I forgot about details. Like we should prove that E={Σab:a from K_1,b from K_2} is an extension of K_1 containing all elements of K_2, and any another field E’ having this property E must be contained in E’ right? We can easily see that E contains K_1 and K_2, and it is contained in E’ for any E’ having such property, I forgot how to prove E is a field
#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 688 of 407
Eh, yeah, I was thinking that closure for the inverse is problematic if we don't have algebraic extensions
Wait a second,,, it is defined first as K_1(K_2) (=K_2(K_1) ) right?
Then any element in K_1(K_2) is of the form Σab where a from K_1 and b from K_2
Mm, we need fractions of those, otherwise we just have K_1[K_2] right?
Yeah so I wrote () not []
So we want to prove that K_1[K_2] = K_1(K_2)
Me neither 😂
Oh it's not true in general
Thanks you!got it.
tbh never knew proof
why r(p^n)=p
for p a prime ideal and r being the radical of an ideal
my idea is that
x in r(p^n) if x^m in p^n
not 💯 where to go sadly
im guessing its some argument where m<n and then m>=n
wait a second
is it just that p^n a subset of p
so x^m in p
and then we use argument that x or x^m-1 in p
i mean the definition that it is intersection of all prime ideals containing a might work at making it immediately obvious
Also is R-p a saturated set. R a ring, p a prime ideal
I think so because the property of prime means xy not in p implies x not in p, y not in p
So this means xy in A-p implies x,y in A-p
why is it by Yoneda?
homD(B,F-) representable with (U, u) means there's a natural isomorphism between hom_D(B,F-) and hom_C(U,-)
isomorphism meaning for every A in ob(C) there is a bijection between hom_D(B,FA) and hom_C(U, A)
I don't see anything to do with Yoneda
context
That's not the property of being a prime ideal -- it's true for every (two-sided) ideal.
Do you know what the standard Z-module structure on an abelian group is?
yep
So a Z-module structure is a map Z × A -> A satisfying certain rules.
any abelian group is trivially a Z-module by the action n*a=na
You're being asked to prove that his is the only map Z × A -> A that satisfies those rules.
oh in other words, abelian groups can't be seen as different modules right?
That's another way of putting it, yes.
thanks you Troposphere
Hi, in gap C2:C4 means a semidirect product, but here C2 is acting on C4 or C4 is acting on C2?
Iteribus
oh never mind I got it
yeah
assumption is R is commutative
mb
idk how rules for operations on ideals generalize for non commutative rings
Does it mean that’s it’s a surjection?
If g:N -> N’’ was a surjection to begin with, then this map is also surjective
So it would make sense at least
it usually means surjection
Yeah but it normally looks a lil different
although the arrow heads are usually touching for a surjection so it's a bit unusual
yeah that makes sense
thank you
like they're just lazy and didn't write the ->0 part
oh lol silly question incoming
what is relationship between field of fractions of a local ring (R,m) and R/m
I think we learned that K(R)/m is called a residue field or something
but i dont remember
no wait wait
residue field is R/m
They aren't really that related
both are useful in different situations
im angry
im stuck on atiyah macdonald 5.2
been stuck for 3 hrs
and homework is due in 18 lol
but really due in 4
since i need to sleep
What’s 5.2 lol
¯_(ツ)_/¯
profs are aware when you look up answers
For learning purposes, after a few hours IMO. According to your school’s grading policy, I dunno
ok
5.2 says
A subring of B, and B integral over A, and f:A-> O a ring homomorphism where O is algebraically closed field
Show that f can be extended to B->O
afaik f(A) is a subfield
Yes
and ker f should be maximal?
The point here is that everything in B is a root of a polynomial in A
yeah
You can push that polynomial through your map f and get a polynomial in O
x^i is a formal variable
wait
It just maps to x^i
I just want to turn this polynomial into one with coefficients in O
x in B integral over A if x^ia_i=0 a_i in A
Not quite
It should be x^n = Sum_0^n-1 a_ix^i
But this is sort of besides the point
If b in B satisfies the polynomial g(x)
You can just apply f to each coefficient
And get a polynomial in O
Right
i love you man
This makes it a little hard but
not assuming gender
b attached?
In this case
Like
assume that B is generated by one element over A
The point is you only have to define the extension on one element
This is easy to do using the previous observation
yeah
In general B won’t be generated by one element, but you can use Zorn’s
Namely consider sub rings of B
Which extend f
Show by Zorn’s that there’s a maximal subring extending f
And then because you can extend f by one new element
This maximal subring extending f has to be B
Call this maximal subring C
If C ≠ B you could take a b not in C
And extend f to C[b]
And then C isn’t maximal
Does that make sense?
yeah
This is usually how you have to show maps extend because it’s usually easy to extend a map by one element, but hard to do it with multiple
So you use Zorn’s to handle the rest after you show you can extend by one
So like A[b_1] in A[b_1,b_2] in … A[b_1,…,b_n] in …
Well we can’t do that because B might not be finitely generated
That’s why you need to appeal to Zorn’s
Yea
You can’t induct up to countable infinity
Only up to arbitrarily high finite
Also, there’s no reason B is even Countably generated
yeah
(You might be able to use transfinite induction, but idfk, too hard. Just Zorn’s)
i would like to know what you mean by fant induct to countable infinity
Induction only lets you prove statements for n in N
yeah
When something is generated by a countably infinite number of things this is too small to ever reach it
You only ever get to prove a statement for a finite n in N
The idea behind induction is you establish the base case to get it started then if you know it for n, you know it for n + 1
So the point is if you need the statement for m in N, well m = (m -1) + 1
So if you knew it for m - 1 you have it for m
But m - 1 = (m - 2) + 1
So if you knew it for m - 2 you’re done
…
Eventually you only need to know it for 0
But you already proved it for 0
This won’t ever get to countable infinity, because countable infinity is not + 1 for any finite number
yeah
That’s all I mean that you can’t induct up to countable infinity
It can never reach it
So is adjoining countable elements never defined as a ring? Because using an inductive argument we know for sure that adjoining finite elements is a ring. But we cant use the same argument for a countably inf amount of elements?
Because I know you are allowed to have polynomial rings with infinite indeterminants
So id like to think that adjoining infinite amount of generators is also allowed,m
Or I guess maybe its not that you cant
You can definitely adjoin infinitely many variables
You don’t have to define these things inductively so there’s no issue with that
All you need to do is make sense of a polynomial ring in arbitrary many variables
And then if you want to take specific elements, not formal variables, you just plug those elements into the polynomials
oh okay that is clear af now
i wonder if it is worth it to learn about these constructions from category theory pov
These aren’t really categorical
I mean you could throw in the word “free algebra” I guess
But these are all concrete algebraic constructions
If you don’t already understand them as is, trying to abstract them won’t do you any good
As a professor once told me, you can’t just abstract all your problems away
At some point, you have to do math
i c
@next obsidian did u do this exercise b4
No
Also I think the transfinite induction thing works lmfao
And it’s pretty easy, but you’d have to know what that is
Zorn’s is way easier
Ive heard of transfinite induction in analysis class
but the mechanics of it are kinda weird imo
Yeah it lets you actually induct up to infinite things
The point here is just that if you have an ordinal which is the union of all smaller ones
We have to define it for that
But let me translate that
iirc you induct on an inductive argument
Suppose S is a set of generators, and we know that S = U S_i for all proper subsets S_i
Suppose we’ve defined the extension on A[S_i] for all S_i
Then we have to define it on A[S]
But we can do this like… piecewise!
Namely like, if b is in A[S], t exists in some A[S_i]
And then you can send that to where it’s sent in A[S_i]
And blah blah this is well-defined
You’ve probably seen this before in analysis, if you defined a map on X and Y and they’re the same on X\cap Y
You can define a map on X\cup Y
By just saying “pick a set it lives in, map it to whatever that map does”
Then it’s well-defined because they agree on the intersection
In fact to do your Zorn’s argument
havent used it on sets ever
You had to do this
You had to show if you can extend f to a chain {B_i}
You needed an upper bound
So I assume you defined it on U_i B_i
By doing exactly this
is this like the glueing lemma for sheafs?
it came up in atiyah macdonald
also im taking diff top rn
Okay
so the fundemental is there
But yes
This is the idea behind that
Lmao
The point is you can define a function on a cover of your thing
As long as they agree on intersections
Actually idk if the transfinite induction works, I’m not sure that you can force them to agree on intersections
Like they’ll agree over A
But maybe you extended them differently
Whatever, Zorn’s is just way easier lol
yeah
also v pretty
im impressed that your first instinct was zorns
its been used every chapter in this book so far
I mean when you’ve done a few similar arguments before
It becomes the first thing to go to
I can extend by one element so I know if I can produce a maximal thing it’ll be forced to be all of B
i wish there was a book like atiyah macdonald but for alg top
So just use Zorn’s to get a maximal thing
I don’t like Atiyah Macdonald lmfao
I prefer Matsumura
But that book is harder
yeah def
when im more mature ill paruse
i also have to prepare a presentation tomorrow
its on the going down theorem
I mean do you plan to do algebraic geometry or algebraic number theory?
If not there’s no point in going through Matsumura
im honestly not sure if i enjoy algebraic number theory, but it seems like it is one of the only fields that uses algebraic topology sorta often
atleast things come up like group cohomology
I mean that’s just homological algebra
which is only thing ik that comes up
There’s a formalism which kind of puts like the fundamental group in a number theoretic context
But I don’t think that’s really “AT”
wait what?
It might help to know AT for intuition but you aren’t like doing singular homology or whatever
Yeah
Look up like algebraic fundamental group
Or Grothendieck Galois theory
Or something like that
This is kinda what anabelian geometry is about too
Like number theory is “sorta” about studying Galois groups
Like Gal(Q-bar/Q)
oh shit
And this has an interesting similarity to like covering spaces
And fundamental groups
it just generalizes the fact useful for the correspondence to deck transformations of universal covers
i really guess i never thought of applying anything to schemes
or just spec X
since idk wtf a scheme actually is
ye
Making it work is complicated, idk how any of it works
I’m attending a conference at the end of April about this stuff
Idk how much I’ll understand tho 
wait wtf

Yeah I mean most conferences have funding intended for early career ppl
Mainly grad students and early post docs
But I applied and said I’m a graduating senior
Idk if you’d have much luck if you’re like a sophomore, but I think maybe the organizers are vaguely familiar with me
¯_(ツ)_/¯
I think in general ppl get funding when they apply tho so
It might just be that if you write something that seems vaguely competent they’ll fund you
I’ve only applied to one thing tho so idfk
also i have unrelated question
Yeh
idk if ill like algebraic nt because im taking a seminar in it right now, and im not super interested in the results outside of curiosity
i do like topics covered in AT however
but my problem is that idk any other fields that apply topics covered other than diff top/geo
is geometry what i should be looking at?
I don’t know that geometry really uses AT a ton
At least in algebraic geometry, the classical AT doesn’t work well I think
sucks like hell
The topologies are incredibly fucked so I think it usually just returns garbage
and i enjoy commutative algebra right now
I think in differential geometry it’s better though
I don’t really know a lot outside of AG and commutative algebra
But like, there’s obstructions to certain things in diff geo which live in cohomology classes I think
Maybe lookup what a chern class is????
oh yeah
But like I think you know you can extend stuff when that thing is 0
thats last topic going to be covered in my diff top class
and apparently they relate to polynomials?
Which is to say you’re unobstructed
¯_(ツ)_/¯
I think there’s more rich interactions with differential geometry and AT is my point
Also if you want
im sorta headed in that direction anyways lol

Which is finding uses in other fields
that shit has me depressed ngl
So it could be an introduction to that stuff if you want to go that direction
i dont even know where to start with that
like how you called it “higher” math
Want to learn about suspensions or some shit, start talking about spectra and model categories maybe
Idfk, i don’t know any AT
Honestly I wouldn’t worry about it
I’ve avoided it until I’ve needed it
And even then I’ve only needed the most literal basics of 2-categories
For stacks
those are used in ag?
Yeah
i hate s words
To define stacks you need some 2-categorical notions
(Or at least as I learned it)
But this really isn’t that bad
It’s just like being explicit with natural transformations and stuff
I don’t know anything infinity-categorical
explicit!
I don’t even know a bullshit definition of the stuff
If it doesn’t interest you I think you can just focus on doing what you find interesting
And if it ever comes up, you should be able to recognize it
yeah i like that strategy
And you’ll likely be in a situation where it’s easy to learn what you need then and fhere
i feel like moving based on curosity just hurts me
what book?
And I just learnt that and immediately used it
Well I used notes by Jarod Alper on stacks and moduli
But that requires knowing quite a bit of AG
But another book on the derived category I’m looking at introduces a bit of 2-categorical stuff
Because it uses it when talking about derived functors
ive heard of those
And so it’s a situation where like “this is the convenient way to talk about this, so we do”
i dont know what they are used for
But you just learn a little bit right there
Do you know what the tensor product is?
ye
So okay you’ve done AT it sounds
So you know why exact sequences are nice
They’re useful!
If you have an exact sequence
0 -> M -> N -> L -> 0
Then if you tensor with say K another module
You only have
M (x) K -> N (x) K -> L (x) K -> 0 exact
What the fuck man!
ye
But you can “derive the tensor product”
And what I mean is you get these things called Tor
yeah
Namely Tor^A_i(K,M)
And then you can extend that exact sequence to the left
With like
Tor^1(K,M) -> Tor^1(K,N) -> Tor^1(K,L) -> M (x) K ->…
And it even goes further and further
You get an entire LES like the LES in cohomology you’ve probably seen
And this lets you analyze stuff further
are derived functors, functor on functors that extend to right or left LES
Yeah
Well
Idk if it’s a functor on a functor
So if you have a left exact functor
Or a right exact functor
It’s an associated sequence of functors which extend exactness
o
Like what it really is, it’s a collection L^iF
Such that if 0 -> M -> N -> L -> 0 is exact
You have
-> L^iF(M) -> L^iF(N) -> L^iF(L) -> L^i-1(M) -> … exact
So think the LES in cohomology
The thing is
L^0F(M) = F(M)
So like in the lowest degrees it’s just F
This is the left derived functor of F
Because like it goes to the left like what happens in Tor
If F is left exact you get the right derived functors
R^iF
o
And these like go to the right
explains tor and ext
So Tor = L^iF
And Ext = R^iHom
Yeah exactly
Those are two special cases
The most useful ones IMO
ive always been bad at knowing when to apply tor and ext
i dont have good intuition for homological algebra stuff either rly
when first starting AT i came in with assumption that visual arguments will be used a lot
only to get cucked
but i ended up liking the new way of thinking
Yeah idk
I do algebra pretty formally
So I just think of it algebraically and don’t concern myself with that sort of stuff
My intuition just comes from having dealt with the objects for a long time and having done a lot of algebra lmao
yeah thats the one thing i like about algebraic number theory
but sadly i dont care about numbers outside of curiosity
Lol
i need some bonafide career advice sooner or later. I like commutative algebra a lot because I like algebra. I also like topology because the ways they can be generalized and how they model lots of situations. I assumed I would like AT but it sorta removed the explicit aspect that I like about algebra and topologies dont really matter as much at a certain point it seems
Ive tried to talk to profs about it also
and i cant seem to get any actual advice besides trying out courses
atleast im positive that i dont care about algebraic number theory because of prof advice
¯_(ツ)_/¯
There’s commutative algebra used in combinatorics lmao
Or you could try your hand at complex geometry
I don’t know if complex geometry uses commutative algebra explicitly, but it uses sheaf theory if that’s how you want to approach it
And because of GAGA you can use algebraic geometry techniques
And that’s gonna use a lot of commutative algebra
loo
ill check out combinatorics and complex geo ig
SE should give good book advice
Am I having a stroke beret
Here*
The functor taking K vector spaces to the free vector space of same dimension on K is naturally isomorphic to the identity by just looking at the functor diagram no?
But I thought natural isomorphisms were meant to signify independence of basis
What
That’s not even a functor
I mean, how can you even make it a functor?
Also every vector space is the free vector space of dimension itself
So you (I think) are fixing a specific vector space of every dimension
To map your vector spaces to
But they’re only isomorphic to it no?
Which is my point
But…
No
Literally every vector space is free
They all have bases
Free means that maps from it are isomorphic to maps from the basis as a set into the target
Yeah you’re fixing a vector space of every dimension then
How so
But that doesn’t mean some abstract V isn’t free
You’re picking a specific vector space of every dimension
Yeah I agre with this sure
But if V has dimension m, it’s free of dimension m
Ok i see what you mean
But I don’t see how you make this functorial
Why would this disagree with a functor though
Map it to a matrix map in some basis?
Oh right we can’t universally take a basis for each space
We have to pick for every space
Yes
stupid quick question A subring of B and B integral over A. Is B the integral closure of A in B?
i think yes
By definition yes
Makes sense thanks

is it proper to say integral closure is a local property?
What do you mean?
Integral closure isn’t really a property unless you mean like A being integrally closed in its field of fractions or something
integrally closed is a property though
like a set can be integrally closed if each of its elements is integral over blah
If you mean integrally closed in your field of fractions then yes
You can show a few things
yeah thats what id mean by local propert part
Let A’ be the integral closure of A in B
Then S^-1A’ = (S^-1A)’ where the latter is taken inside of S^-1B
For the field of fractions specifically, A = \Cap A_m over all m maximal ideals
And from this one can show A is integrally closed iff A_m is for all maximal ideals iff A_p for all prime ideals
And I think you can probably extract iff S^-1A for all multiplicatively closed sets S
In general tho, I’m not really sure how you want to frame it being a local property
If you want to phrase it as like A_m being integrally closed in B_m for all m in MSpec (or Spec)
I think it’s probably true, the A being integrally closed => A_m is integrally closed is true by this formula
And the other direction maybe follows in a way similar to when B = Frac(A) but I’m not sure
ye is true
i can see intuitively why A=cap A_m
but i didnt come across this in AM
and yea
thats what i meant pmuch
but it can just be any submonoid
Yeah idk
woah im confused again
integral domain is integrably closed if it is integrably closed in its field of fractions
give example of Z in Q
How can Z be integrably closed in Q. by the definition dont you need Q to be subring of Z and then every element of Z can be written as root of polynomial in Q?
Yeah any UFD is integrally closed
i should sleep
It’s the other way around
The integral closure of Z inside of Q is Z
That’s the definition of integrally closed
You have it reversed
Z integrally closed in Q means the integral closure of Z inside of Q is Z
It doesn’t say anything about Q inside of Z
That isn’t their confusion
.
I thought the definition was that A subring of B and B is integrably closed in A if elements of B written as monic polynomial in A coefficients? I thought you need requirement of A being subring of B. So when it saying you need X integrally closed in field of fractions im confused because the field of fractions of X wont be a subring of X usually. Unless it means that the canonical morphism f:X->Frac(X) is integrally closed where this means Frac(X) integrally closed in f(X)?
No
Reread the definition of integrally closed
There’s two notions
For both of these A < B.
B is integral over A if every element of B is the root of a monic polynomial with coefficients in A.
The integral closure of A in B is the set of elements of B integral over A. Then, A is integrally closed in B if A = its integral closure in B
It means that anything in B integral over A is already in A. Aka it’s closed under taking integral elements
ah okay
I conflated “integrally closed” with “integral over”
thanks for putting me in my place c dawg
or ig in otherwords if A subring B then the maximal subset integral over A is the integral closure and a set is integrally closed over a superset if its the integral closure of the superset
wait the second clause is weird
a ring X is integrally closed in Y if it equals its integral closure in Y
just paraphrasing
can someone give me a hint to show that if E/F is the splitting field for f(x) in F[x], then if f is irreducible, then Gal(E/F) acts transitively on the roots of f
i know i'm supposed to use
@next obsidian
Fix a root alpha
And consider the product of (x - sigma(alpha)) over all sigma in the Galois group
Then you know that the Galois group is transitive on the roots
Any root of f must appear as sigma(alpha)
That’s where the work is to be done
it's the same problem. showing that there exists a sigma that takes alpha to any other root...
since the action of sigma is on the roots, we have that this polynomial is irreducible over F[x] (IF it even is in F[x]).
and one of the sigmas has to be the identity
so i think i just have to show that it is in F[x]?
y does this hold
It should be 1=f(b)=ab
@next obsidian ?
Yes
I don’t see why that argument for it being irreducible means anything tho
You know that it has the same degree as f and alpha is a root of it
So you just need that it’s in F[x]
Figure that out and you’re done
This is where you need that the extension is Galois
I can’t say anymore without just solving it for you
uhh my textbook/class has never defined a galois extension
we are using rotman's galois theory
Wtf is your definition of Gal(E/F) then lmao
Hurb
Do you know stuff about intermediate fields and subgroups of the Galois group?
I know some stuff about intermediate fields
Like fixed fields and stuff?

Do you know about a correspondence between subgroups of Gal(E/F)
And intermediate field extensions of E and F
yeah
that it's coefficients are in F
And according to the fundamental theorem of Galois theory
What’s that equivalent to?
i have no clue tbh
Well figure that out first
And then apply it here
I really can’t say anything else
What’s your statement of the fundamental theorem?
Not that one
This isn’t what you need
In mathematics, the fundamental theorem of Galois theory is a result that describes the structure of certain types of field extensions in relation to groups. It was proved by Évariste Galois in his development of Galois theory.
In its most basic form, the theorem asserts that given a field extension E/F that is finite and Galois, there is a one-...
You need this one
So for every intermediate extension
F subset of K subset of E
There is a unique subgroup of Gal(E/F) that fixes K?
Yeah
But god damn it, this argument is bad I think
I was trying to prove it for a different kind of extension ugh
I was able to prove the converse way easier
I think you do need to use the theorem you originally stated
Yeah
so that F(a1) = F(a2) where a1,a2 are roots of f
then try to extend THAT to E
but like
from Q's perspective you can't tell the difference between \pm sqrt(2) in Q(sqrt2)
but if we overextend to R
then we can tell the difference
that's sort of my intuition
but i think the key is that
So like
these extensions are simple
You have an isomorphism
F(a1) -> F(a2) sending a1 to a2 already yeah?
Because both are just F[x]/(f(x))
yea
So now you can embed both of these into E the splitting field
Right
I hate books that use Gal
For Aut(E/F)
Gal should be reserved for Galois extensions
Even then, my original argument was bad
if i knew what a galois extension was i would agree
Oh yes rotman moment
can anyone give me an example of when K1 and K2 are algebraic extensions of F, but the tensor product of K1 and K2 over F is not a field?
Take C and C over R
The tensor product becomes C^2
Try to compute it yourself and see if you can do it
man fields are so weird
is there any definition of a field which does not rely on the thousands of axioms in which they are usually defined
abelian group acting on another abelian group where the action is distributive
doesn't the one abelian group need to be exactly the other abelian group without zero or something
then i can dig it, otherwise i don't know what field is represented by (Z \ 0, *) acting on (Z,+)
(Z\0, *) is not a group
"is there a way to define fields without the usual axioms?"
"yes, you can do the usual axioms but in more complicated language"
yeah i'm also not suuuper satisfied with it
i can accept abelian groups, i think, and things acting on abelian groups
idk, fields seem so incredibly central to many math things that it'd be really cool to have a really succinct definition
i mean i guess this is nice
a field is a "simple" commutative ring with identity then
and a commutative ring with identity is a set with two operations and a whole bunch of commuting diagrams
this is far from a solution to my issue but i guess it moves the goalpost to "why commutative rings with identity"
Wait
maybe my question is stupid, too, because the only fields i really care about are R and C, and these can be classified in a lot cooler ways
What’s wrong with commutative ring with every nonzero element invertible?
yeah i guess this is okay if you already appreciate commutative rings
i'm still soul-searching if i do
lol
And drop the commutative assumption
yeah i guess commutativity feels a bit specific, too
when you define commutativity in terms of diagrams you always need to invent this annoying swap-function for example
but no i think i'll just accept that i don't actually like fields
there's a neat equivalent statement (for commutativity of groups) to "xy = yx for all x,y", which is "the map x |--> x^{-1} is a homomorphism"
that is not too bad actually
This map doesn’t exist
as x^-1 doesn’t always exist
You could work this for defining a field by first supposing inverses exist then restricting to the group of units
i guess you need to once again require some nonzeroness when applying this to a field
yeah i should have said this is for groups
which is also really annoying when trying to define a field, you always have to put in "uwu but only for nonzero things" somewhere because things break if you don't
Does anyone know how to show that if K1 and K2 are algebraic extensions of F and [K1K2:F]=[K1:F][K2:F], then $$K1\bigotimes_F K2$$ is a field?
alyosha
I have struggled for days now, and can only show it assuming K1 and K2 are finite extensions
say $a\in K_1$ and $b\in K_2$ and $a\otimes b \neq 0$ then $a\neq 0$ and $b\neq 0$ so, since they are field, $a^{-1}\otimes b^{-1}$ is the inverse of $a\otimes b$ so every nonzero element has an inverse
is there any fault in this argument?
it didn't use [K1K2:F] = [K1:F][K2:F] so I'm guessing it's wrong
its wrong because I now know the counterexample with C over R
C tensor C over R is not an integral domain
hmm right
one issue i can see is that i dont know what the inverse would be of a sum of elementary tensors
also i never knew that the inverse of a tensor b is a^-1 tensor b^-1
anyway it doens't matter that much
anyone know of any quick uses of going down theorem
or an explicit example of it being used
I don't think it is even true in the infinite case. For example, let F=Q and K1 and K2 both be the algebraic numbers.
Then (sqrt2 (×) 1 + 1 (×) sqrt2)(sqrt2 (×) 1 - 1 (×) sqrt2) = 0.
The [K1K2:F] = [K1:F][K2:F] assumption is not strong enough if we allow it to degenerate to infinity = infinity·infinity.
would it be strong enough if we respect multiplication of cardinal numbers?
No, because cardinal arithmetic has aleph0 = aleph0·aleph0 too.
okok and your example contradicts that as well correct
Yup.
sorry i dont know anything about cardinal numbers
but thanks so much i think you are right!
Transfinite cardinal arithmetic is easy as long as it's just addition and multiplication. You have a+b = a·b = max(a,b) as soon as one of a and b is infinite (except for the trivial a·0 and 0·b).
Exponentiation is weird though. Almost everything becomes undecidable.
The 2nd is a corollary of the 1st?
ie. the 1st is the stronger result (ignoring the stuff specific to fields)?
Or well idk how to phrase my thoughts lol
I'm just tryna compare the ring and field versions and see which properties were necessary to conclude those statements
Eg. for 1.18, I see in the proof it uses the fact K[t] is a Euclidean Domain, but now I'm thinking this isn't necessary surely
1.18 proof
2.3.5 proof
Question about rep theory: So I know that given a representation of a group G, we have that the tensor square representation decomposes as the sum of 2 subrepresentations (the symmetric and alternating square representations)
What I dont get is, it seems that it is always explictly assumed that the characteristic of the field is 0, and I dont exactly see where this condition is actually used (I can see why one would want to get rid of char 2 though, but I dont see the issue with char p for p>2)
Near 7th to last sentence starting with By5.14 it says y is integral over p2
5,14 states
I dont see how this is being applied
nvm
figured out that radical of Bp2 is extension of p2
i meant that extension of radical of p2 is Bp2
Because any V, V otimes V is isomorphic to Sym(V) direct product AntiSym(V) and any representation, Sym(V) and AntiSym(V) are invariant under g: for example in sym(V), any x y from V, x otimes y=y otimes x, so g(x) otimes g(y)=g(y) otimes g(x)
That I understand, what I dont understand is why the insistence on the assumption that char =0
Oh i see… just to get rid of 2 probably?😂
I also see no reason why it can’t be odd p. I think it can, since 1/2 is well defined…
anyone? 
Well in particular, I'm trying to understand this part of the proof of 2.3.5 rn
I haven't rlly seen much of modules apart from the definition
So this usage of matrices just feels sus
idk
In particular A is a matrix with coefficients in R
but aI_n is a matrix with coefficientsin R[a]
I'm uh ??? kinda
So we are working in GL(n, R[a]) to figure out the last bits?
This is precisely the direct sum and tensor product, isn't it?
no
I+I = I
and that's different from a direct sum of I and I
tensor product should also be different
though if the intersection of I and J is {0} then I+J is a direct sum of I and J
there is also a natural map from the tensor product of I and J to IJ
but I'm not sure when that would be an isomorphism
👌 ty
if R = Z/4Z and I=J=2 Z/4Z then IJ = {0} but I tensor J should be nontrivial
but R is not an integral domain so uh
So I n J = {0} doesnt make it a tensor product? 🤔
What would I tensor J be for your example . . .
do you have a good reason to be thinking that
hmmm I don't get why I tensor J is nontrivial in your example
I tensor J = span{(0, 0), (0, 2), (2, 0), (2, 2)} = {(0, 0), (0, 2), (2, 0), (2, 2)}
Where
(a, b)(c, d) := (ac, bd)
(a, b) + (c, d) := (a+c, b+d)
Right?
the tensor product isn't a ring you can't multiply its elements together
and no not that addition

the rules are (a * c) + (b * c) = (a+b) * c and (a * b) + (a * c) = a * (b+c)
and (r * a) * b = a * (r * b) ( = r * (a * b) to make it into an R-module)
so for example, (0,2) + (0,2) = (0+0,2) = (0,2) so we must have (0,2) = 0
so it's the span of (2,2)
and (2,2) + (2,2) = (4,2) = (0,2) = 0
so as an R-module it's basically the same thing as I and J already
it has a nonzero element that when you add it to itself it's 0
ok thanks
maybe it's true that when R is an integral domain then I tensor J = IJ though I would have to think on it a little
In fact, both are isomorphic to F_2
yh thats the next line
Sure
sigh
uh
the natural f : R/I -> R/J will always be a homomorphism
f(r + I) = r + J
but what's important is to show this is a bijection
right?
wait no
r + I -> r + J might not be well defined. . .
I reckon it may be easiest just to do this, at least in my mind
No in fact I don't find this fact obvious after all
this is just 1st isomorphism theorem
Or consider the evaluation map F2[x] -> F2[x] sending x to x+1
I think that's what you said earlier anyway lol
well yeah like how do i put it
this is 'obvious' for this very specific example
but I don't see how I could do it if we had other polynomials
and I had to deduce if they were isomorphic or not
Yeah so the way I've seen it done in general is that you can factorise the polynomials, use CRT to get an isomorphism and then apply this
That way you only have to worry about quotients of F[x] by maximal ideals i suppose
I have this basic fact that I am not seeing.
If I'm in the lattice Z^2, and I pick a parallelogram which has 4 lattice points as its vertices such that no other lattice pound exists inside or on the boundary of the parallelogram, then the area of the parallelogram is 1.
Equivalently, if I pick the 2 sides of this parallelogram as column vectors then the resultant 2x2 matrix has determinant 1. How do I see the determinant is 1, I'm having trouble translating the condition that there are no other lattice points on the parallelogram to "bound" the coordinates
Ah yes, pick's theorem works here
0 + 4/2 - 1 = 1 
But what if I had another lattice on the plane
If I had another lattice, then it is the linear image of Z^2, however, if I took a similar parallelogram on that lattice it is not true that its preimage in Z^2 is also a parallelogram with 4 lattice pts and no other right? For example, I can shrink or blow up Z^2 by a factor of 1/2 or 2?
uhhh can you define lattice for me
you just me a square grid of points right?
Picks theorem holds for those
i dont get what u mean
We defined a lattice in the plane as a nonsingular linear transform of the integer lattice Z^2, the one we are familiar with. If I know pick's theorem works for Z^2, is there an easy way to see it works for such linear transmations of Z^2?
so a linear transform..
you could shear the lattice
stretch it in one coordinate
and you claim the same statement as above works after the transform?
well what to say - the linear transform of the space can be described with a matrix
in particular the determinant of that matrix determines how the area of any shape is scaled
Any linear transformation preserves ratio of areas between any pair of shapes
ah I see. I also have a similar problem.
If I have a lattice on the plane where the area of the fundamental parallelogram(area of parallelogram determined by the two basis vectors of lattice) is 1, I want to show that there exists two lattice points which are a distance at most $\sqrt{\frac{2}{\sqrt 3}}$ apart.
If we take two lattice points with minimal distance, we can shift them so one of the points is 0, so $u = (x_1,y_1)$ is a lattice point with minimal distance. Then I can find another lattice point $v = (x_2,y_2)$ such that u and v generate the entire lattice, so the area of the parallelogram determined by u,v is 1. Then 1 is the determinant of of the 2x2 matrix where u and v are column vectors ie $1 = \lvert x_1y_2 - x_2y_1 \rvert$. How do I see the distance of u and v is the bound we need?
MasakaBakana
I just don't see where this distance is coming from... it is slightly larger than 1, so intuitively it seems there because the areas are 1
whats that?
theorem.
Hmm, it somewhat resembles it, but it seems to have a root 5 in thm. But I think the idea here is supposed to be more elementary, I just can't see it lol
no clue sry, try drawing a picture and do some geometry ig
all of the s_i 's are in S, and a_i's are in R
so a'_i is some product of a_i with the s_i's and is in R
then on the fifth line from the bottom we have t_1u is a root of an equation all of whose coefficients are in R
hence t_1u is in R' the integral closure
but t_1 = product of s_i so is in S. Doesn't this provide us already with the s' we're looking for in line 6?
and what is the point of t_2?
Similarly to before I want to say (Z/12Z)[x]/(6+x) === (Z/12Z)[x]/(x)
Can I???
(I don't know why, if yes)
At least, I don't find it obvious why 
Is there a more general result I should be seeing here
(Oh just spotted an error from line 1 to line 2, but ignore for now)
Don't you also need to mod out by x^2 + 30
yh yh
Yes, it's the exact same result
either the evaluation hom Z12[x] -> Z_12[x] sending x -> x+6, or both iso to Z/12Z by the factor theorem too :)
Surely I can't just do this for any 2 polynomials of the same degree
within Z_n[x]
or you're saying I can??
not for the same degree no, but these are linear so it's just the factor theorem or equivalent
Could you elaborate what you mean by factor thm
Oh as in the evaluation map at, say, -6 has kernel (6+x) and is surjective
mapping x -> -6
i'm confused what you mean
we're taking teh evaluation hom Z_12[x] -> Z_12 which sends x -> -6
yup you can do that
No, I'm asking which you are doing
Ok, I'll think about evaluation homomorphism
Yes, I agree it is surjective, hence
By 1st iso, we have Z_12[x]/ker f = Z_12
And ker f = (x + 6)
indeed
ok ok clocked it
:)
Now why does this not work for non-linears, thinking. . .
But yeah evaluation homomorphisms are really nice with their universal property
uhhh for non-linears, the root might not even be in Z_n ?
i.e. given a homomorphism A -> B and some b in B, it extends uniquely to a map A[x] -> B sending x -> b
Yeah, the same argument doesn't work
You could have an irreducible polynomial, or smth like x^2, etc
Suppose it has a root, we can use the same argument?
We again will have a surjective evaluation map
Not with e.g. R[x]/(x^2) and stuff
x -> 0, what could go wrong. . .
kernel is (x), not (x^2)
But you can also (for e.g. commutative rings) use the chinese remainder theorem to split stuff like if you want though.
Like C[x]/(x-2)(x-3)(x-4) is isomorphic to C[x]/(x-2) oplus C[x]/(x-3) etc
i haven't got there yet but ok
Oh sure
Or I haven't, my class has, I've almost caught up
To prove, it looks like isomorphism thm ? 🤔
Well I will try when I have time 😅
Yeah it is the first isomorphism theorem
Let A be an ideal of R, S a multiplicative submonoid of R
why is A_S = R_S iff A \cap S is nonempty?
A_S is an ideal of R_S, to be equal means that the former contains an invertible element
If someone could help, that would be greatly appreciated:
Describe the divisors of zero in F(R).
and describe the invertible elements in F(R)
(F(R) is reals under functions)
We are barely learning rings in my class and I am confused about these two parts specifically
Containing an invertible element becomes exactly the statement that A and S share an element
F(R) = {f:R->R}?
yes
Well if f•g = 1
First of all, do you know what 1 means in F(R)?
Namely, what function is it?
s/s
I see ty
f(x)=1
g(x) = 1/f(x)
when f does not equal to 0?
Well can you say what you mean?
Do you mean f is not the zero function?
Because that’s the function f(x) = 0 for all x
You need to know more about f in order for 1/f to exist
I'm not so sure, that's what I am stuck on
Well we need the formula
g(x) = 1/f(x) to be a valid formula for all x in R
This works as long as…?
f(x) has no zeroes?
Yeah exactly
So the set of units are exactly the functions with no zeroes
Because then 1/f exists
And conversely if 1/f exists, then f can’t have any zeroes
and this is for the divisors of 0?
No this is for units
Or sorry
Invertible elements
Unit means the same thing as invertible element
ah okay
So now we want to analyze the zero divisors
So let’s just start with a function that’s non-zero everywhere
Is it possible for f to be a zero divisor?
I'm not so sure
Well let’s write out the definition of a zero divisor
Let’s suppose it were a zero divisor, then what?
is the zero divisor a product of two functions that equal 0?
