#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 689 of 407
What do you mean?
you must have two functions that are not everywhere zero
f and g
s.t. f(x)g(x) = 0 for every x in R
I’ll give an example of a zero divisor
if a product of two elements that are both nonzero, how could they equal 0?
Let f(x) = 1 if x > 0, and 0 if x <= 0
Let g(x) = 0 if x > 0, and 1 if x <= 0
Then we see f(x)g(x) = 1•0 = 0 when x > 0
And f(x)g(x) = 0•1 = 0 when x <= 0
So fg = 0
is this different from what you just said?
No
or is it the same?
It’s the same
You have to recall that f and g are functions there
not real numbers
true
We see the f I defined is not 0
Because it takes on 1 when x > 0
Also g is not 0 because it takes on 1 when x <= 0
But their product is 0 because it’s 0 at every point
ohh
So let’s return to the case where f is non-zero at every point
If it were a zero divisor, there’s a nonzero function g such that fg = 0
But think about what happens if you plug in x?
would it not be possible?
f is a zero divisor
The other assumption
f is nonzero?
Not just that it’s nonzero
That it has no zeroes
Or is non-zero at all points
But this means something when we look at f(x)g(x) = 0
We know that f(x) ≠ 0
So we can conclude something!
this is true if g(x) is 0 are every point
at*
So we can conclude that g is 0
Do you see why we can conclude that g is 0?
It isn’t just that f(x)g(x) = 0 is true if g(x) = 0
f(x)g(x) = 0 implies that g(x) = 0 because we know f(x) ≠ 0
so this contradicts the definition of divisor of 0?
Right
Because we need that g was nonzero
The definition of zero divisor was that f ≠ 0 such that there exists g ≠ 0 with fg = 0
We just showed that if fg = 0, then g = 0
so there's no divisors of zero in F(R)?
Well not quite!
We assumed that f had no zeroes
That was crucial in the argument
So we can focus our attention to f in F(R) which have at least one zero
Does that make sense?
yes
Okay so let’s suppose that f(x) = 0
For some specific x in R
Can you think of a non-zero function g such that fg = 0?
Using just that f(x) = 0
g(x) = 1 could be an option?
Well that won’t necessarily work
Let me replace x with x_0
So all we know is that f(x_0) = 0 for a single x_0 in R
If you took g(x) = 1 for all x, then
f(x)g(x) = f(x)
This is certainly 0 at x_0
But it might not be 0 at other points in R right?
But you can fix that using g!
so you'd have to change g?
Right
Here, I drew a specific function
The red line represents the function f
It’s 0 at 0, and 1 at every other point
Can you find a g that works for this specific f?
g would be 1 at 0 and 0 at every other point
Right
So adapt this for more general f
Remember, we know that f(x_0) = 0
And that’s it
Well…
I’m not sure what you mean
We’re assuming that f has a zero
So I said let x_0 be such that f(x_0) = 0
We want to produce a non-zero g such that fg = 0
And I’m saying you can adapt this g a little bit to make it work
what do you mean by adapt?
Well like
Use the same idea you used there
It’s just that this g exactly as-is won’t work
Because f(x_0) = 0, not f(0)
But you can just use the exact same idea you used to make g when f(0) = 0
And make one that works for when f(x_0) = 0
I'm still not sure by what you mean
say you have f that is zero on some set U and nonzero anywhere else
find a nonzero g such that fg = 0
I just mean to let g(x_0) = 1 and g(x) = 0 for all other x
You can compute that fg = 0
Under the assumption that f(x_0) = 0
And all I did was adapt your g which was g(0) = 1 and g(x) = 0 for all other x
I just changed where the one non-zero point was
oh, so that is what you mean by adapt?
Yeah
I mean it isn’t a rigorous term, I was just saying you can mess with the function very slightly and get what you need

Given that $I$ and $J$ are ideals of $R$ where $R$ is a CRU such that $I+J=R$, what can we say about $I^5+J^7$? any hint?
Solution
what's the connection between lie algebra and group? where does the lie bracket come from?
how much do you know about manifolds and vector fields?
Hint: if i+j=1, (i+j)^1000000=1. Use the binomial theorem to expand
in question they are asking about is it maximal or not, prime or not?.
My hint shows exactly what it is, you can check maximality and primality from that
I'm currently reading manifolds
ISM specifically
right, so have you been introduced to tangent spaces, tangent bundles or vector fields? I will taylor the description depending on which part ur at
yes
i just know the definition, I wouldn't say the motivation is clear
right so a lie group is a manifold with this additional structure of being a group
it turns out that this additional structure like, instantly allows you to do a lot on the manifold
yea, group object in Top category right?
in the category of smooth manifolds
so one of the reasons is this lie algebra that we will talk about, you can translate problems on lie groups to lie algebras which are much easier to work with
but even before that there are some nice properties you get from just being a lie group
so for example
every closed subgroup of a lie group is an embedded sub-lie group
which is a really strong statement

but how this will help me, can you please elaborate a little bit, i am confused ?
on general manifolds you dont have this relation between being closed and being an embedded submanifold right
one of us should thread btw
lol
idk about this one
This will show that 1 is in the ideal, which means that the ideal is the whole ring
oh well i dont wanna spend too much time talking about this so take what i said for granted
well think about it like this, you know how painful it is to show something is a smooth manifold
I have read lie algebras independently of manifolds, i.e. the def and examples nothing else
here if you can somehow realize something as a closed subgroup of something we know to be a lie group you instantly have that the thing is a smooth manifold
and this comes in handy
right so far im only talking about lie groups and manifolds in general right
but yeah the idea is this additional group structure just gives you a lot more tools to work with
now here is one thing about the group structure
if you have a lie group G, then L_g: G->G, left translation by g (so h-> gh) are self-diffeomorphisms right
yes
yeah so this is going to turn out to be really useful
lets take a... tangent for a second
so for a general manifold M
you have the space of all vector fields X(M) on it right
we should really make this a thread fr
oh i was just saying that cause there was another discussion
right so we can also view X(M) as maps D: C^infty (M) -> C^infty(M) such that D is linear and satisfies the product rule right
you familiar with this? if not i can describe it a bit more
okk 1 is in I+J, so that means there exists i and j such that i+j=1
but how this will help to check I^5+J^7?
yes I am familiar
alright nice
Now notice that under this identification
X(M) is not a ring right
the composition D circ D' of two derivations need not be a derivation unfortunately
ye
but its still atleast a vector space right
but they are module over C^inf (M) right
okay
I+J=1
oh so - comes from C^inf(M)
like the rough reasoning is both of these are second order derivatives, and the 2nd order term cancels out when we do this and we now once again have a first order derivative
its easy enough to verify
just plug in f times g into it and see it satisfies product rule
ok I'll verify them
ill let u do that
mhm
but heres like a problem right, X(M) in general is infinite dimensional
and understanding is structure is like
really hard
so unfortunately this doesnt end up giving us a lot of information
yea
but this is where the lie groups come in
so now instead of X(M), we will look at a subalgebra of it
we will look at the so called left-invariant vector fields
what are these? the condition is simple, so we have this differential d(L_g)_h : T_h(G) -> T_(gh) (G) right
where L_g was the left translation by g
we are gonna ask a left invariant vector field to have d(L_g)_h X_h = X_(gh)
edited for clearer notation
right so the idea is that if you left translate the vector field at point h you get it at point gh
what's X_h here? an element of tangent space at h?
so X is a vector field in X(M) (ok i used X twice here but to be fair in my head the X(M) X is math frak oops)

and X_h is like, the member of T_h(G) corrosponding to X
like X at point h basically
sure
now you can verify if X,Y are two left invariant vector fields
so is [X,Y]
=XY-YX (just apply dL_g to it)
okay
so the upshot is we have found a sub lie algebra of this really complicated space X(M)
the left invariant vector fields right
now this turns out to be much much simpler
why? well notice that left invariant vector fields are determined by X_e (the vector field at identity)
because once you have that you can translate by h to get it at all other points right
(some verifications need to be made but hopefully the intuition is clear)
right so we can identify this left invariant vector fields, lets call it Lie(G)
with T_e(G) right
yep
and guess what, T_e(G) is finite dimensional space
and its structure is generally not too hard to figure out
so Lie(G) is a finite dimensional space (of dimension n where n =dim(G))
and along with the lie brackets we defined, its what we call the groups lie algebra.
I see
and this is like, the main reason why lie groups are so overpowered
cause you often reduce problems on manifolds to problems on this finite lie algebra
like some of the big theorems of lie theory like tell you how you can recover info about lie group from their lie algebras
so ok like we know how to go from the groups to the algebras
whenever you have a smooth homomorphism f:G->H
the induced map df: Lie(G)-> Lie(H) turns out to be a lie algebra homomorphism
(preserves the lie bracket)

now you can ask the questions, are all finite lie algebras from lie groups? are all maps Lie(G)-> Lie(H) coming from smooth homomorphisms
etc
alright thank you very much. I'll read this part again
mhm
in mood?
what is lie group associated to C^infty(M)
also what is dual of lie algebra
actually i should probably look up if you don’t feel like telling me googleable things
Let $f \in \mathbb{F}_p[T]$ be an irreducible polynomial and $K = \mathbb{F}_p(T) $ the field of fractions of $\mathbb{F}_p[T]$. Prove that $X^p -f $ is irreducible in $K[X]$.
Can anyone give me a hint on how to solve this?
Évariste Galois
What i was thinking was that if $\alpha \in K$ is a root, then $\alpha^p - f(\alpha) = 0 \implies \alpha - f(\alpha) = 0 \implies f(\alpha) = \alpha$. However i am not entirely sure how to reach a contradiction
Évariste Galois
I don't think alpha is a root => alpha = f(alpha)
hmm ok, what do you suggest i should do
eisenstein criterion ?
how do i apply eisensteins to this polynomial?
eisenstein isn't bidirectional?
I dont think so right?
I was going to suggest to assume it is reducible. Try coming up with a factor
for X^p - f
Since you are in Fp, I feel like there are good guesses to try
Ok, can i assume that the degree of X^p - f is p?
why
1 is not 0 in K so yeah the degree of X^p - f is p
oh
so if I have two polynomials, g and h, that are factors then deg(g)+deg(h) = p
i think uh
ah wait you meant the degree of a root ?
f is a constant isnt it?
but that's not really defined yet
$f \in \mathbb{F}_p [T]$
Évariste Galois
right
so yes, degree p
X^p - f
X^p - gh
I would try guess a factor, maybe something works
f is irreducible
Perhaps I can use that in another exercise i found that if $K$ is a field of $char p>0 $and $\alpha$ not a pth power then $X^{p^k} - \alpha$ is irreducible in K[x]?
Évariste Galois
then yeah that would be a corollary
i wrote the contraction statement wrong
or that other exercise
so i can apply that exercise to my current problem?
K is a field of characteristic p and f is irreducible so it's not a pth power
well yeah
So if we do contradiction
Assume X^p - f(T) = P(X)Q(X)
Show f reducible
ok thanks guys 🙂
Damn galois theory is hard tho
Ok so what i did was:
Since $f$ is constant in $K[x]$, deg($x^p - f(T)$) = p = deg(A) + deg(B). Let A(x) = $X^m + \cdots + a_0$ and B(x) = $X^n + \cdots + b_0$. Where n+ m = p. Then, A(x)B(x) = $X^{n+m} + \cdots + a_0b_0 = X^p - f(T)$. Hence, $f(T) = a_0b_0 \in \mathbb{F}_p[T]$, which is a contradiction as $f$ was irreducible.
Évariste Galois
I have a few issues with this proof tho. First, can i assume $A(x) and B(x) have that form? Also as @hot lake just pointed out a_0 or b_0 can be units
yeah if P is reducible it's A * B where the sum of the degrees is p
and the degrees are not 0
Ok, so that part is good
What if I suppose reducible, then (im not sure if this holds) by eisenstein, f(T)^2 | f(T) ?
that seems like a very flawed argument tbh
yeah eisenstein works pretty well
So this is right?
yes ?
Ah i wasnt aware that Eisensteins was bidirectional
Well i use it to show something is irreducible, but does it hold that for all reducible polynomials if the constant terms is divisible by a prime element then the polynomial is reducible?
for all reducible polynomials, the polynomial is reducible
I am not sure what you are trying to say
Like, I know that if the constant term is divisible by P and is not divisible by P^2 then it is irreducible. Does the converse hold tho? i.e. if the polynomial is reducible then the constant term is divisible by both P and P^2 necessarily?
that's not what eisenstein criterion says
there is more stuff to it
yeah
yeah but my question is if in our case X^p - f(T) is reducible, then f(T)^2 necessarily divides f(T)?
Ok, that was my question. Thank you!
it's called the contrapositive, not the converse
alright, and what would the converse be? like A => not B?
converse would be B => A
which is not always true
despite what my fingers tried to have me write for a second
nice
Ill write out my argument and if you dont mind I'll ask for some feed back
go ahead
Suppose $X^p - f(T)$ is reducible in $K[x]$. Then, by Eisensteins, it holds that $ \exists P$ a prime element such that $P|f(T)$ and $P^2|f(T)$. Since $f(T)$ is a prime element in $\mathbb{F}_p[T]$ its only divisors are 1 and $f(T)$. Since 1 is not a prime element, then $f(T)^2|f(T)$. A contradiction since f is not a unit in $\mathbb{F}_p[T]$.
Évariste Galois
Am i missing anything? Or am i assuming something not true?
ah no I wasn't thinking of exactly that kind of implication
once you have stated that an is not in the prime ideal (f), that a1 ... a(n-1) = 0 are in (f), the criterion says that
if a0 is not in (f²) (and it is the case here) then P is irreducible, and the contrapositive of that last implication is that if P is reducible then a0 is in (f)² so f² divides f, but that's an unnecessarily roundabout way to go
Hmm, so what would you say I did that was unnecessary?
you said "there exists P a prime element suc hthat" when all along we apply the criterion with f
so right from the start it's super strange
it's like you are saying
"if P is irreducible then that is provable with eisenstein's criterion from some mysterious ideal P"
which is not always the case
yes
Ok, i guess i could have done that but for some reason that seems overly simple and like a 2 line proof then
or you say "there exists P" before "by eisenstein's criterion"
Im used to these exercises being half a page
because P exists regardless of eisenstein's criterion
i see what you mean
once we have it and have observed that the criterion will apply, only then you say "by eisenstein's criterion with P = (f) , ...."
Ok, i understand it much better now, for some reason I never thought i could have applied eisensteins that way.
thanks for your time by the way i really appreciate it
idk if it's stated for anything else but Z[x] in your course though
what?
the criterion
ah right, yeah we have done the general one too
ah then it's fine
from D&F
My Galois lecturer uses L : K to indicate a field extension L over K. But I see that the usual notation is L/K.
I wondered before if this could correspond to a quotient in any way and have been told it's just notation convention.
How about this though:
When we consider Gal(L/K) (or Gal(L:K) in the notation I see), the automorphisms of L which fix K, aren't we really taking Aut(L)/Aut(K)? ie. Gal(L/K) := Aut(L)/Aut(K)
Hmm or maybe Aut(L)/Aut(K) doesn't even necessarily make sense now I think about it... I feel like there's surely some way to make it happen, though.
What I really want to quotient over is the cosets
{{f in Aut(L) : f extends g} : g in Aut(K)}
I know that there is a relation between irreducibility in $\mathbb{Q}[X]$ and irreducibility in $\mathbb{F}_p[X]$ where $p$ is a prime but I always forget what this relation is. Is it that if a polynomial is irreducible in $\mathbb{Q}[X]$ then it is irreducible modulo every prime. Is it the other way?
Kraft Macaroni
Yeah check out Gauss' Lemma
Intuitively, if you have that you have a polynomial, f, reducible in $\mathbb{Z}$ then there is an element $\alpha \in \mathbb{Z}$ such that it is a root. Consequently, $\alpha \in \mathbb{Q}$ since it is the fraction field of $\mathbb{Z}$. So f is reducible in $\mathbb{Q}$ as well.
Évariste Galois
Thanks @iron vessel
No worries 🙂
Remember to never duel for a woman, what good is that if you're dead
Lol
Take my advice
I will, dont worry
he didnt listen
Call an ambulance... but for me
Does it equal to Aut(L) by zorn’s lemma
To show that a field extension of the form K[x]/(f), with deg(f) = p and f irreducible, is an inseparable extension of degree p, does it suffice to show that f is inseparable with a root of multiplicity p?
Yes I think that's equivalent
Ok thanks! One more question, let $L_f = \dfrac{K[x]}{(f)}$. I must show that $L_f^p = K$.
Évariste Galois
How should i approach this?
I think I should just use the frobenius automorphism applied to any element of L_f as K-basis
Hum, every element of L is of degree p, and I think that the only monic nonseparable polynomials of degree p are X^p-a
Because the degree of a subextension divide the degree of the full extension
And p is prime
That gives you L^p contained in K
because what i thought initially was to show that [$L_f^p : K$] = 1
Évariste Galois
I am not able to see what you mean
Every element of L\K is a root of some X^p-a, so L^p is contained in K
Ok i think i understand now
does the other inclusion follow from the fact that K is contained in L?
I think the other inclusion is false in general. Do you have any assumption on K?
yes, K = $\mathbb{F}_p (T)$ with f $\in \mathbb{F}_p[T]$
Évariste Galois
Oh ok, yeah then then it's probably true
And does it follow from K being in L?
If you mean that K^p should be K then no that's false
You need the elements of L
No i mean, K being contained in L_f^p
How would it follow just from K being contained L then?
I was thinking that L is in L^p and since K in L then K in L^p
perhaps im mixing stuff up
L is definitely not in L^p
L^p is a strict subset of L
Sorry but could you explain why?
Well for example it's contained in K and K is strictly smaller than L
Hm, didn't thought of that but maybe it could work
Hum yeah actually, I'm pretty sure it works!
I did that before thinking that L_f was contained in L_f^p and thats why it didnt work
now it works by switching the two
damn thanks man you really helped 🙂
i have midterms soon and im grinding galois theory
You see how to prove that [L^p : K] = 1?
I did $[L_f : K] = [L_f : L_f^p] \times [L_f^p : K] \implies [L_f^p : K] = \dfrac{[L_f : K]}{[L_f : L_f^p]} =\dfrac{p}{p} = 1$
Évariste Galois
Is this correct?
Hum no that doesn't work
how come?
A priori you don't know that K is in L^p that's what we're trying to prove, so the first equality makes no sense
hmm i see, but combined with your earlier argument that L^p is in K it works?
Hm no, then the degree [K : L^p] makes sense but not the other way around
You have to use properties of your particular K at some point because it's false for general K
I see
One way I see of doing it is by noting that L^p is a subextension of K/K^p which is strictly bigger than K^p. Then if you can prove that for you particular K you have [K : K^p] = p you're done
well I know that f is in F_p[T] and that L_f = K[x]/(X^p - f) with K=F_p(T).
This is the actual question.
Do you understand my sketch of a proof?
It means The image of a is a_i
Field Extension notation
This might be a stupid question, but Is there a group cohomological way of seeing whether H≤G is normal?
I know we can classify extensions N→G→G/N via some cohomology group (I forget which one) using equivalence classes of sections G/N→G, but in this context we do stuff after knowing that N is normal
Hm, perhaps this is really a question about the Normalizer N_G(H)
thats a cool question
if you come to any progress lmk ill think about it and come back at end of day
I feel like i'm missing something very basic here. Ok, here's the setup: \\
We have a field, $F$, and we consider the free algebra of countable rank $F\langle X\rangle$ with $X = {x_1,x_2,\ldots,}$ (For the record, this is noncommutative and without unity). Consider now the free $F\langle X \rangle$ bimodule $R$ of countable rank with generators $r_1,r_2,\ldots$. Define the unique derivation $\delta:F\langle X \rangle \rightarrow R$ satisfying $\delta(x_i)=r_i$ for $i\geq 1$ (So this map is $F$-Linear and $\delta(fg)=\delta(f)g+f\delta(g)$). In particular, $\delta$ acts on monomials by
$$\delta(x_1x_2\cdots x_n) = \sum_{j=1}^n x_1x_2\cdots x_{j-1}r_j x_{j+1}\cdots x_n$$
If $U$ is a $2$-sided ideal of $F\langle X \rangle$, I'm trying to convince myself that that $\delta(f)\in UR$. In particular, i'm not seeing why this would even be true for some monomial in $U$, given the above formula for $\delta$.
ShiN
Hi everyone
Hello backpack
We know that every ring is an R-module over itself. I want to find a simple example of finitely generated R-module such that it's not finitely generated as an abelian group
Would it work if I take Q over itself?
Q is not finitely generated as an abelian group
bump
Noncommutative free algebra, L
I'm a bit confused, (No proofs of the actual problems please 🧡)
but we're asked to prove:
and this seems reasonable, but it says that p_i is in Ass(M)
if M was a free module, shouldn't Ass(M) inherently be just (0)?
afterall if say M = Z^5, then clearly the only annhilator is 0 (which is indeed prime here since Z is an integer domain, so it is in Ass(M))
but then that doesn't make sense because there doesn't seem to be a way to make that question 5 true?
I'm assuming this should be isomorphic as modules as well
Well
Ass(M) isn’t actually always {0}
It includes in particular all minimal primes
If M is a free module*?
gotcha
But let’s assume R is an integral domain
Then yes, Ass(R) = {0}
But then if M = R^n
You could do something like
oh right I forgot to include that part
R^n > R^n-1 > … > R^1
And then all the quotients are just R = R/0
So the theorem is still true
No worries lol
Idk why but sometimes I think R/0 = 0
But does that clear up the confusion?

Hahahaha
yea
thanks 🧡
nvm, this claim is most likely untrue in general and I was misinterpreting the author's vague writing
suppose i have a ring R .
can i say without proof that in any subset S of R, the additive identity of R (given it is in S) will act as an additive identity to all elements of S under the addition defined for R?
or do i have to explicitly prove that it does act as an additive identity to any arbitrary element of S?
im doing a proof showing there are additive inverses in the set S of 2x2 scalar matrices which is a subset of 2x2 real matrices. and im wondering if i can just say that the zero matrix is an additive identity in S.
You can say that
great thank you 🙂
Why is it true that if $a^{-1}b \in N$, then $(a^{-1}b)N =N$?
N is a subgroup of group G, and $a,b \in G$
beeswax
This has nothing to do with a^-1b
You can replace that entire thing with g
In which case you just compute that the elements of gN agree with that of N
So for any element g in G N, if I have gN, this will always give me the elements in N only?
No g has to be in N
How to use class equation to find the order of center of non abelain group of order 27 ?
it is easy to check that order of center is 3 , but how to show this using class equation . Any hint?
You can use the class equation to show it isn’t trivial if you haven’t seen the proof for p groups in general, and then show that it can’t be of order 9 because then it would be normal and quotienting by it would give a cyclic group of order 3, which would give a contradiction (and not of order 27 since non abelian)
If you need a hint to see why it would give a contradiction, ||prove the following fact: given a group G, if G/Z(G) is cyclic, then Z(G) = G||
I'm so confused with this formula
how to understand it?
???
what does it mean to do alpha to the power of beta??
read the purple sentence
it's b^{-1} . a . b
I should've looked at the proof more. It's on our final so I can't look at it now
ah well
I just started so time to see how bad this test is gonna be
Hi guys, not sure if its the correct place to ask this question.. but its jacobson basic alg. vol 1..
I figured out its 2^(n^2) distinct binary relations.. but i got really stuck on counting all distinct equivalence relations..
Im talking about question 7 in the picture of course..
Can I trust this diagram because it's completely the opposite of what I've learned

Idk how it could be the opposite of what you learned
In what sense for you do rings "contain" groups
as a subclass of them
I mean technically venn diagrams are for sets and "the set of all groups" is too large to be a set but this otherwise seems to be correct.
I think it's a misleading diagram becuase rings and group don't have the same structure, I wouldn't have put both in the same Venn diagram
Like sure rings have an underlying additive group but they're not a subset of the set of all groups, since a given abelian group can have a bunch of different ring structures
("Set" of all groups doesn't technically exist of course but you should understand what I mean)
just define a group to be a ring with trivial multiplication since we're throwing out the need for an identity anyways 
Rngs are Z-algebras, which are Z-modules with additional structure, and Z-modules are the same as abelian groups.
That would make the groups a "subset" of the rings, not the other way around 
Yeah I know but as I said a Z-module can have a bunch of different ring structures
What? It is definitely not the case that every group is a ring.
If you don't require rings to be unital then every abelian group has the trivial multiplication a*b =0, I think that's what Thomas meant.
Ah it makes sense to me now. I wasn't really focusing that every ring/field is a group with additional properties, though I've been studying them as groups with additional properties 
well you can say all rings are groups under addition
Yes
an intermediate set between the 2 would be abelian groups
Wait a ring is an abelian group under addition, with multiplicative closure + commutative + distributive right
For me, a ring is
- an abelian group under addition
- a commutative monoid under multiplication
- satisfies a distributive property
======================
non-commutative ring? rng? 
can't remember if I need to require 0 =/= 1, but I don't think it's uncommon to also write that
oh nvm, u don't need to write that
suppose 0 = 1, we have 0 = a * 0 = a * 1 = a, so it has to be the trivial ring {0}
Yes but rings are not a subset of groups (even ignoring set-theoritic technicalities) since they have extra structure
squares are rectangles with extra structure
You require they also have equal side lengths
That's not extra structure, that's extra properties
If you're precise with what you're saying, you can say all rings are abelian groups
because they are - under addition
I can see your point about extra structure
but hmmm 🤔
Ignoring set-theoritic technicalities, you have a map from the set of all rings to the set of all abelian groups associating to a ring its underlying addtive group, but this map is not injective
So it's misleading to represent rings as a subset of abelian groups
Yes, now that makes sense.
You can't take a subset of the abelian groups and say 'these are the rings'
That would be wrong.
Yeah exactly, for the question "is this abelian group a ring" to make sense, you need to specify what is the multiplication
It's not part of the data of the abelian group
hmmm whats a good analogy
I guess an even simpler analog case would be asking which sets are groups
That makes no sense if you don't specify an operation
I'm still big hmmm on an RL example lol, but a good one may not exist
or like an elementary example
Rings were never meant to be commutative
moldi appears 👀

can i have some thoughts on #954333596355788861
like whether what I was initially thinking about is even meaningful

Aut(L)/Aut(K) = Gal(L/K) kindof idea
A way of thinking about the galois group, but I get this does not work for arbtirary L and K
Maybe notation is just notation and there is no deeper meaning to be had 🤷♂️
Idk, I have the impression that group theory is generally pretty much the first area of math where you encounter things with structure, so it's not easy to think of more elementary examples
im thinking like saying this computer part
is like a type of computer
kindof analogy but I cant spit out a neat example
Maybe something along the lines "an adress is a street with extra structure".
I would like to be able to explain this well if it came up, but I think the technical talk about structure is necessary
So nvm about an 'easy' analogy ig
Show $\bQ\qty(e^{i\frac{2\pi}{5}}) : \bQ(\sqrt{5})$ is a Normal extension
(5th root of unity)
Does this suffice?
uhhh idk how to word it precisely
I can see Q[x]/(x^2-5) is 'inside' the bottom right thing
Hey, I'm currently referring to the book called "mathematical proof : transition to advanced mathematics".
Because my main target is to learn abstract algebra
The function theorems are difficult to go through. Please any suggestions?
How do I prove $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt2 ,\sqrt[3]3) = \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt2 +\sqrt[3]3) = \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt2\sqrt[3]3)$?
Évariste Galois
I tried using minimum polynomials but i end up with very long calculations and I doubt thats the correct way
the 1st to 2nd makes me think of primitive element theorem
But you could also approach it without that
Let x = sqrt2, y = cbrt3
Consider equations formed by
x+y, (x+y)^2, (x+y)^3
And I think this gets you there.
I believe I may have cracked the first to the third
ok thanks, up until now i tried doing it ^6
so i wouldnt have any irrational terms but seems like i was wrong lol
is there a particular reason?
Basically, it will turn out to be 3 equations with 3 unknowns
So we are trying to show the middle thing
is contained in the left thing
yup
agreed?
ok
x+y is a known
as are its square and cube
what isnt known is
x, y, y^2
x^2 and y^3 are also knowns
And this is precisely what I meant by '3 equations, 3 unknowns'
right, i must show that sqrt(2) and cbrt(3) are individually within the second field right?
yes
There is another approach to this which is a specific case method of how to prove the primitive element theorem iirc
You consider ((x+y) - x)^3 and do stuff I think (can't remember the exact way).
ok thanks 🙂 also for the third field, i just did $(\sqrt2 \sqrt[3]3)^3 = 6\sqrt2 , so \sqrt2$ is in the third field, and consequently so is $\sqrt[3]3$. Is that good?
Évariste Galois
Can someone confirm this for me? Are tensor densities defined only for fields? Everywhere I look, tensor densities are discussed in the context of tensor fields.
yh thats nice
Ok great
Help please..
This is kind of cruel lol
So assuming you’ve managed to show that # equivalence relations = # of partitions of the set you need to count the number of partitions of a set of size n
These are a combinatorial number called the Bell numbers, and there’s no closed formula for them
You can give a sort of recursive formula tho, I think
yeah the recurrence formula isn't that bad
It’s like B_n+1 = Sum nCk B_k
The idea I think is you’re gonna isolate k-elements
Make that one block in the partition
Then you have to partition the remaining numbers
Or something like tha
Maybe that’s off lol
bump (also if my way isn't good - I'm curious if there is an easier way to show this)
Honestly idk what you did but if it were me I’d just compute the minimal polynomial, find the roots, show they all live in the extension
Then this is a splitting field so it’s normal
I see
👌 makes a lot more sense the way you said it

Yeah i felt that, i remember that i've seen that counting surjections is no easy job, but i noticed that the exercices that the book is proposing are really interesting.. so i just wanted to make sure to not miss out anything. Thanksss so much.
Ok I think I'm crazy. But $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2})$ is NOT isomorphic to $\mathbb{Q}(1+\sqrt{2})$, or am I making a mistake?
seth.delacroix
I defined f(a+b(2^(0.5)))=a+b(1+2^(0.5)) and multiplicativity is failing unless I'm smooth brained
Yeah they’re not
Notice that 2 has a square root in one, but not the other
For any supposed isomorphism between them, 2 has to go to 2 because 1 goes to 1, then additicity
Thus if they were isomorphic both would have to have a square root of 2
Ok great
And that makes a little sense when you think about how the minimal polynomials are different
seth.delacroix
I think that is I adjoin root(1+root(2)) to Q I also have to adjoin powers of it
this isn't true.
You will find that it fails the closure axioms
if you assume everything just looks like this
you gotta get 1+sqrt(2) in there too dawggg
Q(a) basically adjoins all 'polynomials in a' if you like (as well as the fractions in them - but there is a handy theorem...)
Ok thanks that makes a lot of sense
I've been thinking about this, that a ring must also be a commutative semigroup not commutative monoid under Multiplication. Since a Monoid must have an identity element, but in formal definition of rings, it's not necessary for a ring to have a multiplicative identity element 🤔
depends on your definition of ring. some definitions require it to have an identity.
If R doesn’t have 1, you can always embed it into some bigger ring that has 1. Like R’=Z×R, (m,a)(n,b)=(mn,ab+na+mb). Then R’ has a 1, which is (1,0). R is a subring of R’, a mapped into (0,a). If you want it to be of characteristic p then replace Z with Z/pZ
Ooo
Can we call a quasigroup an invertible magma, or is it always divisible magma
what are your definitions of invertible magma and of divisible magma?
According to my understanding, a divisible magma is a quasigroup where for every element x and y in the divisible magma (or Quasigroup) (M,.,/,\), there exist two unique elements l and r where:
lx = y => l = x/y [left quotient]
xr = y => r = x\y [right quotient]
An invertible magma (M,.,/,\) is an algebraic structure such that there exist a unary operation (-)^-1:M->M where:
(x.x^-1).y = y => y\y = 1
y.(x.x^-1) = y => y/y = 1
x.(x^-1.y) = y => y/x = x^-1.y
(x^-1.y).x = y => y\x = x^-1.y
Okay I'm confused now 
What is 1?
Identity
But wait won't that become a loop
magmas do not have an identity
(as in a distinguished one)
I'm literally confused now
I have a question
every nonzero element except to unit is zero divisors?
nah
look at integers
nice
you just corrected them
plz explain this...
There can be elements of a ring that are neither zero divisors nor units
Let L be the rationals and D be the integers
We know the integers are a subring of the rationals and that it has no zero divisors.
Also integers dont have units besides 1
since none of the elements are invertible
but that's not a proof..♡
If your hypothesis is that every nonzero element in a ring is either a unit or a zero divisors
Then the counter example to disprove the hypothesis are the integers
if D had a zero divisor, so would L, which would contradict L being a field ❤️
if you want this property you need artinian rings
isn't -1 a unit
Yes
I meant that implicitly
but there is also 2
which is nonzero
and isnt a unit
bro that poor guy barely knows what a unit is and you indoctrinating them about artinian rings 😂
You should try and show that the additive inverse of a unit is a unit.
Wait is invertible (unital) magma an invertible quasigroup?
From definitions you gave I think so
unless there is a invertible magma where x*x^-1 isnt unique
for all x
Oh I see
That's why people prefer divisible magma définition for quasigroup I guess
is it convention to consider (0) to be a maximal ideal?
or prime
(in case R is a field/ id)
its maximal/prime if it satisfies the definition
i dont see how this is convention?
its just true according to the definition
is nonzero a part of the definition, that's what I'm asking
generally no
like ≠(1) is a part
you want R/I field/id iff I maximal/prime
i think this is good enough argument to not exclude the zero ideal in the definition
some other definitions or theorems will require "nonzero prime/maximal ideal" then but thats fine
(this is also the convention i am used to)
ok fine, tks
then is there a special reason to include ≠(1)?
also another question, when proving existence of a maximal ideal, why comm with 1 is assumed? the proof works fine even if it's non commutative and non unitial?
if you only care about commutative rings with 1, then you build your theory with those
mostly because this is "trivial" and would have to be excluded in many theorems for no benefit i think
I think it's the same reason we don't want 1 to be prime in the naturals. You don't want unit ideals to be prime (note any ideal containing a unit is the whole ring, ie. (1))
you can come up with deeper reasons that ideals shouldnt include units due to number theoretic reasons maybe
true
You don't need commutativity, in that case you get existence of maximal left/right/two-sided ideals, but you need 1 to show that the union of a chain of proper ideals is proper (which is needed for applying Zorn)
Is my notion of understanding these algebraic structures correct?
just look up the definitions?
I was just checking here too, like some some sources say (for a Group) that it is an Inverse Semigroup + Identity. Other sources say that it's an Inverse Monoid, and when it is cancellative its a group
then you have to look up the definitions of those things
the definition of groups is very standard and it should be easy to verify
if you are unsure about a specific thing, supply your definitions and what you tried to show equality
the majority of this jargon is never used fwiw
Semi-complete
recently this server learned that this diagram is wrong
Oh
you can just google it for the 1 time every year it comes up
rather than learn a bunch of rare definitions, learn to do math
Someone should edit that wikipedia page
top 10 questions science still cant answer: is a group an inverse semigroup with identity or a cancellative inverse monoid
monad
maybe i already forgot what the problem is though
i dont think whoever mentioned that even provided a counterexample
just "not every xy is a z"
not every associative quasigroup is an inverse semigroup
I was told
indeed, no example provided 
Hello, I'm interested in understanding the gist of abstract algebra. So, I've started watching lectures. It would be great if someone could give an outline of which important insights about the structure there are to come. If you know something, please correct or add to the following understanding:
There are most insights about rings, when they are commutative. For rings it is possible to find ideals - which are like the "null elements" in subrings. You can divide out these ideals to get subrings, or even a field if you pick the maximal ideal. For rings which are an integral domain, you could also find a larger rings, which is a fraction field. There is a well-defined construction, but in a way it's like "throwing in all inverses" and knowing there will be no mathematical inconsistencies.
In field theory, there are unique finite fields of size p^k which are well understood(?) The most prominent field is the field of rational numbers (and it's subfields and extensions), but I do not consider those in this question, because it is the most complex part. If you extend the rational numbers to include all limits, then you get the real numbers. Those can be extended to the complex numbers, but there are not so many other interesting extensions or results about these (unless you increase the cardinality) (?)
And of course, there is vector algebra, which I do not consider for the moment.
Is this correct and what are some major results that would come next in ring or field theory?
I wouldn't use the word "subring" to refer to qutoient rings
Z/nZ is not a subring of Z
Did I misread that sentence or did you wrote that there are "not so many interesting results about complex numbers"?
given your current trajectory it sounds like you're either gonna go into algebraic number theory (rings) or galois theory (fields/groups), neither of which is my area of expertise 
if you haven't seen a completion of a ring that's an important thing to learn before going any further in ring theory imo
and stuff like noetherian/artinian rings
no you didn't, it's your duty to educate them
I mean in terms of field theory. Are there major results for the field of complex numbers in field theory?
i mean there is 
it's a genuine thought though because in algebraic nt we don't deal THAT much with C but there are tons of results on it
Anyway your question is extremely broad so it's hard to answer but I can try to give some examples. If you want to study rings further there's commutative algebra, which is the study of commutative rings and their modules, which are a very important tool to study rings. Commutative algebra is also very closely related to algebraic geometry, which studies things like rings of polynomials and their quotient, and more generally studies commutative rings by thinking of them as rings of functions on some space. You mentionned the rationals and their extensions (things like Q[i], cyclotomic fields, etc.), the study of these particular fields is a topic of algebraic number theory, which studies number fields and particular rings in them, which are the analog of the ring of integers sitting in the field of rationals. Finally for more general field theory the big topic is Galois theory, which studies extensions of abstract field by stufying their group of automorphisms.
I know it's broad, but your answer helps to get an overview. Thanks
In field theory not really because field theory is concerned with the general theory of fields and not really specific fields. But otherwise the field of complex numbers is probably THE most important and best understood field in all of mathematics.
Though depanding of the specific area R or Q might do some competition for most important field
And C seems to be like the most "general" field in a sense?
What do you mean by that?
Hmm, not sure how to define that. But let's say you know some mechanism or physical relation satisfies the field axioms. Then some subset of C could represent that?
I'm not sure I understand what you mean by mechanism or physical relation. Do you mean like something in physics?
when you said " If you extend the rational numbers to include all limits, then you get the real numbers." this wasn't entirely true, there are other ways to define distance between rational numbers which you can use to complete Q with by limits and you get entirely disjoint fields from R.
I am assuming you were coming from the angle of like, thinking Q is in C and since C is algebraically closed, that's the "end" or something
well, even simpler, no finite field or any of their algebraic closures are contained in C either, so C isn't "most general" in this sense either if that's what you mean, you can tell because they have different characteristic
well you can build C from algebraic closures of finite fields, so there is kind of an analogy here too
How can you, they have different characteristics
take a free ultrafilter on the set of primes, consider the equivalence relation induced by it, then take the infinite cartesian product \prod_{p \in P} \overline{F_p}/U and you have C
something along the lines of this should do the trick
you have most of the properties using Los's theorem
https://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&source=web&cd=&ved=2ahUKEwi_l8ya9NT2AhVCXBoKHfWZAJgQFnoECAUQAQ&url=https%3A%2F%2Fchoum.net%2F~chris%2Fcours_et_notes%2Fultra%2Fultra.pdf&usg=AOvVaw0FBvTZGIHVCpX9_AsUT2xs it includes of a proof of ax-grothendieck too if you want to read it
I meant when you observe objects (maybe just something in a board game or whatever) and you know that they satisfy the field axioms. Maybe I can phrase it differently: are most fields technically a subset of C and could be represented by a complex number for each object? and which fields cannot be represented like that?
Well all fields of characteristic p can't be embedded in C
for instance take the algebraic closure of the p-adic numbers (which are another completion of Q for a non trivial absolute value)
If you ignore the topology I think this can actually be embedded in C
All algebraically closed fields of characteristic 0 and cardinality c are isomorphic to C
You need the axiom of choice of course
ah yeah, the classification of fields up to the cardinality of transcendence basis can give fucked up things, that's exactly why the isomorphism that i gave earlier is valid too actually 
Of course, usually you care about the topology though, and in this case they are very different
yeah
So I have S_4 the symmetry group of 4 elements. It has order 8*3, so its sylow 2 subgroups has order 8. How do I see that these sylow 2 subgroups are isom to D_4,the dihedral group of the square. I am told this is trivial, but I am not seeing the intuitive picture
Do you doubt that there are subgroups of S_4 that are isomorphic to D_4?
Or is your problem to see that those are all the Sylow-2-subgroups?
All the Sylow 2-subgroups are conjugate, so if one is isomorphic to D4 then they all are
would showing that D_4 has a natural embedding into S_4 be a valid proof here
Yes since then it's automatically a 2-Sylow since it has order 8
It would at least be part of a valid proof.
yeah then you'd have to show that the other subgroups of order 8 do not have a natural embedding, I presume
Whether you can leave the subsequent appeals to general facts from Sylow theory implicit is a fuzzier matter.
As Radiateur pointed out, Sylow says that any two subgroups of the appropriate order are conjugate, so the rest will automatically have similar embeddngs.
hi radiateur
Hello
I see that all sylow 2 groups od S_4 are isomorphic, but I don't see D_4 has a natural embedding into S_4
wait nvm, i am stupid, yea it is trivial
D_4 is just the group of symmetries of the square, so we can think of it as a subgroup of the permuation of its 4 vertices
Suppose $f(x) = x^n + a_{n-1}x^{n-1} + \ldots + a_0 \in \bZ[x]$. If $r$ is rational and $x - r$ divides $f(x)$, then $r$ is an integer.
jesse
There is a SO post that says this follows from Gauss' lemma, but I don't see it?
I know there is another way to prove this
I'm not asking for that way, though. Just curious if this actually follows from Gauss
Gauss lemma tells you that if a monic polynomial factors over Q that factorization is actually over Z
I am not familiar with this version
What version are you familiar with?
I know "If f, g are primitive, then so is fg", and "A non-constant integer polynomial is irreducible in Z iff irreducible in Q and primitive in Z"
For me primitivity is defined only for integer polynomials
(gcd of coeffs is 1)
It's not hard to prove my version from your first statement
Okay
Actually if you look at the proof of your second statement it probably does it by proving my version
Okay and so it follows from this because you get a factorization f(x) = (x-r)h(x) which is over Q, and so r must be in Z?
Okay nice
I will prove the version you gave me assuming the Gauss I know then
thx
Jesse do you know the form of Gauss's lemma too where it's just saying content is multiplicative (where content can be taken of any element of Q[x])
Like Con(fg) = Con(f)Con(g)?
ye
I haven't seen that stated as Gauss's lemma but it's used in the proof of the first Gauss I stated
lol ok
Like if f,g are primitive so is fg follows immediately from this but it's a useful strengthening I'd apply to this problem
Basically you can show cont(x-r) = 1 through this
Which means r is integer (given f in Q[x], f in Z[x] iff content is integer)
The proof of this is like... if f monic over Z[x] and reducible in Q[x], then f(x) = h(x)q(x), and since f monic we have Con(f) = Con(hq) = 1 => Con(h) = Con(q), and from Con(f) = 1 iff f in Z[x], we have h,q in Z[x]?
how did you get con(h) = con(q) from that without more working
I don't know this thing about contents 
Con(hq) = Con(h)Con(q) = 1 and Con is integer so both are 1?
content needn't be integer, no
Ok maybe i should explain content in the way I mentioned above
Given f in Q[x], for any n in Z such that nf is in Z[x], we define cont(f) = 1/n cont(nf), where cont(nf) is defined in the usual way
i.e. GCD of coefficients (over Z)
And then the thing is that cont(fg) = cont(f)cont(g) still holds over Q[x]
i mean you literally just multiply through to get it all in Z[x] and then divide again
Also given f in Q[x], cont(f) is integer iff f is in Z[x]
Yeah
Anyway, so for the factorisation thing for example
Let's say f monic and f = gh for some g,h in Q[x]
1 = cont(g)cont(h)
Wait lemme check what I'm doing to ensure I don't make a mistake kek
$$Con(g) = \frac{1}{Con(h)} = \frac{1}{(1/n)*Con(nh)} = \frac{n}{Con(nh)} = 1$$ and so $$n = Con(nh) = Con(n)Con(h) = nCon(h)$$ and so $Con(h) = 1$?
I made some cringe mistake here probably
ok Texy down
jesse
Sorry, I had to go for a second
But basically I think what this is meant to mean is essentially that it corresponds to a factorisation over Z
Now suppose yes f monic and f =gh for some g,h in Q[x]
Then 1 = cont(g)cont(h).
So cont(g) = p/q and cont(h) = q/p for some q,p in Z[x] where (q,p) = (1)
So in fact, (q/p)g and (p/q)h are in Z[x], since both have content 1
And so f factorises as their product
:)
Yeah it's nice, this form of content is nice
And it works for the thing you said with x-r, have a go :)
Np
And yeah this is exactly how I'd prove the thing about irreducible polys over Z being primitive and irreducible over Q
I mean we just proved that aha
since primitivity is immediate
I suspect if my working is correct or not
Sure, in summary the idea is essentially that phi(a^-1) and phi(a)^-1 are both inverses of phi(a) and inverses are unique
Thank you 👍
Np
I think it's weird that any dim 2 ring is catenary, and this implies that any dim 0 or 1 Noetherian ring is universally catenary
To do what?
Oh 
I am sorry, I do not know how to help you here
I assume it’s to show that R is not Noetherian

exactly
Well the idea is that the reason it’s not finitely generated but Q is is that you have access to less things to multiply into generators
My idea maybe is like umm…
The ideal generated by all polynomials with prime constant term?
No
Bad
Uhhh

I have no clue

is Q finitely generated?
if we take its ideal of polynomials with zero constant term, wouldn't it be non finitely generated R-module?
¯_(ツ)_/¯
we get copies of Q
and Q is not finitely generated as underlying group
Well it’s a bit more complicated
Because the generation is over R
But you’re right
Like the idea is that the generators for the linear stuff have to be just like
ax for a in Q
And then for these to give you elements say x/p
The thing you multiply needs to be a constant
Which comes from Z
Anyway, whatever, I agree with your solution
Very nice

and thank you for your time
i still appreciate
If I have extension K \subset K_1 \subset K_2 where K_2 is a normal extension of K_1 and K_1 is a normal ext of K, is K_2 necessarily a normal ext of K too?
You mean if a \in K_2, then its minimal polynomial over K divides its minimal polynomial over K_1?
yes
So the mimimal polynomial of a over K_1 splits over K_2.
Or was it correct oops
you meant a polynomial in K1[x] is a polynomial in K2[x] right?
$K \subset K_1 \subset K_2$
K2 : K1 and K1 : K are normal
you wonder if K2 : K is also normal
Notice polynomials in K[x] are also polynomials in K1[x]
Q(2^1/4) not normal extension of Q because the min poly is x^4 - 2 which doesn't split completely since it has imaginary roots
yes, I think so, its mimimal poly is (x^2 + sqrt 2)(x^2 - \sqrt 2)
so it splits over Q(rt 2)
Are we saying contradictory things or something
but not Q
Yup
Oh shuri i'm saying the original statement like doesn't hold
i.e. composition of normal extensions not normal necessarily
I just thought about it wrong initially and said wrong stuff kek

