#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 692 of 407
Good golly miss molly 
Is it possible to construct an infinite order cyclic group <a> with identity as the limit point of the sequence {a^r} ?
every infinite cyclic group is isomorphic to Z so I doubt it
Z with the trivial topology satisfies.
the question is a lil funny. you have to narrow what spaces you're interested in.
But like, with an actual metric
Hmm I get the intuition a little but topological properties are not preserved in an isomorphism, are they?
I meant like even though the elements of the group correspond, how close they are w.r.t to their metrics will differ
So limit points don't have to correspond
the answer is obviously no, again by just imposing a non metrizable topology on the group.
take the metric to be the inverse of the standard metric on Z, i think.
inverse as in?
Sorry what was the standard metric on Z?
oh okk
my main problem is I still have no idea what {a^r} is, lol
are we taking a to infinity?
r?
wait we're not taking a limit of groups
.<
#point-set-topology leave 
yeah lim a^r
ok so r is going to infinity got it
ok this is actually a lot more approachable than I thought
noice
ok so good news what i suggested is actually a metric
so i think we are done.
erg wait
1/|x-y| ?
uh yes it is on all sets
I lost my train of thought 
yeah so this is totally wrong lol
Okie tag if anyone has some idea
A person from my uni answered it, consider (Z,+) with the metric |1/x - 1/y| and d(x,0) = d(0,x) = |1/x| and d(0,0) = 0
It is, isnt ?
lemmi see
axiom checking time 
Satisfies the triange boi
ig it is then
is that not just the standard Euclidean metric on [-1, 1] lol
or, equivalent to
yeah
yems

that is weird
you mean after composing with 1/x?
way I'm viewing it is that |x-y| is a metric for all real numbers so if you just write x = 1/k, y = 1/n then |1/k-1/n| is also a metric (after considering what happens if they're 0 obvs)
samesies
my prof notes says for any semisimple lie algebra g, [g,g] = g
i thought this was only true for simple lie algebras
i know that semisimple ones are isomorphic to direct sum of simple
What's the motivation for studying Finite Fields - anything in particular? (Galois theory context, Frobenius Map, (In)separability)
Number theory
I'm doing Galois theory, and am showing that the Galois group of x^p - 1 is the cyclic group of order p-1 for p a prime. What I don't understand is, why do we get a group of order p-1 if the degree of the extension we are condsidering ( Q adjoin omega, a primitive pth root of unity / Q ) is surely p (we have basis for the vector space of our extension that is 1, omega, omega^2, ... , omega^p-1). Isn't the degree of the extension supposed to equal the order of the Galois group? Have I computed one of the two incorrectly? Any help would be appreciated.
if an extension is galois then yes
what makes this extension not Galois?
it is galois, because x^p - 1 splits over Q(omega). I'm not sure how to reconcile this with what you said
thinking
oh wait x^p - 1 factors
ah
yes
I think you're counting 1 an extra time or something, thinking once again
right yeah the set you wrote is linearly dependent
because $1 + \omega + \omega^2 + \ldots + \omega^{p-1} = 0$
Enmaidened Shamrock
does that make sense?
yep!
thanks
After having finished dummit and foote, how far is the road to actual research level algebra? I heard Langs book is the standard for grad school, is there still more algebra after this?
haha
you can look at like arxiv articles tagged algebra
I am almost done with undergrad, I think research sounds like a great future but the problem is i have no idea what is out there
see how many words you recognize
what does p +q \leq 1 means in the context of C*-algebra?
wild and totally not certain guess, but maybe it could mean r(p + q) <= 1, where r is the spectral radius?
what does this symbol mean
"proper subset of"
ok thats what i thought i was used to just the top curve with no line to mean that
thanks
np
and this notational idea would carry over for p(p+q) <= p: if, r(p + q) <= 1, then since multiplication is analytic, sigma(p(p+q)) = p * sigma(p + q)
so r(p(p+q)) = p*r(p+q) <= p, but again im just spitballing ideas here.
Hm, no nvm, the stuff I wrote down doesn’t quite make sense
How can the order of a semidirect product be the product of the order of the two groups if the semidirect product is isomorphic to NH?
Because the order of NH is not necessarily the product of the order of N and H right?
|NH| = |N||H|/|N intersect H| in general and we require N intersect H to be trivial for an internal semidirect product so we get the result you state, |NH| = |N| |H|
quotient groups are inherently subgroups righ
No and what is 'inherently' meant to mean there
Sure dw
for finitely generated abelian groups this holds
In what sense?
I mean (Z,+) has no subgroup isomorphic to (Z/2Z,+) for example unless I'm being thick
no that's right
bc (Z,+) has no cyclic subgroups
but he specified finitely generated
- all subgroups of (Z,+) are cyclic
- Z is finitely generated
unless that means something besides what im assuming
sorry, finite finitely generated abelian groups
Oh sure
double 
im on a roll
Sorry lol I shouldn't've put it that way
you're fine
But yeah remember cyclic groups can be infinite, but then they're always isomorphic to Z
Kind of cute as it means when you work with cyclic groups you can just consider quotients of Z
studying algebra feels like there's so many just like
random facts i should have memorized
the waht
I'd say yes algebra can feel very discretised into random facts but eventually when the structures begin to click a lot more and you learn the bigger picture stuff like that it becomes easier
ahh
im assuming that just takes time 
cuz i can see how everything fits nicely together sometimes
There's a theorem that (roughly) says every finitely generated Abelian group is isomorphic to a direct product of Z/nZs and Zs
but i still also feel like it takes me a good deal of effort to put things together/remember stuff
But for example, for a finite abelian groups G say of order N, then we have G isomorphic to a direct product of some Z/nZ where n is a power of a prime and the product of the ns is N
e.g. abelian groups of order 4 are isomorphic to Z/4Z or Z/2Z x Z/2Z
abelian group sorder 6 are all Z/6Z or Z/2Z x Z/3Z, etc etc
"Z/6Z or Z/6Z"
good point lol that was poitnless and went against what I said above, too sleepy ig
the numbers need to divide the previous numbers
so like
C_2 x C_4 and C_2 x C_2 x C_2 work for order 8
Eh for the invariant form they do but this is the primary form i was talking about ig
Is part (a) doable by avoiding Fermat's little (or similar reasoning)? 🤔
I'm guessing not
it essentially implies Fermat's little theorem so ye you should probably use it
I was thinking like an inductive approach
but I might end up just proving Fermat
idk, is it the same?
It feels like that avoids it
is there a reason you want to avoid it, it's a fairly basic fact
ehhhhhhhhhhhhhh
just running away from number theory 
$$f(\alpha + 1) = (\alpha+1)^p-\alpha - 1 + \lambda$$
$$=\alpha^p-\alpha + \lambda+1^p - 1 = 0$$
yh this works right? But am I just proving fermat
seems like just proving fermat ye
never seen a proof like this 🤔
I mean Fermat is just lagrange's theorem on F_p right so eh
Fermat by finite induction
oh it is 
On F_p^x actually
Yes lol oops
For part (b), that ^d should mean composition d times?
apply phi to alpha d times
$\varphi^d(\alpha)=\alpha^{p^d}$
right?
If so, I seem to have some error. . .
yes
,align \varphi(\alpha)&=\alpha^p=\alpha-\lambda\
\varphi^2(\alpha)&=\varphi(\alpha)-\varphi(\lambda)=\alpha-\lambda-\varphi(\lambda)\
\varphi^3(\alpha)&=\varphi(\alpha)-\varphi(\lambda)-\varphi^2(\lambda)=\alpha-\lambda-\varphi(\lambda)-\varphi^2(\lambda)\
\cdots\
\varphi^d(\alpha)&=\alpha-\sum^{d-1}_{i=0}\varphi^i(\lambda)\
I reckon this
,align f(\varphi^d(\alpha)) &= \phi\left(\alpha-\sum^{d-1}{i=0}\varphi^i(\lambda)\right)-\left(\alpha-\sum^{d-1}{i=0}\varphi^i(\lambda)\right)+\lambda\
&=\alpha^p+(-1)^p\sum^{d}{i=1}\varphi^i(\lambda)-\alpha+\sum^{d-1}{i=0}\varphi^i(\lambda)+\lambda\
&=-\sum^{d}{i=1}\varphi^i(\lambda)+\sum^{d-1}{i=0}\varphi^i(\lambda)\
&=-\varphi^d(\lambda)+\lambda\
&=-\lambda^{p^d}+\lambda\
&=-\lambda^d+\lambda\
But that last thing isn't necessarily 0 
So must have error somewhere
oh im dumb, that last line is the error 
ahhhhhh ive got it
😅
good
do you know about modules
specifically
are u good with computing cerrtain stuff
like Hom
im tryuing to ask
something
Hom_R(C,C) where R is matrices of the form (a,b,0,c)
and C is complex numbers
I could have a think, but doubt I would get far.
Can you define Hom_R(C, C) for me?
All the linear transformations represented by matrices of this form with complex entries?
yes
no
C module(vec space)
R-module
think of C as this R-module
and i want the homomorphisms
from C to C
Yes
So when you multiply by this matrix
z in R^2 really
Sorry if I misunderstood
I'm just not 100% on what this scalar multiplication is
Is it matrix multiplication on the cartesian form of the complex number
,,\mat{a&b\0&c}\mat{x\y}
tower law
I will write this Q(a, b) in the same order
[Q(a) : Q] is a degree 4 extension
[Q(a, b) : Q(a)] is a degree 2 extension... this is harder to see
You need to figure out what the minimal polynomial of b in Q(a)[t] is
2
figure this out and then you will get the answer
As for the basis vectors...
It will be products like so
,, a^mb^n
m = 0, 1, 2, 3
n = 0, 1
@void cosmos sorry so did we have this?
And a, b, c are real entries, or are they complex?
and x, y represents the complex number (real entries)?
confused 😵
no no, surely they have to be real entries
unless I misunderstand this completely
Deciding where the basis vectors map to determine your homomorphism if we can find a basis 🤔. If the scalar multiplication is as above, there's no basis for this one
If $G$ is an abelian group, how can I argue that the set$$ K = { a \in G: \abs{a} \leq 2 } \leq G? $$
beeswax
|a|= order of a
note (ab)²=a²b²
Since e is in G, then e is in K bc it has order 1
yeah
also, for any a,b in K, show that the product ab is also in K
and also show that for any a in K, the inverse of a is also in K
Right, but what I'm a little shaky on is that why does ab have order less or equal to 2?
you can use this fact
since in an Abelian group, we have that (ab)^2=a^2b^2 for any a,b
this is useful because, since a and b are from the set K, they have order 2 or less
which means a^2=b^2=identity
meaning a²b²=e?
it implies that (ab)²=a²b²=e
which means the order of ab must be less than or equal to 2
and from the definition of K, we must have that ab is in K.
Okay, let me try to repeat to see if I understood
So, if we assume that a,b is in K, then the order of those 2 elements are each less than or equal to 2.
Since G is an abelian, then for a,b in G in K, (ab)²=a²b²=e. This implies ab has order less or equal to 2.
yeah nice
one small thing to point out - in the second line, we are considering a,b in K (not a,b in G)
Ah
Okay, I understand it better, but now I am not 100% on
(ab)²=a²b²=e ---> ab has order less or equal to 2
yup
since when you square it, ab returns to the identity
so ab must have an order of 2 or less
after showing that the product ab is in K, the final step is to show that if we have some a in K, then a^-1 is also in K
Well if a is in G and has order 2, then a inverse will also be in G argue why a inverse has order 2 then done.
sounds good to me
hey guys
can someone explain why we need the power of $n$ in the expression $(\mathbb{Z}/p^i\mathbb{Z})^n$?
JustKeepRunning
cuz if its just plugging the values into a univariate polynomial why do u need to plug an ordered pair in
f isn't univariate though 
Is the only difference between direct product and direct sums of modules is that direct ones have strictly finitely many non -zero entries?
Why is one called "product" and the other called "sum"? Just curious about the naming lol
Is it true that $$K^p\subseteq K$$ when K is infinite and of characteristic p? Or is this fact only true for finite fields
alyosha
they are same in case of finite sums/products
the difference comes in case of infinite prods and sums
it's called product as it comes from categorical product in R-mod
direct sums are co-product in category, idk why they are called direct sums
take Zp(x) and see what happens
sorry what is Zp(x)?
well u only cate about subset right?
yeah i want to know if K^p is going to be contained in K
field of fractions on Z_p[x]
okok
why not, K is a field so closed under multiplication
I don't know, I am trying to figure out why the Frobenius automorphism is not an automorphism for K being infinite
it seems that it is only surjective in the finite case
yes
why is that?
not really ..., but essentially you are saying that we can have K^p contained in K AND the map being injective and still not have surjectivity?
no that's not what I said at all
I am asking, can you tell me an example of an infinite field of char p
ok wait thats all wrong sorry

ok but K^p is always contained in K regardless of finiteness correct?
since fields should be closed under multiplication
and the map is injective
yeah just taking the infinite direct product of F_p should work
any hom from field is injective or 0
true
product in fields 
like some kinda completion type beat
but so then somehow, this injective map going from K into K^p (that is at most as big as K) is NOT surjective
yes
I was trying to give you a counter ex
but looks like you don't know what Z_p(x) js
yeah, i actually only have to prove why it is surjective in the finite case
do you know polynomial rings over a field?
yes
well since it's finite...
do you know field of fractions over an integral domain?
no
u divide by non zero elements and create a bigger set
which turns out to be a field
like Z is an ID, divide by non zero integers and you get Q
hm ok
same thing u do with Z_p[x] so your elements are kf the form p(x)/q(x) where q ≠0
which gives us a field
of char p (which u can check)
yea
now can u show that the frobenius map in this field is not surjective?
use irreducibility
x^p-a is irreducible? where a is not in K^p
ok lol
do you see now?
no

lol thank you!
What am I doing wrong here: working in $F_2[t]/(t^3)$ i get $(t+t^2)(t+t^2)(t)=(t+t^2)(t^2)=t$ on one hand but on the other hand it is $(t+t^2)(t)=t^2$ since $t+t^2$ is idempotent??
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
(t+t^2)^2 = t^2 right
t^2 + t^3 + t^3 + t^4 -> t+ t^2 no?
god im a massive fool you're right
In fact the first term should just be 0 too so yeah
ugh i have zero motivation to do this all over again ree
book I'm reading says
More precisely, a scalar-valued function w on W is a bilinear form if
w(a1x1 + a2x2, y) = a1w(x1, y) + a2w(x2, y)
and
w(x, a1y1 + a2y2) = a1w(x, y1) + a2w(x, y2)
identically in the vectors and scalars involved.
my first question is what does "identically in the vectors and scalars involved" mean??
it just means 'this holds for all possible scalars and vectors' vik
ig at least i learned that cyclic multiplication aint good for rings then
wdym by cyclic multiplication?
in the sense that i was basically cycling through the orders like i would in a cyclic group
oh ok
i dont mean anything rigorous by it since i had nilpotent elements anyways
Sure
any suggestions on online resources to learn about lie algebras? besides reading the wiki
no access to a book rn but if anyone's got suggestions about that i can find pdf's as well
actually i'll ask some better questions
def reads "A Lie algebra is a vector space g over a field F"
why do we say say "over" another thing
I mean that's just the standard term?
cause it's... over the field? lol?
unless you mean why do we use that terminology for vector spaces in the first place lol
you're applying a set of vectors + scalar multiplication to a field so it's "over" the field I guess?
but i guess the idea is that the field in some sense forms the basis of the structure lol
yeah more along this line, i get that it's standard i was just asking like what's the idea of using that term specifically
like this
so it's just a statement about what the elements of the vector space look like right
Possessing a lie algebra structure?
It's not really a property so much as it is just that being a vector space isnt defined without reference to a given field?
yeah, it just means the vector space has that field as its set of scalars

I guess it's kind of a short hand for writing a vector space "that acts on via a group action on" a field
Humphreys
Lie Algebras and representation theory
is there a reason that Gauss' Lemma is usually stated for UFDs? I'm pretty sure the proof really only uses the fact that irreducibles are prime, so wouldn't it work over a GCD domain?
prof defined SL like this but isn't it usually matrices s.t. det(A) = 1??
and afaik trace = 0 does not imply det = 1

you can show that differentiating the det=1 condition shows trace=0
not really, the point is little sl (usually written in some fancy font like frak) is the lie algebra of SL, so you want to be able to relate these
his handwriting is so ass that i just assumed he overlooked capitalizing lol
duly noted tho
does this imply they still have det(A) = 1 tho?
nope
No. Consider the zero matrix
right so how much do you know about lie groups/lie algebras
and if not how about like, manifolds
day 1 of trying to learn it lol
the basics but probably/hopefully enough?
right so do you know like, what tangent spaces and vector fields are?
i started looking into that recently but got confused with the basis of tangent spaces being the partials
i overthink things easily though
i see
ok so the easiest way to say it for now would be that to each lie group G you can associate functorially a lie algebra g
this turns out to be simply T_1 (G) or the space of left-invariant vector field, but dw too much about this for now ig your book will define this
i know im punching a bit above my weight but how is this related to manifolds tho? im doing this for some independent study with a prof and i did think it odd that he introduced the idea of manifolds and then (seemingly) randomly switched to algebra
well lie groups are manifolds with group structure right
its a class of manifold where a lot of things end up working out nicely
for example, the circle
so ithink its like, a good way to ease into like, diff geo or w/e
:O
altho i will say it is probably more useful to see this after you know a bit about tangent spaces and vector fields imo
cause otherwise things like this sl is a bit random
yeah he just gave me this as an exercise and promised more details later
i see, yeah thats just confirming the details
dont forget to show that the lie bracket is indeed defined, i.e [A,B] also has trace 0
oop
(it's easy to show this is well defined for 2x2 matrices by a direct computation; what if you're looking at sl_n more generally? what property of the trace can you use to show this is well-defined?)
I (think) I want to map $F(a,b) \to G_2$ and prove the kernel is the normal closure of $\langle abab^{-1}\rangle$ abusing the first homomorphism theorem. I can determine the map by sending a,b and then just extending it to the unique homomorphism (universal property of the free group). The issue is, I don't know where to send a nor b. My thought is to make the image of $abab^{-1}$ be $c^2d^2$, but I don't think this works.
Michael Harp
silly algebra man
im curious about this
silly algebra man = wew lads
me too man
you use that Tr(AB)=Tr(BA), even if A and B do not commute
I know fuck all about lie groups
"fuck all"
something something sums of eigenvalues
no seriously
I've never worked with them
anyway back to seeing if the substitution test works
(btw this does not imply that trace is invariant under permutations, only cyclic permutations)
tfw
i even assumed abab^{-1} = a^2b^2 and tried to see if i could get a work-backwards solution and left empty handed
ok, so abab^-1 implies that a and b are kinda anti commutative right
like you can swap ab = ba^-1
could do something with this
unless I'm tripping hard
no that's totally right
a is kinda a conjugate of its inverse
a b-conjugate specifically
yeah yeah good
I'm trying to do this, btw 
kind of
ok wait
oml I've managed to get abab^{-1} = b^{-2}a^{-2} they're actually trolling me
and now I've reduced that to a^{-2}b^2 
nope never mind
i made an error haha
i just derived the same thing you did yikes
zoinks
lemme try again
I had to do something very similar to this for THREE relators a couple of days ago
pure agony
yeah that sounds bad
I do not understand tensors 
would you have guessed this is a topology class
it was the same conjugate inverse type deal as well
no lmfao
what kinda topology class is this
It's labelled topology 2 but we basically cover algebraic topology fundamentals. like fundamental groups, connected sums and wedge products, the weird unions of two open sets theorem
forgot its name
but it gives you the fundamental group of the union of two spaces under certain conditions
what is trace again?
yes
yup
is that sum of diagonals?
The trace of an nxn matrix is the sum of the diagonal entries
dIaGoNaL SuM
ya then yes
but who uses that lol
^
it's the sum of the eigenvalues
it is?
again tho what is the use
i want this to be less annoying
ye it's kind of nice
characters? as in the homorphisms from groups into the units of a particular field F characters?
you can completely reconstruct a (complex) representation of a group just from knowing its trace
those are... 1 dimensional characters I thinkkk
yeah
linear characters
same thing just in a restricted scope
Ah, so yo consider affine spaces over fields too
also does anyone have any idea with the tensor question I sent above 💀
these are all derived from linear transformations, it just that the trace a matrix is only a linear function when the matrix is one dimensional
hence, linear characters
wtf is a quotient field
field of fractions
The field of units that can complete an integral domain
idk why they call it that either
it's just like the definition of a tensor product is very contrived as far as I can tell
and i have absolutely no idea what elements of this product look like
You just wanna turn bilinear maps into linear maps
first things I need to understand the structure of Q/R as an R-module
then it'll probably be easy to see
An example would be R^2 tensor R^3, which would be formed by a standard basis of 2x3 matrices
R^6
can we represent each one of those equivalence classes with just 1/b+R for some b?
$\mathbb{Q}/\mathbb{Z}$ is a funky group to think about. It's an infinite order torsion group, with unbounded torsion,
Michael Harp
hm
oops i see
but thinking about it more I believe you
there must be something we can shove in that R or the quotient would just be Q
I think you can say like [\frac ab\otimes\frac cd=\frac{ad}{bd}\otimes\frac cd=\frac a{bd}\otimes\frac{c}1=\frac a{bd}\otimes0=0]
wait what how
first to second one I get
I think my issue is more I do not understand what tensors are or how they work
and reading over the notes I have is not helping
ok, so we can reduce elements of $Q \otimes_R Q$ from $a/b \otimes_R c/d = ac(1/b \otimes_R 1/d)$ ok coollll
so if we quotient this by R now we get that elements of $(Q \otimes_R Q)/R$ are (1/b \otimes_R 1/d), can we then say that $(Q \otimes_R Q)/R \cong (Q/R \otimes_R Q/R)$?
Wew "Quaternonic" Tbh (201🧊) ✓
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
cause if we could that would be rather nice
oh good god that's clever
I like it
I feel like I was trying to do basically that but with the whole space at once 
ngl I do not get how any of those manipulations work
ok so, a/b ~ ad/bd by definition of field of fractions
move the factor of d on the top outside the tensor (cause da O b = d(a O b))
and then move it back in on the other side (d(a O b) = a O db)
cancel
boom
c/1 is in R
double boom
ohhhhhhhhhhhh
kablammo
I tried to see something like that but I was missing the ad/bd step
as you can see here 
jeez yea I have no intuition for tensors
This is a much easier computation than what you all did
like I kinda understand parts of this but manipulating it is all 
(a/b (x) c/d) = (ad/bd (x) c/d) = (a/bd (x) dc/d) = (a/bd (x) c) = (a/bd (x) 0) = 0
yea that's what @proud bear did
Ah
So you don’t even need two Q/R’s
In general, this computation shows that if M is torsion, then Q (x)_R M = 0
And Q/R is all torsion
I just remember 1, 2, 3 tbh
how does this use the fact that Q/R is torsion
and of course the funny quotient def
I do not understand how 1, 2, 3 are used
in like defining elements
You used the fact that on the right, c/d is killed if I can multiply it by a d
So what I did was on the left, multiply by a d/d, then moved the top d across the tensor
the integral might be defined elsewhere
but its saying that you are integrating over the ideal pZp to the n’th power where Zp is are p-adic integers and p is a prime
what book is this from
I was reading involutive algebra or *-algebra. Just for confirmation, in that structure, we have a ring R being commutative, where an associative algebra A is present over R. I don't understand the over R part. In associative algebra, we have associative Multiplication amd addition operations forming a Ring; and addition and scalar Multiplication operations forming a Vector space over a field K. Is this over K being replaced by over Ring R in involutive algebra? Or is it something different?
Any hints for proving that if the index of a center of a group is n, the most elements any conjugacy class of that group can have is n elements?
I have to use field theory to prove that $$\phi_n(x) $$ and $$\phi_{2n}(x)$$ have the same degree. We can only use cyclotomic polynomials, but we cannot use the standard argument that $$\phi(nm)=\phi(n)\phi(m)$$ when $$gcd(n,m)=1$$
alyosha
IF we have a short exact sequence 0 -> A -> B -> C -> 0 such that A is direct summand of B non canonically, does it imply that B is direct sum of A and C
No
0 → 2ℤ → ℤ → ℤ/2ℤ → 0
is not split, even though 2ℤ ≅ ℤ is a summand of ℤ
why don't epimorphisms in Ring don't mean onto ring homomorphism?
ℤ → ℚ is epi

There’s a remarkable fact about this summand thingy
If you have any SES of the form
0 -> A -> A (+) B -> B -> 0 where A,B are finitely generated modules over a commutative Noetherian ring, this diagram is split
It doesn’t have to be the canonical maps
where am I going wrong here? If $I$ and $J$ are principal prime ideals (not necessarily coprime) then $IJ = I \cap J$. To see this take $I=(x), J=(y), IJ=(xy)$. We want to show $I\cap J \subset IJ$, ie that if $x | a$ and $y | a$, then $xy | a$. Write $a=px=qy$ to see that $y|p$ since $(y)$ is prime, and hence $px=kxy=a$ so that $xy|a$ as required
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
y could divide x instead of p
oh right i should have also added that x and y are irreducible
though i guess then only one of them need to be
y=x still is a counterexample
fair enough
Irreducibility of x and y follows from their ideals being prime
thanks, i was mainly asking for the specific case of x and y in F[x,y] for which the argument is true then
yeah not necessarily
F
so does this coputation work then? I want to compute the nilradical of F[x,y]/(x^2y^3) for F a field
i just compute that rad(x^2y^3) is (xy)
by noting that if x^2y^3 divides P then x and y divides P so xy divides P
and the opposite inclusion is clear
and so the nilradical is (xy) + (x^2y^3)?
Sounds legit
coolio thanks
what does the notation $\mathbb{F}_p[\mathbb{Z}/p\mathbb{Z}]$ mean?
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
i have to do stuff with it in an exercise series but i cant find any place where the prof defined it
unless he means a group ring 🤔
yeah nvm im a fool this is a group ring
what proportion of finite groups are commutative? when listed by order or something
id expect it grows far slower than the number of finite groups
for p groups for example you already have a lot more non-abelian than abelian groups
from what i can tell there's a lot of research on the asymptotics of these numbers though
so we can say stuff about which ideals to quotient by to get no zero divisors (prime ideals) or no nilpotency (nilradical), but what about ideals such that the quotient isnt a product?
a related question is what ideals to quotient by such that there's no idempotency, but can we get tighter than this?
Why does this hold..
Why 1 is not in M@chilly radish
Because M is a proper ideal
Maximal ideals are proper
If 1 was in M it would be the whole ring
1 in M => r=r.1 in M for all r in R, so M=R
huh i couldn't find anything on first search, what do i need to look for?
Suppose F(s),F(t) are transcendental extensions of a field F, how can I describe the primes of the tensor product F(s) x F(t) over F?
Pls help
this could be a good starting point https://mathoverflow.net/questions/21265/how-many-groups-of-size-at-most-n-are-there-what-is-the-asymptotic-growth-rate
the asymptotics for abelian groups should be a lot more precise given we have the fundamental theorem of finitely generated abelian groups to help us count them
For abelian groups this just boils down to the number of nontrivial factorisations of a number
If A is a cohomogically trivial G-module, and N is a torsion free G-module, how would i go about proving that Hom(N,A) is also cohomogically trivial pls ? I know it's a torsion free G-module, maybe finding a short exact sequence where it fits with 2 others cohomogically trivial G-modules would be good perhaps, idk
I need help understanding what they even mean by c being an identity, considering c is just an element of the algebra of nxn generic matrices, not a polynomial in noncommuting variables. I assume they mean the associated central polynomial, in which case I don't understand why it's so easy to see that this is an identity for M_n-1. So basically, we have a polynomial in noncommuting variables, such that for every evaluation in nxn matrices, you get a scalar matrix, and this is supposed to imply that for every evaluation in n-1xn-1 matrices, you get 0. Any ideas?
What book is it from?
It's a paper, quasi-identities on matrices and the Cayley-Hamilton polynomial
Thank you
Np
Is it implicit here that the polynomials have no constant term? Otherwise, say, c=2 would seem to be a counterexample.
if you mean in the theorem, it is explicit in the statement of theorem 2.2
it
it's still weird to me that they refer to elements of Z_n as if they were polynomials themselves
I think something is going on here that i'm missing, maybe this identification is known to be bijective so it's okay to make
Oh, right.
I have a free group on three generators a, b, c.
I am trying to take the quotient of this group by the normalizer of the cyclic subgroup <a^2bcb^-1c^-1>.
I need to find the presentation of this quotient group. I'm having a little trouble with this.
Evaluate the polynomial on a set of block matrices of the form $\begin{bmatrix}X_i\&0_{1\times 1}\end{bmatrix}$ where $X_i$ are arbitrary $(n-1)\times(n-1)$ matrices. This produces $\begin{bmatrix}c(X_1,\ldots,X_k)\&0_{1\times 1}\end{bmatrix}$, but the only way for that to be a scalar is if it vanishes completely.
Troposphere
Suppose A is a Dedekind domain and B is a domain containing A that is finitely generated as a module over A.
I need to prove that B is also a Dedekind domain, so far I've been able to prove that it's noetherian and that every non-zero prime ideal is maximal, but I can't seem to be able to use the fact that A is integrally closed to prove that B is.
Can anybody give me a hint?
use that B is finitely generated over A
It isn’t true @chilly ocean
Is that normalizer even a normal subgroup?
Look at Z[sqrt(5)]
oh, thank you. It was in my professor's notes so I didn't think about finding a counterexample.
So the like
Using Krull-Akizuki you can say something which I assume is what they wanted to say
Which is that if L is a finite extension of Frac(A)
Then the integral closure of A in L is a Dedekind domain
You show that the integral closure is a dim 1 Noetherian ring using Krull-Akizuki
And then being integrally closed is free because the thing is the integral closure of A
the normalizer of it is.
How do you know? Normalizers are not automatically normal.
In fact, I think the normalizer in the case is the same as the subgroup itself, which is definitely not normal.
Perhaps the question should have said "normal closure" instead of "normalizer"?
I have tried so far to find a map $F(a,b) \to G_2$ with kernel equal to the normal closure of the first presentation's relation. I don't even know where to send $a,b$. I do know this uniquely determines a homomorphism, which we can then use the first isomorphism theorem to give us $G_1 \cong F(a,b) / \ker(\varphi) \cong G_2$.
Michael Harp
You can try a bunch of combination of c and d for phi(a) and phi(b) until you find one such that phi(a)*phi(b)*phi(a)*phi(b)^(-1) = ccdd .
I think || a -> cd b -> dc || works ?
normalizer of <(1 2 3 4)> in S_4 is itself right?
or no elements like (1 2) are in the normalizer right? as is (1 2 3)?
wait nvm no it doesn't
so it's just itself
Yeah any two 4-cycles are conjugate
specifically they are conjugated by the permutation of the entries in the cycle
yea
How can I figure out if the quotient group formed by the center of a group is cyclic or not?
I'm not sure how I to use cosets to figure out whether I can generate all cosets from a single coset
I wasn't able to show the one you posted worked, but I was able to show that the map ||(a,b)\mapsto (cd,d)|| works
I've shown R((x)) = S^(-1)R[[x]], S = {x^n|n in N}
how do I show R((x)) = K^(-1)R[[x]], K = {power series with no constant terms}?
or maybe there's another way to show if R is a field then R((x)) is a field
Can you state this as formal Laurent series with a finite tail (eventually 0 in negative coefficients)
Anyway you can give an algorithm for division in the ring of formal finite tailed Laurent series. Let $f=a_0x^n+...+a_kx^k+...$ be a formal finite tailed Laurent series with $a_0\neq 0$. We want to show that there is some corresponding g with $g=b_0+...+b_kx^k+...$ with $fg=1$
Emma
This gives us an infinite sequence of equations we can solve inductively to find g
@lavish nexus
Emma
The equations we have are given by the fact that $fg=1$ so the 0 degree coefficients of $fg$ is 1, and all of the other degree coefficients are 0
Emma
And then you can recursively find the coefficients of g by starting from the bottom and solving each equation individually, then plugging your solutions into the next equation
(I edited above to assume that f is a power series with a_0 not 0, since we can divide or multiply by x^n to get every other element)
So this is just applying the fact that power series with nonzero constant term are units
If you already know that you can skip the above
Yeah I know that algorithm for finite termed Laurent series but not for something with infinite negative power terms
I'm pretty stuck on (b)
So my understanding is that S is this subring of polynomials such that the terms without any y's also have no x's (i.e. are just constants from the underlying field F)
from that I'm not sure how to leverage that into proving (b)
That ring is finite termed Laurent series
That's what adding in x^-n for each n does
Oof I should have asked before I gave exposition
Ah well
So f(x,y) being in the ideal means each f_i is a combination of {1,x,x^2,....x^{k-1}} except for f_0 which has to be 0
So first cancel f_n(x)
You know {1,y,y^2...y^n} are all elements in S
how can you cancel f_n(x)?
Anyway you can't even have a ring of formal power series with infinitely many negative power terms, multiplication isn't well defined
So using this you consider {y^n,xy^n,x^2y^n...}
Now some linear combination of this has to cancel f_n otherwise you can't reduce f_n to 0(and hence the whole thing to 0)
Not without a notion of convergence, and even then you need more then that I think
Because only x^k y^m terms can cancel x^k y^m terms by subtraction
oh you just mean cancel by subtracting
Yea
The reason why products of formal power series work is there is only a finite sum of coefficients for each degree, in the infinitely many in the negative case you have an infinite (indexed by Z) sum for each coefficient
Hi, I'm very much afraid of abstract algebra. I've completed learning proof of contradiction, Contra positive and direct proofs but I haven't completed proof of induction. Still I am very very much afraid I don't know from where to start. I am very much of just about prerequisites such as mathematical induction, functions sets and relations I think I am overlearning. I am really struggling with the functions theorems. I am unable to understand really feeling discouraged. Currently I am reading "mathematical proofs: a transition to advanced math" textbook, it is very big that I am unable to complete it. I think I have completed 4 chapters from it.
Again it is very much discouraging for me for not understanding functions theorems.
Experience nearly 3 months I have completed the proof techniques. I completely forgot I think I have to recap it now! Should I directly jump into the actual subject ?
Well, to learn abstract algebra, you would want some basic set theory and proof techniques (precisely all the ones you listed above - including induction). But after that you should be totally ready. Honestly, the only thing you need to know about functions before you start abstract algebra is that they have inputs from a domain and outputs in a codomain, cardinality, what surjectivity and injectivity are (or what onto and one-to-one are, respectively), bijectivity (onto and one-to-one), and pre-images. But even these are all usually covered in an introductory algebra text.
Oh really?
You sound mostly ready though if you've been working on proofs in another subject. The main emphasis is that you are comfortable with proof structure.
This is the book I've read
I've practiced sir
I'm lost as to why we are looking at the n-th term
Well, There's actually no reason actually when I think about it
You can just cancel f_1(x) directly
?
Consider {y,xy,x^2y,...x^{k-1}y}
Some linear combination of this will have to cancel f_1(x)y
oh basically show that if deg f_1 >= k then there is no additive inverse in S?
Well,yea
Are HNN extensions commutative?
If you start with a non abelian group, it will embed into its extension so the extension can't be abelian
Hi, how do you prove A_1 and A_2 are isomorphic?
Not what I meant
If you reverse the order of the associated subgroups, do you always get an isomorphic group?
You can break up both of them as Z_p^2 (+) Z/pZ in different ways
Can i map the generators to generators?
Let's say there is a mapping which sends (p,0,0) to (p,0,1) and (0,0,1) to (0,p,0)
would they be isomorphic?
this another one that i got stuck
I know that it's universal property and I'm free to choose A whatever I want but got nothing so far
Suppose there are a_j such that Σa_j l(x_j)=0 .Let f:X—>R^n. Mapping x_j to (0,…,0,1,0,…,0) (the j-th element is 1), mapping X \ {x_1,..,x_n} to zero
oh so (r_1,...,r_n)=(0,...,0) thus r_i=0
brilliant
thanks
I took A as a free R-module but didn't consider it as direct sum of copies
Someone Can give an example of Infinite Field With Finite Characteristic (not zero).
rational polynomials with coefficients in a field of finite characteristic, F(x)
What is they way of representing this?
Any special notation?
Usually just the same notation as rational functions over the reals, e.g, (x³+1)/(x²+x+1)
$\mathbb{F}_{p}(x)$ ?
Solution
Ah yes, the name for the entire field. Yes, that's it.
Are the following statements true-
- When |alpha| = 1 and alpha has an argument that doesn't divide 2pi, Z[alpha] is dense in a wierd subset of C whereas if the argument divides 2pi it's dense only in Z[alpha]
- When alpha is an algebraic complex number, Z[alpha] is bijective to the set of equivalence classes (of polynomials with integer coeffs) based on the value they take at alpha
?
(1) No -- for example if alpha is a primitive 5th root of unity, then Z[alpha] is still dense in C.
Any hints on how I can go about showing that?
Still for the 5th root of unity, alpha + alpha^4 is a real that is smaller than 1; therefore Z[alpha] contains arbitrarily small positive reals, and so its intersection with R is dense in R.
Wait 2cos(pi/5) is greater than 1 right?
In fact assuming |alpha|=1, the only way for Z[alpha] not to be dense in C is if alpha^4=1 or alpha^6=1 (in which case it will be a lattice). Any other divisor will lead to a way to make numbers with modulus strictly between 0 and 1, and then you inevitably get a dense set.
The sum is 2cos(2pi/5) = 0.618.
Oh right
(2) looks right, though.
Why is this statement true?
As in the any other divisor statement
Divisors 1,2,3,4,6 give nice lattices according to my claim.
5 we've just handled.
And if the divisor is greater than 6, then |alpha-1|<1.
~~In the case where the argument of alpha is not a rational multiple of pi, then alpha is transcendental, and the evaluation map Z[X]->Z[alpha] is an isomophism. This doesn't seem to be immediately obvious (someone prove me wrong, please!) but follows from the https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gelfond–Schneider_theorem~~
Oops, I missed one of the assumptions of the theorem.
Upto isomorphism how may algebrically closed finite fields are there? please explain.
Zero.
can you please help me with this, how can i show this?
If the elements of the field are a1,a2,...,an, then consider the polynomial (x-a1)(x-a2)···(x-an)+1.
how this will help me to solve , can you please elaborate ?
It will show you that a finite field cannot be algebraically closed.
Thankyou
did not know this 
it's clever cause you immediately think "ahh I could have thought of that cause I know euclid's proof of infinitely many primes!"
Mero 
so I already showed that {f_1,f_2} generates R, but how are they linearly independent?
The multiplication i R is function composition?
Anyone know what the reduced trace might refer to?
Assume f1r+ f2s = 0 for r,s in R, and prove r(en) and s(en) must both be 0.
(This assumes we're viewing R as a right R-module. The claim doesn't seem to be true for the corresponding left module).
yes sir
oh yes i was doing multiplication from the left and got nothing
and from right, it's easy to see that they are independent
maybe there's a problem in the statement of the problem
I'd say it does. The left module cannot possibly have two independent elements.
(At least not when K is a field. Module endomorphisms are too tricky for me to commit to the claim in the general case...)
Wait, that's not even true in the field case. It's just the particular f1 and f2 that don't work.
is it accurate to say that a normal subgroup of G is just one that is like
closed under conjugation
ik the def of a normal subgroup but that wording isnt used in my book i just wanna make sure it doesnt miss anything/is wrong
forall g, gN = Ng
forall g, gNg^-1 = N
yeah sounds ok to me.
You can say conjugation by any element in G acts on a normal subgroup I think?
Just remember N has to be a subgroup in addition to this condition
yeah i mean it's w regard to normal subgroups so
is there any point to talking about normal groups that arent subgroups
chmonkey said sumn about this the other day 
Another way of phrasing it is
A subgroup N is a normal iff all inner automorphisms of G act on it
I think? If I haven't remembered my terminology wrong
that "normalness" is a statement about how H lives inside G
And we have a special type of normal subgroup
characteristic subgroups
if all automorphisms of G
act on it
N subgroup G is normal iff Inn(G) acts on N
N subgroup G is characteristic iff Aut(G) acts on N
Think we have this
is direct sum of two finitely generated modules finitely generated?
yeah
By definition
moldilocks
Try proving that if N is a submodule of M, then
M is noetherian iff N and M/N are both noetherian
The result you posted then follows from induction
I believe I'm supposed to prove the fact by following instructions and we haven't covered M is noetherian iff N and M/N are both noetherian
moldi why should i care about normal subgroups
i know what they are and that "i can quotient them" but like
why
They don't really give much lol those are the usual definitions. The reason you'd come up with the lemma I stated is that induction is the natural thing to try here, and if you try using induction then you should see why you need what I stated
They the kernels
Why should you care about subgroups
why do i care about any of this 
Just one more week bro
Quotienting is important because you can study maps that "behave the same way" on some part of the group
If you wanna study collections of maps that behave the same way, you start by studying collections of maps that behave the trivial way on a part of the group
That's what quotienting allows you to do
Normal subgroups are just parts of the group on which maps can act trivially
hmmm
but this refers to maps from the group to itself right?
also the fact that cosets of a normal subgroup forma another group seems important?
ive talked about this before but algebra feels like so many just
In the sense that if you ask for maps that act trivially on a subset S of the group, that's the same as asking for maps that act trivially on the normal subgroup generated by S
facts
I don't get it
My messages are delayed I think
they def are

Yes
Did you read the first iso thread
not in it's entirety


T!cat
honestly same
oh wait a group cant have two different normal subgroups
them shits are isomorphic
interesting
What do you mean
uhhhh
normal subgroups of thte same group are isomorphic
or am i mistaken about that
R is a noetherian ring therefore a noetherian module . so R^n is a noetherian module .And any submodule of a noetherian module is finitely generated (any submodule M of a noetherian module T, let A be the set of all finitely generated submodules of M, since T is noetherian there exists a maximal one in A, that maximum must be M, otherwise you can construct a bigger one
oh wait nvm, conjugate subgroups are isomorphic
wait but
confusion
normal subgroups are conjugate subgroups arent they
also the kernel changes depending on the map?
No
Normal means that it is conjugate only to itself
im getting mixed up then my b
butting in, gowers has a nice blogpost about normal subgroups with some nice motivation https://gowers.wordpress.com/2011/11/20/normal-subgroups-and-quotient-groups/
Do we get 6 dimensions?
oh wait actually no
seems to be 4
2 from W + 0 -> 0 + W and 0 + W -> W + 0
another 2 from E_k + E_k' = W + W -> W + W
That sounds a lot like "prove that A and B are isomorphic" "A is isomorphic, and B is isomorphic, therefore both A and B are isomorphic"
Sanity check, the kernel of a map can be expressed as the colimit indexed by the empty category right?
Let $(G,\cdot)$ be a group and $H$ be a subset of $G$. Does anyone know if there is a name for the smallest nonnegative ineger $n$ (if it exists) such that ${a_1\cdot a_2\cdot \cdots \cdot a_n: a_1,a_2,\ldots, a_n\in H}=G$?
Can we define \ominus by quotienting to reverse \oplus?
A\oplus B = C
C \ominus B = A
=========
For groups, vector spaces, etc.
Not if you want nice properties under isomorphism
But also we just use the quotient symbol for that
I don't see why using a different symbol would matter
For a more I guess philosophical standpoint, subtractions are addition of the additive inverses, you can’t really find a nice additive inverse with respect to direct sum
I feel the same about oplus though
dont we use that in place of cartesian product for the same reason
No
oplus is more than a Cartesian product
A Cartesian product is only defined for sets
i mean direct product
Oh
but i suppose theyre not the same
You haven't seen infinite direct products
only finite combinations with oplus
But for the finite case they are synonymous right
which makes me feel... idk \ominus would make sense
direct product vs quotient
direct sum vs 'direct minus'
So oplus is defined for all isomorphism classes of groups
Your ominus is heavily dependent on that B is a subgroup (substructure) of A
So you don't really have an invariant definition of ominus for isomorphism classes of groups
no, but the same could be said of the quotient operation on groups
Yes
But oplus is defined on isomorphism classes of groups
And we would want ominus to be as well I think
Just because how \ooperation is usually used?
Yes
👌
I guess it's not just that though
This is also only defined when you have that B is a normal subgroup of A, and so the domain of this operation would be Groups in the first coordinate, and normal subgroup of the first coordinate in the second coordinate
and also the quotient analogy for the operation makes a lot of sense
Much more than the minus analogy
For minus I would expect set minus
This quotient is defined for more general structures than groups right? ik it works for groups, vector spaces, havent thought further
yh nvm it is
since it is the same as direct product for finite case
Oh wait, ig infinite case matters too
I can 'see' the quotient should naturally exist I think
For for quotient the basic idea is of collapsing equivalence classes to points
Which is what division is
If a module has a basis, then does a submodule also necessarily have one?
You're asking if submodules of free modules are free?
Well then you can do the ring Z/(6) and the ideal (2)/(6) (={0,2,4}) inside Z/(6)
So the ideal generated by 2
huh but neither are free right?
oh I see
So yeah in the finite case any proper ideal is not going to be free
And being free is a very rare property
(among modules)
In the vector space case everything is free
ah ok, found this
PID is quite a strong requirement


