#groups-rings-fields
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i think this is true because the image contains a spanning set of K1K2, and since fields are closed under everything, this spanning set is gonna give us all of K1K2 in the image no?
the image of this homomorphism is a field, since the domain is assumed a field
but the composite is the smallest field containing K_1 and K_2
and the image certainly does via image of (1, k) and (k, 1)
ohhhhh 
ok yeah, i think that makes sense
nothing much about tensors after all
yeah seems like it doesn't matter
well, you need that the tensorproduct is a field
thanks @coral shale @sharp sonnet
you can also construct preimage of an element explicitly
x + y ๐
K_1K_2 is K_1(K_2)
so the elements are like quotients of polynomials in K_1[x_1, ..., x_n] evaluated at elements of K_2
wait last question, this statement is true only if K1 and K2 are finite right?
no, why?
finite extensions dont necessarily indicate finite fields being involved
the degree of the extension
finite extensions, not finite fields
if you had finite fields, you would get surjective just for set theoretic reasons
yeah thats what i meant, K1 and K2 are finite extensions
so for infinite extensions, it wouldn't work right?
like the statement wouldn't be true?
in the infinite case we would want to claim cardinalities are equal iff ... I presume?
i imagine it becomes more subtle
just search "when is the tensor product of fields a field"
there is e.g. https://mathoverflow.net/questions/82083/when-is-the-tensor-product-of-two-fields-a-field
im following, btw
it is just that i don't know how to handle the index, because it seems to make little sense to me to be multiplying infinity dimensions
is there an easy explicit example?
Let F = Q, K1 = Q(rt2), K2 = Q(rt3) works I think?
degree 4 vs deg 2, deg 2
Q(rt3) has deg 3 no?
sqrt3
also i want to know if this is true for infinite dimensions
x^2 - 3 is min poly
so how can we represent rt2 + rt3
as a product was my q
hmmm
Well everything in the compositum is of the form a + brt2 + crt3 + drt6 = a + bx + cy + dxy
Oh wait not quite - quotients in this
i think this works? no need to take quotients
yes it turns out this works
since we have finite extension
I'm just thinking about this apriori
It's still not obvious to me how we can factor this 
more think
represent where?
something from Q(rt2) times something from Q(rt3)
we should be able to explicitly write anything in Q(rt2, rt3) as a product like this?
(k1, k2) -> k1k2 is surjective
we should be able to write it as an element in the tensorproduct
ye, k_1 \times k_2 certainly isnt a field
what do you mean shuri?
Right right I get it
it has zerodivisors
I kept thinking this was surjective
with the original domain
But no, its the induced map with the tensor product as a domain that is
This argument though, does this even depend on the extensions being finite at all?
thats the thing i want to know
because to me it seems that nowhere in this proof do the use the fact that K1 and K2 are finite extensions
Perhaps those equalities, implicitly?
you mean dimension equalities?
yes
but it does make sense to say \infty = infty*infty though
If it is known/given/proven before these equalities hold for cardinalities in the infinite case then sure (but idk)
I also don't know if they hold in the infinite case for sure, but I suspect they would.
what do you mean? it doesn't seem that there's anything in here that depends on cardinalities
when we write = for things that are infinite, we are referring to equality of cardinalities, aren't we?
Otherwise it doesn't make sense
it would be imo
yes we probably should/would.
but either way, the proof would work no?
not that I really have studied this
tbh I'm not confident one direction of the statement holds for the infinite case (just a feeling)
I think the reverse implication might come across problems
you mean assumptions with the basis and all?
If we just pick a random example, I don't think it will work out
but infinite dimensional vector spaces have bases too
you think we can find counterexamples? like in the statement isn't true?
for the converse
Just intuition - might be wrong
idk - let F be Q and come up with 2 non-algebraic fields over Q whose tensor product isn't a field
I just felt this should be possible
Ok how about just Q(x), Q(y)
What will their tensor product look like
If it is Q(x, y) then nvm for this
i have no idea lol
does this basis thing work?
products of basis elements being a basis of the composite
i dont really want to think about it lmao
$\frac1{x+y}$
I have a feeling we fail here
(1/x)+(1/y) = (x+y)/(xy), looks like a deadend
Does this mean we don't even know if a basis is formed
If we don't even know if e.pi is rational, then I don't think we can do the 'same thing' as the finite extension case
That induced map from the proof won't necessarily be surjective (let F = Q, K1 = Q(pi), let K2 = Q(e))
'it is clear phi is surjective' must use the fact we have finite extensions
choose like Q(e) and Q(1/e), then their composite is still Q(e), the dimension statements work (unlike in the case e = sqrt(2) for example)
how about this?
I agree the statement might still be true (although I'm not sure) --- but was pointing out the proof method probably doesn't extend.
I think that equality holds as cardinals
What about the reverse implication?
I feel that doesn't necessarily hold (just a hunch)
i've gotten rather far with this question but just wanted some external feedback to make sure i am not going insane. So what i've gathered is I am almost certain Z3 is not a subgroup of Z9 as there exists numbers that are divisible completely by 3 but not by 9 such as 6. But using lagrange's theorem I was able to show that a subgroup order 3 is possible and Z3 has order 3 because it's just (0,1,2) .
I am almost certain Z3 is not a subgroup of Z9 as there exists numbers that are divisible completely by 3 but not by 9 such as 6
Can you elaborate
well I construced a group table for mod 3 and for mod 9 and found no overlap between the 2 other than the first horizontal and verticle lines
I think you are mistakenly thinking that
0, 1, 2
have to correspond exactly to 0, 1, 2
When we say Z3 is a subgroup of Z9, what we really mean is:
There is a subgroup of Z9 which is isomorphic to Z3
oh we haven't done that yet ๐ณ
then I don't get how you're meant to even do this question
Without that in mind, it doesn't make sense
what does it mean for Z9 to be isomorphic to Z3?
no no
(subgroup of Z9) which is...
isomorphic means the 2 groups have exactly the same structure
To understand this formally, you need to know what a homomorphism is
oh i have that in my notes somewhere
An isomorphism is a bijective homomorphism
2 groups are isomorphic to each other if there exists an isomorphism mapping one to the other
so a group homomorphism from G to H is a function from G to H such that f(g g')= f(g)*f(g') f(eg)=f(eh) and f(g^-1)=f(g)^-1
it is a one line definition
i dont know what g' is tho i jsut wrote it down thinking it will be important some day
f : G -> H is a homomorphism if for all a, b, f(ab) = f(a)f(b)
This is precisely the definition
Everything else you wrote is merely a consequence (that can be proven quite easily - try, if you haven't)
ah so is it commutitive ?
no, certainly not
oh
If for all a, b, we have ab = ba, then the structure is commutative ('abelian' for groups)
If for all a, b, c, we have (ab)c = a(bc), then the structure is associative
oh I understand now, what is being said is that multiplying one mapped value with another will give you another mapped value ?
ah
I suppose this is similar to the idea of commutativity
but I would hesitate to use that term - at least, not without clarifying what exactly you mean
ah right
'The group operation and the group homomorphism commute'
but no this isn't quite true
The group operation in G is different from the group operation in H
So yes there's this kindof idea, but not quite
so associative shows you can re group and communitive means you cna move numbers around ang get the same answer
yes that is the idea.
Back to this then
hmmm
I think the best approach is to identify the subgroups of Z9
And then figuring out if any could be isomorphic o Z3
e,9,3
There's actually 3 subgroups
This isn't a subgroup.
i knwo Z9 and e are individual subgroups were Z9 contains (0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8) and e contains (0)
Right
What would the non-trivial proper subgroup be though
From lagrange, it must have order 3
a subgroup with 3 elements
ah so is this about finding the specific 3 elements from Z9 that map to give us a similar sequence to mapping out mod9?
You need to find a subgroup in Z9 which has the same structure as the group Z3
So the first step is to find the subgroup with 3 elements
ah ok
I say 'the' because I am telling you there is only 1 of them
but this should be something you convince yourself of later
ok i'll start getting to the subgroup with 3 elements
Basically integers mod n are cyclic groups
And every cyclic group is an abelian group.
And every subset of that group is a subgroup
yeah ive started to realise doing this that its cyclic
Yes
careful
not every subset of a group is a subgroup
'every subset of that group is a subgroup' =...=
But for abelian it's true
what?
Only for abelian groups
Hmm... I don't know what you mean by that
yeah Z is cyclical
I wonder if you're mixing up this with the idea that every subgroup of an Abelian group is normal
its abelian
Wait
Your statement is absurd as it stands
Bruh I mixed with that ๐คฆโโ๏ธ
A subset need not even contain the identity
that's not true
Ah rip
The <2> you've written isn't closed under addition.
what is 8 + 2
Similarly for the rest.
1
I c
I only did the first 6 this time
As for the last 3 I had already gotten 9 the previous time
So <6> contains the exact same elements as <3>
so when i constructed a table for <3> under addition+ and used Z3 on it, i got a table with 0's returned back to me
No......
I don't quite understand what you have done
But first understand what it means for 2 groups to be isomorphic
It means there exists an isomorphism between them
This means you have to construct a function mapping one group to the other
And show it is a bijective homomorphism
ah
<3> and Z3 arent meant to combine or something as you seem to be doing
This is what I had constructed
And did 2 little examples at the bottom of the table to show what I was doing
3+3 isn't 0.
Be clear to yourself where elements live
0, 3, 6 are referring to the elements within Z9
What you can do to these elements is ONLY the operation within Z9
That is addition modulo 9
They have nothing to do with the group operation in another group, like Z3
ohh so i'm not supposed to use addition under Z3
Firstly, are you aware of what a function between the 2 groups might look like?
Can you construct an arbritrary one please?
ok i'll try
I'm worried there is some missing knowledge that is often taught in an intro to proofs class, here.
,rotate
im trying to map Z onto 2Z under mulitplcation
- Your
2andZare confusing - write a horizontal bar across yourz's in writing
yeah sorry i've got dysgraphia
Can't we try making cayley tables for both groups
- sure, but we don't want that here??
We are talking about Z3 and {0, 3, 9}
I dont see how Z and 2Z have any relevant here
ohhh i thought u said to construct a function between 2 groups not THE 2 groups
๐ฉ
i thought u were trying to see if i could write out a domain and codomain with a mapping between the 2
i'll use that in future
But anyways - I see you understand what a map
or a function is
Now, you need to create one that will be a bijective homomorphism
between the 2 groups
so its one to one and onto
{0, 1, 2} under addition modulo 3
{0, 3, 6} under addition modulo 9
so am i mapping the mod 9 one onto the mod 3 one ?
it doesn't matter which way round you do it
oh yeha
because a function which is bijective is invertible
its nijective
bi
how would 3 mod9 map onto 3 mod 3 ?
i keep thinking it will be 0 but i know thats wrong
You have these 2 sets
There are 3 elements in each
yes
Not sure what you were attempting earlier
These 2 groups happen to both use numbers
so i assign f(0)=0 f(3)=1 and f(6)=2
f(3+1)
note the two + signs you use are different
one is addition mod 3
the other is addition mod 9
To emphasize this, it would be good to write this
ahhh right yeah i'll bear that in mind
$+_3$
$+_9$
subscript
The key is your 2 groups might not even be numbers in general
one could contain something completely different from the other
One group might contain numbers
The other group might contain vectors
The groups might still be isomorphic, though
aight imma have to wrap my head around this over summer while i do real analysis
ah yeah i've taken a look at it before
italians want to add mod 3, while they do it mod 9 in nyc. So the italians just stick to 0, 3, 6

Lol
oh right i'll fix that
$f(3+_31) = f(3) +_9 f(1)$
Pencil
For example, this is a possible statement $$f(1 +_9 2 +_9 3) = f(1 +_9 2)+_3f(3)$$
ok
Rather than case by case
To do this, perhaps define f algebraically
But hmmm ๐ค
yh ok.
wait could i show that the order of both sets are equal and as such bijective through that ?
as D>=G and G<=D
where D is under Z9 and G is under Z3
oh wait
no thats not what im trying to show
im trying to show its homomophorphic
This is what I got when I showed it algebraicly
In order to show it algebraically, you need an algebraic definition of f
Bijectivity should be fairly clear - check it is injective and surjective
(no 2 things map to the same thing and everything is mapped to)
I thought I had created an algebraic expression of f
From the F:D->G to the |G| part was supposed to set up the function
Prop 19.2 part 3 was what I was going to use to prove the bijection
*19.1
Yes but that is likely overkill
(I would not expect anyone to do anything like it in a proof)
Anyways - to clarify what I meant
This is slightly informal, but you can let f(x) = x/3
But hmmmm this is slightly crappy notation
Without justification
Ah i think I know where you are going with this
Are you familiar with equivalence classes?
Yup a equivalence relation within a group onto itself?
You define an equivalence relation on a group
So we consider the integers mod n
We do not write
0, 1, ..., n-1
formally
But we write bars or square brackets
on the numbers
$\bar{1}$ or $[1]$
ohhhhhh
thats what the bars meant
To indicate these are equivalence classes, not numbers
on the question
By definition, this is what it really means
ah ok
All the numbers with the same remainder upon division by 9
forms an equivalence class
I think I prefer the notation $[a]_n$
$[a]_n:={a+kn:k\in\bZ}$
Does this definition make sense to you ^
You are familiar with set builder notation?
Expanded, this set is
{a, a - n, a + n, a - 2n, a + 2n, ...}
So if n = 9 (we are working mod 9)
never heard of set builder notation
[1] = {..., -17 , -8, 1, 10, 19, 28, 37, ...}
set builder notation is exactly the notation used here
Have you been shown this formally?
'This set contains a + kn for all the possiblek in Z'
not by the uni but i have been using my own textbook that does
Right if your uni didn't go through this
I think it is perhaps best to quickly browse an intro to proofs set of notes
which goes though notation/mathematical language that is very commonly used at uni level
ok i'll get onto that asap
ok
and it isn't too long (you should know quite a bit of it already)
But anyways, so modulo 9
$\bar1$ and $\bar{10}$
yeah
(you have exactly the same set)
So earlier, I suggested for f to 'divide by 3'
we have 0, 6, 9 bar
and when I say 'divide by 3'
I mean divide every single element in the class by 3
ah ok
Like how we write $3\bZ$
Which means all the multiples of 3
would you write :3Z
You take the set Z. And multiply everything in it by 3
oh right
ignore this
$3\bZ:={3n : n \in \bZ}$
In fact, there is another way of writing the equivalence classes
And this notation will be important later on
when you come across cosets
$$a + n\bZ :={a+kn:k\in \bZ}$$
So if I wanted to write the equivalence class corresponding to 2 mod 9
..., -7, 2, 11, ...
$2+9\bZ$
This is another way of writing it
ah ok yeah
So back to the question - you can define f to divide everything in the equivalence class mod 9
by 3
Or alternately make f map the other way round
for the proof i think i have to do it both ways either way
{0, 1, 2} under addition mod 3 to {0, 3, 6} under addition mod 9
And define f as multiplying everything in the equivalence class by 3
no no
You only have to define 1 function
And show it is a bijective homomorphism
i got marked down the last time i didn't show it for both ways
I'm not quite sure what you mean
As long as you show it is a bijective homomorphism (isomorphism), that is enough
Once you show f is bijective, so must f inverse
in a feedback question a while ago i showed a set being bijective for one way but they marked me down for not doing it the opposite way
And if f is a bijective homomorphism, so must f inverse also be a bijective homomorphism (this can be proven).
That is odd ๐ค
If possible - show us what exactly it was
it could be some other problem
i'll try and find it although this was last sememster so it might not still be up
But ok, try proving this perhaps
And that might convince you only need to construct f
alright
To show f is bijective, you just need to show it is injective and surjective
this is a bit of a silly question but how do I do that, all the proofs so far i've had to do for injective and surjective I could get away with using the proposition
lets see
I will give an example
$f : {0+5\bZ, 1+5\bZ, 2+5\bZ, 3+5\bZ, 4+5\bZ}\to{0+15\bZ, 3+15\bZ, 6+15\bZ, 9+15\bZ, 12+15\bZ}$
Using my previous notation, does this make sense
The domain has 5 elements, and so does the codomain
(but note each element itself is a set)
I will now define f to map by multiplying everything in a class by 3
$$f(a + 5\bZ) := 3a + 15\bZ$$
for a = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4
Firstly, this function is well-defined (I have said what everything in the domain maps to, and each maps to exactly one thing)
For injectivity, suppose f(a+5Z) = f(b+5Z)
Then
3a + 15Z = 3b + 15Z
Hmmm this is a bit hard without knowing what you have/have not proven about cosets 
Well alright so from first principles, we have
$${3a + 15n : n\in \bZ} = {3b + 15n : n\in \bZ}$$
And we want to show a = b
yup
Remember a must be between 0 and 4
From how I chose to define the function
So what I could do is suppose a and b are not equal for contradiction
Then show 3a cannot be a member of the set on the right
Hence a contradiction of the equality of sets
(I'm just using contrapositive tbh)
Hmmmmmmmm I feel I can do this smarter
$${3a + 15n : n\in \bZ} = {3b + 15n : n\in \bZ}$$
$\implies$
$$3a \in {3b + 15n : n\in \bZ}$$
$\implies$
$$(\exists n\in\bZ)\quad3a = 3b + 15n$$
$\implies$
$$(\exists n\in\bZ)\quad3(a - b) = 15n$$
$\implies$
$$(\exists n\in\bZ)\quad a - b = 5n$$
rip
Have you seen logical quantifiers?
Yeah this would be a neater way of showing it
a - b is a multiple of 5
So they must be equal since a and b are between 0 and 4 inclusive
ok
Like as you move on with the course
at a higher level you would not bother writing this out
(because of some results you see)
So we have f(a + 5Z) = f(b + 5Z) => a + 5Z = b + 5Z
Hence we have an injective function
Now surjectivity --- you can either use that theorem you had
The sets are finite and of the same size, so an injective function must also be surjective
Or you could say 'by inspection everything in the codomain has a preimage in the domain'
(since the sets are so small, surjectivity can be checked by brute force inspection, essentially)
aight
imma just say that surjectivity of the function has been left as an excercise to the reader lol
๐
studying bilinear forms rn
is the proof of this very simple? i thought about it for a couple minutes but am stumped
bruh they really jsut left the proof as an excercise ๐
if my memory serves me right, this is the first thing that artin left as an exercise in the bilinear forms chapter
but it isn't obvious to me :/
for defining my 9Z and 3Z should i use the same variable a such that . a+9Z and a+3Z or should i use a different one for each
What do you mean
I have to define the function this way
I am saying the class 'a + 5Z' maps to the class '3a + 15Z'
alright ok
aight
this is probably more compact
But later on, you will see the notation I used being useful for other contexts
This is what I ended up getting
For the homomorphism and injection part
As that's really the part I found challenging
ngl i suggest typing it up in TeX @zealous flame
Aight I'll try it when I'm back home
I'm writing up notes and I 
on how it 'looks'
idk - I feel like I could have structured this better, but 2nd opinions appreciated
second opinion: don't worry about it
I've checked the conditions to make sure it's an equivalence relation
but what would the equivalence classes be?
have you an image in your mind
what do you mean?
hmm
Let f(x) = x
Now what exactly are the functions related to f
graphically what might you draw
exactly
Go through (3, 3)
All the continuous functions that do
So I might vaguely sketch something like this
This is one particular equivalence class
But thats just the equivalence class for x
right
ok
I understand what it is now
but I'm not sure how I would phrase that
What is the defining feature
of this class
All of the functions go through the point where f(x)=3
you mean f(3) = 3
Or another way to think of this
is the intersection of the function
with the line x = 3
If you want to be more precise
but this is perfectly fine too
So each equivalence class is the set of functions that go through a particular point on x = 3
Hey so I think this is the place to ask my question about rings:
I'm working on the question "for r in the set R with R being a non-zero commutative ring, if r is nilpotent then 1+r is a unit of R".
I started by saying r^n=0 for some least positive integer n => 1 + (-1)^n*r^n = 1 and I'm trying to factorise 1 + (-1)^n*r^n into (1 + r)(1 - r + r^2 - ... + (-1)^(n-1)*r^(n-1)) but when I was thinking of doing this, I realised it relies on the fact that (-a)(-b) = ab. But I'm not sure how to think of this property intuitively;
(-1) is the additive inverse of the multiplicative identity. But then how does (-1)^2 = 1 ?
It might be a simple property that I'm overthinking but I can't explain it to myself intuitively
This is a property to prove
(-1).(-1) = 1
Where -1 is the additive inverse of 1
It comes directly from the axioms - try
I have a proof for it:
0 absorbs multiplication so we can write 0 = 0*x for any x in your ring.
so 0 = 0*0 = (1 + -1)(1 + -1)
Since multiplication distributes over addition we get
0 = 1(1 + -1) + -1(1 + -1) = -1 + (-1)^2
and rearranging gives you 1 = (-1)^2
yes that's the way.
idk though I can't say it feels intuitive
what is your intuition for -1 . -1 = 1
in the integers
It is by definition, yes? From a hs/elementary schooler perspective
So I doubt there is intuition to be had - it is a consequence of how we have defined rings.
no there is intuition for it i think
i think that makes sense because numbers are vectors on a number line right, and multiplication is sort of the way you scale numbers on the line
e.g. 2 * 4 is saying to take the vector that is 2 away from 0 on the right, and scale it by a size of 4 which is 8 away from 0 on the right so that's +8
2 * -4 is saying to take the vector that is 2 away from 0 on the right, flip it's direction and scale it by 4 so that's 8 away from 0 on the left so that's -8
-1 * -1 says to take the vector that is 1 away from 0 on the left, flip it's direction and then scale it by 1 so that's 1 away from 0 on the right so that's +1
We can consider the R-module over R I suppose but idk about this...........
basically just saying the intuition is 1 and (-1).(-1) are both additive inverses for -1, and inverses are unique
which motivates the proof strat
quick question: is this really as simple as just defining an equivalence relation a~b iff HaK = HbK
You want to motivate (-1)*a = -a I suppose
well you need to show that that is an equivalence relation which is the work
although ye that is then easy by transitivity of equality
Better than a simple 'Yes'
Really, a missing aspect here is perhaps the well-definedness of that notation
What does it mean for a function to be well-defined?
x = y => f(x) = f(y)
wait so jus tinjective?
injective is the other implication
Oh
You want to show the function is defined on all elements of the domain too
f : R -> R
f(x) = 1/x
is not well-defined
I feel like your coset example was better, shuri
I'm too lazy to make it work
ye, this is still a partial function
take f(x+2Z) = x, this is not well defined
ah very good very good
the function here is well defined because the group operation is well defined
good example is like f(x) = 0 on even, 1 on odd and 2 on divisible by 3
you have 1+2Z = 3+2Z but f(1+2Z) = 1 and f(3+2Z) = 3, blunder...
oh ic
anyways, do we care about well-definedness here or does that not even matter with regards to this equivalence relation
I feel like it doesn't matter after all
well definedness of what
if a relation satisfies the properties it's an equiv. relation
Yh, I don't think welldefinedness comes into constructing this equivalence relation
I thought it did
well definedness of the double coset notation which will matter for other stuff
I guess you can kind of think of it as a function mapping two group elements to a boolean value - in which case it's definitely well defined (if it's an equivalence relation)
it is
this is true
but you try to define some operation in terms of a "representative" of a double coset
this is the biggest cause of something being not well defined
wews example showed this
you define operation on some set in terms of a representative
yeah
double quotient ๐ณ
every example I've seen of funny well definedness issues is when you're mapping from some space of representitives
f(alison) := im alison
but not all alisons might agree 
like quotients, tensor products, field of fractions, etc.
or something silly 
i need to meet my alt universe selves
alt+universe
on my bucket list
time for a lot of \Rightarrows
reverse implication is swag tier
it works if you remember they're different elements of H
yeah it's just the set H
uhhh lemme think
ye no reason not to work

sully me all you want it's the truth
if you do $h_1 g h_2 = g h_3 \leftrightarrow h_1 g = g h_3 h_2^{-1}$
all functions are alison
ok now it makes sense
closed under inverse
and h_3h_2^{-1} runs over H as h_3 and h_2 do
I'd write this rather than H^{-1}
yeah
I've never seen that before
but the swag
true the swag tho
I've seen it for sets
H is a set
ah you beat me to it
yeah I meant sets that are not subgroups
its super common to continue operations on elements to subsets (elements of the powerset)
funny matrix time
good exercise
dont think so
unless you consider matrix multiplication block multiplication
blocks of size 1
yeah
or size n i guess
horrifying
matrix decompositions are super important
agreed but they give me first year lin alg flashbacks
wew you should do linear algebra in Q_p vector spaces
lattice theory
and then teach it to me
loch I barely even understand the construction of Q_p
yes :chad:
actually
the metric on Q_p is discrete isn't it?
discrete?
like it can only take 1/p^n for some natural n
or am I talking nonsense
where did I read this
ah that's abs value
epic
the cool stuff though is its an ultrametric
so you have |a+b| <= min(|a|, |b|)
a stronger form of triangle inequality
and this gives you all kinds of weird stuff
anyways, i am just thinking
I've briefly seen ultra metrics
there is this computationally hard problem on computing a shortest vector in a lattice
and computers can do numerically exact computations on finite extensions of Q_p even with finite precision
so maybe i can build a meme cryptosystem based on shortest vector in some Q_p lattice
i am doing this now
lemme think about what I'm about to say just in case I'm missing something really obvious 
okay yea I'm dumb
I thought our hypothesis was for a quotient module
not a submodule
that makes much more sense
been attempting this
and the matrices aren't funny 
willing to pay $ for someone to write proofs for me dm me
most people will probably give you "left as an exercise to the reader" as a proof for everything

i think the trick here is to do it in like dimension 3 and then stare at it until you are convinced it works in the general case
that's just the trick for almost everything with matrices
also @hybrid island we do not support academic dishonesty, so i am assuming you were just looking for a tutor but even in that case we strongly advise against financial transactions
I've got it sort of now
it's related to column echelon 
finitely presented <=> representable by a finite matrix?
its just hw tho
i can't tell if there's similarities or if it's something more
that doesn't mean it isn't academic dishonesty
ur allowed to get outside help for the hws
then ask for help
help, not "doing proofs for you"
if that's not what you wanted, thta's why he said "So i am assuming ..."
but people won't do it for you
sry I don't want to spam but I don't know if this is the right way of going ab it
you're chill dw. I personally see handwritten text and ignore it though ๐ you might try TeX'ing it
If $[x]{12} = [x^{'}]{12}$, then $x^{'} = 12kx$ or $ x$. If $x^{'} = x$, clearly $f([x]{12}) = [x+1]{12} = [x^{'} + 1]{12} = f([x^{'}]).$ If $x^{'} $ does not $= x, f([x^{'}]{12}) = [x^{'}+1]{12} = [12kx^{'}+1] = [x+1]{12} = f([x]_{12})$, so the function is well defined
god damn it this is going to be pain
lmao, just remember that
$$this is a MATH statement on a new line$$
$this is an inline MATH statement$
everything else should be text outside
I'm pretty sure the morphism bit is right so i just need to know if this works to show that its well defined
Rishi
this escalated quickly
https://cdn.discordapp.com/attachments/359052581022203914/940656085893799936/unknown.png
can someone walk me thru this problem
i know the centralizer would be all elements of S4 that commute with (1,3,4)
right?
That sounds right to me but I'm not the best person to help here
Ok wait this isn't that bad I might be able to help
can u pls
so, there are only 16 elements you're worried about so bashing this out in the obvious way isn't that bad
maybe this helps: gx = xg iff gxg^{-1} = x right?
yeah
and you know gxg^{-1} = (g(1),g(3), g(4))
nope
x is (134) btw
oh
or sorry
ummm
I meant g^{-1} of all that
all of what
i dont get how you got this tbh
g is any element in s4?
yes
the idea is that we're counting g such that g^{-1}xg = x
the specific number doesnt actually matter
wouldnt what be that?
= (1,3,4)g
we have g(1,3,4)g^-1
yeah honestly i got no clue
okay, so, here's how I'd compute it: $$gxg^{-1}(g(1)) = (gx)(g^{-1}(g(1))) =gx(1) = g(3)$$
polybeandip
do you see how that works?
how did u get g(3) ?
x(1) = 3
from there, Id hope you can show g^{-1}xg = (g(1),g(3),g(4)). We want this to be equal to (1,3,4). So, there's three cases to consider.
would it be g(1) = 1 , 3, 4 and then just check if it it stays in the same order
yep
why would you not include the identity in the centralizer
@brisk granite could you check this tho
looks good technically to me though I think there's some redundancy
or actually, I think you meant x' = 12k + x
Oh thats a better way of writing it
well, what you wrote was not right
?
a \equiv b mod n means a-b is divisible by n so a = b + 12k
right
that is the same thing in different notation
ah yeah, he did what we said
ohh sorry
I see what you mean now
but yeah, your thing is confusing lol
wait hold up im still messed up with defining x prime though
also, Z_12 is like kinda bad notation and I think Z/12Z is preferred. There's conflict with p-adic stuff
Yeah the book defines it that way for rn though so I'm just leaving it
this was what we said before
if you want to prove that equality, then check that they represent the same function on [n]
i.e. plug in \sigma(1) and show it gets sent to sigma(3)
and so on
and show that everything other than sigma(1), sigma(3), sigma(4) is fixed
I think the first section for when x = x^\prime is redundant
the next part includes this case
Right I just had to add the plus in
it's when k = 0
because then k = 0 is just
yeah
I'm writing up my answers instead of latex rn tho so I'm just leaving it
I don't think they'll be mad if its inefficient as long as its correct
thanks
you shouldn't keep redundant sections of an argument
I get that
I'll just cross it out then
yeah I don't know how helpful I can be with this
But all abelian subgroups have to have a conjugate g^{-1}hg= h (and this comes from the fact that all abelian subgroups are normal subgroups)
Since the centralizer has to be abelian
you get that
my final is on tues
O.o
im so fucked
these last 10 weeks
have been hell for me
cause idk anything that goes on in this class
im not even a math major
Rip
"Note that if F is the prime subfield of K then Aut(K) = Aut(K/F) since every automorphism of K automatically fixes F". I don't understand why an automorphism of K necessarily needs to fix its prime field. Doesnt the prime field itself sometimes have automorphisms?
the prime subfield is the one generated by 1
oh and 1 would need to go to 1
ok ok i see i was thinking of group automorphisms not field automorphisms when i said that
totally different
Is the function from $[x]{8}$ to $[x]{2}$ a morphism?
Rishi
why not?
Honestly its the modular arithmetic at this point killing me
Isn't it that f(3 mod 8)f(5 mod 8) goes to 1 mod 2 times 1 mod 2
wait thats just 1 isn't it
your group operations are addition btw
If this is all the problem gives you, then presumably you're working with a map from Z/8Z to Z/2Z
Yes
Well it wants me to verify if its well-defined and then if its a morphism
and then if its a morphism to find the kernel and image
Tell us what 'f is well-defined' means.
a = b implies f(a) = f(b)
where does addition and multiplication come into this
there is no addition or multiplication
.
Nono I already checked that
You sure didn't make that clear.
My bad
that's how we got here tho
Does my group operation need to be addition to check if its a morphism
or could I use multiplication instead
So I need to use addition here
Yes.
Is it supposed to be that the operation is implied depending on the map?
yes.
no
implied from the group
Z/nZ is viewed as a group under addition unless stated otherwise
Oh
This will never even be a group under multiplication
without some adjustments
You should realise this.
Well it makes sense that my answers didn't make sense then
Why is Z/nZ not a group under multiplication?
Would you not have an inverse?
I'm not sure tbh

Could we look a specific example to make it easier
well have a think
Ok
k
Ok so 2 and 3 here would have inverses of each other because they give 0
1 is the identity under multiplication
assuming we're using multiplication for contradiction right?
Check that.
.
Indeed, before even considering inverses of elements
you must first identify the identity
correctly
1
yes
Its obviously closed so thats fine
oh my bad 2 and 3 wouldn't be inverses then
Its impossible for 5 to have an inverse
so its not a group
@coral shale is my reasoning right now?
very sus.

