#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages Ā· Page 705 of 407
i.e. when there exists a bijective linear map f: g -> h such that f([x, y]) = [f(x), f(y)]
Silly question, but I am learning about sl2 modules right now and in many places I see expression lile Y^n(v), where Y is a nilpotent matrix of rank 2. However wouldnt that mean Y^n(v)=0 for all n bigger than 2? Something doesnt seem to make sense for me
maybe they mean a nilpotent matrix that also has rank 2? i've never seen "rank" used to describe the powers to which a nilpotent matrix vanishes
This is the matrix
For example here serre writes those relations which dont make sense to me as e_n should be all trivial for higher n no?
(g is the lie algebra sl2)
anybody can give me a hint on this problem?
one of them is an element of Hom(A tensor B, A' tensor B') and the other an element of Hom(A, A') tensor Hom(B, B')
you can use the universal property of the latter to show that there is a natural homomorphism Hom(A, A') tensor Hom(B, B') -> Hom(A tensor B, A' tensor B')
hum interesting
How do I study for a comp exam
My prof said the final is going to be a mock comp exam
And idk how that's different to a normal final š
do previous exams
thank you I'll think about it
can someone explain this proof
i don't understand the final line
how does (a/s)(s/1) being in J imply that a is in I?
I = h^{-1}(J)
coudl u elaborate
Here it tries to prove that not every element of tensor product is a simple tensor. So e_1 and e_2 are basis vectors and it assumes the above sum is a simple tensor to get a contradiction. I didn't understand how we get that system of equations
the above shows that $$e_1 \otimes e_1 + e_2 \otimes e_2$$ is not simple
adl
Is every K a splitting field for F?(F<E<K)
No
For starters any splitting field will be a finite extension
Besides, you seem to have omitted what E, K, F actually are
F<E<K
@south patrol yes
what is meant by "F - isomorphic"
reference to : any two splitting fields of f over F is F-isomorphic
I assume it means that the isomorphism fixes F
You can consider it like a triangle, you have two inlcusions F -> L and F -> L'
an F-isomorphism should be a map L -> L' such that the triangle commutes
What does a splitting extension over F mean? .. answer plz
So suppose we have a polynomial p(x) in F[x]. A splitting extension of p(x) is a field extension K/F such that that i) p(x) splits in K ii) K is minimal over F with respect that property - that is, such that p does not split in any intermediate field L with F<=L<K
I guess here they've generalised it to there existing a finite set of polynomials, though really that's a splitting field of the product of those polynomials so it's a splitting field in this other sense anyway
alpha=2^(1/4) here. Why is K a splitting extension of Q?
we need more information. Splitting field over Q of what polynomial(s)?
Then why is K a normal extension of Q..
U just need to show it has conjugates of every element in the field
Enough to show conjugates of the basis exist on the field
I still dont know what normal extension's definition is
even though i could find what my textbook says
normal extension if 1, 2, or 3
- every embedding of K into the algebraic closure induces an auto on K
- K is a splitting filed of some family of non zero polys
- each irreducible polys in F having at least 1 root in K has all roots in K
1 2 and 3 are equivalent and all define normal extensions
3 is also equivalent to say that eaxh irred poly in F having at least 1 root in K splits completely in K
Aight so like
I understand the words on the page
But have absolutely no intuition for what a split extension is
see "splitting lemma" for some ways to think about split short exact sequences
i feel that when i took alg top
yea
This class is way out of my league I'm too dumb to be doing this
Hopefully I can keep my grade after this final but prolly not
as long as youāre above average
Does the degree of a polynomial divide the degree of it's splitting field?
Or any other type of relationship between these two
not good enough lol
would it not be the opposite? the degree of a splitting field will divide the degree of the polynomial
oh wait no no no
if $\Sigma / F$ is a splitting field of some polynomial $f$ of degree $n$ then we have that $[\Sigma / F : F] \leq n!$
Spamakinš·
that's from my notes
but I can't imagine it's hard to show that $[\Sigma / F : F] \mid n!$
Spamakinš·
Ahh okay thank you. There is that one
Hurb
@long obsidian yes it does
Or well, are you assuming that the polynomial is irreducible?
If so then yes, because if alpha is a root of f then you have the chain of extensions
splitting field/F(alpha)/F
The degree of F(alpha) over F is the degree of f so it follows that the degree of f divides the degree of the splitting field over F
And spamakonās final thing is true, the degree of the splitting field divides n!
This is because you can obtain it by continually adjoining roots
I was assuming irreducible thank you
IT IS
well not too hard but a pain in the behind
I guess itās a little harder
yes but... STRONG induction which is so weird to need
strong induction is the best induction
indeed
why tie n - 1 hands behind your back
lol
im using that
I donāt ever write my inductive hypothesis anymore
So if it needs strong Iāll use it
I wish I could do that but graders be stickers
But often I only need the n-1 case
yea
I mean often I just say āso we are finished by inductionā
But granted Iām not taking like
true but i never HAD to use it u know
Intro algebra anymore
I mean idk even in this grad level algebra course I'm doing the grader is being a stickler for all all details, even trivial stuff like that
I'll be honest
I don't do algebra for a grade anymore
So I don't have a reason to make it that forma
I'm jealous
it do be the good life
Yeah I mean also Iām at the point that if I ever have to write proofs for a grade again (which I will next year I guess) I just donāt care
If they donāt like that they can just cope
Idk after reading hard books that leave a lot of stuff out it became really hard to feel motivated to write stuff out in such painful detail lmao
indeed but its always nice to see a slick ass proof
also thesis is a thing so dont get too rusty
Yeah but you donāt spell stuff out like that for a thesis either haha
I donāt think anyoneās thesis is actually saying.
We prove this by induction on n.
Base case n = 1: insert proof
Assume that we know the result for all k < n: insert proof
Thus by induction we are done.
Theyāre probably saying n = 1 is obvious. some reduction to the n-1 case this we are done by induction
ah yes
"bruh just look at it"
that makes the reader feel bad about themselves
BONUS POINTS
I like to think of it this way, Iām no longer lying
bruv you dumb? just solve for x
if you really want to youll see it trust me
"source: trust me"
but yea idk I feel I write way too much for my HWs
but the second I write less and try to be more concise by omitting those (at least to me) obvious details
I get murdered by the grader
Hey, I am new here, but very interested in abstract algebra
I've been reading Dummit and Foote, what are your thoughts on that text?
Itās p good
I haven't had many issues with it other than it perhaps is a bit wordy
for sure
I like the plethora of examples but it can be overwhelming
esp because I am trying to get through it before September
Iāve expressed it before, but thereās a few standard books for algebra, pick the one you give with the most
good luck
That book is too big to do in 4 months
I already killed the Group Theory section and done most of the exercises
I just need to get through chapter 15
to prep for an algebraic geometry course I'm auditing in the fall
Any tips for preparing for alg geo?
Shouldāve skipped the group theory then 
I breezed thru cause I knew most of it anyways
The only prerequisite to an intro AG class is an intro AG class
fack
Just try and get as cracked at commutative algebra as you can if you donāt want to learn AG beforehand
But the best prep is probably to start learning AG 
is that possible wo/ foundational knowledge in ring or field theories?
No
Field theory is kinda tertiary
You need to know some of it, but you probably wonāt really need Galois theory
But you should probably learn it in case your instructor does do something that uses it
yeah that's the plan
I mean D&F does some basic AG
yeah Chapter 15 is intro stuff
You really need to cover the sections on rings, homological algebra, and the commutative algebra parts
And I guess the field stuff, but Iād skip Galois theory if you donāt have time
only have to get through a section every three days to make time
And something has to contain the 1 to be a subring
Donāt let them gaslight you into thinking an ideal is a subring
hahaha
This is going to be standard forAG and most contexts anyways
I did notice that D&F is p restrictive w their def of rings and subrings
Itās not restrictive
that is what my prof told me
Theyāre way too loose
In the AG setting every ring will have a 1 and be commutative
D&F allows rings to not have a 1, and it (fairly) deals with noncommutative rings
Because those are important for other reasons
The 1 thing is stupid tho
I fuck with the non-requirement of 1 and non-requirement of commutativity
I cast a curse upon your lineage
they don't have to be
You claim they're groups and yet the most important fact about them deals with multiplication
Curious
Notation question: If I have two groups A,B. Hom(A,B) denotes all homomoprhism from A to B right?
But is hom(A,B) a group too?
homomorphisms needn't be invertible which obstructs defining multiplication by composition
So I have the following situtation: I have a finite abelian group G, and S^1 is the unit circle on C. Then Hom(G, S^1) is a group
why are these homomorphism invertible then?
o wait, the group operation on Hom(G,S^1) is defined differently than composition. It is defined like fg(x) = f(x)g(x)
Yeah that'll be the important bit
so its not composition, but in general if I write Hom(G, S^1) this general notation just means the set of Hommorphism G to S^1 right?
I'm a bit confused on the different terms and notations surrounding groups so I'd like to clear up some things here if possible:
$\$ - Is a factor group the same as a quotient group?
$\$ - Are the following notations correct?
$\ Z = {\dots, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, \dots }$
$\ 2Z = {\dots, -4, -2, 0, 2, 4, \dots}$
$\ GF(2) = Z/2Z = Z_2 = {\bar{0}, \bar{1}}\ with\ \bar{0} = {\dots, -2, 0, 2, \dots}\ and\ \bar{1} = {\dots, -1, 1, \dots}$
S3BAS
And followup question, we know that we can use 5Z as a normal subgroup which generates the following cosets: 1 + 5Z, 2 + 5Z, 3 + 5Z, 4 + 5Z.
We know we can all 5Z the normal subgroup. The group of cosets can be called the quotient group, however, does that also include 5Z? Or is the quotient group only {1 + 5Z, 2 + 5Z, 3 + 5Z, 5 + 5Z}
0+5Z = 5Z is a coset
So yes, 5Z is an element of Z/5Z
And I wouldnāt call 5Z the normal subgroup, it is a normal subgroup of Z
Okay, thank you, that makes sense
All your notations seem correct as well
Okay great, that clears it up, and a factor group is the same thing as a quotient group?
Morrrrbbbiiiuuussssss
Yeah theyāre the same
Cool, that helps out, ty!
what is the correct interpretation of the ideal in a homomorphism context? more precisely, Ive read this proposition statin that no square matrix ring admits a non trivial ideal, but relating that with that theorem about the homomorphism between a dual space and the square matrix ring , I wonder if there are some implications that follow
and more generally, not related to that matrix-dual theorem, what's the interpretation of the ideal on a general homeomorphism space?
I think the word youāre looking for is homomorphism, a homeomorphism is a continuous map with a continuous inverse
yep, sorry
Left ideal of a ring is a submodule of it when interpreted as a left module
why not both
There's no reason to assume that subrings don't have the identity element
Let α be a zero of x^3 + 2x + 2 in an extension field of Z3. how can you find α^4 and α^5 in terms of 1,α,α^2
If you divide w(x) = x^4 by x^3+2x+2, you get w(x) = q(x)(x^3+2x+2)+r(x) where r(x) is a polynomial of degree < 3
Now set x = alpha
Same with w(x) = x^5
dang, is that actually how you do it
Yes, no matter how you write it, it's basically this
thank you!
Np
is part (b) not just 121 and 17 are coprime so it's immediate?
I mean, there are two groups of order 2057 that satisfy that property (that I can think of)
the wording of this question is very odd
yeah and 17*11^2 is 2057
does it have to be for all groups of order 2057?
I presume so?
this is where the wording really confuses me 
but I mean still I thought if |P| and |Q| are relatively prime and G = P x Q
then Aut(G) = Aut(P) x Aut(Q)
like that's just a theorem that's known
(I think. It sounds familiar)
oh yeah they just have to be relatively prime and not prime
very hazy in my head one sec lemme do some "researching" (googling)
Will an extension of a field $F$ of the form $F(a_1,a_2...,a_n)$ where $a_i$ are algebraic over $F$ have finitely many intermediate fields? I think yes but I'm not completely sure.
PROnoob
Yeah
I think soā¦
This is just asking if a finite field extension has finitely many intermediary fields and this surely is true⦠right?
Wait I donāt think this is true anymore lol
Wow, surprisingly it isn't
Apparently this being true implies the extension is simple
Yeah its the primitive element theorem in that case
Wtf
that's so weird

why is it weird

one direction is obvious
hmm the other direction is harder 
no I was just being stupid
is euclidean algorithm not quick enough?
is there a better way?
Does this need justification in said ring, though?
you need to know its an euclidean domain, yes
better way "just see it" i.e. ask sage
or if you can see the prime factorization, i cant
or you can do norm tricks
the norm of the gcd must divide the norm of the two numbers and also the norm of their sums
if that reduces the possibilities enough...
This is definitely the way to go
nvm
is this false?
Looks strange that it writes both (1 2 3)(4 5) without commas and (1, 2)(3, 4, 5) with commas. Are they different notations?
no its the same thing, my prof just wrote it different
It's a good exercise to explicitly write down a lambda that works.
Is this a mistake since it doesn't look like this minimal polynomial divides the characteristic polynomial (which is impossible)
Perhaps recall that $$\lambda(1;2;3)(4;5)\lambda^{-1} = (\lambda(1);\lambda(2);\lambda(3))(\lambda(4);\lambda(5))$$
Troposphere
oh thank you for that hint! makes sense
also I'm not sure how Jordan canonical form works when the polynomials don't split. Would I not need to find the matrix over F(i) instead of F?
Recall that in F5 we have 2² = -1, so (x²+1) = (x+2)(x-2).
wait why is this true
and where does this come from
the problem is basically just asking u to prove that (123)(45) and (12)(345) are conjugates
does anyone know if there is any sort of fast way to do this rather than just listing all the terms
Consider what lambda(123)(45)lambda^-1 does to, for example lambda(2).
First, lambda^-1 maps it to 2.
Then (45) leaves it alone.
Then (123) maps it to 3.
Finally lambda maps it to lambda(3).
So lambda(123)(45)lambda^-1 maps lambda(2) to lambda(3) and must have "... lambda(2) lambda(3) ..." somewhere in its cycle decomposition.
In fact, whenever sigma maps a to b, then lambda sigma lambda^-1 will map lambda(a) to lambda(b).
So if you have a representation of a permutation that doesn't depend on any canonical ordering of the elements (such as a disjoint-cycles representation, or a product of transpositions), you can get a similar representation of that permutation conjugated by lambda, simply by applying lambda to every element number that appears in the original representation.
Furthermore, conjugation preserves the number and length of the disjoint cycles that make up the permutation.
And conversely, if you have two permutations that have the same cycle structure, they will be conjugate.
this is a good exercise to prove tbh
in general
Can someone tell me why sigma is an exponent here and what it means?
$p^\sigma = \sigma(p)$
kxrider
Ah
is the difference between R[x] and R[[x]] that the former is specifically finite polynomials
whereas the latter is not necessarily finite
"polynomial" means a finite sum by definition
R[[x]] consists of (formal) power series
you could say that R[x] consists of those finite formal power series (just polynomials)
ah okay understood 
what does the 3rd condition tell us?
oh
there must be 1 jordan subblock of size 2 and 2 of size 1 corresponding to the eigenvalue 3??
or no there must be 2 jordan subblocks of size 2 I counted wrong in my head
a new symbol
at the most formal level that is all it is
it has some properties such that $x^m * x^n = x^{m + n}$ and other such things you know of
Spamakinš·
but it's not an element of $R$
Spamakinš·
like necessarily not an element, or it doesnt have to be
I think necessarily
If you know what monoid and group rings are you can think of it like that
otherwise it's just a symbol with some rules that work the way you expect because we define it as such
yes
so R[x][y] also has to be the same as R[y][x]
same as R[y][x] same as R[x][y] (and really these 2 things are the formal definitions of R[x, y])

so they really just imply a different way of writing elements ig?
like R[x][y] is emphasizing a linear combination of y with coefficients in R[x]
I think I've maybe seen one proof where the problem really wanted you to think of it as a polynomial in y with coefficients in R[x]
but really everyone thinks of it as R[x, y]
cause R[x][y] and R[y][x] are (clearly) isomorphic

or idk about clearly I think we just assume xy = yx
wow thx i never thought of the cycle notation thing like that
that's a cool way to think about it
yea that identity for conjugation of permutations is really powerful
also for part b of this is the answer dependent on the characteristic of F?
yea
ok cool
I mean the answer is just the characteristic right?
cause inductively sigma^2(f(x)) = f(x + 2) etc etc
yea ima pretty sure
for char F > 0 it is. Handle char F = 0 separately
oh wait yea char F = 0 then it's infinite cyclic group isomorphic to integers
I was specifically asking for finite characteristic mb
yea from the looks of it your work shoudl be correct
also
could someone take a quick look at the first two pages of this paper
in the part on cycle lifting:
can someone explain why $f_{n+1}(X_i)\subseteq X_{i+1}$ instead of equal?
JustKeepRunning
cuz i think they shoudl be equal
but ima not sure why they are using the weaker condition of subset instead
I don't get part c
aren't Cylcotomic polynomials irreducible?
so what factors are there?
What's a difference between normal extension and splitting field...
i guess they're only irreducible over Q
technically they are equivalent, but they are usually defined differently.
F/K is a normal extension if for f in K[x] irreducible over K such that f has a root in F, f splits in F.
If you have a set of polynomials X in K[x], then a splitting field over K for X is a field F such that each polynomial f in X splits in F. Also, F must be generated over K by the roots of polynomials in X. i.e. F should be minimal among other field extensions such that all polynomials in X split in F
Every normal extension F/K is a splitting field of the set of polynomials which have a root in F, and every splitting field over K is a normal extension of K
I think normal extension can not be minimal field which splits f(x)
So splitting implies normal but vice versa I guess@thorn delta
@thorn delta then why are they equivalent ..
This sentence implies splitting and normal extensions are not equivalent imo
Sounds like there's some non standard definition here
Isn't it just <=, not divisibility?
I'm looking at my notes on Representation theory of finite groups and I can't understand this mapping. To be exact, what's that matrix [g_C[G]^*]?
Maybe g acting on C[G] by left-multiplication, given concretely as a matrix using G as the basis of C[G]?
In which case g should just map to the permutation matrix corresponding to the permutation of G defined by (h -> gh) ā¦
Does the four-lemma (for modules) implies that the map is an isomorphism, or just epi/monomorphism?
In the exercise there's the former but online (and that's the version I could prove) is the latter
I know
There's one that says "blah blah" then this map is a monomorphism
In my book it says it's an isomorphism
Show
I've proved this is a monomorphism but isomorphism seems impossible
It is impossible
Easy counterexamples
0 ā ⤠ā ⤠ā 0
Injects into
0 ā ā ā ā ā 0
First map is epi, other 3 are mono, 3rd map isn't iso
Yep, thanks 

yeah i think so basically a matrix representation of a linear transformation
Hi, I've got a question, knowing the following
\begin{enumerate}
\item the order of a generator is equal to the order of the cyclic group it generates, and
\item if we know $g \in G$, where $G = \langle g \rangle$ and $g$ is the generator of $G$, then we can define the order of $g$ to be the smallest positive integer $n$ such that $g^n = e$, and we write $|g|=n$ (assuming $G$ is finite).
\end{enumerate}
So, I was thinking this means that I can use that formula to determine the order of the generator, which in turns determines the order of the cyclic group, so I wanted to try it on an example.
Let $\mathbb{Z}^_{241}$ be the cyclic group where we pick the generator $g = 2$. Since this is a group under multiplication, we know $e = 1$. So if we insert $e$ and $g$ in the formula $g^n = e$, we get:\
\
\begin{multline}
\ 2^n = 1 \
n = log_2(1) = 0 \
\end{multline*}
\
But this makes no sense to me, since the order of the cyclic group $\mathbb{Z}^*_{241}$ is definitely not $0$ as it contains elements. Where am I going wrong with this reasoning?
S3BAS
Ah 0 is excluded, we need the
smallest positive integer
Let $L=K(\alpha)$ be a simple extension, and $M$ an intermediate extension. Let $M'\subset M$ be the field generated by the coefficients of the minimal polynomial of $\alpha$ over $M$. Any idea how to prove that $M'=M$?
Porphyrion
exactly
if u want look up orders modulo primes
u will find some useful info
I have a question. If $N$ is submodule of $M$ such that $M \cong N \times P$ for some module $P$, does there exist a submodule $P'$ of $M$, such that $M = N \oplus P'$?
SmeŔkoSnežak
Take M = Z and N = 2Z, then M is isomorphic to N x 0 but if it were M = N (+) P' for some P', then P' can't contain element of N other than 0, but if x is in P', then 2x is in N and P', so 2x = 0, hence x = 0. It follows that M = N which is false. Summarizing: the answer is no
Wow thank you, amazing example, thank you so much! Really appreciate it!
Thanks 
Hello! A small thing to check: If we have M/L/K field extensions, do we have M/K separable iff M/L separable and L/K separable? I managed to prove it but I'm not sure whether it's correct.
This sounds correct to me
What is Z_241*? Numbers modulo 241 which are coprime to 241 with multiplication as the binary operation?
In that case, do note that 2^n = 1 in that group does not imply n = log_2(1); that's only true when 2^n = 1 in Z (or Q, R, etc.). For example, mod 7 instead of 241, 2^3 = 1, and mod 241 we have 2^240 = 1 by Fermat's Little Theorem (241 is prime, right?).
Although I realise you said you solved this, I'm interested in it.
Looking at L as M'(α), this seems equivalent to claiming any (āstrictlyā) intermediate extension M must have a smaller minimal polynomial for α.
⦠which holds because [M(α):M] = [L:M] < [L:M']. Nvm
i mean 241 is prime so "numbers modulo 241 which are coprime" is literally just all the residue classes from 0 to 240
I was not sure 241 was prime when I wrote that part of the message
also idt log is defined in Z241
or at least not like conventiaonlly defined
idk how u would define the log function over a general ring
its a cool idea though
I presume OP meant log in the real numbers.
well idt that would be well defined?
because the log function would have to be closed right
but log is not usually an element in Z_{241}
I mean
and plus even if it was an "integer" in the intuitive sense it would not correspond to ar esidue class
like theres a difference between $2$ and $\overline{2}$
n is not in Z_241 anyway. The order of a group element is always just a positive integer (or infinity).
JustKeepRunning
couldn't you define log the same way
giannis_money
log_x(y) would have to be a solution for t in the equation x^t = y.
I'm pretty sure there's no ring where that has an integer solution for (say) all x and y, even upto a unit or something.
So you would have to come up with a notion of raising elements of the ring to non-integer powers. (non-(non-negative integer) powers for non-invertible elements).
At which point you'd have to answer the question of what the extended possibilities for t are actually going to be.
it would be a non-negative integer for all elements in a cyclic groups right? if we take the log with base of the generator
Then there's the problem of the equation ending up with multiple solutions, which happens in any Z/pZ by Fermat's Little Theorem, in C because e.g. e^z = e^(z+2Ļi), etc.
In short, not sure log is really a ring-theoretic notion
the thing is like log(n) is going to be a real number
which is not in $\mathbb{Z}_{241}$
JustKeepRunning
so it would be a bit weird
ima sure there's still a way to somehow define it but it would not be as natural as defining log over the reals
Firstly, that's not the āusualā way, because when defining log in R, there's going to be a unique solution. Picking the smallest one doesn't have a precedent in R.
More importantly, what do you do when there's no such n?
u are actually defining the order of an element in a group/ring there
This is really doesn't seem like a vital or even desirable property for log to have. If it was defined only modulo 241, we would need x^241 = x^log_x(x^241) = x^log_x(x^0) = x^0 = 1 for every x. That's not true.
thats different from log
They wrote log_g(a) = smallest positive n such that g^n = a, not the identity.
maybe a better definition is to say it's the inverse of the exponential
where you define the exponential with its taylor series
well.. doing exponents makes sense, but maybe not dividing by factorials
is there a trick to this
Thereās only one group of order 7
So that means you just have it check one group has this property
Z_7?
is that statement even true lol
how can i show that product(pointwise) of two irreducible characters is also a character
I know of a proof for general groups but it's rather long winded
we should use the fact that G is abelian, so all of it's irreducible characters are linear (i.e. all the characters themselves are homomorphisms from G to C)
A character is a homomorphism from a group to units of a field, right?
now will showing that the pointwise product of two homomorphisms from G to C is another homomorphism be enough? I think so but I'll need to think
Can't you just verify the definition of a homomorphism?
no, linear characters are though
which is what we're using
You should be able to multiply group homomorphisms pointwise and get a group homomorphism whenever the range is an abelian group.
well I want to show that it's closed under multiplication
How do we know that product is also irreducible?
Oh
I thought it just had to be a character.
CAn i get some help please?
Sorry
the product will also be a homomorphism from G -> C, which is another linear character- thus it's degree 1, therefore irreducible
if you know about the connection between products of characters and tensor products of FG-modules this becomes much clearer, we're tensoring two 1 dimensional FG-modules together when we take the product of their characters, so the resulting FG-module will be of dimension 1x1 = 1, and all 1 dimensional FG-modules are trivially irreducible
oh yes, G= \sum X(1)^2 but then each X(1)=1 so it's linear
but i didn't know that characters of degree 1 are irreducible
damn why is it so hard to find character theory related stuff online
sorry i don't see why character of degree 1 must be irreducible 
Because a one-dimensional vector space doesn't have any nontrivial subspaces 
bingo
a degree 1 character is irreducible if and only if it's related FG-module is irreducible, this module is 1 dimensional - so any subspace is either dimension 0 (trivial) or dimension 1 (the entire space), thus the space is irreducible, hence the character is irreducible
no worries, king 
Could somebody help me to prove that $\mathbb{Z}[X]$ is not a Euclidean Domain?
Scerball
Show it is not a PID by finding an ideal which isn't generated by a single element
i think u asked something similar a couple of days ago
remember the chain thing
a euclidean domain is a type of PID
Thank you
Sorry if I asked something similar. I've got my ring theory exam tomorrow lol
its fine lol
i just wanted to remind u so like u could connect the ideas together
gl on your exam!
oh and if u want the ideal which cannot be generated by a single element an example of such an ideal is ||<2,x>||
Thanks :)
Not quite sure how to do this
I think the easy case is if the order is 4 distinct primes?
You can also do this differently. If Z[X] were euclidean, then X, being an irreducible element, would generate a prime ideal, but in an ED (In fact, in a PID) prime ideals are maximal, so Z[X]/(X) should be a field, but it isn't, it's isomorphic to Z, so Z[X] can't be euclidean (or a PID)
it's very possible
and a great exercise
I feel that
have you shown that -r = (-1) * r?
once you do that, it's quite easy
yes
1 is typical notation for multiplicative id
-1 is the additive inverse of 1
you showed -r = (-1) * r?
cool
multiplication is not always commutative
however multiplication by -1 and 1 is
well clearly 1 *r = r = r * 1 right?
you showed (-1) * r = -r right?
show -r = r * (-1)
so we have that now
you don't need that
you have (-r)^2 = (-1) * r * (-1) * r
then from there use what you've just shown
and associativity
kinda but (-r^2) is confusing notation
do you mean -(r^2)?
or even more concise
(-r)^2 = (-r)(-r) = -(r(-r)) = -(-(r^2)) = r^2
np
Is there a name for a group that cannot be constructed as a split extension of one nontrivial group by another?
it's probably referring to a group presentation for G
Oh
Not sure how to show ii
nvm
what does [H,H] mean here?
[H, H] is the group generated by the set of all commuters in H
Just wanna double check: if a matrix M is such that M^z for z in Z is a finite group, then M is unitary (?)
Suffices to consider M = jordan block, then M^n = I means it's diagonal and the eigenvalue is on the unit circle in which case M* = M^-1
Wait maybe the properties of the similarity matrix are important
M is similar to a unitary but not unitarily equivalent?
Maybe a silly question, but given a homomorphism of abelian groups A-> B, can you lift it to a homomorphism from the free abelian group on the generators of A to B? This seems false but I haven't been able to come up with an example
restrict it to the generators and apply the universal property

isn't this irreducible
It has a root
i like cant factor anymore
this class would be easier without polynomials
thank u
You're welcome
A is a quotient of the free abelian group on the generators, so you can just compose the quotient map and the given one
No lifting involved
also chrew...
I don't know why I didn't see that lmao
I was trying to figure out if every map of abelian groups descends from one of the free abelian group by as you said this is trivial by composing the quotient map
It isnāt
"the additive group of F_2[X}/(g) is isomorphic to ..."
Sorry i mean as an additive group
Yes, that im sorry i misspelt typing on my ipad
So thats the part i dont get
How is F_2[X]/g iso to Z/2Z x Z/2Z
All of those listed elements are order 2 under addition, there are 4 of them, so they must form Z/2Z^2 as an additive group
Alternatively just compute the entire Cayley table if you want lol
Alright, just curious, as a true/false question where i must give an explanation for why it is true or false, would that be sufficient to say
lol i hate computing those
in your opinion
Yeah you could say what I said, maybe add in āthere are only 2 groups of order 4, and one of them is Z/4Z which has an element of order 4, so this group cannot be isomorphic to Z/4Zā
And then the conclusion follows
thanks!
okay so hope you dont mind, followup question
is F_2[x]/g not iso to Z/2Z x Z/2Z as a unitary group
unitary ring*
Alternatively (and equivalently), take the composition of this map and the quotient map from the free abelian group on the generators of A to A.
Actually is lift even the right word for this? A doesn't naturally map into the free abelian group.
oops
āIt's a 2-dimensional vector space over F_2 and all of those are isomorphic (vetcor space structure; in particular additive structure) to Z/2Z Ć Z/2Z.ā
is hopefully shorter.
It's not, because
(i) g is irreducible; hence (because F_2[X] is a PID) prime; F_2[X]/(g) is an integral domain.
(ii) OTOH, AĆB is not an integral domain whenever A, B both contain a non-zero element, because (a,0)Ć(0,b) = (0,0).
thanks!
Unitary rings, or as I like to call them, rings
ring rngs
do you know the correspondence theorem? ideals of R/I are in bijection with ideals of R containing I?
I dont know
ok whatever. have you proven that R is a field?
I would like a hint on this, I have no idea how to approach it: Let $p\geq 5$ be a prime, $m_{1},\ldots, m_{p-1}$ be even numbers, and let $n>0$ be even, then for sufficiently large odd $m$, the polynomial
$$f(x)=(x^2+m)\prod_{i=1}^{p-1}(x-m_{i})-\frac n 2$$
Is irreducible, with exactly $2$ complex roots
ShiN
yes it is irreducible
@lethal dune
so if i prove R is a field then the trivial ideals are the only ones i have to list right
Ok I think I might know how to show it is irreducible, but i'll have to think for a sec on how to show it only has 2 complex roots. My thought for irreducibility is showing that it's irreducible mod 2, and since it's monic this will imply irreducibility in general
yes
what do you mean by this
I mean if i prove that $F_3[X]/(X^2-X-1) is irreducible does that show that it is a field?
you prove the ideal (x^2-x-1) is maximal/x^2-x-1 is irreducible
nvm, apparently I miswrote and it's supposed to be $\frac 2 n$ not $\frac n 2$
ShiN
so my reduction mod 2 strategy isn't gonna work because if I take common denominators the leading term will vanish mod 2
so back to square one
ok wait nvm turns out I misread even further
lemme reformulate
So the question is, $p\geq 5, m_1,\ldots,m_{p-2}$ even, $n>0$ even and $m$ sufficiently large odd number, then
$$f(x) = (x^2+n)\prod_{i=1}^{p-2}(x-m_i) - \frac 2 m$$
Is irreducible over $\mathbb Q$ with exactly 2 complex roots. This seems sus to me now tho, since $f$ is irreducible iff the polynomial gotten by multiplying out by $m$ and discarding the denominator is irreducible (because they only differ by a unit), but this new polynomial when reduced mod $2$ becomes $x^p$ which is obviously reducible, regardless of the size of $m$, so I must be missing something here
ShiN
p prime ofc
I guess just because its reducible mod 2 doesn't mean its reducible over Q. Like x^2+1 for example
right, you're right
the converse does not hold
I was thinking it was the contrapositive in my head but it's not
so I have no idea how to approach this
does this work for irreducibility: Pick $m = p^{p-1}$, and note then that for $g(x) = p^pf(x/p)$ we have
[g(x) = (x^2+p^2n)\prod_{i=1}^{p-2} (x-m_i p) - \frac{2p^p}{p^{p-1}} = (x^2+p^2n)\prod_{i=1}^{p-2} (x-m_i p) - 2p ]
and so is irreducible by eisenstein
Pappa
oh wait im not sure if the constant term isnt divisible by p^2
the constant term is $p^p n \prod m_i - 2p = p(p^{p-1} n \prod m_i -2)$
Pappa
which isnt divisible by p^2
I haven't checked out all the details but that looks righ
Right
How would I conclude there are only 2 complex roots? Do you.think another linear change of variables would work?
Is it possible there's a typo and the numerator for /m is supposed to have an x in it? (specifically, could it be a monic polynomial in x)
i have no clue on how to approach the condition that a polynomial has two complex roots
No it shouldn't. At least this is how it was written in the lecture notes
Why do you think there's a mistake
If so, this would be exactly like a procedure I saw for constructing irreducible polynomials over Q with a specified number of real and complex roots
And f would be irreducible for every m by arguments there
But IG it's only supposed to be irreducible for sufficiently large m here ā¦
Laziness (on my part), basically
I'm also not sure where we used the fact that p>=5
Lol
Honestly if you have that procedure that's good enough for me
I'm trying to construct a degree p polynomial with galois group S_p
the product from i=1 to p-2 might be bad for p = 3
Just saying, I'm not sure how to construct that from what I described, but if you know how, š¤·
Consider a monic polynomial f with integer coefficients irreducible mod some prime p. Consider a monic polynomial g with integer coefficients with r real and s pairs of complex simple zeros, for any chosen r,s>=0.
Consider h_m := g + f/mp which has rational coefficients. Because
mp h_m = mpg + f \cong f (mod p);
mp h_m is irreducible mod p hence irreducible over Z, so h_m is irreducible over Q.
By a result called continuity of roots of polynomials (the only proof I know of which using Rolle's Theorem), if we draw disjoint discs in the complex plane around all the roots of g, and if m is sufficiently large so that the coefficients of (h_m - g) are sufficiently small, then h_m will have zeroes in these discs, with the number of zeroes in each disc equal to the multiplicity of that zero of g.
In particular, you can make the discs small enough that h_m has a pair of complex roots for ever pair for g; and because h has real coefficients, within each disc for the real roots of g (which are simple), the root of h also has to be real.
So h is irreducible, and has r real zeroes and s complex zeroes like g.
Ah, right
You might need deg(f) <= deg(g) for this to work.
do we have [X_A,X_A] = X_1 [X,X] ? 
we basically just want to show that A is normal right?
A cannot be trivial as if chi(1) = |G:A| = |G| then chi(1)^2 > |G| which is a contradiction, and A is abelian by definition - so surely just showing it's normal is enough?
I think that lemma you've posted is the right thing to use btw
but you didn't use it right?
we still gotta show it's normal, lol
sorry i thought you solved it in your head without referring to the lemma
oh no lol
I thought I was onto something with the vanishing but then I read the line under the statement of the theorem 
or we could take the set that of elements that do not vanish under X and then consider the group generated by them. It will be normal since characters are class functions and will be subgroup of an abelian subgroup hence a normal abelian subgroup
yeah A is a superset of the kernel
wait, G-A is a subset of the kernel, sorry lol
wait I can't see why this doesn't prove it
double nevermind, I can't see lol
yeah to get to that point we have to show it vanishes outside A
what a poopy situation
so the generated group will be a subgroup of abelian group A and that will ensure that its not only normal but also abelian
yeah and it's normal in G cause chi is a class function in G
yeah character theory is like that sometimes
most of the time 
found this, could be useful
nevermind I didn't see the "index 2" 
maybe we could use definition of [X_H,X_H] to show that
something like this
$\frac{1}{|H|}\sum_{x \in H} \chi(x)^2$? Just asking cause I'm used to the notation specifying which group we're taking the inner product w.r.t
Wew "Morbius" Tbh š§
yeah I was just asking about which "G" we're talking about here
I presumed H cause it's the restriction
Not necessarily; the inside A part plays the role of ensuring it's abelian.
You would just have to show it's nontrivial.
Possibly that's why you're asked to show there is some nontrivial abelian normal subgroup, instead of showing that A specifically has that property.
(assuming you have shown it's inside A; IDK anything about that)
what?
i was talking about equality on the lemma
Oh
lol it happened once
we misunderstood eachother now it's the second time it happens lol
bit in blue is chi(1) right?
I'm just gonna note here that chi_H has to be reducible or G is iso to A and the problem is trivial, might come back up later who knows
oh another thing I've remembered is that the induced character chi^A is 0 on G-A
frobenius reciprocity moment?
sorry š¦
i haven't studied it yet
that's alright I'll try and think of a way to do it without
tbh frobenius reciprocity is probably overkill
ok so what happens if chi(g) is non-zero for some g in G-H, what fails?
like I know the inequality is strict now but what else
well i couldn't find the answer to your question but one thing to note is that since X is irreducible [X,X]=1
so [X_H,X_H] is less than |G:H|
if chi(g) =/= 0
hmm what does this imply?
maybe since X_H is reducible we could try decomposing it into irreducibles? Because I have a theorem that states "the coefficients of the constituents of chi_H squared <= [G:H]"
with again, equality iff chi_H is 0 on G-H
could be something
and since A is abelian all of the irreducibles are linear?
yeah that's what I'm trying desperately to do 
same
chi(1) = chi_H(1) <= [chi_H, chi_H] <= [G:H] = chi(1)
is this true?
and if so does it imply equality
yeah it definitely implies equality actually
I swear chi(1) <= [chi, chi] if the underlying group is abelian is a theorem somewhere
yes it implies it but tbh i haven't seen this result
so i didn't really get how you got those inequalities
but seems legit
:d
it's from decomposing chi into irreducibles I think
so, letting $\chi_i$ be irreducible characters
$\chi(1) = \sum_{i=1}^r n_i\chi_i(1) = \sum_{i=1}^r n_i$
hmm so what's [chi, chi]
Wew "Morbius" Tbh š§
oh yeah it's $\sum_{i=1}^r n_i^2$ cause irreducibles are orthogonal
Wew "Morbius" Tbh š§
hmm i see
I can go into more detail if you want
that was a brutal exercise lol
you just spent like half an hour over a stupid problem of mine :d
oh i have more in store š
im working on chapter 2
from M.Isaacs
and they are usually hard
like this one
wait this is chapter 2
yes
wtf 
i swear i dont like that textbook at all. Our instructor says this is one of the best, classical
but it's going too fast
and Isaacs explains like reader has experience in the field especially in chapter 1, chapter 2 was considerably better
anyway maybe im just bad at it lol so im just making excuses
anyway thank you sm
I mean I wrote my dissertation on character theory and this stuff is still wacky zany bananas so don't blame yourself
Can I get a clue for Question 4
I tried to show M2 and M3 are in the orbit of another 3x3 matrix but wasn't really getting anywhere
Lofi hip hop
Nice
Sorry to hijack this thread again but can i get a hint for 2
2b
I dont understand this one at all
nvm I found out how to do a) by just taking the rre of M3
Weird. Surely if you multiply X^2 by X you get X^3, which is the same as 1, so all elements?
Can someone give me a clue on how to do Stab(M2)=AStab(M3)A-1
If you can find an invertible matrix such that A*M3= M2 you can prove that A works. Then think about row operations @patent ocean
stab(M3) = {P | PxM3 = M3} agreed
yes
Ok so what happens when you apply APA^-1 to M2
um is it a change of basis matrix or something
Probably but you don't need to know any interpretation of it
So we want to show that the matrix APA^-1 is a member of stab(M2) agreed
correct
but how do you show that
P^-1*M3?
Oh its M3 then
Remember that P is a member of stab(M3) that's the only thing we know
so we have to use that info somehow
PM3=M3
there's a theorem in the notes about stabilisers being conjugate under these conditions btw T
which is what
yeah i mean this proof doesn't use anything about matrices so instantly generalizes to general groups.
All that's required is the existence of a matrix A, which I guess is the point of them being in same orbit
AM3=M2
yeah, so if we zoom out we've shown that APA^-1M2 = AP(A^-1M2) = APM3 = AM2 = M2
So we've shown that APA^-1 is in stab(M2) in otherwords since it fixes M2
oh yeah im so dumb
which is one direction
the whole point was to show APA^-1 is in Stab(M2)
lol
Yeah so show that if it's in P is in stab(M2) then there is some L in stab(M3) such that P = ALA^-1
You can pretty much redo the first proof though after rearranging to solve for L
the version I've seen just changes if to iff everywhere essentially
If x, y lie in the same orbit and we write y = gx then hy = y iff hgx = gx iff g^-1 hg x = x
cool
And so Stab(x) = g Stab(y) g^-1
i always forget all this orbit stuff
Isn't there some theorem about all stabilizers being the same size
does that just use thius
if they are all in the same orbit
Well not all are the sane size
Oh if in same orbit either this or orbit stabiliser
Although I suppose this is better if we care about size as its a bit sharper and quicker
Then you basically get a billion proofs of the form "Heres an action i cooked up, and all stabilizers are same size and divide group so cool result"
class equation style stuff is cute
Thanks for the help @junior stump . I'm tired and dumb
where does the very last bit come from
ahh yeah thanks
yh
So would it be R then
I dont get it
What would be the units in $F_3[X]/(X^3+1)$
horridharry96
could I get a clue just to start the last bit of 4? idk why my brain is just dead
I'm trying a contradiction
Can anyone just formulate what 3a is asking
Im not even asking for a solution just like formulate the task i have to do lol
you have to show that it's an ideal
Its very late here and my brain has become mush
I dont understand that ideal
Its a function of the sqrt of 5
?
square root of -5
Right
the ideal consists of polynomials with rational coefficients which send sqrt(-5) to 0
you must prove that this actually is an ideal
So i need to show that the subset is an additive subgroup
And that if $s \in I$ and $r \in R$ then $rs$ and $sr$ are in I
horridharry96
any clues on how i can show that this is an ideal
by the definition
im struggling to see how its an additive subgroup
so the subset is of polynomials in Q that when the coefficient is sqrt(-5) it sends it to zero
is that correct
when x is sqrt(-5), you get zero.
polynomials p(x), coefficients in Q, such that p(sqrt(-5)) = 0. this means you substitute sqrt(-5) for x
so if we add two polynomials from that subset and substitute in sqrt(-5) it will equal zero
this is what you must show
can i also ask a question or is it bad form to interrupt?
fair.
given a vector space V that is the direct sum of cyclic F[x] modules where i know the annhilators of these cyclic modules, is this enough information to determine the invariant factors (and then the elementary divisors)?
like once i factor the annhilators, are these factors the elementray divisors? and if so, why? i can then push them together to find the invariant factors pretty easily i guess
for reference, this is from stuff regarding f.g. modules over PID/rational canonical form/jordan canonical form
yep!
first step: if M is a cyclic F[x] module with annihilator ideal (f), then M is isomorphic to F[x]/(f). To see this, we have a surjection F[x] -> M by sending 1 in F[x] to the generator of M (since M is cyclic it has one generator), and then by first iso thm, we get F[x]/ker is isomorphic to M. The kernel is exactly the annihilator of M.
Therefore, if we have V written as a direct sum of cyclic F[x]-modules and we know all of the annihilator ideals, we really have V written as the direct sum of modules F[x]/(f_i).
Now, we want to get invariant factor/elementary divisor form. To get elementary divisor, write each f_i as a product of irreducible polynomials, and use chinese remainder theorem to split it up. To get invariant factors, whenever you see F[x]/(f) and F[x]/(g) with f and g in your direct sum decomposition with f and g coprime, use chinese remainder theorem to combine them.
associativity and h_2 h_2^{-1} = e
associativity?
oh i see they just added terms
then used associativity, since those terms cancel out
What does the group $(\bQ/\bZ)/n(\bQ/\bZ)$ look like exactly? Does it have any "canonical" isomorphism class?
@neat valley
I think this is 0
Yep, it is
n(Q/Z) should just be Q/Z
@vast quiver thanks much
yeah np
the squares of the fermat primes that don't divide n are the primes that divide n
In the prime factorisation of n the odd primes (which have to be Fermat primes as stated) can only have exponent 1.
2 can have any exponent though.
In part 2b, how are there any elements
are you saying X² isn't in the ideal generated by X² ?
I would just compute the stabilizers
So, I need to give a lecture on rings. Could anyone give some hints on what must be introduced in it?
I don't think you understood what I was asking. Let me reformulate. I don't know much about rings, thus I am asking for some results that might be "more" important in the subject
If there is any such thing
results important in ring theory 
More important for what
Also, you've asked a vague question so expect such answers
:(((((
speaking of rings
i'm having a bit of trouble understanding the definition for two sided principal ideals
why is RaR defined as the set of all sums of {r_i a r'_i}
and not just the set of those elements themselves -- why do we need to sum them
I will just study everything in the chapter lol
Thanks
Because we want it to be closed under addition
It's supposed to be an ideal and since we're working with rings here, we expect ideals to not be just about multiplication
Yep, sure
So in that case, what does i range over ā I canāt seem to find an answer anywhere. Just because if i can be 1; that is, there is no summation happening, then you just have that set of products which breaks the closed under addition rule
Take elements of the form rar where r is any element of R
Then take all the sums of such elements
Finite sums
So elements are of the form
$\sum_{i=1}^n r_iar_i$
Blitz
With $r_i\in R$
Blitz
and n can be any number? (but less than the number of things in the ring i assume)
Any natural number
ah ok so the same terms can appear more than once in this sum
Hmm... I guess?
for someone who reads french: i dont understand why we need to start talking about this finite set S: doesn't finding a single value of c for which deg m_a,K(gamma) = 1 suffice??
yes, but that's not possible
what is possible, is to find all elements c that dont work, and to prove that there are only finitely many of them (the set S)
so it's just that finding an element c isnt a simple proof method, we just show that it exists by showing only finitely many dont work
i see
How would I do this?
Apart from the identity element
write X M1 = M1 and solve for X
doesnt it just give the identity or am i bugging
M1 isn't invertible
oh m1 doesnt have an inverse
so I have to just matrix multiply a random X and try to find its' coefficients?
yeah the stabilizer of M1 is the set of matrices X in GL3(R) such that X M1 = M1
oh right multiplying it out you can see that it is independent of one of the columns
thanks
Lol I remember doing this exact problem a lot T
We went over it w our prof in the sunshine with an outdoor blackboard
Where are exact sequences of groups used
group extensions
e.g. central extensions
popped up in lie theory a few times
Ah! Does it arise in topology?