#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages Ā· Page 691 of 407
Seems rather silly to try to do so, right?
yems
š glad that helped
For primes p, q, show that {1, sqrt(p), sqrt(q), sqrt(pq)} is linearly independent over Q.
I tried some brute force approaches but nothing worked out. Anyone have a concise proof?
You probably need to prove it in stages.
First prove that {1, sqrt(p)} is linearly independent.
Then use that to prove that {1, sqrt(p), sqrt(q)} is linearly independent -- you already know that a nontrivial rational relation must have a nonzero coefficient for sqrt(q), so you can divide that coefficient out and get that sqrt(q) = a+b·sqrt(p) for some rational a,b. Square both sides of this, giving q = (a²+b²p)·1 + 2ab·sqrt(p), but since the LHS is an integer, 2ab must be zero (recall that 1 and sqrt(p) are linearly independent), but a=0 or b=0 each lead to contradictions.
Finally {1, sqrt(p), sqrt(q), sqrt(pq)} should go similarly, just with more involved algebra.
what is the significance of normal subgroups
They are the subgroups you can take quotients by.

Equivalently, they are the subgroups that can be kernels of a homomorphism, which is often useful for figuring out whether homomorphisms with such-and-such properties are possible.
moldi sticker
if i have a group and i know its subgroups are abelian can i conclude that the group itself must be abelian too?
i know an abelian group implies abelian subgroups but idk about the other way around
Yes, since it is a subgroup of itself.
oh that's cheesy
then subgroups of lesser order
hmmm that actually probably doesn't work in general
Oh an example is the quaternion group $Q_8$
Michael Harp
yup i realized, merci
de rien
D_6 but yeah that works too
Ew
eh?
using the 2n subscript instead of n
oh yeah because any group of order p^2 is necessarily abelian
Yeah
and p is obviously cyclic
Yeh
Wait, why is p^2 abelian?
It will have a nontrivial center by the class equation is the gist of it iirc
well that's true for any p group but in the case of p^2 you get a cyclyc quotient by the center
You donāt need to do it that way but
You can show itās either C_p x C_p or C_p^2
If you have developed internal direct products
If thereās an element of order p^2 itās the latter
Else once you know Lagrange, take two elements of order p which arenāt in the same cyclic subgroup
The product of the subgroups they generate is all of G cuz order p^2
Trivial intersection
Both are normal because index p
So itās C_p x C_p
according to a teacher of mine, there aren't any (at least that he knows of)
though he made an interesting remark aside : G is abelian iff #(H^1(G,Q/Z)) = #G, thought it might be good to share it too
I stumbled onto something interesting though : even if H isn't normal in G, we still have an isomorphism H^n(H, A) ~= H^n(tHt^{-1}, A) for t in G
so that may be why at first sight it might be hard to find such a way to do so
Oh direct prod of abelian groups is abelian
Why isnāt a group of order p^3 necessarily abelian then?
It doesnāt necessarily decompose like this
I think you can write it in terms of semi direct products maybe
But you can just take the quaternion group Q8
Or the dihedral group of order 8 as a counterexample
What does the matric representation of a frobenius automorphism look like?
I want to find the characteristic polynomial of the map $\theta : a \mapsto a^p$ over $F_{p^m}$ and im not sure if there is a clever trick to doing so.
Michael Harp
I got $\sum_{0}^{p^{r-1}-1}x^i$ as the minimal polynomial
Michael Harp
my thoughts are that F_{p^m} is char p and so we might be able to use a fermat's little theorem meme
hello,
so this is kind of bothering me.
x^G is an orbit of G in respect to element x (by my understanding that means that x^G is invariant under G and G|S is transitive over S (which means that for every x,y in S there exists g such that x^g = y)).
Now G can only map x to the elements of x^G (by definition). That means we can partiton G ("main" set of G) in |X^G| partitons based on where they map x. Now i don't understand why does each coset contain |Gx| elements? Is that maybe because all g ā G that map x to some y form right cosets on Gx? How do i know that each of those cosets has the same cardinality as Gx?```
okay so i check my abstract algebra notes and it seems that i forgot that cosets share the cardinality of H (or in this case of Gx)
is my interpretation okay?
I'm smooth braining a good place to start on proving $m\mathbb{Z}\subseteq n\mathbb{Z}\implies n|m$
Mosh
Cause I know there are integers p and q st x=pm and x=qn, but that doesn't seem to get me anywhere
You just need to show that m is in nZ
But that turns exactly into the divisibility thing
If mZ is a subset/subgroup of nZ, then every multiple of m Is expressible as n times another integer, right?
oh duh
m in mZ so m in nZ
so m=nk
n|m
Yah
went too general
ty
When we say a+b⦠How do we read cayley diagram⦠is it like first go to node a and apply b or go to b and apply a
Each node should have an element attached to it
And each edge will have a generating element
No, in non-abelian groups; how do we read a+b
Is it do first a and then b
Or do first b and then a
The action ab is generally thought of as "do b then a" but you lose nothing by reversing that
I feel like this is an xy question. Did you have a project in mind?
Yeah; thank you
Nvm, happy to help. Feel free to ask if you have anything else!
Consider a group of a polygon symmetries. When it acts on that polygon (on the sets of vertices and edges respectively), then can we say the resultant y (g.x = y for an element g in Group G, and x in a Set X) belong to X?
a group action by definition maps from GxX -> X, so yes
Thank you
if B is an A-algebra, q a prime ideal of B and p the contraction of q, is B_q isomorphic to localizing the A-module B at p?
No, for example A=Z, B=Z[x], q=(x)
What is the splitting field of cyclotomic polynomial $\phi_{p}(x)$?
Solution
Q(zeta_p) ?
The roots are precisely (by definition) the primitive roots of x^p - 1
I'm starting with ring and field theory, and I peeked into something which looks like integers decomposing into factors "smaller" than the usual primes: $(6)=(2,1+\sqrt{-5})(3,1-\sqrt{-5})(2,1+\sqrt{-5})(2,1-\sqrt{-5})$. I can vaguely guess what it means, but maybe someone can clarify some thoughts:
Is this really a decomposition of an integer into a unique factorization? I know $(6)$ isn't exactly the integer $6$, but can I treat it like that if I only consider multiplication? Maybe assume these non-principal ideals provide one layer of decomposing and then there is another prime decomposition within?
What is the most general name for this type decomposition ("integers into factors smaller than usual prime numbers")? Is it UFD or Dedekind domain or Ring of integers?
Can I generate these "factors" from the examples that are mentioned in https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ring_of_integers
Gerenuk
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
If you need to "vaguely guess" what it means, then you shouldn't expect to reach any useful conclusions. These things have precise definitions.
This most important fact to be aware of here is that "unique factorization" doesn't really mean anything in and of itself -- it depends heavily on which kind of factors we're considering for the factorization.
In the example above, I think the author must have decided to work in the ring Z[sqrt(-5)] instead of the ring of usual integers.
That makes more numbers available as factors and therefore changes both which factorizations we have at all, and also which of the factorizations we already know are unique in the new setting.
i know the definition of an ideal. but see that the above example specifically is not Z[sqrt(-5)] because that would be incorrect
In this ring 6 can both be made as 2 multiplied by 3, and as 1+sqrt(-5) multiplied by 1-sqrt(-5). It turns out that neither of these factorizations can be further refined as long as we're talking about honest multiplication in the ring. So Z[sqrt(-5)] doesn't have unique factorizations into products of irreducible elements.
Please elaborate on "that would be incorrect".
that was the whole point of the story. Z[sqrt(-5)] is not a unique factorization for 6. you have to consider Z[(1+sqrt(-5))/2] or so.
no....... you are misunderstanding
Z[sqrt-5] is not a factorisation
it is a ring
it is the ring we decide to work in
In this specific ring, (6) has unique factorisation into 4 factors as stated above by you
no. that's the whole point that this ring does not allow a unique factorization. you have to do something else to get unique "factor". it's only the last part i don't understand well
This specific ring happens to be a Unique Factorisation Domain
All those 4 factors written down are Prime Ideals
(No it doesn't).
You havent seen the definitions and are making guesses in the wrong direction I'm afraid
i'm sure Z[sqrt(-5)] is wrong and not what is used here
I'm very sure Z[sqrt(-5)] is exactly what the example is about.
But factorization of ideals is not the same as factorization of elements of the ring.
You need to know :
- Ring
(- unit element, prime element, irreducible element, not necessary, but will enlighten WHY we're doing this) - Ideal
- Prime Ideal
- Unique Factorisation Domain
- Ring formed by adjoining elements
And finally how to multiply ideals.
It's close enough that it can be useful for several of the same purposes in applications (and it is often better behaved), but it is not the same thing.
for multiplication $(6)=(2)*(3)$ kind of works?
(a, b)
Do you know what this object is in what you weote?
Gerenuk
yes but (2) and (3) are reducible
yes
and not prime
i know that object. but indeed, i do not understand this type of factorization
(ive gotta revise some definitions myself smh)
i guess i'm mixing up "types of factorization"? is there a link where i can read up on this?
cant remember if we're interested in irreducibility or primeness
or both
The point is, anyway, (2) and (3) can both be split up
is there a link where i can read up on this?
The book where you found the above example might be a good choice if you read it from the beginning instead of skipping ahead :-)
We want to uniquely factorise ideals
i'm interested in "decomposing integers into parts smaller than the usual primes". not sure how to define that. i've understood ideals for now, but i'm not much further
i think i do
this is vital because you need to then realise what
(a, b)(c, d) is
i think i can work this out
using this defn
but it's not related to the usual factorization of elements?
We arent talking about factorisation of elements no
this talk from your originally clipped passage is all about ideals
so the whole point is that my equation factorizes ideals?
About how we can uniquely factorise ideals
not elements.
Elements do not uniquely factorise in that ring for sure.
It's related to factorization of elements, but not the same thing.
hmm, i need to understand the way it is related then...
Aleph0's video on this was good iirc
that's where this question comes from
i'm just not there yet. i didn't consider factorizing ideals so far
ok. i'll go over it again. i was misled thinking it is related to factorization of elements
This is important to know as well
Z[rt-5] is not a unique factorisation domain
We instead consider a ring of ideals in Z[sqrt-5]
thanks. i guess to need to look into factorization of ideal. i get the Z[sqrt(-5)] not being unique part
in this ring of ideals, addition and multiplication are defined like this
edit: not a ring, mb
can the natural numbers be "part" of this ring of ideals?
(n) is an ideal
Ah wait not a ring
additive inverse sounds like a problem
But regardless ^ this construction is useful to think about
hmm, ok. it's not really a ring
where are these screenshots from?
i need to look into the operations on ideals more closely. didn't consider that before
If K is a number field, Ok is the ring of integers, which has a specific definition
my notes in algebraic number theory
im taking this course rn
oh. where i find notes or a course of that quality?
ok. i'll have a look
This is algebraic number theory stuff, you will probably briefly brush on it when first starting Algebra
On the fact stuff like Z[sqrt-5] is not a UFD
And why
But you likely won't do stuff with Ideals as above I think
i do understand Z[sqrt(-5)] not being UFD. and watching the aleph0 video i didn't realize that it was not factorization of elements anymore. do you use a particular latex package to type your notes?
Not my notes lol its my lecturers
If you watch the video again
I believe they briefly explain what an ideal is
And that they were multiplying these together
they had a visual thingy of a number line
i know what an ideal is. just didn't get they were being multiplied as well. but i rewatch either way
i thought there was a way to identify $(6)$ with $6$ in the end
Gerenuk
The text below the definitions is important in terms of computation
There is cus (6) is the multiples of 6 š¤
in that ring
6(a+b rt(-5))
you can identify when they start obeying similar algebra. (6)=(2)*(3) works in a way. but no additive inverse
For integers a, b, we have
(a)+(b) = (a, b) = (gcd(a,b))
apriori gcd may not exist for non-integers
hmm. good to see that
So switching to ideals gives a nicer multiplicative structure (where eg factorizations are unique) but at the cost of no longer aligning with an additive structure.
interesting. i haven't reached that part yet. that's why my confusion
I think factorisations are only unique under certain cases even within ideals or am I remembering this wrong
Class number comes to mind
you don't remember the technical term for when that is unique?
i read something about dedekind domains?
is that related somehow?
probably
i remembered this wrong
.
At least with Ok we have unique factorisation, but in general nope
i haven't learned Ok yet. Is that related to things like Z[x]/...?
see above i pasted all definitions that i referred to
ok thx
When determining orbits and stabilizers for symmetry of points on an n-gon, if weāre just asked for the āstabilizer of a vertexā are there specific conventions about where, say, the reflection elementsā line is on the polygon?
Iām finding the stabilizer of a vertex on a square, but it seems like in the first place there are two different ones depending on if the vertex starts on the line of reflection or not
And that the reflection line could be set in 3 different places
Transitive group action, primitive group action, blocks
what course would this stuff be studied? Rep theory? Group theory???
Is there a course dedicated to group actions somehow?
I guess they're usually studied in a group theory course
rep theory course
i learned about transitive group actions cus they came up in alg top
and then diff top
What does it mean decompose an object of a group action into orbits?
group actions are multiplication defined on a set by left or right multiplication by a group element
so g*p is well defined
if you do Gp which is the set of gp for all g in G then we get an orbit of p
if Gp=Gpā they are in the same orbit
For a fixed p, right
yup
There is an equivalence relation for two points being in same orbit precisely p~pā if Gp=Gpā
So if a question is asking about decomposing a vector V in Rn bring acted on by GLn(R), would that literally just be that each entry in V has an orbit of all real numbers
im assuming so
besides 0 maybe
because GLn(R) is invertible
so you dont want the transformation to make V into 0 vector
Thatās where I was a little unsure too, but Canāt an individual entry become 0 as long as overall the number of nonzero entries stays the same?
Like, the rules of invertibility are about the nature of the overall product, and we canāt really say anything about an individual entry
Yeah of course, but any given element could be 0 as long as at lease one other element is not zero
yes
Awesome, thanks
what class is this for
0? Wouldnāt it just be R?
Oh the total orbit space yeah
No I getchu
But decomposition means theyāre asking about any one given entry ?
no clue on that side
I guess itās a petty point as to whether to avoid talking about the total orbit space while Iām at it
Makes sense at any rate
mhm
So uh I'm first time dealing with group actions, so I just thought doing this example would give me some sort of intuition on this topic. Is my notion of understanding correct? [G is a group of rotational symmetries of triangle, X is a set of labeled vertices of the triangle]
hello, I need to show the following: Let $K$ be a field and $\lambda_i,i=1,..,r\in K$ eigenvalues of matrix $A \in K^{n\times n}$ and $m_i,j=1,..,r$ it's algebraic multiplicities. Let $m_1+..+m_r=n$. Show that $\det (A)=\prod_{i=1}^r \lambda_i^{m_i}$. As $lambda_i$ are eigenvalues of $A$ I can simply write down it's characteristic polynomial as $p(x)=(\lambda_1-x)^{m_1}\cdot..\cdot (\lambda_r-x)^{m_r}$ (as eigenvalues are only squareroot of characteristic polynomial and the previous polynomial is of degree $n$) and then setting $x=0$ I get the determinant of my matrix. Is it correct to do this way?
š»Š°niil
Yeah that's correct
Similarly you can find a formula for the trace of the matrix in terms of the eigenvalues if you're interested
how would one approach this?
f : G -> H
Let's say you want to find homomorphisms in general
If you have a set S which generates G
can you see how this will be handy?
G = <S>
@west violet
yh sure
so i understand this
i can create 3 conditions based on those conditions for $D_8$
$r^8=1,s^2=1 \text{ , and } (rs)^2=1$
suck2015
Sure sure, but in general - have you been shown how thinking about generators helps for constructing homomorphisms?
š¤
no no - there is an important result
that tells you what f(1) has to be.
f(1) = 1 (see if you can prove this if you havent seen it)
yeah because homomophism send the identity of G to identity of H
S is a set? or an element?
i guess Dihedral group is generated by {r,s}? would this be a generating set
the dihedral group is generated by a rotation and reflection (but you can't just pick any old rotation)
a 90 degree rotation and any reflection does generate D8
But in general --- we say S generates G
If any element in G can be written as a (finite) product of elements in S (including powers of and inverses)
ah yeah ok
If S = {a, b} for example
every g in G
g = a^n b^m
n, m integers
Now - can you see how this helps in terms of the homomorphism?
uh our homomorphism is f:G ->H?
And every g in G
can be expressed as some 'product'
of things in S
(not necessarily uniquely, but that does not matter)
every s_i is a product of a and b right
I some indexing set.
And note this product is not necessarily commutative
aba may be different from aab, and so on
If we have a homomorphism f : G -> H, though
we can still say something based on the fact S generates G
Take this --- any ideas what you could do?
for my question?
well yes, but in general, really
this is an arbitrary group G, arbitrary generating set S of G
and arbitrary homomorphism f : G -> H
Try applying f to both sides of this
well $f(g) = f(\prod s_i^{\alpha_i}) = \prod f(s_i)^{\alpha_i }$
dont know why you brought alpha down
And sorry - just realised this notation is a bit crappy
$g=\prod s_i^{\alpha_i}$
$f(g)=\prod f(s_i)^{\alpha_i}$
We have this because of the homomorphism property
f(a)^n = f(a^n) and f(a)^-1 = f(a^-1)
so we can conclude this
This is important because it tells us if we know where the generating set S maps to
this determines where everything else maps to
Does that make sense?
Ah one last step --- taking the power of alpha outside (property of homomorphism)
And my mistake for including indexes (its best not to generalise)
We want to describe a general product including abbaba^-1abba^-1ba^-1babba^-1ba because our group is not necessarily commutative
suck2015
ah ok
yeah i think i understand this
If you have done linear algebra
it is a bit like a basis
(or just a spanning set, really)
If you decide where this maps to
it determines your linear map
ah like a basis with linear combinations
The same idea applies here. If we decide where the generating set maps to, it determines our homomorphism
This scales down the problem a lot
For any dihedral group
We can have a generating set of 2 elements
So rather than deciding where the entire group maps to for a homomorphism
You just need to decide where the generators go
and check whether the resulting thing is a homomorphism
So back to this, that cuts down a lot of possibilities
But that's not all for generators --- the generators of the codomain are also worth looking at
Can you see why, perhaps?
f : G -> H
Let A generate G, B generate H
(This is more applicable to constructing isomorphisms, tbh, less so for homomorphisms, but still relevant to a certain extent)
why looking at the generators of the co-domain is important?
hmmm I will adjust this statement slightly for a homomorphism
f(G) are you familiar with this notation for the image of f?
this will be a subgroup of H (result)
yeah
Right - I claim, if A generates G
f(A) generates f(G)
This is something worth thinking about/trying to prove
So just by knowing where the generators map to, you can determine what the image of the map is.
And hence also deduce the size of the kernel, I believe.
(By lagrange?, not sure)
|ker f| |im f| = |H|
If I haven't remembered/thought this wrongly š¤
i think thats from the first iso theorem
hmm, so I should try and think where the generators maps to?
So basically yes - the general approach is to think about generators only
There is still some casework to be done, but it reduces work a lot
Thinking about Lagrange, Isomorphism thm will give you information about divisibility of sizes
my initial thought was f: D_8 --> Z_12 is our homomorphism, and we know D_8 is generated by the set {r,s}, then 2f(s) =f(1)= 0 (mod 12)
which further cuts down on stuff
Like for example im f cannot be of order 6
We have order 6 subgroup of Z_12
But the order of the image needs to divide the order of the domain
I'm just spouting facts, can't think explicitly why atm --- i'm sure its 1st iso thm š
and yh thats true
Order of f(a) needs to divide order of a for any a in G in general (lagrange)
Once you narrow down which are possible, it is important to double check they actually are homomorphisms
well actually let me rephrase that
I get possible values for f(s) and f(r)
so i check if these are homorphisms?
well with the possible values, I know every element in D_8 can be written as (r^a)(s^b)
yh i think you got it down
Just make sure you argument is rigorous for why those possible values you have down are necessary for a homomorphism
And then show which ones are sufficient for a homomorphism via checking
how do you check? Don't i just have to show f(ab) = f(a)+f(b) mod 12?
How can i do part c? I thought about the fact that finite fields with the same number of elements are isomorphic but in all fairness im not confident whether they are finite
well yeah but forall AB. I think the key is to use the first isomorphism theorem which tells you the kernel has to be a normal subgroup and G/ker(f) has an isomorphism to H for a homomorphism f: G to H
@coral shale thanks for earlier(i apologize if this is an unnecessary ping)
no problem, was afk
ah yeah, i kinda figured it out, it was an interesting problem. I mean the kernels i got for all of them were subgroups of G
I have somewhere in my textbook that for a given field, (X^n - 1) is separable if characteristic is 0 or prime with n. I'm not sure I understand why
oops sorry did not want to answer your post not related
@maiden ocean
You can like
Ask questions here if you have some
I know the idea behind what this stuff is
And what you can do
Yeah haha
i can download it in full
Yup
I get matrices as motivating/familiar examples, but they are just the least enjoyable problems to do

i feel that pain greatly and have yelled about it in this channel substantially
yeahhhh uhhhh let's learn the fucking uhhh symmetric group in terms of uhhhh fuckin matrices hurrr ddurr
the largest exponent in f(x) with non-zero coefficient
so if f(x) = -4x^5 + 3x^2 - 2
then deg(f(x)) = 5
can someone explain why the kernel of a ring homomorphism from an infinite ring to a finite ring must be infinite
I know that $R/\text{ker}(\phi)\equiv \text{im}\phi,$ of which the right side is finite and the $R$ on the left side is infinite, so it makes sense that $\text{ker}(\phi)$ shoudl be infinite as well but is there rigorous way to prove
JustKeepRunning
The union of the cosets (of which there are finitely many and they are all bijective) is R. If they were all finite then their union would be finite
I'm stuck on a seemingly simple problem but having trouble working with definitions
so I need to show that x^2 + y^2 - 1 is irreducible in Q[x, y]
I should be able to apply Eisenstein
with prime y - 1
but not sure how Eisenstein works with multivarible polynomial rings
if my prime is y - 1
do I treat everything in terms of x, so then y^2 - 1 is my "constant" term and so we have that
y - 1 does not divide 1
y - 1 divides y^2 - 1
(y - 1)^2 does not divide y - 1
and so we're done, Eisenstein applies????
so I'm thinking of Q[x, y] as Q[y][x] I guess
What is the assumption for Eisenstein?
Oh it's just integral domain
yea
That's good
Q is integral domain so Q[x]/Q[y] are integral domains that's all good
so then that works?
Yeah that seems good
cool
How do I show that if n ā„ 3, then the center of Sn is of order 1? I've tried induction, and have shown it for S3, How can I show Center(Sk) = (1,2....k) => Center(Sk+1) = (1,2....k+1)?
just want to make sure i got the correct answer that the only solution of this is x=[1]
take n >= 3. if f is not the identity, then f(i) = j for some i != j. take some k with k !=i, k!=j (why does one exist?) and consider the transposition (k i) or (k j)
The equation reduces to (x - [1])² = 0
you could also just check all [n] for 0 <= n <= 10
Which implies (x-[1])=0 since 11 is prime
Use the fact that transpositions generate S_n and consider centralizers of each transposition
Thank you, how did you come up with this construction?
Like I see that it works and why, but how did you get this idea
I haven't really learnt generators yet : (
Ok,That idea is a refined version of mine I think
i honestly donāt know. it just worked. maybe somebody else can explain the reasoning behind why it works better than i can.
Actually ignore the generators part, that's not needed
So,take the transposition (i,j)
Now let x be a centralizer of (i,j). x is either one of 2 things. It fixes i and j
Or x(i)=j and x(j)=i
Now suppose A is an element of centre that's not identity,then A(i) is not i for some i,then if you take a pair (i,j) A(i) has to be j and A(j) has to be i
Take another pair (i,k) and you get a contradiction
Ok same thing I think
Well n>=3 would imply you need to consider things that change atmost 3 elements
Transpositions are a natural thing to consider
Basically, an element in the center is an element such that zg = gz for any g, or gā»Ā¹zg = z. Clearly if z is an n-cycle with n >= 3 and g is a transposition then this is never true
Edit: ignore this
Thereās a simpler way to sort of induct
Or wellā¦
Nvm
My idea didnāt work :(
You can by induction only have to prove it when g is an element which permutes every element from 1 to n
Because if not, it lives inside a copy of S_{n-1}
If g fixes i, you can look at all elements which fix i, and this is isomorphic to S_{n-1}
And so thereās another element in that guy it wonāt commute with
Right. I realised that my cycle idea doesn't work
Yeah so cycles are bad because
So uhm... ignore me *slides away*
z could fail to commute with g
But that wonāt mean it doesnāt commute with gh
Like if h = g^-1 for example
So I think you basically have to just do what c squared did and like just construct an element it wonāt commute with
If youāve developed a lot more theory of symmetric groups and group actions thereās a really simple proof tho
Namely, write things in cycle notation, then ghg^-1 is the thing where you take h and apply g (considering it an automorpjism) to all the elements of h
Like if h = (123) then ghg^-1 = (g(1)g(2)g(3))
And gh = hg iff ghg^-1 = h
So you can take any h and just cook up a g which wonāt have ghg^-1 = h
But this requires a lot more theory lol
I think this might be a way to see what csquared did more naturally
Maybe
yea idk. i was kinda forced to take this approach. i wanted to make it as simple as possible, so naturally that means a cycle of some sort.
taking g = (i j) doesnāt always work, since f might be a transposition. but if you just mess up another element, the thing works
Yeah
This is exactly like
When you do the computation of what (ij) does on the left vs right
Youāre basically figuring out the thing I said
Why is group theory associated heavily with the study of symmetry? I understand that every group is isomorphic to a group of transformations (on itself) and how transformations that preserve some property on an object (like those regular polygons) sometimes form a group but it still doesn't feel natural to associate group theory heavily with symmetry yet.
its how groups originally appeared
as symmetries of objects, geometrical but also otherwise (like polynomials)
even today groups are often studied via their actions on other objects
and they act as symmetries on those objects for some definition of symmetry
Does this refer to groups that are transformations, since something like the group of additive integers doesn't really act on objects or does it?
It does
So one of the things it acts on is the real number line by translations
And it turns out this is actually a pretty important action
But aren't the elements of the group, integers and not the translations themselves? Or are you referring to them as the same because they are isomorphic?
The quotient space of this action for instance is just a circle, and I wonāt go into a lot of topological stuff here but this gives you crucial info about the circle
I mean the point of a group is regardless of how I write it down
To make it act on something
To think of it as maps on something
And his is one example of Z being maps which is useful
a group action lets you identify a group as a subgroup of Sym(M) for some object M
Wait can you rephrase that
the set of all bijections from an object to itself is a group, right?
Yeah
this is the symmetric group
and a group action is a group homomorphism G -> Sym(M) for some set M
if this is injective it lets you identify G as a subgroup of Sym(M)
Oh yeah
in fact you can always do this
for any group G and some M
which maybe explains this as well
Because of Cayley's theorem?
yeah
my point was that originally groups were studied only as this
like, the original notion of group was "subgroup of Sym(M) or GL_n"
then it was abstracted
but the original idea is still there
and group actions play an important part in the theory
(and linear representations)
Gotcha
Let L/M/K galois tower of extensions (L/M, L/K, M/K all galois)
Then
Gal(L/K)/Gal(L/M) = Gal(M/K)
By fundamental thm of Galois Theory
This looks like 3rd isomorphism in some ways... Is there some link with Yoneda in cat?
I doubt
.
Why do I feel like this isn't a transformation group?
Notice the functions in G are not bijective as for f(x) = 3x + 2 and g(x) = 2x+1 we have f(1) = 5 = g(2) but 1 != 2
?????????
are you checking bijectivity across multiple functions ?
f(x) = 3x + 2 would be an element of your group for example, and this is a bijection
I see I see
lol
Its because I am having an hard time finding the inverse of each function that I was trying to find an excuse
like we want g such that fog(x) = id(x) = x = g(ax+b) = gof(x)
y=3x+2 => x=(y-2)/3
i cant use stickers on any server apparently so that's cool
If I have a subfield of C, with an element a, is it true that the complex conjugate of a is also in the field?
Yhhh
Well if it contains R
Itās true
Because C is degree 2
So the only intermediary fields are R or C
But what if it doesnāt?
yes, for example something like Q(a) where a is just some (nonreal )complex number algebraic over Q
Not necessarily. If you take an irreducible cubic with one real root and adjoin one of the complex roots to Q, you don't get any of the other two roots.
I see that if you ajoint the real root, you can not get any of the complex roots, but why is it if you ajoint a complex root, you can not get another root?
The splitting field has an automorphism that takes the real root to one of the complex roots. So that takes Q(real-root) to an isomorphic field, but Q(real-root) obviously only contains one root, and so its image also contains only one root.
Wait, I don't think what you said is true. If we look at a 3rd primitive root of unity, then x^3 - 1 is its minimal polynomial, and ajoining a complex root gives you all the roots. That polynomial has 1 real root and 2 complex roots
x³-1 is not irreducible: x³-1 = (x-1)(x²+x+1).
yes i am dumb :
So is the summary of what is happening as follows? Since we are working over C, our fields has characteristic 0, so any splitting field is a Galois extension.
- We know the Galois groups acts transitively on the roots of this cubic polynomial. This is why there exists an automorphism in the galois group that sends the real root to acomplex root.
- This automorphism maps Q(real root) to Q(complex root) since the automorph maps real root to complex root and fixes Q.
- Q(complex root) can not contain another other roots, since its inverse image is another root, but Q(real root) only has 1 root
root

Automorphs sounds like some transformers shit
But does this idea hold in general regardless of the degree of the polynomial? It seems to be there is nothing special about a cubic polynomial in this case. We just need the irreducible poly to have a real root and complex roots
maximal ideals, call that optimus prime
I had this thought while working on a different proof. Is this statement true?
Let $R$ be a ring and let $S$ be a subring of $R$. Then $0_S = 0_R.$
Rmoney
I tried googling it and couldn't find an answer
Yes
Yeah itās true
This is actually just about groups
Because this is about the underlying group structure
you mean D_4?
It's just V4, which can be realized in several different ways.
im being asked to prove that it's isomorphic to that lol
Oh. Hopefully you have a definition of "dihedral group" to work with.
Otherwise, perhaps the group of geometric symmetries of a line segment.
i'll go back and check, i just default to D_8 usually
also are there any elegant ways to prove isomorphism
i usually default to just a table if the groups are small enough but that feel scuffed
Yes, its either C_4 or C_2xC_2 the klein 4 group
It is useful to remember that table of groups of small order
I actually have a related question. If we know our group is order 4 how do we decide between K_4 or C_4? They are both abelian.
is there an order 4 element
So since we have only four elements, the best way to do this is literally check element by element right?
š š
In general, try to show it is hom first and show surjective
D4 is {1, r, s, rs}
V4 is {1, a, b, ab}
done
is it enough to say that if two groups have the same order for each element theyre isomorphic

Probably not
No -- Z and Z^2 both satisfy that every non-identity element has infinite order, but they are not isomorphic.
Double checking: K_4 has 3 proper subgroups right, <a>, <b>, and <ab>
Yes
So I am having the following problem.
We have four complex elements: $\pm \sqrt{\frac{3}{2} \pm i \frac{\sqrt{7}}{2}}$ and I know that Q ajoint by those four elements is a Galois extension with Galois group $K_4$, the klein four group.
We only have three proper subgroups, so three proper subfields, but the issue I am having is finding the corresponding fixed fields under the Galois correspondence. Since none of the automorphisms are fixing any of the generators, I don't see at all what these fixed fields are.
What is the general technique to finding fixed fields under the Galois correspondence, if I know like in this case all the subgroups of the Galois group
MasakaBakana
In this case what is nice about working with K_4 is that all the subgroups have index 2, so the field extensions over Q are also of degree 2, but it still doesn't show what these fixed fields are
is it at all important to remember that the conjugation map is an automorphism
or it just like
yeah
oop you need that to show that conjugate subgroups are isomorphic
Whatās the kernel of conjugation
identity right?
idk if this is silly to ask but
class has been a lot about normal subgroups
is the notion of a group being normal at asll useful
Normality is a property of subgroups
ah nvm then
It doesnāt make sense outside of that context
yeah i was tryna think of it but idk
Because you have nothing to conjugate by
normal means you can take quotient
Ignore normal subgroups, deal only with finite simple groups
is there more to elaborate about this
cuz like i know that it's about that
but idk how the actual act of conjugation translates to that if that makes sense
You want the set of cosets to have a group structure
It ends up translating exactly to the statement that H is a kernel for G
Normal <==> is a kernel of some map
In order to have a group structure multiplication must be well defined using any representatives
then a little manipulation will show for {gH} to be a group the subgroup H has to be normal
And given a hom f, because G/kerf is iso to a group, kerf has to be normal
quick question, if i wanted to prove an isomorphism
and i already have a homomrophism, what adiditonal property do I have to show?
Just that itās bijective
Assuming youāre dealing with algebraic objects
(Groups, rings, modules,, vector spaces, etc)
It is onto and ker = 1
o shit aight word
does these two properties imply isomorphism? i remember showing an isomorphism from like a dihedral group to like a symmetric group, D8 to S4 or something, and there was one special property we had to prove in particular
like in D8, ab^3 = ba or something
D8 is not iso to S4
it is a subgroup of S4
oh 8 element subgorup of S4
yea
does showing bijective and homomorphism automatically satisfy these so called "hidden" properties of some groups?
for some reason, i'm not entirely intuitively convinced
Yes
Itās the definition
i know it's gonna be tough to show me
Iso is a bijective hom
The map is injective and surjective
You can just find a set theoretic inverse
in modules
is phi(0) =0 ?
iu am trying to show that
if phi:A-->B is a hom
then phi(A_tor) is a subet of B_tor
?
so
this proof is right:
r1phi(a) = phi(r1*a)=phi(0)=0
rightt?
where r1 is the "torsion" of a
or like the element that fucks up a
@next obsidian
No
You use additicity
phi(0 + 0) = phi(0)
But also phi(0) + phi(0)
So you just subtract a phi(0) from both sides
i meant for proving torsion
i have another quick question, for groups with |G| < 6, how can we conclude that every non identity element has order 2?
We canāt
idk
for |G| < 6 and |G| \neq 4
Itās false
But the main thing theyāre using is probably lagrange
Or something close to it
If g is in G
Then |g| divides |G|
This handles every group of prime order
It says groups of prime order are cyclic
So you only have to handle groups of order 4
And you can show those are abelian in a number of ways
Well..
If you know what lagrangeās theorem is
You can use that looking at <g>
You can prove it adhoc like this though
Define a relation ~ saying that h ~ k if k = g^nh for some n
Iāll prove this is an equivalence relation
h ~ h is trivial taking n = 0
Itās reflexive because if h ~ k then k = g^nh, but then g^-nk = h so k ~ h
Itās transitive because it k = g^nh and r = g^mk
Then r = g^{n+m}h
So we can look at the equivalence classes of ~, this just means subsets of G defined like [h] = {k in G, h ~ k}
These partition G, so G is the union of these, and distinct ones donāt intersect
Note that for any h in G, that h is in [h]
So the union is G
Now if [h] and [k] intersect then take some r in [k] such that r is also in [h].
So that h ~ r.
But for any s in [k], k ~ s, and k ~ r, so we know that r ~ s. Now by transitivity as h ~ r we know h ~ s
So now s is in [h], so [k] < [h]
š
Now run this same argument but like the other direction and you see [h] < [k] so theyāre equal
Now the cool part
Note that the size of [h] = |g| for any h
Indeed, [h] is seen to be the set {g^nh} for n in Z
But you can see that g^nh = g^{n + |g|k}h for any integer k
So thereās at most |g| distinct elements, but h, gh,.., g^{|g| -1}h are all distinct
So thereās exactly |g| elements
So now, we know that G is the union of all the [h], but these are all disjoint
lemme screenshot this, gonna digest this for like an hr
how do u show
that f(M) = M_tor
is a left exact functor
for category of R-modules
To show left exact
yea yea mb
let D be a module
M-->N-->D-->0 is exact
then 0-->M_tor-->N_tor-->D_tor
is exact
right?
im sorry if im wrong
Like in particular
but not right
yes
So no
Left exact says
0 -> M -> N -> L
Then 0 -> M_tor -> N_tor -> L_tor is exact
okay
It fails exactly for surjectivity which is what I came up with a counterexample to
okay so
ssuppose this is exact
M-->N (f) and N--> L (g)
this means what
ker(f) = im(g) right?
nope the other way around haha
It means that M -> N is injective
And the image of M -> N is the same as the kernel of N -> L
yea
so
i already have
1 sec
so
i need to show what
M_tor-->N_tor image is the same as N_tor --> L_tor kernel?
yup
okay so suppose M_tor-->N_tor is f dash and N_tor --> L_tor is g dash for example umm
they do have to be the same maps right?
not f dash
im sorry this is fuzzy for me
I mean youāre the one that has to show this is a functor
So youāre the one defining what it does to maps
But anyway yes itās just the same map
But restricting the domain
yo
if 1-->G_1-->G_2.-->....---G_n-->1 is exact
then why is product(i=1 to n) |G_i|^(-1)^i is 1
do i do inequalities?
so its right?
i thought like
Iād prove it for like
u can get some inequalities
Iād do it by induction or something
from the maps 1-->G_1 and G_n-->1
.
Is there some generalization of the action of taking triple closure
Like V(I(V(I)))= V(I)
I^ece = I^e
and similarly for Galois group
@lavish nexus do you know what adjoint functors are?
I think you could think of this as the triangle identities for the unit and counit of an adjunction
So at a less abstract level, a "galois connection" is a pair of posets P, Q and monotone maps f : P -> Q, g : Q -> P such that f(x) <= y iff x <= g(y) for any x in P, y in Q. The extension/restriction is an example of this when P, Q are posets of ideals, f(I) = I^e, and g(I) = I^c, because I^e <= J iff (image of I) <= J iff I <= J^c. The galois group example and the algebraic geometry one are also galois connections, but you need to take the opposite of one of the posets because you have anti-monotone maps, so eg you have J <= I(C) iff C <= V(J).
If you have a galois connection then f(x) <= f(x), so x <= g(f(x)) and similarly f(g(y)) <= y. Taking y = f(x) we see f(g(f(x))) <= f(x), but also because f is monotone x <= g(f(x)) implies f(x) <= f(g(f(x))), so we have f(x) = f(g(f(x))). Similarly g(f(g(x))) = g(x)
The relationship with adjoint functors is that posets are the same thing as categories where
- There's at most one map between any two elements
- Every isomorphism is an identity.
Then functors between these categories are the same as monotone maps and an adjunction is a galois connection
Let's replace these groups (right? I guess) by vector spaces, and consider the case n=3:
0āG_1āG_2āG_3ā0
Then the (short-)exactness says G_2/im(G_1āG_2) is isomorphic to im(G_2āG_3), and since im(G_1āG_2)āG_1 and im(G_2āG_3)=G_3 we get dim G_2-dim G_1 = dim G_3, or that ā_i(-1)^idim G_i = 0.
Ofc if you consider the product of exp(dim G_i)^(-1)^i you'll get a similar formula, which tells essentially the same thing!
Is that what you've expected, Moamen?
dumb question
how is I_k an ideal of S
wait nvm I'm dumb
I was going to say "can you not multiply any polynomial by x^k and not be able to write it in terms of the desired form"
but x^k is in R and importantly is not in S
wait no but x^k y is in S and 1 is in I_k but x^k y* 1 = x^k y is NOT in I_k right?
and more importantly x^k y * y = x^k y^2 is also not in the ideal right?
yes but I have not heard of the next part
I'll look them up tyvm
i've got a homework question on getting the splitting field of a polynomial over various fields, i'm still not quite clear on how to obtain a splitting field in general tho
here's the problem in question:
Find the splitting field of $x^4+x^2+1$ over $\mathbb{Z}_2$, over $\mathbb{Z}_3$, and over $\mathbb{Q}$.
Snodlop
i know the roots of the polynomial are +- (-1)^(1/3) and +- (-1)^(2/3), i'm just not sure what to do with this information from here
my notes are not very helpful rn lol
yea can someone help me with part b here
I have some vague ideas but nothing too concrete
cause I can't say every element of I_k takes the form f(x, y) * (a_0 * y + a_1 * x * y + ... a_k-1 * x^k-1 * y) for constants a_i in F and some f(x, y) in S right?
also is this not just 2nd isomorphism theorem? (diamond)
nvm I'm dumb it isn't
is it just first isomorphism theorem?
It might follow from second isomorphism theorem, but it shouldnāt be any harder to prove it from the first isomorphism theorem really
Just find surjections M ā> N2 whose kernel is N1 and M ā> N1 with kernel N2
ye
I love the name of that sticker lmfao
how do you find a basis for a derived lie algebra given some basis for it? (i.e. basis for [L,L])
can you just do bracket of the basis elements with any element in the lie algebra or something like that
I already proved in the lsdt exercise that for vectors this is true
Idk how to do the product
Oh alright
Let me LaTeX my solution, wait a moment
Well it'd be faster to write down
I don't think you can obtain something like Ī _i(-1)^i dim G_i = 0
@void cosmos
Depending on $r$ being odd or even, the LHS becomes either $e^{-1}\prod_ie^{\dim G_i}$ or $\prod_ie^{\dim G_i}$
shota___inoue
I didn't understand why the order appears in your formula ..
And are the G_i's in your formula just groups? Or is there some additional structures
yes
This is the exponential power (e is the Napier number)
yea yea ik
Hmm
i meant how does it relate to order
I didn't give the answer, but I've just made a formula for vector spaces, not for groups
so I should probably change the way to tackle this
For example, consider a group homomorphism f: GāH and the induced short exact sequence
0āker(f)āGāim(f)ā0
I want to yield the formula |G|=|ker(f)||im(f)| to get Ī _i|G_i|^((-1)^i), where G_1=ker(f), G_2=G, and G_3=im(f)
When G is finite this is a consequence of the Lagrange theorem and the isomorphism theorem
And I suppose that your formula only makes sense for finite groups, so that'll be the answer
You can use induction on n to produce the same result for any positive integer n!
But when you get stack feel free to ask here
okay so i got confused now
lets wrap this up
from first isoo and exactness
we get |G_i|= ker(fi)im(fi) right?
which is ker(fi)ker(fi+1) right?
If you put the |...| on the RHS yes
okay
f_i+1
Are you writing the map G_i ā G_i+1 as f_i+1? Then |G_i|=|ker(f_i)||im(f_i+1)|
Hmm
I guess the formula we want to get is
Ī _i|G_i| = Ī _j|G_j|
where i runs all the odd numbers and j runs all the even numbers appearing in the indicies of G_i's
and if you substitute the kernel identify
And divide both sides by a certain nonzero number
What you get is the identify |ker(0āG_1)|=|ker(G_2nāG_2n+1)| (if the sequence is ...āG_2n+1ā0) Ummmm
Sorry I'm not sure what I'm even doing haha
I'm on the train coming back home, so when I have a pen and paper I'll write down the solution I'm having in my head!!
Not a type of calc that can be down in my head lmao
okay
np
consider the functor F in the category of R-modules
F(M) = M_tor
why does this fail to be right exact for the sequence Z --> Z-->Z/nZ --> 0
is it because img(f) from Z_tor to Z_tor is Z_tor but kernel of the natural map to the quotient tor is 0?
elements of V3 are of the form rV2+V1 right?
so
they are of the form (a,b,0,c)(x,y)+(x,0)
right?
(a,b,0,c) is the matrix
a,b,c in C and x in C
im stuck with Hom(V2,V1)
is Hom(V2,V2) =V2
?*
Iād still write V1 here instead of (x, 0)
And I believe it just acts like scalar multiplication as the top variable is quotiented out
so (a b 0 c)(x y)+V1 = (ax+by cy)+V1 = (0, cy)+V1 as ax+by is just a complex number
I hope thatās what you were after lol
I dunno where Hom comes into it
Question B


