#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages Ā· Page 687 of 407
yes 0 is not the identity lol
Its impossible for 5 to have an inverse?
what?
how is that remotely related (or even true)
Maybe do your sheet Q first, but after that, I would strongly recommend constructing a cayley table
no. thats not how its going to happen ..........
?
that makes no sense.
wouldn't that have to be true for some k between 1 and 5 for
ok not 6 necessarily
but
mod 6
Where is that equation even from
Well yes.
Then 5 times some element = 1
mod 6
for it to be an inverse
but alright
mod 6
5x === 1 mod 6
right
x can't even be higher than 5 though ?
because then its not an element of the group
We're working with equivalence classes of integers
not actual integers
0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 are merely representatives
of their class
OHH
The classes themselves are integers which have the same remainder upon divison by 6
I forgot it was the equiv. classes 
So it doesn't make sense to say something like this
yes, 5 is self inverse.
?
1*1 =1
does a group need a unique identity?
thats something to prove
State what an identity is...
.
Ik what an identity is lol
Any element times the identity is the element
And so how is this the case
Now I'm confused
as I said right after
not a unique identity
there is still a unique identity
This is what you meant yes?
No
ok... sure
Ok so im still looking for some contradiction here
ok so am i possibly looking for an order that doesn't divide the order of the group?
š¤ š¤ š¤
Or
Just stick to the group axioms.
Ok
So closure is fine
There's still an identity
So then inverses
5 is a self-inverse
4x === 1 mod 6
In Z mod n, think which element does not have an inverse such that Z Ć x = 1
keep going yes
ok does 4 not have one?
because
a much easier example?
well at least an example that generalises
Ok so for Z_{n}?
Just keep going for Z/6Z
oh ok
Might as well check out the rest
I mean 2 mod 6 wouldn't work either then
for the same reason
3 mod 6 wouldn't
it would just flip between 0 and 3
is that the generalized part
n/2 just flips between 0 and n
you havent even checked everything
i mean 0 and n/2
what if n is odd
Yes.
Now can you figure out for general n, which elements don't have multiplicative inverse
this is not so easy
But focus on an algebraic approach
well two are clearly 0 and n/2
I gave a hint above on how to write such an argument
this one?
and here
.
o
euclidean algorithm?
Uh is that one for gcd?
yes
then yes
but theres also a reverse euclidean algorithm
O.o
Well maybe quickly look it up again
because it's totally relevant here
and somewhat relevant to some proof methods you will see at the start of group theory
if you want to answer this question, you will basically need to rely on euclid ig
'Which elements in Z/nZ do not have multiplicative inverse'
You don't actually need to know the algorithm itself here
I guess
More like - what are the conditions for using the reverse algorithm
'Bezout's lemma'
š¤
tbh it sounds interesting
Well I don't want to give it away - but try it out first
but i have so many problems left
how do i use texit?
for a group epimorphism $\varphi: G\to H$, $$G/\ker\varphi \cong H$$
all functions are alison
In #resources, there is a texit cheatsheet.
I'm really confused here. are we making vectors in a vector space polynomials?
i'm also confused why there's a free rank of 0. is that 'cause all of the basis elements are nonzero and we're multiplying by t^i?
if more context is needed lmk but I'm lost as to the motivation here
okay yea I think this is why, 'cause he says they're all monic and this is from V as a K module (?) to a K[t] module (?)
Thankyou
I was gonna write up a FAT proof from when shuri (thanks for helping me with that question) was helping me earlier but I'm too tired now
k[t] is infinite dimensional as a k vector space, so it can't be a summand of V which is finite dimensional
We're finding an isomorphic k[t] module which is built out of polynomials
Any good resources on permutation representations/how to find permutation representations?
try to start with the definition of an orthogonal matrix
Is it true that an injective map between free modules of the same rank (over commutative rings) is bijective?
No
Consider Z -> Z given by multiply by 2
Itās true that a surjective map is bijective tho
One can use a variation of Nakayamaās lemma to prove it for example
oh sweet that's a simple example, thanks!
that's so strange, so a strict submodule of a free module can have the same rank (like 2Z and Z in this case)
another unrelated question, does anyone know where I might be able to find a proof of this fact (that follows the sketch written here)? My prof did something like this but the lecture was incomprehensible to me
wait there's multiple langs 
i found some stuff on jordan canonical form but not smith/rational
^Yea try Aluffi
it also has rational it seems
VI 7.2 I think
pg 373
Will look at these in the morning tysm yall
np

Aluffi deez n--
i feel like he would be very disappointed in me rn 
What's the difference between a projection and a morphism
Let $R$ be a PID and $k$ be its fraction field. Suppose we have a free finitely generated $R$-module $N$ and a submodule $M$ where the rank of $M$ is the same as the rank of $N$. Let $v_1,v_2,\ldots, v_m$ form a $R$-basis of $M$ and $1\otimes_R v_1,\ldots,1\otimes_R v_m$ form a $k$-basis of $k\otimes_R M$. Given an element $v\in N$, find the basis of the $R$-module generated by $v_1,\ldots,v_n,v$.
Finitely Many Bananas
What is the algorithm for this?
I'm pretty sure this algorithm shows up in FTFAG over PID, but I suck with matrices so I can't remember
If it makes things simpler, let $R$ be $\mathbb{Z}$ and $k$ be $\mathbb{Q}$.
Finitely Many Bananas
It would be even better if someone had the sage code for doing this
Actually, here's a cleaner formulation: Let $R$ be a PID and $N$ be a finitely generated free module over $R$. Let $M$ be a submodule of $N$ with the same rank as that of $N$. Given an $R$-basis $v_1,\ldots,v_m$ of $M$ and $v\in N$, find a basis of the module generated by $v_1,\ldots,v_m,v$
Finitely Many Bananas
I have the following question about determining when a polynomial is irreducible over a poly ring.
Let p = x^4 - 2. It is clear p is irreducible over Q by Eisenstein' s criterion with prime p = 2.
- p has 4 roots, and we see the splitting field of p over Q is Q(2^(1/4),\omega) where \omega is a primitive 4-th root of unity.
- From this, it is clear that p is NOT irreducible over the simple extensions Q(2^(1/4)) and Q(\omega). It also shows p is not irreducible over fields extensions which contain either of the two listed above.
However, my question is what if we had another simple extension where it is not quite as clear whether p is irreducible or not for example Q(\sqrt 3)? This is an extension that is not contained or contains those described in 2. What techniques could I use to determine the irreducibility of p over such a field. My hunch is that p is still irreducible over Q(\sqrt 3), and I think it might have something to do with the splitting fields, but I am not sure
'Normal extension' comes to mind
So I know normal extensions are the one where if I take any element in the field, then its minimal poly splits as root factors over the extension. I also know normal extensions L of K iff L is a splitting field of some p in K[x] over K
For your specific example, you can show Q(rt3) is normal. And proceed
in particular show one of the fields does not contain the other (maybe both ways needed, not thinking about it much)
If Q(\sqrt(3)) were to be a normal extension, and p was reducible, would that mean that it splits p to its 4 root factors over Q(rt 3)
Yes, that is clearly a contradiciton since a primitive 4th root of unity can not be in there
Wait, the def on normality is that if Q(rt 3) is normal, p is irreducible AND has a root in Q(rt 3),, then it splits as root factors. However, why does that say if p is reducible, then it splits into roots factors?
my defn is
L : K extension
This is normal iff
- Algebraic extension
and - All (non-constant) irreducible polynomials in K[t] either split into linear factors in L[t] or have no roots in L
I see, then that means if p was reducible in Q(rt 3), it must split into its linear factors and we get that its split field is contained in Q(rt 3)
yes
If p is an irreducible poly in K[x] with some root in L, then p splits into linear factors in L[x]. However, it is also possible p to not have a root in L but still be factorized in L[x] where the factor is not linear though right?
If so, then we don't have the statement I made above, since p being reducible in L[x] could still mean that it factorizes into factors with deg > 1
It must also be an algebraic extension to be normal
yes, but the same issue still remains if Im not wrong
Maybe i'm misunderstanding your question, but since p is in K[x] and L/K is an algebraic extension, then $K \subset L$ and thus L contains all roots of any polynomial in K[x], so also for p, and p must split entirely in L[x]
Ćvariste Galois
I'm having trouble showing this defn implies what you wrote: L is a normal extension of K if
- [L:K] is finite. This part I see in what you wrote.
- If x \in L, then the minimal polynomial of x over K splits into linear factors in L. Equivalently, if p is irreducible in K[x] AND p has a root in L, then p splits into linear factors in L[x].
My main question is with 2. Why is it that the condition implies that if I take any irreducible poly p in K[x], then it must have a root in L
Because any finite extension is algebraic
L being an algebraic extension means that for every element in L, it has a minimum poly in K[x] right?
Yes
And any irreducible poly in K[x] is the minimal poly of some element in L?
But still that does not mean that any irreduiclbe poly in K[x] is the minimal poly of some element in L right? I know that for any irreduible poly in K[x], there exists a simple extension K(a) such that a has that minimal poly
maybe youre right
if it is an algebraic extension doesnt mean it is algebraically closed
you probably want to specify 'monic' but sure (what you said isnt wrong, but we dont rlly care about non-monics, they are never minimal polynomials in a polynomial ring over a field)
@coral shale Then I don't see how the idea you said goes:
We have p = x^4 - 2 an irreducible poly in Q[x]. We want to determine if p is reducible over Q(\rt 3).
- I see Q(\rt 3) is a normal extension of Q.
- IF a root of p exists in Q(\rt 3), then we would be done and p is reducible, in fact it splits as linear factors by normality.
However, it is not true that if p is reducible over Q(\rt 3) that it must split into linear factors. For example, p can split into factors of degree 2 each
it is true.
if L:K normal
Then all irreducible polynomials in K[x] must split into linears when considered in L[x]
or not at all
3) is an impossibility given a normal extension (since p is irreducible in Q[x])
So I am using this definition:
so what you claim is that every irreducible poly in K[x] must all its root in L if L is a normal extension of K, or it has no roots in L at all -- this I see. However, I really don't understand from this how to get that if p is irreducible in K[x], say of degree n > 3, but reducible in L[x], that it must split as linear factors just because of the irreduciblity of p in K[x]
Think over it carefully with examples
I don't see the misunderstanding issue...
I suggested above to show one field cannot contain the other
But there may be better approaches
so p = ab where a,b \in L[x] and deg(a), deg(b) < n is all that reduciblity of p in L[x] gives. It is true that the roots of p must appear in a or b, but it can happen that even if a,b are irreducible in L[x], non of their roots are in L
Let L:K extension. Let f in K[x] irreducible of degree n
If f splits in L, I believe that [L:K] >= n
I think this was the result you were trying to use but couldn't see why?
It would be nice to show this - I'm pretty sure it is true, and don't think it should be too hard
you mean L:K \leq n?
No I don't...
nvm i see what you mean, yes that part is clear to me
a stronger result is that n must divide the degree of the extension... if I'm not mistaken
Yes, n divides the degree of the extension
You don't need splitting, having any root is enough
Yes, that is true. But I'm still having trouble understanding the general framework.
- p = x^4 -2. I want to show p is not irreducible over Q(\sqrt 3) (this is clearly a degree 2 extension).
- The splitting field of p is generated by Q(2^(1/4), omega) where omega is a primitive 4-th root of unity. 4 divides the degree of this extension.
Let L:K extension. Let f in K[x] irreducible of degree n
If f has a root in L, n | [L:K]
(for myself)
(Oh I knew this smh)
Why do you think p reduces over that extension?
If p reduces, then that means it it can be factored into irreducibles in Q(\sqrt 3), if any of these factors were linear, we are done since p must split completely in Q(\sqrt 3) which is a contradiciton as then Q(\sqrt 3) extends the splitting field of Q. However, the only issue is if p, which has degree 4, reduces into factors of degree 2 each.
I can't wrap my head around why this case can not happen
Yeah but p doesn't reduce
yes, I was trying to reach a contradiction if it reduces
Also, I don't think reducibility implies splitting, having a root implies splitting
Having a root is stronger
if it reduces into a linear factor, then it must have a root in Q(\rt 3), which is normal extension
thus it must split completely into roots
Yes
so reducing where one of the factors is linear gives that Q(\sqrt 3) contains the splitting field of p
so I understand why that case is a contradiciton
I havent completely followed but ?
L:K normal
if irreducible f in K[x] splits in any kind of way in L[x], it must split completely into linears
?
No, x^4 - 2 factors in the splitting field of x^2 - 2, but doesn't split
huhhh
we require that the polynomial has a root in that field for it to split
So I think the problem reduces to showing (x^4 - 2) = (x^2 + rt 2)(x^2 - rt 2), and that the factors (x^2 +- rt 2) are not irrreducible in Q(\rt 3)
does anyone have any good sources for understanding group actions? I am having a hard time adjusting to them
this sounds annoying to do more generally, I feel there surely must be a way to avoid...
This problem would be so much easier if it was x^3 - 2 instead, since it forces one of the factors to be linear,
im just thinking here, we have 2 normal extensions. Does considering their intersection or something not help
maybe this is just equivalent to the original problem - not an approach, but a way to rephrase
=========
If an irreducible polynomial f in K[x] is reducible in some normal extension L over K,
the splitting field of f and L are both normal over K.
Their intersection must be a non-trivial normal extension of K??? Is this true I think?
Well even if it is true I suppose it isn't very helpful...
Ok I'm trying to take a step back at the problem.
WTS: p = x^4 - 2 is irreducible over Q(\sqrt 3).
I know for sure:
-
The splitting field of p is Q(2^(1/4), \omega) where omega is a primitive 4-th root of unity. This is a degree 8 extension over Q.
-
Q(\sqrt 3) is a degree 2 NORMAL extension of Q.
-
If p reduces into any linear factor over Q(\sqrt 3), we have a contradiction, since it must split into linear factors which means Q(2^(1/4), \omega) \subset Q(\sqrt 3). This contradicts the degree of extensions (2 > 8).
-
If p does not reduce over Q(\sqrt 3), we are done. By 3, p not reducing is equivalent to showing that p (which has degree 4) CAN NOT be reduced as factors of degree 2 polynomials which are irreducible in Q(\sqrt 3)[x]. The only such factorization of p is
x^4 - 2 = (x^2 + \sqrt 2)(x^2 - \sqrt 2). If we want a contradiction, it should be that (x^2 +- \sqrt 2) \notin Q(\sqrt 3)[x]
Wait...isn't 4 true because sqrt 2 \notin Q(\sqrt 3)
So it def can not happen
yh i agree it boils down to showing Q(rt 2) not in Q(rt 3)
If it does reduce, Q(rt2) should be the intersection of the 2 fields
(split of p) intersect Q(rt 3)
10 yrs later and still good 
But I don't think we need any of that. If we know that \sqrt 2 \notin Q(rt 3), then such factors already do not exists in that polynomial ring, which means a factorization of x^4 - 2 into two degree two factors can not happen over Q(\sqrt 3).
well no we don't, but when talking about a more general example this is what I'd think about
What is $\text{Hom}(A,C_2)$ where $C_2$ is the cyclic group of order 2 and $A$ is any $\mathbb{Z}$-module. Am I right in saying that it's isomorphic to $A$? I can't make my mind up
Kraft Macaroni
How would I go about computing the quotient $\mathbb{F}{16}^\times/\mathbb{F}{4}^\times$?
Kraft Macaroni
By using an example how can i say that Q under addition is not a finitely generated group?
those groups are cyclic, right?
using an example?
some contradiction
probably use the fundamental theorem of finitely generated abelian groups then
oh, it is
so i would show that, then this is simple
alternatively you construct F_16 as some F_2[x]/(f(x)) and then how F_4 lies inside that
and then you can work it out explicitly
but how i can use this here , can you please elaborate a little bit?
I think there might be a simpler way
there is
By considering the fractions 1/p with p prime
You should be able to arrive at a contradiction from the fact that there are infinite primes, unless thereās a way to generate 1/pāā from 1/pā and 1/p that Iām missing
you can also use the fact that it is divisible
just not sure if this exactly qualifies as "by contradiction"
Assume itās finitely generated => there exists a 1/p that is unreachable by the generating set, contradiction
Is what I had in my head
tried doing that but its easier said than done ahaha
what exactly is the issue?
hmmm that looks something intresting , Thnks
finding the elements which precisely coincide with F_4 within F_16 is not so clear
you need an irreducible polynomial of degree 4 in F_2[x] right?
then you can just write down all elements now
yeah
in F_16
thats what I did
look at the subgroups each element generates
thats a good idea tbf
one of them must generate the subgroup
this uses the fact that its cyclic but you dont need to know that to confirm that
(this is just super tedious)
Ok I've done it
Kraft Macaroni
I have to determine for which values of $n$ this sequence is split
Kraft Macaroni
I was thinking of computing the baer sum for the sequence above and either proving that the baer sum is split or that it isnt split but it seems a bit hard. Would anyone recommend/discourage this idea?
Kraft Macaroni
there was a typo there
it's split if and only if (4^n-1)/3 is coprime with 3 I think ?
Hmmm
Kraft Macaroni
Here the C's are cyclic groups and the square brackets are the p(n)-torsion elements
If I'm able to show that the baer sum of the sequence above with itself is split then I'm basically done because that would imply that the order of the sequence above divides 2 and so it must correspond to zero in the first cohomology group
Why do you think this is the case?
Shadow08
because if it's coprime then it's a direct product and if it's not then since the groups are all cyclic there is only one possible group morphism for the split and the elements of order 3 are sent to the image of F4* which are sent to 0 on the way back.
Everything single module I've had on abstract algebra is missing a ton of the motivation behind the concepts. Am I right in thinking ideals essentially group together numbers with some kind of property?
specifically, they're closed under addition
and if you multiply any element of the ring by an element of the ideal, the ideal slurps it up
for example, 2Z is an ideal in the ring Z
because the even numbers are closed under addition
and if you multiply an integer by an even number it becomes an even number
ideals are a generalisation of the concept of a "multiple" or a "times table" if you wanna go back to middle school 
start by looking for an identity element ?
ah thanks I got it
Do we know anything about normal forms of tensor products? Like, is there a way to turn the tensor product relations into a confluent+terminating rewriting system?
(tensor product of R-modules, R commutative unital)
Is there even a decidable procedure to determine whether two representations are equal?
Or can one find the word problem for groups in there by considering some group ring
I have a basic fact that I can not see. Let L be a field, and G:= Aut(L). If I take a subgroup H of G, then the fixed pt set L^H is a subfield of L.
It is also true that Aut(L: L^H) = H. It is clear from the definition that H is a subgroup of Aut(L: L^H), but I don't see the other inclusion
so what are you trying to prove? that L^H is a subfield?
oh ok lol
i think this is false. if we take H to be trivial, then L^H=L, and so aut(L:L)=aut(L) which is not H in general, no?
unless im not understanding what aut(L:H) is.
@dull root
No, L^H are the elements x in the field L such that hx = x for every h \in H. Then if H=1, L^H = L, and Aut(L: L^H) = Aut(L:L) = 1 = H, since the only automorph in L that fixes everything in L is the identity automorphism
I found this paper related to the noncommutative case, havenāt read it yet. I would guess that the answer for the commutative case is also no, but Iām not an expert.
Let $M$ be a free finitely generated abelian group of rank $n$ and let $M_0$ be the $Q$-vector space obtained by localizing at 0. Let $v_1,\ldots,v_n$ be a set of $Q$-linearly independent elements and let $v$ be an arbitrary element of $M$. Then we have that $v=a_1v_1+\cdots+a_nv_n$ for some $a_i\in Q$. Find a Z-basis for the abelian group generated by $v,v_1,\ldots, v_n$ in terms of $v,v_1,\ldots v_n,a_1,\ldots,a_n$.
Finitely Many Bananas
Try the 1-dim case first
Any element of M_0 forms a basis
Then maybe try 2-dim then see if you can figure it out
Is it going to be some form of SNT/row reduction/other matrix wizardry?
1 dimension is pretty straightforward I think
Once you do it for 2 dim I think you should be able to induce it up to n
Or maybe not
Uhh, that is seriously interesting (and a very accessible paper), thank you!
explain this plz..
the relations is a normal subgroup right
as you wanna mod out by it and that doesnt make sense unless its normal
i think the words should be g(abab)g^(-1) is in R for any g in D_n
sure thats true, but they are using in particular g=b to get what they want
why..@upper pivot
baba
Do you know how to do the two dimensional case? Suppose $\frac{a_1}{b_1}v_1+\frac{a_2}{b_2}v_2=v$ where $a_i$ and $b_i$ are integers.
Finitely Many Bananas
Somehow we want to write each $\frac{1}{b_i}v_i$ as a $Z$-linear combination of things in the module generated by $v,v_1,v_2$
Or at least if we can do this we're done
Finitely Many Bananas
I worked on this problem a bit more and essentially I need to do the following:
Let $v=\frac{a_1}{b_1}v_1+\cdots+\frac{a_n}{b_n}v_n$ where the $a_i$ and $b_i$ are integers. Let $M$ be $n \times (n+1)$ matrix which is the $n \times n$ identity matrix and the $(n+1)^\text{th}$ column is has entries $\frac{a_i}{b_i}$ for the $i^\text{th}$ slot. Using elementary column operations (switching columns, adding to one column an integer multiple of another column, multiplying all entries of a column by a unit (in this case, $\pm 1$)), get a new matrix where one of the columns has zeroes in every slot.
Finitely Many Bananas
Gaussian elimination ohh yeahhh
try contrapositive argument
is prime ideals a sharp condition?
I could totally see an argument that it could be maximal ideals instead, but I think I might be missing something since it doesn't say maximal
looks good to me
Do you mind spoilering/deleting this? I'm not supposed to receive outside help and I think your proof is for the problem--not what my question is. (The problem was just related so I posted it with)
Thank
I have the following question: For this question everything is working as subfields of C.
If I have a subfield K, and a poly p in K[x]. If L is the splitting field of p over K, then is L automatically a Galois extension. I know Gal extension iff normal and separable, so it amounts to saying that L is separable extension. I am wondering what the role of C is playing here, that is, why is it important we work over C
C is acting here as an algebraic closure. Like we can construct fields by adjoining roots to it, for adding a root, we must show it exists somewhere
like R[i], we know i exists in C(complex) so R[i] makes sense
I see. But it is not true that if If L is the splitting field of p over K, then is L automatically a Galois extension right? Are there Splitting fields which are not separable
you need generalizations of gauss's lemma and of eisenstein
I dont think I know of any that would work
C is of characteristic 0
Any extension field of a characteristic 0 field is separable
you want to show some polynomial in your splitting field is irreducible?
Yeah
I was thinking I could do the derivative thing
but it's not easy to find the gcd
i think you need that the ring of integers is ufd and then eisenstein becomes a statement about prime ideals
to use it
so thats probably not the intended solution if you dont have that
ah yeah I've never seen this
does the polynomial that it splits over even matter
I don't think it does
it splits over x^11 - 1 and the poly is x^7 - 3x^2 + 3x + 3
funnily enough
i typed it in wrong but same vibes

i dont know if you are allowed to use sage, but its 3 lines in there
we are not
i mean its just long division
good luck, have fun
(there is possibly just some other way to solve it)
Just do it, a mindless calculation is less taxing on the brain than a complex idea
Is the subdirect product a simple definition or quite involved (is it rep theory???)
(scanned wiki, didnt get it, but dont want to put too much time into it if it's not worth)
If there's a simple intuition would be appreciated š
You mean the definition of the semidirect product?
Sorry, this is the Rubik's Cube group for context
I know what the semidirect product is
But here, it talks about the subdirect product
You see the ^0.5
I am writing a project on this topic --- I would include this if I could understand it
do you the link to what Griess links to
just the person but one sec
oh well, then no idea
the definition of subdirect product doesnt seem hard to get
but it doesnt explain this notation
uhh
I haven't done representation theory
Am I missing knowledge to understand?
Or in fact, this definition is within the context of cat theory?
Oh no - maybe not. Universal algebra
I mean I could have a good guess
but i get the definition and the two examples i looked at
but i cant intuit this notation
so im afraid you would have to look at the work of Griess
Alright, thanks
I think I'll just miss out on this
and leave it as a semidirect product
thats probably best
does this become easier if I only care about if it has a root
you know the roots of x^11-1 and can check

Right because the splitting field is just Q(roots of x^11 - 1)
fuck im so dumb lmao
so basically
if you have a set
of anything
you can define a way to combine two elements in the set and get another element in the set
yeahh I'm now advanced in math
cool! like the union?
if you have a set of sets then yes
more like an operation really 
oh cool
you take two sets in your set of sets
and take the union
wow, i get it now.
you just need to make sure that you'll always get a result inside your set of sets
so
and where can I learn more about it?
if you have this set, and a way to combine two things, you get a magma
magma? I'm sorry, I'm dumb haha
that's just what it's called
if you package up a set with a "binary operation" (way to combine two things in the set to get another thing in the set) you get a "magma"
cool, I'm just reading about it in wiki now
yeah
thanks for this wonderful topic
so
where can I learn more bout this?
a semigroup
uh
lol, and from the basics?
a good book is "algebra" by michael artin
this explains it!!
it doesn't introduce monoids and semigroups though afaik
what are the prerequisites?
familiarity with proofs
cool, I just need the basics. I can read the monoid and semigroup stuff later
yay!!! thank you
oh
and if you're not particularly advanced in maths, some of the examples might not make much sense lol
you kinda need to be comfortable with proofs and the language of proofs
I can only understand 1st chapter lol
tho u can definitely become comfortable over the course of doing the book
oh, where can I learn that?
oh you're completely fine then lol
this chapter is very different from the matrices in the class 12th chapter
ohh
a lot of people used Vellemans book on proofs
i never did any proof book, i just yolo'ed it and it kinda worked
same
yay, thanks a lot! gonna start from today!
we caught another one algebra army
thanks y'all!
yw
wew would be proud
vallemans book on "how to prove it"?
yeah
Found this answer under: Why is x^4 + 2 irreducible in F_125[x]?
For some reason i cannot understand the part right after "As gdc(4,3) = 1,"
How does he obtain that expression for the degree of $[F_{5^3}(\alpha):F_5]$?
Ćvariste Galois
I was informed this is a scam
E and K are both extension of F, [E:F]=m,[K:F]=n. If gcd(m,n)=1 them. [EK:F]=mn
wdym
the implications do not hold in all cases or something

What was it. Apparently there are associative quasigroups that aren't inverse semigroups?
Or the other way round
Ok i am familiar with this, but does $\mathbb{F}_{5^3}\mathbb{F}(\alpha) = \mathbb{F}__{5}(\alpha)?
For some reason the latex cant compile with two _
yep
i believe
šµāš«
i dont know enough algebra to verify
Do you mean why F_5^3(α)=(F_5^3)(F_5(α))?
yes
associative quasigroups don't need inverses for everything
Also, how does he conclude that [F_5^3(\alpha):F_5^3] = 4 just from the fact that [F_5(\alpha):F_5] = 4?
Is it done by applying the tower law to [F_5^3(\alpha):F_5]?
$F_{5^3}F_{5}(α)\cong F_{5^3}\otimes F_{5}[x]/I \cong F_{5^3}[x]/IF_{5^3}[x] \cong F_{5^3}(α)$
Cogwheels of the mind
Ahh ok
Itās just a commutative diagram. [EK:E]=[K:F] and [EK:K]=[E:F]
ok that makes sense. thanks!
hi everyone i need to show that x^3 + 5x + 5 is not irreducible in E[x] where E is splitting field of x^11 - 1
so i think cause deg3 it must have linear factor
so the only way I can think to show it is to show that it's roots aren't in E
but it's roots are awful
,w roots x^3 + 5x + 5
So idk if there is a better wya to do this
eisenstein maybe?
how can I eisenstein when I'm not in Q
I'm in a splitting field of Q
oh I don't have generalized eisenstein
i think you just need to show that 5 is still prime in E
i think you need 5 to be prime if you want to use the generalized eisenstein
idk though
prove it in your homework and use it 

or maybe you can do some argument by looking at towers
like assume it has a root alpha in E
so maybe I can just look at its degree?
Do yku know the gslois group?
and consider something like Q -> Q(alpha) -> E maybe
Is it S_3 or A_3?
No I don't know the galois group of this
Then calculate it. Itās easy for cubics, just find the discriminant
what does that do for me
If itās S_3, youre done
we haven't really studied the galois group much

enough that I could use this probably
The galois group of E/Q is abelian
And so all wuotients must be abelian
(In fact the galois group must be S_3 since this cubic has nonreal roots)
why is S_3 good
it's as big as possible
Itās not abelian
that too
I have no idea why that implies the poly is irreducible though
And therefore itās not a quotient of an abelian group
Im not proving (directly) that this poly is irreducible over E
Im proving that it doesnt have a root in E. If it did then all of its roots must be in E (corrollary of E/Q being galois) and therefore the solitting field of this poly is a subfield of E
I think maybe there is something being unmentioned that i have not learned
okay
So you cant have a root of an irreducible cubic
yeah that makes sense
Sorry i should have seen that first
smh
thank you bunhco
i appreciate it
Np sorry for not listening lol
in general if you have f(x) of degree n over K with splitting field F irreducible then Gal(F/K) is transitive on S_n.
In the case n=3 the only transitive subgroups of S_3 are S_3 itself and A_3
so if you find some Galois group of a cubic that isn't these you immediately have a reducible cubic and get a linear factor that splits off
To prove that a subgroup $H$ is in the center of a group $G$ for which I have a presentation with generators $a_1\dots a_n$, I would only need to check that the elements of $H$ commute with the generators of $G$, right? Since $ha_i=a_ih$ implies $a_i^{-1}h=ha_i^{-1}$ and $ha=ah,hb=bh$ imply $hab=ahb=abh$
Astianthus
it's not irreducible cause 1 is in Q
what do you mean
I'm saying isnt the degree of E/Q 11 because the degree of the thing it splits over is 11
i think the polynomial needs to be irreducible for that to be true right?
yeah you'd need to factor that bad boy
look up the cyclotomic polynomials
no not really xd

actually for primes i think it's easy
uhh they have degree Euler totient of n
Do you know how to do this?
not immediately by looking at it
Okay last question I have \alpha transcendental over F and \beta = \alpha + \alpha^3 obviously also transcendental. how do I know \alpha algebraic over F(\beta)
I guess maybe a better question is what does an element in F(\beta) even look like lol
cause I figure it's not so hard to write down a polynomial
I don't even think its possible
For example, consider the matrix [1 3/7]
There is no way to get 0 for either entry using Z-invertible column operations
Essentially, the problem is the following. Suppose we have v = 3w/7 and this is the only relation on v and w. Find a basis (of only one element) of the group generated by v and w
We are in an abelian group here
yeah we're in Z or Q depending
I guess the formal way to state this would be this
<1/7> is my guess
The minimal polynomial of α in F(β) is f(x)=x^3+x-β I think
How would you show that 1/7 is indeed in that subgroup though?
How do you know this
Because itās irreducible
You don't need minimality to get algebraic
I just need a polyniomial
(7w-2v)/7 is my guess, cause we're in a subgroup of Q right?
I just need to know its in the field
oh okay and it obivously is
thank you
i overcomplicated
š
If it has a root , g(β), then g(β)^3+g(β)-β=0
Then this contradicts to the fact that α is transcendental
Does (7w-2v)/7 generate both w and v as a Z module?
Wait
I think I got it
Because h(α)=0 and h(x)=(g(x+x^3))^3+g(x+x^3)-(x+x^3)
please, tell me 
So there are integers k,c such that ak+bc=1
This implies that (ak+bc-1)/b * v = 0
I.E. we get kw + cv = v/b
Following so far
So v/b is in the subgroup gen'd by v and w
Clearly v/b generates this subgroup as well
So v/b is the required basis element
nice
so the original space is 1 dimensional, meaning that there will be some kernel space => some basis that you can write the matrix in such that one column is zero? I think? Wait nevermind maschke's might not apply on Z it's not a field 
And now I need to generalize this to n-gens
Is rationalization of an abelian group a term that's used? I've heard complexification of a real vector space
it's just an extension of scalars
Yeah I was just wondering if it had a special name
if you mean going from a Z-module to a Q-module, that is
like complexification of a real VS
you did everything ngl 
Emotional help
but you're welcome anyway 
can anyone show a proof of Theorem 23.11?
or at least some intuitions behind why it works? (if possible, not too complicated lol)
or any links to already done proof
Itās a special case of something called Gaussās lemma
You can find a proof of Gaussās lemma in nearly any textbook on abstract algebra
And Iām sure a quick google search will turn it up
oh ok i will look into it, thank you!
I mean that works but
Normal also means (as in this is equivalent) for all g that gHg^-1 = H
And thatās just baked into the definition of N_G(H) so you donāt need the argument to even be this involved
Uhh
What does āin Hā mean
Idk what your definition of normal is
But it is very easily going to be seen to be equivalent to the statement that gHg^-1 = H for all g in G
same thing: for all g in G and h in H, ghg' in H
for it to be =, it's equivalent
Okay so the general problem has been reduced to the following:
Given integers $a_i,b_i$ for $i=1,\cdots,n$ such that $(a_i,b_i)=1$ for all $i$, fix $k\in{1,\ldots, n}$. Compute an integer solution to the following system of equations in $x_1,\cdots,x_n,x$:
$b_ix_i+a_ix=0$ if $i\neq k$\
$b_kx_k+a_kx=1$
Finitely Many Bananas
Which would just be solving the following matrix
[b_1 0 ... 0 a_1 | 0]
[0 b_2 ... 0 a_2 | 0]
.
.
.
[0...0 b_k 0...a_k| 1]
.
.
.
[0... b_n a_n | 0]
In integers
Anyone know how to do this?
I feel like the idea is to show that the set of solutions to [0...0 b_k 0...a_k| 1] is not empty in the integers using Euclidean algorithm and then inductively showing that its intersection with the solution sets of [0...0 b_i 0...a_i| 0] is non-empty for all i less than some m
Wait I think I got it
Since $a_k$ and $b_k$ are coprime, we can find integers p and q such that $pb_k+qb_k=1$. So the problem reduces to finding an integer c such that $\frac{(q-cb_k)a_i}{b_i}$ is an integer for all $i\neq k$
Finitely Many Bananas
Yeah this isn't true in general
Is a map of short exact sequences just something like this?
where together, the maps a,b,c define a map of short exact sequences?
The squares should commute
Let $E$ be a field with an action of a finite group $G = {\sigma_1, ..., \sigma_n}$ (by automorphisms), and set $F = E^G$. Let ${b_1, ..., b_n}$ be a basis of $E/F$.
It is claimed that by faithfulness of the $G$-action, we can apply Dedekind's lemma to conclude that the matrix $(\sigma_i b_j)_{ij}$ is invertible.
But where does faithfulness actually enter? I don't get what's wrong with this: define characters $\chi_j (g) = g b_j$, these are distinct without any appeal to faithfulness. Thus $\det (\chi_1 \ldots \chi_n) \neq 0$ by Dedekind's lemma?
expectTheUnexpected
How do I extend this proof so that it is also valid for K1 and K2 being algebraic extensions (right now they are finite)?
I know that algebraic extensions are unions of their finite subextensions, but I am not sure what the basis for K1K2 would be if K1 had basis U{a_i}_j and K2 basis U{b_i}_j
Those {αβ} generates K_1K_2
So the dimension is smaller than or equal to the product of dimensions.
Because you have that condition, the dimension equals the product of dimensions, those generators become a basis
For a linear space V of dimension n, and you find n elements who span V, then those elements form a basis
I know about this but this is true for the finite case
at least dummit proves it for the finite case
with K1 and K2 being finite extensions
i wonder whether the basis is still {ab} for algebraic extensions that aren't necessarily finite
Then probably no general resultā¦
Even the finite case, if the condition doesnāt hold, we donāt know generally what the basis is
are you sure it isn't the other way around? I think the condition you are talking about here is actually a consequence of {ab} being a spanning set
We know itās a spanning set
But it might not be a basis if that condition doesnāt hold
I donāt know what basis is if the condition doesnāt hold
Except itās a subset of them
If G = Aut(L)
I reckon Fix will be the prime subfield of L
Is this obvious š¤
I think it is fairly obvious Fix must contain the prime subfield (homomorphism defns)
but i dont see why the other way is obvious (if it is) for now...
I am thinking about construct a counterexample of the form L=F_p[x]/(x^(p^r)-a). Then maybe x+(x^(p^r)-a) is also in the Fix(Aut(L))
Because x^(p^r)-a=(x-A)^(p^r) in the splitting field where A^(p^r)=a, if I can construct such a field then any automorphism f of L, f(x bar) has to be x bar because x bar is the only root
Theres also just R
Every automorphism of R is the identity
So Fix_R(Aut(R)) = R rather than Q
I see. Oh, my L also, Aut(L) has only identity
oh is it
Yes
The process is basically
Every automorphism is continuous -> it fixes Q -> it fixes R
wait wait why do they need to be continuous
you can show that any automorphism is increasing
hence its only discontinuities can be jump discontinuities, and that would make it not surjective
f(y)-f(x)=f(y-x)
Ergo its continuous
what is going on with my thinking here
Gal(R : Q) = {e}
You're saying?
as a consequence
I always thought it was infinite
oh wait
Gal isnt automorphisms
it is K-homomorphisms? edit: nvm it has to be auto - gal is a group
Gal(L : K)
Gal is homomorphisms of L that fix K yes
But again every automorphism of R is the identity so its pretty trivial regardless
I think this isnt that weird when you realize that R contains Qbar and hence isnt algebraic over Q
So you wouldnt expect it to behave very well
ima just have to think this over again . . .
I think you're probably confusing transcendental and algebraic degree
actually nah not really
to be clear this is true
Like R is not algebraic over Q so many of the usual theorems about galois groups do not apply
So just to be clear
Gal(R : Q) = ???
Its trivial
ok ima have a think
More strongly Aut(R) is itself trivial and Gal(R/Q) is the subgroup of Aut(R) that fixes Q
But R/Q is not even algebraic so the Galois correspondence doesnt hold
And its degree as an extension doesnt have to have anything to do with the size of the Galois group
This too
I think I confused some examples
Okay like
You have to recall that the size of a galois group and the degree of an extension do not always correspond when the extension is not galois
Right to say anything about the size of Gal(C/Q) you need to either show its Galois or think about it explicitly
And C/Q is not Galois
Its not even algebraic
I am struggling to get what Aut(F) looks like I guess
I can consider it to be the P-automorphisms of F where P is the prime subfield of F?
In which case I can think of it in terms of polynomials in P and permuting roots of those
Yes I understand, but I'm thinking in general
to approach this definition
In general Aut(F) is just the automorphisms of F. It will fix the prime field necessarily but thats not a stronger condition or anything
Right. But then at least I can see it is necessary for roots to map to roots
of polynomials in P
I just wanted some intuition for why my thinking earlier was wrong š¤
I mean I think you were just not thinking about the less pleasant examples where L is not Galois over its prime field
Right now I can't intuit if Gal(C/Q) or Gal(Q bar/Q) is 'bigger'
I think Gal(C/Q) must be smaller now, but previously I thought it was bigger...
Its not smaller 
Its very big
unlike R there are many non trivial automorphisms of C
Its bigger than Gal(Qbar/Q)
But also I dont think you necessarily need intuition for these kinds of pathologic cases right now?
No I probably don't with regards to my course
This is less a matter of understanding the Galois theory and more a matter of just knowing things about Q, R, and C
Yes, for one thing I kept thinking Q bar in R for whatever reason earlier
Today will be a thinking day for me ig 
Like Gal(C/Q) is very big whereas Gal(R/Q) is not mostly because Aut(R) ends up being trivial because its totally ordered and the field automorphisms respect that order which isnt true for C
A lot of these infinite degree examples can be very complicated or pathological (even nicer ones like Gal(Qbar/Q) are like, very much not explicitly known to us and areas of a lot of active research)
'every automorphism is continuous'
In general or just for R? I haven't thought about continuity in this topic
Just for R
I mean there might not be a notion of continuity for an arbitrary field right?
But even if there is
This happens because R is totally ordered and its notion of continuity is tied to that, and the automorphisms respect that order
well yeah that was what i was confused about there when u said it - wasnt sure
ok I see
Thanks, talking this thru rlly helped šāāļø
np
Ah more reading and I see other than identity and complex conjugatiom, you need AoC to construct Automorphisms of C
So I should probably just think about this definition in the context of fields which are algebraic over their prime field...
Um not necessarily?
Im not sure why you're contextualizing this as a statement about like, extensions
You should just think of this as a collection of subfields of L defined by subgroups of its automorphism group
I mean within my course (like for examples, I don't think we will consider Aut(C))
uhh well I will see
In subrings, the definition we were given is closed under + and *, and "shares the same 1"
Does this mean 1 has to be in the subring?
yes
Ye, it's also natural since we want the inclusion to be a homomorphism
So then is it false that every ideal is a subring?
that's very false
Ok cause Google gave conflicting answers
I can think of 1 counterexample
Yeah 0 generator
<0>
and subring
It's the ideal with {0} as the generating set
that might not be a ring depending on course definition
The answers to this stuff varies on definition
Right but it's an ideal
yes its an ideal.
Some might define a ring to not necessitate unity
in which case all ideals are subrings
Rings don't need to have units yeah
And the converse is false too then, since Z is a subring of Q
Which isn't an ideal in Q
The common thing I know (ig it's what the category Ring is based on for example) is the convention where rings have a 1 a(not necessarily distinct from 0 as there is the 0 ring) and homomorphisms are to preserve this 1, but if you don't enforce rings to be unital then it seems more the convention that subrings are just 'rings under the restriction of the operations' and thus needn't have the 1
Yeah we proved that R and <0> are the only ideals iff R is a field on the same assignment
nice
The key is to consider the set of units R^x := {a in R : a has multiplicative inverse}
That thing in the bracket to the power of 3 is -1
think about what the vectors in vectorspace look like
yes
The natural numbers and exponentiation are what? A loop?
just a unital magma I think
Not unital
Can't it be unitial if it has an identity for each side?
Wait no, that wouldn't work
yeah what would be the left identitiy
In the proof, that is true because K1/F (or K2/F) is a finite extension, and hence algebraic over F, otherwise we couldn't deduce it, right?
I was going to say 1 because 1^n=1 but that is not how identities work lol
Itās still span K_1K_2, we just donāt have basis either
I don't understand why there's the nz
Mm, I am not sure it would span it because how can you assure that the inverse of a linear combination of a_ib_j is still a linear combination of a_ib_j?
In general is there a method to prove a polynomial over a field is minimal with respect to a root?
Itās equivalent to show itās irreducible. Equivalently, any polynomial has a root in some algebraic closure, so your question is equivalent to asking if thereās a general method to find if a polynomial is irreducible, which is a very hard problem. I think itās like undecidable or whatever computability term youāre supposed to put there, even over Q





