#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages ¡ Page 690 of 407
thinking............................
sorry firstly, this is inaccurate - defn of normal ext involves irreducibles
i need to specify irreducible for this to make sense with respect to the original Q
And then irreducible polynomials in K[x] may not also be irreducible polynomials in K1[x]
and that's where the problem arises
forgot we only consider irreducibles
At most we only have this then, ig.
On another note, if we have polynomials of the form x^n - a, it is easy to find all its roots, namely we take the real root a^(1/n) and take an primitive n-th root of 1, and just multiple its powers with the real root to get all the roots.
However, what if we instead modified the polynomial slightly, like
x^4 + x^2 - 2. It still has four roots, but how do we find all other other roots assuming we have a real root. For sure any complex roots must come in conjugate pairs
quartic formula?
In general there is no way, as there is no formula. . .
if you have some root already, you could do long division, but in general that doesn't help much, surely?
that one happens to be a quadratic in x^2 so it's not too bad
Yea, I think division is prob the easiest way to do it, even if tedious
hi again, I don't get this problem đ
ok i get it now
The idea is that what x does to a encodes a linear transformation
Ah okay
I was gonna say you want to think of xâ˘- as a function on A
This is a common trick btw, representation theory is kinda built off of a very similar idea
yeah multiplication with x will boil down to definition of linear transformation
Yup
about grading automorphism on a Clifford algebra
does Clifford algebra has like some sort of unique factorization
thanks chnmonkey chmoblubmia
If I have a field with $\sqrt(2 + \sqrt 2)$ in it, how to see $\sqrt (2 - \sqrt 2)$ is also in it. I am pretty sure it is true, but I can't find a good way to express $\sqrt (2 - \sqrt 2)$
MasakaBakana
Uhh is this over Q?
Yes
Hmm so
I think you can argue like
Q(sqrt(2 + sqrt(2)) embeds into your field
And that contains the other element
Now whatâs important is like
This is expressible using arithmetic over Z
So like umm⌠not every isomorphism necessarily maps an element k to itself
But let me explain for a second
Well the issue I am having is that Q(sqrt(2 + sqrt(2)) contains sqrt(2 - sqrt(2)
I think so, i dunno tho
Well
If it does
The reason it suffices is that any map sends Z to Z
As in, any isomorpjism takes 1 to 1
And then by additivity n to n
you can work backwards from x=sqrt(2+sqrt(2)) and make the polynomial and see that both are roots
So suppose that Q(sqrt(2 + sqrt(2)) embeds into your field F via f
But the other root is -sqrt(2+sqrt(2)), not sqrt(2-sqrt(2)) right?
Suppose the former also has sqrt(2 - sqrt(2))
Then if x = f(sqrt(2 - sqrt(2))you see that (2 - x^2)^2 = 2
Because if you let y = sqrt(2 - sqrt(2)) then f((2 - y^2)^2) = f(2) = 2
But also thatâs equal to (2 - x^2)^2
there are 4 roots cause it's a quartic
and it's irreducible by eisenstein
Wouldnât that require that you know that the polynomial splits in Q(sqrt(2 + sqrt(2)) tho?
I see that x^4 - 4x^2 + 2 is a polynomial it as a root
But then we need that the extension is a normal extension to guarantee it splits as roots. This is pretty much equivalent to showing sqrt(2 - sqrt(2) is in the extension, so it doesnt' seem any easier
yeah true
I feel there is some stupid reason using just basic manipulations that it is in the field, but I can't see anything ):
ok I think I found it, $$\frac{\sqrt{2}}{\sqrt{2+\sqrt{2}}} = \sqrt{2-\sqrt{2}}$$
Merosity
You brilliant genius
lmao
I feel like
I feel so fucking stupid
you should be able to get this from like
writing the roots using the quadratic formula twice
I broke the rules and just multiplied by the conjugate and once I got it I just fixed itup
I feel like that's supposed to tell you the extension is normal
Q[sqrt(a+sqrt(b))] contains sqrt(a-sqrt(b)) iff it contains sqrt(a^2-b)
do you just know that off the top of your head?
lmfao
maybe you've seen this in an algebraic number theory class or somethign?
Doing that thing in general
Lol, no, I was trying to deduce some things
Gotcha
If you just knew this fact off the top of your head that would've been really funny
Ahah, I hope to remember it now, so it may be funny in the future

yeah, everyone will die laughing at the hilarity when you whip it out lol
I don't think I will remember it specifically but I'll probably remember how to derive it
actually
tbh
to derive that do you even need Q?
I feel like all you need is maybe like
char not 2
or something
maybe
maybe to be safe say characteristic not 0
anyway idk, I don't wanna think about it lol
yeah like ultimately the trick is to get the negative sign, we need to invert it, and then clean it up
and our ability to clean it up depends on what we have lying around idk
$$\frac{1}{\sqrt{a+\sqrt{b}}} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{a+\sqrt{b}}}\frac{\sqrt{a-\sqrt{b}}}{\sqrt{a-\sqrt{b}}} = \frac{\sqrt{a-\sqrt{b}}}{\sqrt{a^2-b}}$$
Merosity
I'm imagining a similar trick would work for the analogous type of problem for $\bQ(\sqrt{a+\sqrt{b+\sqrt{c}}})$
Merosity
is this missing words?
I'm reading it as saying that not having a monic quadratic factor implies it has no quadratic factor
i mean if Z_p is its usual meaning the question is trivial i think hehe
lol yeah that's what I was thinking
I'm not sure what it should say
but it's like "If not x then not x" lol
might mean a and b are in fields which arent Z_p....
but i mean idk that's just as easy
was it from a text?
huh... weird!
It's what Mero said right?
They're saying if you don't have a monic quadratic factor you have no quadratic factor at all
Yeah okay upon squinting that is the correct reading
idk why Gallian is so resistant to just introducing the term monic lmao
Cringe
I don't think he introduces it until like 3 chapters later
I think I read that question 8 times confused how it wasn't a tautology
the question just seems overly specific too
like might as well just do it for any field and any degree polynomial
it's equally as hard lol
so, you can't put a ring structure on the group Q/Z because the identity would have finite order which leads to a contradiction
but this argument doesn't work for R/Z
so can we turn this into a ring? or is there a different reason why not
yeah
you have the "ring addition" given by addition mod 1, or equivalently by multiplication in S1
the problem is in giving it a multiplication that distributes, etc
or even showing it exists
So you are being vague about something
Namely what is the particular Z you are modding out by
wdym
I think it kinda does matter
we can work with the group S1 and drop the whole R/Z stuff
I'm a bit confused why 'normal' multiplication doesn't work, other than no identity . . .
i don't have any multiplications, or multiplication candidates
i don't even know if S1 admits one
[x][y] = [xy]
[.] denoting fractional part?
that's kinda the question
I know that R/Q for a particular copy of Q inside of R is isomorphic to R as a group
yeah that doesn't seem well defined to me
If they're talking about putting ring structures on
Regardless of issues with 1, you need closure under arbitrary multiplication to get a well defined operation
i don't mean R/Z as a ring quotient, i mean giving the quotient group R/Z a ring structure
Probably they are and it's not hard to prove
I have a simple question. If I want to check if an finite extension Q(a,b) is a normal extension of Q, I only need to look at the minimal polynomials over Q of the generators a and b right, and see that they split as root factors?
I mean this is uncountable
if we abandon normal addition, we can create a bijection between R/Z and R and we are done 
That's bad chmonkey
Why
Because they want it to be compatible with the current group structure
On S^1
I think this is a classical topic
Well in that case Iâm not sure
Let R, S represent the sets of roots of the minimal polynomials of a and b.
Then Q(R, S) is a splitting extension for the product of the minimal polynomials (ie. normal).
If you can show Q(a, b) = Q(R, S), then you are done. (it suffices to show Q(a, b) contains Q(R, S))
yeah, that example is what got me considering R/Z
but the same argument doesn't work
Is Q/Z a subring?
I was thinking you can intersect with Q/Z < R/Z
It's a subgroup
because it relies on every element having finite order
And give it a ring structure
It may not be a subring
But thereâs no reason itâs multiplicatively closed
Yes
Wait yes there is
I think its because of linearity
Like
Often Z-linearity
Combined with inverses
Fixes stuff for Q
Well no nvm
1 isnât actually 1
Itâs some random element of R/Z
So yeah idk
Okay I think I can make this work
You don't necessarily need 1
Just some fixed element
Fix some nonzero element r in Q/Z, and then you can write every other element of Q/Z in terms of r and Q
Why?
You canât use multiplication
Because then youâre using the normal multiplication on Q
You can use multiplication by scalars in Z
Okay one sec
Do we require commutativity? If not, I have an idea --- we can treat this like a module right?
Think of scalar multiplication as
a . b
Induce a bijection from R/Z to R
f : R/Z -> R
a . b := f(a) . b
Okay the copy of Q/Z should satisfy the property that for your fixed nonzero r for every nonzero element q, there are numbers n and m so that nr=mq
Donât think so
Hmm
i'm a little lost why are we considering Q/Z
That isnât true
ah this probably fails right identity. and we need bijection to be nice
Sorry I do this sometimes chmonkey
Itâs alright
This is what I was saying at first about
Z-linearity then inverses
Right
Then I realized 1 isnât actually the 1
In fact as an element 1 = 0
So it canât be the identity
(Well, the multiplicative one at least
)
we know it can't be continuous
which is less nice
Hey question
These numbers are in bijection with S^1
Like as a group
Embedded in C
Yes
And the operation is multiplication in C
yes
true, but no identity
Wut
How are you defining a^b?
as in, the left and right identities aren't the same right
Yeah that's why I asked
$e^{ia}\bs+e^{ib}:=e^{i(a+b)}$
So one way to think about it is we have this right
I was thinking like âadditionâ was actually multiplication
And now we need âmultiplicationâ
And I thought that exponentiatioj might work cuz I think it factors right
yh i see where ur going 
How about that on the R/Z model
What works
wait it's not even associative is it
$z^{\cos\theta+i\sin\theta}=z^{\cos\theta}z^{i\sin\theta}$
Fugg
Gah!
What are we trying to do?
Maybe you should do this logically
This? I think modulus issues right
Take R/Z as an additive group
Like choose elements that will work
Rng is easy: every product is 0.
yh but no one said it 
I assumed we wanted one thAt isnât that lol
i didnt even know this was possible
It may not be
i read an article and now i'm convinced rings morally need identities
so ring structure is preferable
Lol that's the sort of shit I do chmonkey
If one existed it has a natural way to be seen
Via considering these the modulus 1 elements of C
Which is nontrivial
And cannot be seen
thats fine tho, just take angle
right
Because R/Q is isomorphic to R as a group, but not naturally
the addition we have rn, is just complex multiplication
Lol
Like what do you even do?
You build it
Hurb

Iâm team doesnât exist tbh
I think either there's a nice proof it doesn't exist or there's a gross construction of one
That's my opinion
i'm leaning this way too
So, as an abelian group, I believe R/Z is Q/Z direct sum uncountably many copies of Q, right?
That doesn't induce the ring structure
Uhhhhhh
On Q/Z
why is this
I think itâs like
No, just trying to wrap my head round the group algebraically first.
Take the obvious Q/Z
Everything else is an uncountable Q-vector space
Cuz irrational
And canât ever pop back into Z
Or some shit
Actually Iâm not convinced this is true anymore
Maybe countably many?
If alpha is irrational then alpha¡Q maps injectively into R/Z.
Finitely many
I just donât think it has that nice direct sum decomposition
What do you mean
ok sure i can see this
Like the idea I think is look at Q/Z inside of it
Then look at all the irrational bits
But like the irrational bits arenât closed under addition
Like 3 + pi - pi = 3
Idk
If we take R/Z and quotient out Q/Z, then I think we ought to get something isomorphic-but-not-naturally-so to R/Q.
Thatâs really where my hangup is
It shouldn't split
a quotient A --> B --> C splits if B = A \oplus C, right?
Yeah that's a rough definition
Also those maps need to then be âthe obvious onesâ
Because it doesn't tell you what A and C are inside of B
When you replave B with A (+) C
A splitting is a one-sided inverse
You want a map from R/Q -> R/Z such that composing this with the map R/Z -> R/Q is the identity on R/Q
Hmmm
I think you mixed up the maps
Okay wait
No?
Our diagram is
0 -> Q/Z -> R/Z -> R/Q -> 0 yeah?
We want the last map to split
Do we know that R/Q is isomorphic to R?
Emma says it is
Okay I am really really confused now cuz
We are assuming that we are choosing a nice copy of Q though
Ah nvm
Inside of R
I mean I assume we are picking the obvious one
Sure
Right, R is a continuum-dimensional Q-vector space, so that structure is still there when we consider only addition.
Yes
So if we choose 1 as one of the basis vectors, when we quotient out Z it only affects that coordinate (where all the integers live).
If this splits what Tropo wrote is correct
But I think thereâs no way this splits personally
Okay I think I can probably prove it doesn't split
Not even if you consider the quotienting done in the Q^continuum view of the group?
but I need a second
ÂŻ_(ă)_/ÂŻ
oh well
the issue is these aren't Q-vector spaces
R/Z is not a Q-vector space
because Z isn't a Q-subspace
Yeah splitting for Q vector spaces vs splitting for abelian groups is very different
No, but we can still represent R as the direct group sum of continuum many copies of Q.
I agree with that tropo
oh huh sure
But the other two aren't
But hmm
And when we then quotient out a subgroup of just one of the summands, it should only affect that summand.
right
but I don't think if you do it that way
that this is isomorphic to R/Z
in the standard way anymore
is my guess
That's fine
I'm not even considering that anymore.
because it won't be the circle group
this whole thing was to get a ring structure on the circle group
Yes
if you put a different group structure on R/Z
Okay yeah the other 2 aren't Q vector spaces
then you haven't done what you wanted
The group structure is the same.
Q^c
wait no
so just Z in the first coordinate
then the quotient of R/Z = Q/Z + Q + Q + ...
but is that still isomorphic to the circle group??
Whatever
I'm hoping this view could lead us to a conclusion about whether an interesting ring structure could possibly exist from an algebraic point of view. If we get a positive answer to that, we can try to see if we can make it look not-wild back in the usual circle group representation.
"take 1 as a basis element"
you can choose how R breaks up as Q^c
via picking a basis
Yes

đ¤
Well now the question is can you put a ring structure on Q/Z + Q^c
which is really just Q/Z + R
Yes
you can't put one on Q/Z
yeah so you can't
But that doesn't answer the question
but I'm not sure if a ring structure on a direct sum of groups
Because you can have mixing
Because of closure under multiplication

Lol
damn it
It's too small, too.
I think you can say something a little nice
in general you can turn R + M into a ring for M an R-module
you let
(r,m)(r',m') = (rr',rm' + r'm)
Lol
I mean
That looks vaguely like a universal solution, even.
it would even suffice if Q/Z was a Q-module
but it isn't
wait
no
fugg
do you know if Q has any decompositon
as Z + T
for any group T
I don't think it can.
rip
we trying to make Q/Z into a ring?
There wouldn't be anyhting that's half of 1+0.
no
R/Z
we know we can't
We're trying to turn R/Z into a ring
and we've decomposed it as Q/Z + Q^c
as a group
try to turn Q_p/Z into a ring for me while you're up, ping me when you're done, goodnight
I mean how hard could it be, they're both just completions of Q so same proof should work for all of them
Q_p/Z_p is a subgroup of Q/Z, so it's not completely out of a hat.

Okay let's go back to the Q/Z inside of R/Z thing
Well I'm going to, I'm actually going to think about this for a couple of minutes
Before I say anything
I suppose the first order of business is to decide what our unit in Q/Z oplus R should be.
Wlog it is either (1/n,0) or (1/n,1) or (0,1).
The first of these is out because it would give our ring a characteristic that its additive structure doesn't agree with.
The last feels most promising, but I can't seem to immediately rule out the middle one.
I actually think that analyzing how the multiplication has to act on Q/Z is a good idea
Like what conditions does (1/p)^n have to satisfy concerning 1/p
(where ^n is iterating the multiplication we define)
(for a prime p)
I think there's actually a fairly limited set of conditions that we can specify
christ almighty this discussion has gone on for over an hour
i hope to see an answer when i wake up tomorrow
But I guess we aren't approaching the question with the intent to do that sort of work lol
i'm tempted to email my professor about it
Call it recreational math.
Yeah this is definitely recreational math
Yeah actually I think I have an answer
And it's pretty stupid
Any product of an element of Q/Z with anything must be a torsion element, meaning it's purely in the Q/Z summand, so Q/Z would have to be an ideal in the ring.
wait what?
So Q/Z is closed under multiplication
uhhh
It's also closed under addition.
Because any product of it is torsion
And it is all of the torsion
give me amoment
so your idea for the product of something in Q/Z with anything being torsion
let r be in Q/Z, then r + r + ... + r n times is 0
sure
any ring multiplication?
so if d is any element
Because of torsion
Any multiplication that distributes over addition.
Lol this is what I was thinking of tropo
I thought secretly it might rely on
But you beat me to it
With the torsion thing
However, that in itself just makes Q/Z a rng, not necessarily a ring.
It could have the everything-is-zero multiplication viewed by itself.
Yeah
That's fair
Oof

Okay let's define multiplication on the rest by defining it modulo Q/Z
Does that actually give us a consistent notion
If we know that restricted to Q/Z the multiplication is 0
it's Q^c
Yes
Yes it was
Holy shit
Or something
So, hm, can we build a quotient of a huge polynomial ring with a ideal that behaves like Q/Z and quotients down to something like R/Q or Q?
Nope, not an identity
if you wan an identity
Sorry does this actually split
I said yes before but now idk
Lol
Yeah same
Doing math on the spot is just delusional
You rapidly go between states of being sure and knowing you were wrong

Or at least I do
Okay yeah it does split
Smh
Theres no multiplicative identity
And every rng structure on R/Z is just a choice of ring structure on R that's compatible with standard addition
So that's the boring answer
Nothing to see here really
I'm not convinced there can't be a multiplicative identity
I am
You can have some weird crossing stuff
If the operations stay within each coordinate, sure
Oh I see
Okay let me try to show why that can't happen
I guess some interaction between Q/Z and R would be neat
Q/Z 
That respected the fact that Q/Z has the 0 multiplication
I think we have linearity though
I'm not sure we have concluded yet that the multiplication internally in Q/Z must be trivial, have we?
Oh well.
Uhh
I don't think we have
we know it doesn't have a 1
but it doesn't rule out some fucked up rng structure
Okay let me give the proof then
So I can show that the only nonzero ring structure you can put on it is induced by the standard multiplication
I think
ring or rng?
Multiplication structure
Yes
Okay
"Induced by the standard multiplication" doesn't immediately make much sense for Q/Z since Z is not an ideal of Q.
Yes
Which is why it doesn't work
Okay sorry give me a minute
To write something coherent
Instead of something vague
Okay so we take the elements p/q and p'/q'. Assume p, p'<q, q'. (I'm going to assume commutative multiplication). Then we can say that their product must have that if you multiply by qq' you get 0, so a factor of qq' must be in the denominator (writing the product as an element of Q/Z). Now looking at the numerators, we can say that (pp')(1/q)(1/q')=(p/q)(p'/q'), so we know that the old numerator is a factor in the product, while the new denominator is a factor of the product of denominators
I don't believe that if you multiply by qq' it must be 0
Because of torsion
so you're saying replace qq' with "a natural"
I think I have it:
If our ring has a unit, then it also has an element h such that h+h=1 (namely, just halve each component of whatever the unity is).
Now (½,0)¡h + (½,0)¡h = (½+½,0)¡h = (0,0)¡h = 0.
On the other hand (½,0)¡h + (½,0)¡h = (½,0)¡(h+h) = (½,0)¡1 = (½,0)
But 0 != (½,0).
not that multiplying by qq' results in a natural?
No I am saying that multiplying by qq' is a natural
Yeah I don't buy that
Like the only way I see that you could conclude that is somethin glike
Because if you give q to the first one and q' to the second one you get 0's in Q/Z
Because addition still works as it's supposed to
this becomes
And we are living in Q/Z
p/q x 1 added q times
This argument doesn't even need the Q/Z + R decomposition, we can do it directly in R/Z.

Lol
No
We are adding
Oh wait
No this is fine
Saying "add this many copies together" is not the same as multiplying by 0
nice
Okay that's better
okay but you wrote "multiply by qq'" so I thought that's with the induced multiplication
like
Yes sorry
okay I ee
also I need to say I officially do not care anymore cuz I've had to do crap for the past > hour

Lol
Okay I guess what me and tropo were doing is actually different
I was trying to show there can't be any interaction between the two things at all
I have things to do too lol
And am also procrastinating
But okay let me finish up what I'm trying to argue
Oh no I was trying to prove that there can't be any nontrivial rng structure on Q/Z
Lmao
Direct argument without decomposing:
For x in R, let [x] mean the coset x+Z in R/Z. Suppose # is a multiplication on R/Z that makes it into a (not necessarily commutative) ring with unit [u].
Then [0] = [0]#[u/2] = ([1/2]+[1/2])#[u/2] = [1/2]#[u/2] + [1/2]#[u/2] = [1/2]#([u/2]+[u/2]) = [1/2]#[u] = [1/2] which is absurd.
I couldn't resist chmonkaS
Okay so I showed that (p/q)(p'/q') = (pp') (1/q)(1/q')
so okay, there's no ring with unity strcuture
so you could just take any rng structure on Q/Z (maybe there's only the trivial one, maybe not idc)
Now what happens if I add a factor to both p and q
then just do the multiplication component-wise
Yes
Swag
Okay so if I add a factor r to both p and q I can write (p/q)(p'/q)=(pp'r)(p/qr)(p'/q')
I think
Where the pp'r multiplication is adding pp'r times
Viewing Q/Z as a Z module
Hmm, first of all I think "decomposable tensor" are the last words in Defn 5.10 and the subsequent ramble is just discussion.
A model of the tensor product means it satisfies the universal property of tensor products I think
take the map phi: SU(2)XSU(2) -> GL(4,R)
sending (A,B) to the map (v -> A*vB) where v is in S^3 (treated as SU(2))
is there a clean way to show the determinant of phi(A,B) is positive? Hence in SO(4)
(not by calculating how it acts on the basis it's too painful)
Yeah, I can't get much of a point from it either. It just seems to be a roundabout way of saying you can pick a different space of the right dimension to use as the tensor product, but that was already said shorter as "up to isomorphism".
They are unpacking the definition of the unique factorization property maybe
Oh this is actually useful
In terms of understanding things like Kronecker products maybe
I feel like they're using a different definition of the tensor product than is usually used
It's equivalent though
But it's phrased slightly differently
Instead of saying that for any multilinear map from the product there exists a unique linear map from the tensor product they say for any linear map from the tensor product there exists a unique multilinear map
Just thought I'd point that out
Hmm, that doesn't sound right -- it doesn't even characterize the tensor product but just says composition of two maps gives a unique result.
Since tensoring by N is an exact functor and computing homology involves finite limits and colimits only, the result follows
Is this a sufficient answer for this?
I mean idk what finite limits and colimits has to do with it but like
ultimately all you have to do is show that
exact functors commute with finite limits and colimits
oh well
sure
I mean I just think of it as like
M/N (x) K = M (x) K/ N (x) K
and you can show this really easily
like right exactness plus the fact that N (x) K actually embeds in M (x) K
let's you do it
ÂŻ_(ă)_/ÂŻ
But then I can't use abstract nonsense unnecessarily
Hi, are non-associative algebras real algebras or just wannabe associative algebras?

it depends on who you are
if you like commutative algebra (me) then they're nothing, they're horrific little wannabe losers
but I think rep theorists and stuff consider them often enough that they specifically will say "associative algebra" when they want them to be associative
what does $\Lambda^2 Pol_d(\mathbb{C}^2)$ look like
Iteribus
yeah
so spanned by x_1^d_1x_2^d_2, d_1+d_2 = d
These are free C-modules on the set of monomials
and from there the exterior power has a nice basis
So when d=1, Pol_1(C^2) has basis
x, y
So /^2 Pol_1(C^2) has basis
x/\y
When d=2, Pol_2(C^2) has basis
x^2, xy, y^2
So /^2 Pol_1(C^2) has basis
x^2 /\ xy, x^2 /\ y^2, xy /\ y^2
In general, Pol_d(C^2) has dimension d+1, so /^2 Pol_d(C^2) has dimension d+1 choose 2
right
I got the same dimension
Nice jargon
Is that not clear?
This is legitimately the cleanest and simplest way I would explain this to someone
Why say free C module when u could say vectorspace
Also all vector spaces are free
Honestly I said C-module because I just came from writing up a proof where I had a ring C and was dealing with free C-modules
yes I think I see what this problem wants me to do with \Lambda^2 Pol_d(\mathbb{C}^2)
TY
So I just learned about Noetherian Rings
prof gave two definitions
1: Every ideal is finitely generated
2: Every ring has the ascending chain condition for ideals
which way tends to be the more useful way to view Noetherian Rings?
i think it just depends on the circumstance. The equivalent conditions don't end there either. At least one other useful one you can add to the list is that every set of ideals has a maximal element
both
another useful definition is "every finitely generated module is finitely presented"
like, there's a number of equivalent definitions, all are useful
I see
At least one other useful one you can add to the list is that every set of ideals has a maximal element
isn't that just ascending chain condition?
i mean, the claim is that they are all equivalent conditions. but maybe you are conflating the conclusion of Zorn's with ACC?
@next obsidian Are you sure can do this without using the fact that kernel and cokernel are finite limits and colimits respectively?
I mean, yeah?
I would think you'd get something like Im(d_i) (x) N which you would need to show is isomorphic to Im(d_i (x) 1)
Hmm okay
cuz I can't be fucked to tex it
This is what I have
In order to continue, I would need to pull the N in to both the numerator and denominator
And doing that requires - (x) N commuting with Im and Ker
I.E. ker(coker(-)) and ker(-)
Yeah that's what I did here too
If you write it out though, you would get $\frac{Ker(i) \otimes N}{Im(i)\otimes N}$
Finitely Many Bananas
what's i?
You still would need to show that $\frac{Ker(i\otimes id_N)}{Im(i\otimes id_N)}\cong \frac{Ker(i) \otimes N}{Im(i)\otimes N}$
Finitely Many Bananas
I don't even know what i is or how you can possibly take that quotient
i is the inclusion of the image into the kernel
okay well
im(i) (x) N is always im(i (x) N)
and ker(i) (x) N = ker (i (x) N) when N is flat
for the first one you just exactness again
likea
all of this follows by the exact sequence I drew actually
like for the image equality
it's just the right exactness
im(f (x) N) = im f (x) N
because the map surjects
and the thing for kernel follows basically by doing the same thing, except you need flatness
Itâs messy cuz I wrote over shit I already did
But you see that exactness of this identifies that first module ker f (x) K
With the kernel of f (x) K
What does this even mean?
that's like
f (x) id_K
i just wrote it that way cuz the functor is - (x) K
and it's normal to like put the maps into the functor too
like F(M) and F(f)
M an object or f a map
the last map there
N (x) K -> L (x) K
I wrote the otimes so shit on the paper
it just looks like a speck lol
not really
If you want to make sense of what like
M/N (x) K = (M (x) K)/(N (x) K) is
this is what it turns into
idk what to say other than you just have to keep thinking abou tit
I think I remember being confused about if this actually works
I buy your argument for M/N (x) K = (M (x) K)/(N (x) K)
I bought it from the beginning
this ting
like the = sign there
strictly doesn't make sense
but to me this says "the latter is a thing with a univ property"
and the former satisfies it
Like explicilty
in the thing I drew
we have a map from ker f (x) K -> N (x) K
I think a lot of the confusion I'm having here is with the fact that kernel is not just a module, but has a map associated to it (which is the inclusion)
this lands inside the kernel of f (x) K
yeah so
what I'm really saying is
(ker f (x) K) -> N (x) K
is a kernel of N (x) K -> L (x) K, the map f (x) K
this just follows by exactness of this diagram
Like 0 -> A -> B -> C
I just don't see how you get around the fact that you can pull - (x) N into the kernel/Image without somehow using that these are finite limits/colimits
is exact iff A -> B = ker(B -> C)
idk man
you just do this lol
being a kernel or cokernel can be tested using that diagram I wrote down
in an abelian category
or for cokernels
A -> B -> C -> 0
exact iff (B -> C) = coker(A -> B)
Like if you want a proof I can send you a document I wrote
doing homological algebra in abelian categories
No thatâs good
I understand why it is true and how to prove it
Lol
But like my argument is sound
You just have to figure out why
And I feel like itâs a âjust sit on itâ
Yeah I agree
I disagree with this though
I think if you wanted to write out an argument explicitly, you would be doing a diagram chase
It would probably be pretty straightforward
But I think you would essentially end up proving that exact functors commute with finite limits/colimits
Or well
I really donât think so 
You can soup up your argument to prove that
Like
Like the ideas in either proof would be the same
Idk lol my thing will furnish you isomorphisms between two exact sequences
Which say what you want it to
You'll just be working with specific examples of finite limits and colimits
Arbitrary products of modules commutes right?
$\prod_{i\in I}(\prod_{j\in J} M_{i,j})\cong\prod_{j\in J}(\prod_{i\in I}M_{i,j})$
Finitely Many Bananas
I think they satisfy the same universal property?
Though I'm a bit skeptical because that would make a problem I'm doing trivially easy
Can anyone check this simple argument? Let A,B be rational.
Suppose that A has degree a over Q and B has degree b over Q such that a and b are coprime. Then
Q(A,B) = ab since
- a divides Q(A,B) and b divides Q(A,B), so we get Q(A,B) >= ab
- Q(A,B) <= ab since A,B had degrees a,b over Q.
and so the degree of A over B is exactly a.
Yes
Thanks
That's correct
I also have this question. If two Galois groups were isomorphic, then would their corresponding fields be isomorphic as well? This is just a consequence of the Galois correspondence right?
No. â[âp] has galois group â¤/2⤠over â for any prime p
The galois correspondence tells you about how subgroups of a fixed galois group relate to subextensions of a fixed extension
I am unable to understand how the operation in the example work here of a quasigroup
I know the definition, but I am unable to get the proper intuition
Algebra prof with the big brain advice today:
"This theorem is useful when you can use it" 
"theyre gonna live, until they die" - jhin
Is the additive group of integers isomorphic to the additive
group of rationals? (I know they are bijective but I'm having trouble with this)
To check Isomorphism between two groups, just check whether it is bijective (one to one correspondence) mapping, and the mapping respects the given group operations
No. (Q,+) is a division group; (Z,+) is not.
Oh, I haven't learnt that yet... can you simplify it and give a hint for an argument for someone who's just learnt Cayley's theorem
In other words, for example x+x=a always has a solution for x in Q but not in Z.
Ohh any mapping which preserves the group operations cannot be bijective? That's the argument isnt it?
Like if f was an isomorphism, f(x+y) = f(x) + f(y) = (f(x) - 1) + (f(y) + 1) so it is not one one?
Wait nvm, made a mistake
no tropo's example works well
if f is an isomorphism between Z and Q then consider what f^-1(1/2) must be considering that f^-1(1/2+1/2) = 2f^-1(1/2) must be f^-1(1)
should be able to get a contradiction out of that I believe
That works well
My brain seems to be the only thing that isn't working well
Isomorphisms should 'perfectly preserve' algebraic relations like 2 * f(x) = f(2x). So if I take an isomorphism $f$ from $Q$ to $Z$, we know that in $Q$, 1/2 times 2 gives us 1. This means that whatever integer we get from plugging $\frac{1}{2}$ into $f$ should double (add to itself, using the additive structures of each group) to get one. Can we find an integer which we can add to itself to get $1$?
Michael Harp
