z, H=2Z and K=0, we can’t get a map from Z/2Z to Z by mapping cosets to cosets, the only map is the trivial one
I assume lang just mixed up H and K
Oh lol
i was subbing in H and K for an indexed infinite seq
this is from the groups chapter section on inverse limits
I see
in interpolating the following data points using the quadratic Newton/Lagrange polynomial: (3, 7), (4, 2), (5,6), how do i find the correct Newton/Lagrange interpolating polynomial for the data set?
(these are two separate questions difference being one considering Newton and other considering Lagrange)
Not abstract algebra my friend, but if you’ve got the formula for the general n-point Lagrange polynomial you can just substitute in and get your answer lol
so, to prove (a), I found a middle linear map in between R/I \otimes B and B/IB. Now I'm considering a homomorphism g and want to show that they are mutual inverses. Kernel of g should be IB but i can't proceed to show that
I kinda see that why it's true but can't put into math properly
you can show that IB \subset ker g, and this is good enough to get a well defined map g : B/IB --> R/I \otimes B
well i've already shown this inclusion, the other way around seemed harder to me
you are right, that's indeed enough
ye, all you need is a map B/IB --> R/I \otimes B. showing that this is actually the inverse of you other map is equivalent to ker g = IB
thanks
np. There's another way to do this too
The idea is you tensor the SES
$$ 0 \to I \to R \to R/I \to 0$$ with $B$
i guess it has something to do with short exact sequnces
kxrider
oh yes
oops sorry what would be the appropriate channel for this type of problem then?
Maybe #computing-software ? This server is kinda lacking in numerical methods channels
can someone explain what this theorem is saying
its on page 3 in this paper
idg what it means by F_n is uniquely determined by F, along with the iff statement and all the other uniquely determined stuff
shouldn't the F_n uniquely determined F intuitvely (like to construct F as a function that vanishes everywhere)
There must be a typo somewhere. The lower-case f that is mentioned before the "iff" does not appear anywhere after the "iff".
no this f just refers to the polynomial function determined by the polynomial f (like the mapping f:Z_m\to Z_m, giving the values of f(0), f(1), f(2), \cdots)
so its basically just saying a condition for $F$ to vanish over $\mathbb{Z}_m[x]$
JustKeepRunning
idk the part i don't understand is the iff a uniqueness condition like shouldn't it be the other way around?
that F is uniquely determined by arbitrary polynomails F, and a_k?
but then how do I use the uniqueness condition?
My first guess would be that it's sloppy phrasing. I think it's trying to say that
(f = 0) iff (exists Fn, ...,ak)(F = FnSn + ....)
oh and by the way then you're going from left to right, Fn and ak are uniquely determined up to such-and-such
It also looks like the reference to "Definition 1" should really be "Definition 2" which suggests there are limits to the care that was taken with the phrasing.
do u know if there's another way to phrase the theorem thats easier to understand?
i am still having a lot of trouble understanding wut the theorem is tryign to say
I'll admit it's not intuitively clear to me how it works.
how do you intuitively understand tensor product of modules?
Experience
universal ploperty
This mf said plopertyxD
it may not seem like it at first but that is actually factual info
honestly when it comes to tensoring modules I do tend to go off of either the quotient construction or the universal property (even though they might be the same thing ;) )
Hi, i hope its okay to ask book recs even though it appears the book recs have dissapeared,
does anybody have an abstract algebra book with lots of worked theorems?
Because I'm trying to self teach i'd need to see the theorems properly proved to know im not making mistakes
(btw, i think book recs has disappeared because you have given yourself the studying role)
dummit & foote, they describe the proofs quite wordy as well
if i have an homomorphism in gap, how can i get the image of the homomorphism under a given element?
gap?
yes, the software gap
i didnt find it in the manual
You mean just just evaluating f(x) given an homomorphism f and an element x?
yes
So
Several Sloths
I don't know gap but that should definitely be in the first examples in the documentation about homomorphisms, that's like the simplest thing you can do with an homomorphism 🤔
I have a question about convex optimization and linear programming. Where is the best place for me to post my problem?
#numerical-analysis perhaps
peabrain abstract question: I'm trying to define the vector space of vectors that are linear maps over the rationals and the field that is the rationals
When you're trying to prove that the linear map
f(x1,x2,...,xn) =c1x1 + c2x2+...+cnxn
Has the additive inverse
-(f)(x1,x2,...,xn) = -c1x1 + -c2x2 + ... +-cnxn
(where all of the c1x1 are individually rational numbers, and the additive inverse exists by abelian group)
how do you prove that f and -f sum to the zero vector?
The zero vector being a map from n rationals to (0, 0, ..., 0)
I'd say by induction, then in the induction step, n iterations of associativity in (moving f_{n} to the end)
But then I'm not sure if that's a "good" proof method 🥴
I know it's trivial but i don't want to mess up on trivialities
am I misunderstanding this or
f(x1,x2,...,xn)-(f)(x1,x2,...,xn) =c1x1 + c2x2+...+cnxn-c1x1 + -c2x2 + ... +-cnxn = c1x1-c1x1+c2x2-c2x2...+cnxn-cnxn = 0
works for all finite n
right it works
but if you're proving it works where c1x1 c2x2 etc are elements of a group
then don't you have to do iterated associativity to prove you can rearrange to that?
It's hairsplitting but I'm trying to self learn 😅
of course they're elements of the vector space, the vector space is closed under scalar multiplication
and addition in a vector space is abelian by definition
Yes of course they're elements of the vector space my concern is about iterating the associativity in the proof
I think it's all good tho
I fail to see how associativity really matters here, apologies
the fact that you even write "c1x1 + c2x2+...+cnxn" without parentheses implies associativity of addition
yeah i mean because you have to move c1x1 + -c1x1 and so on
that's n times
n associativities for moving one element so that addition is applied to it and it's additive inverse
Then n more associativities
sorry 🥴 it's NBD, the prof is just incredibly precise
So if i elaborate on my thought process he'd probably expect to see that
And i just don't want to miss basics
that's commutativity not associativity
but don't apologise it's good when you're starting to really think through this stuff
Hi, does anyone mind helping me with part 2? I guess I'm supposed to prove 3x^2y+3xy^2 is not divisible by 5 or something but I just couldn't get why the number 5 would appear anywhere.
I think you should just look at like, what happens to 1 + 1 or something, probably

you can make a group by pointwise extension of a group right 🤣
Like for instance the function S->G is a group under pointwise addition and pointwise zero where pointwise addition is defined
+(f1,f2)(x) = f1(x)+f2(x)
pointwise zero is
0(x) = 0
And pointwise inverse is
-(f1)(x)=-(f1(x))
I can't see what's wrong with this but when i look up pointwise extension of a group i see nothing
your group structure on {f: S -> G} is pretty much how we define G^|S|, i.e., the direct product of G with itself |S| times
so there's nothing wrong with what you're doing at all, people definitely study direct products
e.g., G^2 can be identified with the set of functions f: {1,2} -> G, where (g1,g2) maps to the function f, where f(1)=g1, g(2)=g2
I don't understand why he wrote x^2,y^2 and xy are irreducible in this ring but he said they are reducible in Q[x]. Sorry I'm a little unfamiliar with these concepts but can anyone help me out?
The point is inside of R you don't have access to x
so you can't say that x^2 is reducible because x^2 = x * x, since x isn't in R, so you can't talk about that right hand side inside of R
inside of Q[x,y] though you can use x, so this is a valid expression showing that x^2 is reducible
oh okay that makes sense... ty so much 🐶
if I've done something and gotten $\bZ\oplus\bZ\cong A\oplus(\bZ/2\bZ)$ then have I messed up somewhere? It doesn't feel right for such an $A$ to exist but I'm not sure
abelian groups btw
compare order of elements on each side
can i show an isomorphism between fields by showing isomorphisms between the additive and multiplicative groups respectively
actually is that even a smart thing to do 
yeah field isomorphisms are exactly ring isomorphisms
so it works
hmmm
hmmmm
hmmmmm
im thinking about this bc i need to prove that any two four-elt fields are isomorphic
but idk if that's the right approach
it can probably work but might be unnecessarily lengthy
Write both of them as an extension of F_2
This is sort of how the general classification of finite fields go, but to get the F_p^2 fields is easy to do ad hoc by considering how they are extensions
This is particularly easy for F_2 because there’s so few polynomial in each degree
im gonna assume an extension has a formal definition, and we unfortunately didnt learn that :(
lol yeah
you could cheat and use the fact that any four-element ring is either cyclic or the klein 4-group
only one of these is a field, qed
That doesn’t do anything?
we also stopped short of the group actions chapter and instead jumped to a whirlwind on basic stuff with rings
im taking a better algebra class next semester lol
why not? a 4-element field is a 4-element ring, so it either has to be Z_4 (a field) or the klein 4-group (not a field)
You have to classify 4 element rings now???
You’re trying to solve a strictly harder problem
yeah that's why I said it was cheating
And I really think calling Z/2Z X Z/2Z a klein 4 group is silly because a group isn’t a ring lol
-_-
I am reading Joseph Rotman's book Advanced Modern Algebra.
I need help with Problem 2.34 on page 101.
Problem 2.34 reads as follows:
Prove that any two fields having exactly four elements are isomorphic...
i thought about this too but i like my original idea better so i'll try that lol
Could someone clarify please why the algebraic multiplicity of eigenvalue gives the size of Jordan block of the matrix with that eigenvalue on diagonal?
so from your answer I'm guessing that if $A\oplus B\cong C\oplus D$ then $A$ has the same order as either $C$ or $D$?
He isn’t talking about the order of the groups, he’s talking about the order of elements inside the group
This isn’t true because you could compare like, uh
Z/pZ (+) Z/qZ and Z/pqZ (+) {e}
Hint: First prove that 1+1=0, and then show that the nonzero elements form a cyclic group of order 3 under multiplication
i found these hints for the four elt field problem
but how does the second one help
I’m gonna be honest
Write down the elements of a field with four elements
0,1,x,y
Figure out what relations are required, like 1+1 = 0
What x•y is forced to be
Shit like this
Once you do this you can take another field {0,1,c,d}
And you can just define a map sending 0 to 0, 1 to 1, x to c, y to d
And just show it’s a homomorphism
Like when there’s four elements
You can literally bash out the addition and multiplication tables
There’s 16 entries to fill in, and a ton of them are already fixed
Like 1• anything else = the thing
0• anything = 0
Also Z_4 isn’t a field it has zero divisors
There’s at least 3 rings with 4 elements
Z/4Z, (Z/2Z)^2 and F_4
It should be possible to write it out in like 3 minutes
Not even kidding
Because of commutativity there’s only 10 things to compute
For multiplication 7 of those are enforced by ring axioms
For addition 4 of them
thank you mr chmonkey
oh true I was thinking of groups again lul
I've been working with groups all day
the real way to cheat would be to use the fact that all fields of a given finite order are isomorphic if they exist 
could i even stop short of showing the tables
and just say "this is a unique construction of a four element field"
Yo
Let f : G to G’ be surj homo
Let H’ normal subg of G
Let H = f^{-1}(H’)
Then H is normal and the map x |-> f(x)H’ is a homo of G to G’/H’ whose kernel is H
How do i prove this
he's saying to use the first isomorphism theorem
Bruh
On what page in Lang Algebra does he teach first iso theorem
Did i miss it
Ok can you just
Prove it along with the first iso theorem
Then ill catch up
I don’t think he names it, but iirc it should be one of the first few pages of the groups chapter
Ok well im on like page 40 something
Sorry to disturb again but could anyone help me with part 3? I actually don't understand how the hint is used...
Can some1 just do a deep proof
you don't really even need first iso for anything. Do you know what you have to show to prove x |-> f(x)H' is a homomorphsim?
Note that if 5 = xy for x and y in Z+Zsqrt(2), then N(x)|N(5) and the same for y
if a has order 4, then a generates F
err hm actually nvm that there's something weird you've done here (F, *) is not a group. However (F - {0}, *) is a group of order 3
yea, basically the "group of units" of any ring is a group
ohhhhh right right
in fact for finite fields, F - {0} is always cyclic
okay I'm still stuck.. can anyone help me PLS
sorry quick doubt, but what i meant is that like, proving a claim about this gives us something about the whole field right?
idk if that makes sense
What does "any monomorphism in R-Mod is a kernel" mean
We need to assume N(x) = N(y) = 5 and show it's not possible
If 5 = xy
Since N(x) = 1 iff x is a unit
So we have a^2-2b^2 = 5
And you need to show this has no solutions
Squares mod 5 are 0, 1 and 4
So which of those satisfy a^2 = 2b^2 (mod 5)?
And then you get only one possibility, from which you get a contradiction
So there's no element of Z[sqrt(2)] with norm 5
Anything with norm 25 must be prime in this ring
Could anyone explain the valuation function on $\mathbb{Z}_{13}$?
Scerball
okay wow, thank you so much!!!! I guess I wasn't very aware of how to use the fact that squares mod 5 =0,1,4, but thats super cool! Also just a little question, your last line, do you mean if N(x)=25 then N(y) must be 1 and therefore y is a unit, proving 5 is prime?
Yeah, either N(x) = 1 or N(y) = 1
Also why is the case a mod 5=0 and b mod 5 =0 cause contradiction?
I got confused again
Because then both a, b will be divisible by 5
yeah
im sorry but why
a^2 -2b^2 = 5
Np
There exists map with that monomorphism as its kernel
Where we treat kernels as the whole inclusions of a submodule?
I mean, more abstractly here
Monomorphism satisfies the definition of a kernel basically?
Ye
For some map
How do you find the maximum ideals of (R)? I think (<2>) is the only maximum ideal of (\mathbb{Z}{8}) and the only maximum ideals of (\mathbb{Z}{30}) are (<2>, \ <3>) and (<5>). My guess is that the maximum ideals of (R) are just the direct products, but how do you prove this? \
There's also a theorem in the book that the factor ring (R / I) is a field iff (I) is a maximum ideal. Since (R / I) is finite, I can show that (R / I) is a field by showing that it's an integral domain, so maybe that gives some constraint on what the maximum ideals are. But it seems complicated thinking of the problem that way.
In particular, for any inclusion M \↪ N, the quotient map N → N/M has the inclusion as a kernel
gnosis
Let $L = \Omega_{\mathbb{Q}}^{x^5 - 2}$ be a splitting field of $x^5 -2$ over $\mathbb{Q}$. Prove that there is an exact sequence of groups:
$0 \xrightarrow{} \mathbb{Z}/5\mathbb{Z} \xrightarrow{} Gal(L/\mathbb{Q}) \xrightarrow{} (\mathbb{Z}/5\mathbb{Z})^{\times} \xrightarrow{} 1$.
Évariste Galois
I'm not sure where to start. I haven't seen many exact sequences before.
By Sylow's Theorem, any group of order 20 (which is the order of your splitting field) must have a normal subgroup of order 5 (a group acts on its set of Sylow p-subgroups by conjugation, but group of order 20 has only one Sylow 5 subgroup [check], so it must be normal).
So there is an inclusion of Z/5Z as a normal subgroup of your Galois group
You just need to check that when you quotient your Galois group by Z/5Z, you get (Z/5Z)*, and this will give your exact sequence
when you're solving a system of linear eqns through Gauss Jordan, is this the sort of vector space you solve over?
because you're solving multi linear maps
I'm a bit stuck on that tbh
my brain is melting, a vector space seems so general, why are you solving over linear eqns? Because you have no multiplication axioms for the vectors? 🥴
Your guess is good, depending on what you mean by direct products. For a starting point, try proving that any ideal J of R x S looks like (J cap R) x (J cap S).
But just to be sure, maximal ideals of the product ring won't quite be the direct products of the maximal ideals of R and S
any nudges on the second one
i dont see it
i didnt write that proof of i) i know it could be prettier
oooooo i think i see it
but would that suffice as an argument that they're isomorphic
could i like consider a "basis" of each one and work from that
what argument?
you haven't written anything down
an explicit isomorphism would suffice as an argument
and it's the only argument you should give in this case
please just write down an explicit isomorphism
or well that addition and multiplication are preserved
(and to do so yes you need an explicit isomorphism)
What happens when you exchange the equalities in axioms like group axioms with equivalence classes
We do the opposite when we take quotient groups
So apparently all elements in a ring that have left inverses do not necessarily have right inverse
I've seen some counterexamples, but I've seen a proof for groups that left invertible implies right invertible -- so what about rings changes that?
as in, what about this breaks?
You’re assuming that everything has a left inverse
The issue with rings is some elements may have a left inverse while others don’t, so you can’t show that everything has a right inverse
Crucially, we start with a’s left inverse b, then use b’s left inverse
In a ring there’s no way to guarantee that b has a left inverse
right and b's left inverse might not exist
This proof does work if you assume everything non-zero has a left inverse though
ahh i see
tysm

hey guys do any of u understand how to answer this question
What's an example of a ring without identity that does not contain maximal ideal?
The even integers mod 4
Suppose I have a complex representation whose character is real (takes a real value for each element in the group), is it true that the representation itself comes from a real rep? (I.e equals the tensor product of a real representation with the complex numbers)
Hi, for my abstract algebra course my prof has sent us assignments. One of these assignments is about irreducability of polynomials. I've spent some time to learn about irreducible polynomials, but I'm still confused by the question as it does not specify whether they should be irreducible over a specific field. To quote the question:
(1) x^4 + x + 1 - is the polynomial irreducible? What about primitive?
Everywhere I look to learn about irreducibility, it is specified over what field
Should I be able to answer that question without knowing the specific field?
no you need to know it
In that case I'll email the prof, thank you
No they did not
Maybe there's some general assumption (my guess would be Q, rational numbers) but I'm unsure
but if it was this would be relatively trivial
just plug in +=1 using RRT
ima guessing its more thanthat
my guess its probably over $\mathbb{Q}[\sqrt{n}]$ for some integer $n$
JustKeepRunning
but yea u shoudl email the prof
rrt = rational root theorem?
yea
It is the first assignment though, out of 8 so could be a warming up
I will, thank you!
I'm not sure how to see that that the last condition is indeed equivalent to saying \mu and \eta are coalgebra maps
does a 2 out of 3 property hold for (co)algebra maps
Anyone has smth about this?
I have a biquadratic $x^4 + 2bx^2 + c$ which is irreducible over a field of char $\neq 2$. If $E$ is its splitting field with roots $\pm \alpha,\pm \beta$, I want to show that $[E:F]=8$ iff $c,c(b^2-c)\notin F^2$. The hint I was given is to show that $F(\alpha^2)=F(\beta^2)=F(\sqrt{b^2-c})$ which I did, but i'm pretty lost
i'd like just a small hint
ShiN
Look at “summary” and then “type of representation”
It has real characters but not all reps come from real reps
Interesting, thank you!
Maybe F(alpha.beta) and F(alpha.beta, sqrt(b^2-c))
I don't see how this helps exactly
Containment of fields F < F(alpha.beta) < F(alpha.beta, sqrt(b^2-c)) < F(alpha, beta) = E
Well yea, I understand that, I don't see how you relate this to the condition c(b^2-c) \notin F^2
the condition that c is not a square can be implied I think since alpha*beta=sqrt c
Yes, that's right, so that's some progress towards E being degree 8
Want each of those extensions to be degree 2
yes, that was my train of thought too, but i'm still not sure how to relate the condition c(b^2-c)\notin F^2 to this
Ok, let's prove the next field containment is strict
I.e. can't have F(alpha.beta) = F(alpha.beta, sqrt(b^2-c))
You mentioned that alpha.beta = sqrt(c), so want to prove: F(sqrt(c))=F(sqrt(c), sqrt(b^2-c)) is false
Well suppose the containment wasn't strict. Then it must be that sqrt(b^2-c) = q * sqrt(c)+r for some rationals q and r
yup
well, the base field isn't necessarily Q but that doesn't matter
just that it's not char 2
it doesn't
Re-arrange the equation: [sqrt(b^2-c)-q*sqrt(c)]^2 = r^2
Expand: b^2-c-2sqrt(c(b^2-c))+q^2c = r
Here is one place we're using Char != 2
ayo
can anyone help me?
i have to show that GL(n, Zp) has a cyclic subgroup of order (p^n)-1
for every prime p and positive integer n
the hint says to consider the degree n extension of Zp
the degree n extension of Zp is Zp^n.
this group is cyclic, so let a generate it.
thus |<a>| = p^n -1
but what does this have to do with GL(n,Zp)?
the degree n extension of Z/p as a field is absolutely not (Z/p)^n. The latter isn't a field with the direct product structure so unless you mean something else when you say that you're mistaken
ah ok
sorry for miscommunication
np
i'm guessing i have to show that this isomorphic to a subgroup of GL(n,Zp)?
oh you want a representation of F_(p^n) over F_p
I'll have to think about this - we're taking these as groups under multiplication right?
yeah
no way right?
GL(n, Zp) has p^n entries minus those that are not invertibnle
but |Z_(p^n)*| = p^n-1
nah, the former has order (p^n-1)(p^n-p)...(p^n-p^(n-1)) iirc
wrong reply
oh yeah
meant to reply to the message below
that's correct
so they're def not iso
i think i just do have to show it is isomorphic to a subgroup
i.e. show that it is a valid representation
is there a natural injection?
I'm trying to think of one
I need some kind of faithful group action of F_p^n on a set of size n and then I think I can get you a representation of degree n
what about the action of the generator on the set F_p^n
that's bigegr
does that induce an injection
I think the way to go might to just find an element of order (p^n)-1 and take the cyclic group generated by that element
cause I am writing a lot of stuff here that might be way too in depth 
i just found this
this does not help me though....
my mad ramblingsthoughts:
F_p^n \cong F_p[x]/(q) where q is degree n, these elements all look like some degree r < n polynomials with coefficients in F_p
is the action of F_p^n on the set {1, x, x^2, x^3, .., x^n} faithful - that might be something
so if we chose the set {1, x, ... , x^n} as our basis vectors of a vector space over F_p (which is valid as the polynomials already have coefficients in F_p, so taking coefficients these as our scalars is alright), then the action of elements of F_p^n by regular multiplication in F_p^n on this set of basis vectors is faithful, I think
so we map each element x of F^p_n to the corresponding permutation matrix generated by how x permutes the basis vectors - this is an injective map as the action is faithful, hence the kernel is 0, so the image of the generator (with order p^n-1) under this map also has order p^n-1.
As for what this map is I have absolutely no clue but it exists 
what IS the group action on the set {1, x, ..., x^n} given by F_p^n?
don't we just care about the generating element's action?
wait!
i found a stackexchange post
that is related
"It is easy to show existence of element of order 𝑞𝑛−1 (by embedding 𝔽∗𝑞𝑛 in this group)."
let's embed this motherfucker
ahaha
hold on I need paper but I think I've got it
kk
nope sorry another false alarm
I was trying to write the generator a as a polynomial and then have map it to a matrix such that the product with the vector (1, x, x^2, ..., x^n) gave me a but it doesn't preserve multiplication so it's useless
i think constructing it is harder than just showing that it exists
this is a disgustingly hard problem
this isn't even the last problem on the pset 😭
ok time for my last ditch attempt, I'm gonna try and use character theory here
I just cannot for the life of me get an injective representation
there's some diagonal matrix that works
that's pretty much the best that I've got
fuck
check the answers and tell me what they say lol
I think I got it. Thanks a lot!
and if I see the word "galois" anywhere I'm actually quitting the server
At least my construction worked lol
I'm just not 100% sure where I used the hypothesis that f is irreducible.
hmm maybe it's in the converse
I'm not sure if the conditions imposed are sufficient without the hypothesis that f is irreducible or not
bruh
That's a good question
Is irreducibility perhaps used to show that the final field containment is strict? I haven't checked
@delicate orchid thanks for ur help 🤝
I tried 
Wys about Galois bro
because I don't know galois theory
the way I did it it reduced to the fact that the other 2 containments are strict
i'm doing the converse rn
hmm wait I might have a mistake
ok yea I think my approach doesn't work actually

ping me if you have an idea. I'm a bit stuck rn on the last inclusion but i'll try again tmrw
Yeah, i got it
The last field containment is F(alpha, beta) > F(alpha.beta, alpha^2)
Why is this strict? Because the right field doesn't have alpha. alpha satisfies the following poly with coefs in F(alpha.beta, alpha^2): X^2-alpha^2
X^2-alpha^2 is irreducible because if it wasn't, then the quartic we started out with would be reducible since it can be expressed as (X^2-alpha^2)(X^2-beta^2) by assumption
not sure I follow. It would be reducible over F(alpha*beta,alpha^2), not over F
or uh, over F(alpha^2) even
I tried going in this direction too haha
Oh wait no, I think this is right: I've shown that alpha is not in F(alpha.beta, alpha^2), since its min poly in this field is degree 2
Oh wait yeah, it is wrong lol
Complete nonsense, I don't see it right now, sorry
no problem
lmk if u have an idea
I think this containment has to hold whenever f is irredducible fwiw
like the strict containment
since the other two may fail because of the other conditions but the degree of E/F cannot go below 4
what is the difference between $End_R(M)$ and $End(M)$?
Monku
End(M) refers to just abelian group endomorphisms
Subscript R means only R-linear maps
wdym by R-linear map
f(ra)=rf(a) for r in R
In addition to respecting the group structure
So in particular End_R(M)\subset End(M)
yea ofc
okay
ty
this makes sense actually right
if we say R is not only commutative, but a field
and we consider it as a vector space
all homomorphisms between vector spaces are linear maps, no?
Homomorphisms between R-modules are precisely the R-linear maps, yes
Well yea, but you can have maps between vector spaces that only respect the group structure but aren't necessarily linear
There are non-linear maps R->R (even bijections iirc) that satisfy f(a+b)=f(a)+f(b)
Looks like the definition of scalar multiplication to me
@chilly radish I just realised why we ran into a wall earlier, we didn't actually use any Galois theory
I didn't see a way to really use galois theory here, but a friend gave me a different approach
What did your friend say
you can use the fact that for a field F, F(sqrt a, sqrt b)/F is degree 4 iff a,b,ab are not squares in F, and from this you can conclude everything
also suggested just like, making size arguments about the galois group using the fact that certain elements are/aren't squares to disqualify certain automorphisms
morally this is similar to what you suggested, it's just an easier and less direct appraoch
so like first you apply this to F(sqrt(b^2-c)) with alpha and beta
and then to F(\sqrt(b^2-c),\sqrt c)
If M is an R-module and f is an R-linear map M->M, then we can make M into an R[x]-module by defining
(a+bx+cx²+dx³+...)·m = a·m + b·f(m) + c·f(f(m)) + d·f(f(f(m))) + ...
In this case this just works out to p·v = p(alpha)v when p in Z2[x] and v in F, and the multiplcation on the right happens in F.
To get to the final part in that chain I gave, recall alpha*beta = sqrt(c), alpha^2 = -b+sqrt(b^2-c). The field F(sqrt(c), sqrt(b^2-c)) is a Galois extension of F which has Klein-4 Galois group and generated by the automorphisms A "fix sqrt(c) and permute +/- sqrt(b^2-c)" and automorphism B "permute +/- sqrt(c) and fix sqrt(b^2-c)". Suppose for contradiction that F(alpha, beta) = F(sqrt(c), sqrt(b^2-c)). Then from the automorphisms just found, AB(alpha) = beta or -beta, and AB(beta) = -alpha or alpha, but this would give an element of order 4 in the Klein-4 group which is a contradiction.
Let G be a group and K a normal subgroup. Assume that K and G/K are solvable. Then G is solvable.
How
Just put them together?
There’s no problem with quotient groups being abelian
(Use 3rd iso if necessary )
Then normality
If G1/K normal to G/K what about G1 to G
what
so we have
G = H0 > H1 > ... > Hn = K
and if we say G'=G/K
wee have G' = H'0 > H'1 > ... > H'm = {e}
but where does the first isomorphism theorem com ein
First H0/H1=(H0/K)/(H1/K)
by 3rd iso
the latter is abelian because G/K is solvable
Normality we have H1/K normal to H0/K
take any h0K then h0h1h0^-1K is in H1/K
so any h0h1h0^(-1) =h1’k for some h1’ in H1 and k in K
but K is contained in H1
so H1 is normal in H0
@north field
Is it true that M_n(R)/M_n(I)=M_n(R/I)? Where R is a not necessarily commutative ring, and I a two sided ideal.
But it says to use 1st iso
a hint to prove that K\sub L and L\sub F algebraic extensions => K\sub F algebraic extension?
look at the degree of some a in F over K, try to conclude its finite. Use polynomial over L
that's what ive mainly been trying 😭
tried getting rid of the coefficients in L by taking polynomials in K but im struggling
there is f(x) such that f(a) = 0 and f(x) = sum a_i x^i where a_i are in L.
Maybe look at the extension K(\sum a_i)
hmm okay havent looked at that extension
god im a moron
of course
lmao thanks for the confirmation
whats your hollow knight completion?
112% in regular, 110% in steel soul
damnn
havent gotten around to actually doing p5 in steel soul, havent been bothered
it's literally the same as in regular
(b) and (c) ?
Pretty sure this works for b: Take any two vector spaces A and B both with dimension greater than 1 over a field F. Let a_1, a_2 be distinct basis vectors of A and b_1, b_2 be distinct basis vectors of B, then a_1 \otimes b_1 + a_2 \otimes b_2 cannot be written as a single a' \otimes b'
as for c) I'm thinking we take $\bQ \otimes \bQ$ as a $\bQ$-vector space and consider $1/2 \otimes 2 = 1/2 (1 \otimes 2) = 1/2(1 \otimes 1\times 2) = (1/2\times2)(1 \otimes 1) = 1(1 \otimes 1) = (1 \otimes 1)$ Think this works.
Wew "Planks" Tbh
just to make sure im not being stupid, if i find a field L in which a polynomial over K splits, then i can directly conclude that the splitting field is K(a_1,...,a_n) where a_1,...,a_n are its distinct roots in L right?
is that not the definition of a splitting field
it pretty much follows directly yeah i just dont wanna be dumb
fairs
Anyone know where I can find a list of subgroups of $\sfrac \mathbb{Z}/4 \times \sfrac \mathbb{Z}/4$. I looked in groupprops but the page for it didn't list subgroups
have you checked GAP?
ShiN
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
i believe it can list subgroups
computational group theory software
oh
is it accessible, cuz I don't really wanna learn a new language just for this one problem
fairly accessible
but your group is small so finding all the subgroups by hand - while tedious - is probably doable
actually since it's abelian I can find all the subgroups (up to isomorphism
) from the character table

Imma get done with this assignment then I'll learn representation theory
I'm taking it actually
all my representation theory is self taught lol
where did you learn it?
I did my master's dissertation on it so I learnt during that
I'll write thesis on random walks on graphs
but first i have to study amenable groups
never heard of them
in order to determine whether a group is amenable or not, you link it to a probability problem of random walks on graphs
ah, that'll be why I haven't heard of them 
fascinating that groups come up in a probability problem though
I'm pretty sure {(i, j) : i in {0, 1, 2, 3}, j in {0, 2}} and {(i, j) : i in {0, 2}, j in {0, 1, 2, 3}} are the only subgroups of order 8
alright sweet ty
lol isn't it too much for a hint?
what else am i supposed to do? am i missing something?
like by hypotesis an ideal must also be a free-module and then you show that every two elements are linearly dependent so there must be only one element that generates it, therefore every ideal is principal and by definition R is PID
Yes, and the roots don't need to be distinct thought it said the polynomial had distinct roots, sorry.
yea, if the roots aren't distinct your notation is just redundant but it doesn't change the field
if you want the minimal generating set you need distinct roots tho
Oh, then it should be Z/2 × Z/4 and Z/4 × Z/2, since such a subgroup is the same as surjective hom to Z/2 is the same as two homs from Z/4 to Z/2 which are not both trivial.
Given an ideal $I$ in a lattice $L$, I'm pretty sure there's a lattice homomorphism $L \to L^\prime$ which is universal wrt making every element of $I$ minimum in the codomain, by taking the quotient of $L$ by the smallest congruence under which any two elements of $I$ are equivalent.
Is there a good concrete description of this congruence? If $L$ is distributive, I think the following works:
$$x \sim y \iff \exists i, j \in I \colon x \vee i = y \vee j.$$
Raghuram
Could someone clarify please why the algebraic multiplicity of eigenvalue gives the size of Jordan block of the matrix with that eigenvalue on diagonal?
The Jordan canonical form has the same characteristic polynomial—in particular the same algebraic multiplicities—as the original matrix, as it is similar to it.
For an upper triangular matrix the eigenvalues are the diagonal entries, with algebraic multiplicity of an eigenvalue the number of times it occurs on the diagonal.
Thus the algebraic multiplicity of an eigenvalue of the original matrix is the number of times it occurs on the diagonal of the Jordan canonical form i.e. the total size of all Jordan blocks for that eigenvalue.
alright, thank you
One is a homomorphism, the other an element of a tensor product of abgroups of homomorphisms.
However, observing that Corollary 5.3 is bilinear as a function of f and g, there is an induced map from the tensor product to the Hom group which sends the second f (×) g to the first.
So perhaps the difference is pedantry. 
(Cue lots of embarassment if there actually was a significant difference.)
i actually wrote something similar but then i deleted it
Could somebody please explain why $\mathbb{Z}_4$ is not a PID?
Scerball
so yeah, in the former one, there is a corresponding balanced function while in the later one not necessarily
Or even a hint
what's Z_4?
so just 0,1,2,3?
Yes
I think I have shown that it is a PID but the answer sheet I have tells me it's not
yeah it is a PID, so reread the sheet maybe
Right
The ideals are principal but it's not an integral domain.
How can I prove this is a PID?
Am I wrong? 
It's not because it's not an integral domain
Which is part of the definition of a PID.
usually to to prove/disprove things are PIDs u want to look at the chain of types of rings
the chain goes from like most general to most specific
usually the important ones are as follows:
I need a diagram of this lol
rings > commutative rings > integral domains > UFDS > PIDS > Euclidean Domains > Fields
there are some other ones that aren't as well known that you can see here:
In mathematics, a unique factorization domain (UFD) (also sometimes called a factorial ring following the terminology of Bourbaki) is a ring in which a statement analogous to the fundamental theorem of arithmetic holds. Specifically, a UFD is an integral domain (a nontrivial commutative ring in which the product of any two non-zero elements is n...
but the ones I wrote above are the ones u should remember
becuase they all come up really often
so for example if u want to prove that something is not a PID and u show its not an integra; domain then that is sufficient
Its a PIR though. PIRs are just PIDs that aren't D
(Quotients of PIRs are PIRs; Z is a PID so a PIR)
if one were to ignore the restriction that p be prime in the construction of the prüfer p-group and set p to 10 (obtaining a group that's isomorphic to the additive group of terminating decimals mod 1), would the result be iso to Z(2^infty) oplus Z(5^infty)?
What would something like (e^(2pi*i/2^n), e^(2pi*i/5^m)) with m=/=n be identified with?
If I have a field extension whose degree is a composite number n , does the Galois correspondence and sylow theory imply the existence of an intermediate fields whose degree are the primes that divide n
No, first you would need to assume your extension is Galois to do that, and you would need subgroups of index p for a prime dividing n which Sylow doesn’t afford you
This is quite likely a silly question but is there a nice interpretation of commutators and derived series in terms of field extensions via the Galois correspondence?
The 'other' way of viewing solvable groups in terms of composition series w prime factors obviously seems far more natural, what with radical extensions
Does every symmetric function have same coefficients?
It does as far as i understood ....
Polynomial?
Then no
you may want to rephrase your question
Please let me know any symmetric function in F(x,y,z) over F=Q
$xyz$ works?
JustKeepRunning
i mean as long as permuting teh variables doesn't chagne anything its symmetric
assuming u are using the usual defintion of symmetric?
$\frac{22}{7}xyz^2 + \frac{22}{7} xy^2z + \frac{22}{7}x^2yz$
Troposphere
Please let me know any symmetric function in Q(x,y,z) that doesn't have same coefficients..
The sum of mine and JustKeepRunning's.
If it's really Q(x,y,z) and not Q[x,y,z], you'll also get functions like $$\frac{22xy + 22xz + 22yz}{1+2x+2y+2z}$$.
Troposphere
hey guys can someone help with this problem
Find the zero divisors of $\mathbb{Z}_m[x]/I,$ where I is the ideal of vanishing polynomials over $\mathbb{Z}_m[x]$
JustKeepRunning
From first iso thm, it follows that \mathbb{Z}_m[x]/I is isomoprhic to the ring of all polynomial functions
And it is well known that every polynomial function uniquely corresponds to a representation $F=\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}b_kX^k,$ where $n$ is the smallest integer satisfy $m|n!$ and $0\leq b_k < \frac{m}{(k!,m)}.$
JustKeepRunning
so basically i am just trying to find all zero divisors over the set of polynomilas $F=\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}b_kX^k$ with $0\leq b_k < \frac{m}{(k!,m)}$ (i.e. all polynmials in this set for which there exists another polynomila in the set such that their product is a polynomila that vanishes over all elements of $\mathbb{Z}_m$)
JustKeepRunning
does anybody know how to approach this problem
i am tempted to say their product but im not sure tbh
If I have a tower of field extensions F/E/K could I get away with calling the dimension of F as an E vector space the codegree of E? I.e. codef(E)=[F:E]
This is a combination of the first iso theorem, third iso
And also the fourth iso / lattice iso, or whatever you call the theorem that tells you subgroups of G/N are the same as subgroups of G containing N
Apply the first iso so you replace G’ with G/K for K the kernel
Take H’ a normal subgroup of G/K, by that fourth iso or whatever you know H’ is of the form H/K for H a normal subgroup of G containing K
The inverse image of H/K is just H
Then G’/H’ = (G/K)/(H/K) ≈ G/H by the third iso
Why cant he
explain that shit
Before
he says this
and when he uses them
why cant he say that
is this 2nd iso
Yeah
ffs
Does anyone have the full version of MAGMA? I have the student version (which has a memory limit) and I want to run some computations for research
I have the code, all you would need to do is plug the code in and send me what it returns
when one writes $HN$ for two groups do they mean ${ hn : \forall h\in H, \forall n \in N }$ if $H<G$ and $N<G$
nonagonclass
@next obsidian
yes
but note that this is not always a subgroup
yes ofc
if one of them is a normal subgroup then it's a subgroup and equivalent to H V N which is a subgroup generated by H and N
ok so $HN={e, h_1,\cdots, h_{|H|-1}, n_1,\cdots n_{|N|-1}, h_1n_1, h_2n_1, \cdots, h_{|H|-1}n_{1},\cdots, h_1n_{|N|-1},\cdots h_{|H|-1}n_{|N|-1} }$
oops
nonagonclass
@broken stirrup
Basically, you have identity, everything in H, everything in N and every possible product of elements so yes
so there might not be inverses for the $hn$'s?
nonagonclass
where $h,n\neq e$
nonagonclass
nonagonclass
generally no, but if either one of them is normal then NH=HN
can anyone help me with this proof? kinda stuck here
Are you allowed to use that F^x is cyclic? (just checking in case this leads to that or smth)
yes
Sure. Well this reduces to asking - in Z/nZ (since any finite cyclic group order n isomorphic to Z/nZ) , how many x (mod n) are are there such that xm = 0 mod n
That should give you gcd(m, n)
can you help me start the proof so i know what should I do next?
Hm well with the reduction to Z/nZ I'd say that if g is a generator of F^x then (g^a)^m = 1 iff am = 0 mod n where n = |F^x|
Now from there it is a little calculation and I can't really give a hint without just giving the answer
wdym? i cant tell kinda lost here
@south patrol im really having a hard time to prove this one ngl this is a pain in my ass
Hm well consider pairs (x, y) such that xm + yn = 0
Idk if you know the general solution to that
can you show me the proof so I can study it?
So, there exists mZ = {..., -m, 0, m, ...} but is there something like mZ/nZ ?
So if m = 2 and n = 8, 2Z/8Z = {0,2,4,6}
is this ok?
yep! but you’ll need m to divide n for this to make sense. this is actually a special case of the 4th/lattice isomorphism theorem. Not only is mZ/nZ is a subgroup of Z/nZ when nZ is a subgroup of mZ (ie m divides n), but these are the only subgroups.
5Z/3Z = {0, 1, 2} doesn’t make sense because?
3Z is not a subset of 5Z let alone a subgroup
how could quotienting possibly make sense
well I think it’s a matter of convention/notation at that point
why can i not just quotient by the equivalence a ~ b iff a mod n = b mod n?
i think that you make a good point c squared
but in the more abstract setting people will write NH/N rather than H/N when H doesn’t contain N
or you could call pi the projection map and say pi(H)
2nd iso theorem moment
i see. so this would be nZmZ/nZ?
well Z is an additive group
so you would write (nZ + mZ)/nZ
and nZ+mZ is just gcd(n,m)Z
thanks!
yup!
I'd like to clarify that no, it is not a matter of convention/notation - you must have a normal subgroup for a quotient to make sense, there's a correspondence between equivalence relations that maintain the group structure and normal subgroups
you can do it as sets, sure
but the result will not be a group
When are two Lie algebras considered to be isomorphic?
when there's an isomorphism of the underlying vector spaces that preserves the brackets
