#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 693 of 407
yet another example why people who reject choice are insane
nLab 
You can do a lot of good math by studying things which are weaker than choice
non-free vector spaces 
Not quite what I'm talking about
You should be able to get analogous results for subvector spaces of bounded complexity (in the sense of Computability) to be free with a basis of bounded complexity
So you can do math with weaker stuff and you get weaker results, but how weak they are is related to the strength of your replacement for choice
why would you want weaker results, though?
Can someone clarify some category theory stuff for me?
In arbitrary categories, a functor F is left exact if and only if it commutes with finite limits (by definition)
For abelian categories, this is equivalent to showing that F commutes with taking kernels and direct sums
This then implies that given a SEQ 0 -> A -> B -> C -> 0, we have the exact sequence 0 -> F(A) -> F(B) -> F(C)
My question is, lets say F is a functor between categories satisfying the property that 0 -> A -> B -> C -> 0 being exact implies 0 -> F(A) -> F(B) -> F(C) is exact
Does that then imply that F is left exact (it clearly would commute with taking kernels, but I am not so sure about the direct sum)?
I feel like this should be true as (left) exactness is often defined as: F is said the be left exact if 0 -> A -> B -> C -> 0 being exact implies 0 -> F(A) -> F(B) -> F(C) is exact
this is the actual definition of left exact
at least in every single treatment of exactness I've seen
I would say that the other definition is what you show is equivalent
I can see why the definition involving limits would be preferred since it generalizes to all categories
But let's try something that might be easier first
Say F preserves SES, then can we conclude that F preserves direct sums?
I don't see how this is the case
Even finite direct sums
We would need some sort of projective condition on all but one of the summands
Ah I think I get why the direct sum property is neccessary
If a short exact sequence splits and has a section, can't you push the section to the F short exact sequence
It's probably there to ensure that F takes 0 to 0
Yeah you can
But general SES don't have to split
Emma
Yep
But I think the sum being infinite might mess with that? Same with F being just left exact
Yes, definitely
Okay I found this
Since the corollary is not and if and only if, I don't think that the definition that Chmonkey gave is equivalent to mine
It is certainly implied by mine though
You mean stronger?
Something that Chmonkey would call left exact would also need to satisfy the direct sum thing for me to call it left exact
Oh I see now
I think you're a little off
One sec
Yeah I was being silly above
About it being stronger, I misread something
I think your definitions are equivalent actually
Oh?
One sec
Take your time
Okay in the case of a section existing we know that a left exact functor will preserve the entire exact sequence
$0\to A \to A\oplus B \to B\to 0$
Emma
If $i:B\to A\oplus B$ is a section then pushing it forward should still give you a section
Emma
Which should give you a map from F(B) to F(A\oplus B), which shows that the map F(A\oplus B) \to B is surjective
Ok yeah
So it's exploiting the definition of products in terms of sections
Yeah that's not going to happen
I see
When they say direct sum in the definition, they just mean applying it as a binary operation
Not arbitrary direct sums
Are you sure?
They are very particular about specifying finiteness conditions
For example, they use finite limits/colimits
They are specifying it by just saying that you preserve the operation A\oplus B
As a binary operation
You are interpreting it as indexed direct sums
👍
hello
anyone know how specifically how much set theory will be necessary?
and if it might be in that pdf
@magic owl
That's probably overkill
You should know what all of those symbols mean
And know basic arguments like how to prove two sets are the same etc
ah
yeah that pdf is definitely overkill for dummit & foote
I know this wasn't your question, but I have other books for algebra that I think are better
i’m fine with overkill
shoot
Aluffi's Algebra Chapter 0
That one even has a short intro to set theory and category theory
I can dm you the pdf if you would like
i think it should be on libgen
Yeah it is
“suitable for a first sequence on the subject at the beginning graduate or upper undergraduate level”
what are prerequisites?
I don't think any prerquisites except "mathematical maturity"
I.E. you can write and follow mathematical arguments
I.e. baby rudin?
I don't understand what you're trying to say
If you mean that you have done baby rudin and you are asking if that is enough of a prereq, then the answe is yes
Even though I have never touched that book cause its on real analysis
i mean your uoft pdf here is also supposedly meant for a grad course so if you were thinking about diving into that then you should be alright for aluffi too
it is pretty fun
My problem with Dummit and Foote is that it is really dry and a lot of the arguments in it can be simplified a lot using basic category theory
classes wise what does this cover?
This class should prepare you for an algebra qual and then some
quals are exams that phd students take during their first few years
The book is not dense at all
It has like 800 pages
would you mind sending me a copy - the category lens intrigues me lol
Easy or difficult depends on the individual so i can't really say
I know that I would find baby rudin to be much harder than Aluffi
The content is fairly in depth
The only topic that I feel like is not explored much is infinite galois theory
Post them here?
Look on MSE
ah
this would be rather good to know
Yeah. At most universities, you can take the qual as an undergrad too and if you get a high pass that looks really good on your grad school application
are you getting a phd?
It would be pretty cool if qual results transferred, but I would be very surprised if they did
Eventually
right now I'm a junior
i assume a college junior?
which UW are you referring to, I go to a UW but its probably a different one lol
yeah

Can*da
Why is it that if I have a center of index n, I cannot have a conjugacy class with more than n elements?
Does it have to do with the cosets of the center of the group?
Let G act on the cosets of Z(G) by congugation. Then the stabilizer of each x is going to contain the center, so the stabilizer has index dividing n. By the orbit stabilizer theorem each orbit will be of size <=n. You can then show that conjugacy classes in G get mapped bijectively to orbits in G/Z(G) under the quotient map
Thank you
Or maybe a nicer way of doing this would be
Since Z(G) is normal in G, every element in G can be written as mg_i where g_i is a representative of the ith coset and m is in Z(G). Then if you take an element x of G and look at all the possible congugations, you have (mg_i)^{-1}x(mg_i)=g_i^{-1}xg_i, so any congugacy class can be determined by choosing one representative of each of the n cosets and just congugating by that @chilly ocean
Yeah, I need to spend more time learning to use group actions and getting comfortable with cosets, but thank you!
the equivalent class containing (x, y)
G is the subgroup generated by all elements of the form 1) or 2) or 3)
Subgroup of abelian group is normal so you can take quotient
Right but [x, y] is an equivalence class of Z[M, N]/G where G has elements of these 3 forms
But those 3 forms are defined by equivalence classes themselves which seems circular
[x,y] is not equialence classes
Z[M x N] is a free Z-module
with basis element of the form [x,y] with x in M, y in N
Z[M x N] are formal sums of the elements [x,y]
Let R be a commutative ring. Prove that N = {all x in R | x^k=0 for some natural number k} is a subring of R.
The above statement uses the defn of a ring without 1 right?
And it is convention to define a^0 as 1 isn't it?
Where a is an element in the ring
yeah I think this is a ring without 1
units can't be nilpotent and 1 is clearly a unit (unless the ring is trivial)
It is an ideal though, the nilradical, if ur interested tho
Yeah I can see that
trivial ring = {0} right? 0=1 is a unit in this case too, no?
Determine the degrees of the irreducible factors of $f = X^{11} -1$ in $\mathbb{F}5$ and $\mathbb{F}{25}$. How do I solve this?
Évariste Galois
Is there a program I can use to find the answer?
🤷♂️
I tried using sage but for some reason I cant manage to factor it over a finite field
it just factors in Q
So you find like smallest n sich that 5^n = 1 mod 11

hmm ok
im confused
you have to make a kind of finite field object and make your polynomial an element of that I believe
why is this helpful???
I tried to, but when i do f in R where R is my finite field it says false
sowwy my internet wasn't being nice to me >.<
im using the same variable too
idk sounds like a programming problem at this point to search through to work it out
if I had time I'd look into it more
if this happens then you know that x^11 - 1 divides x^(5^n) - x, and we understand how the latter thing factors nicely

the factorization of x^(q^n) - x over F_q is the product of all monic irreducibles of degree d dividing n
interesting, the program I used only factored it into 3 things of deg 1, 5, 5
I use pari gp
ah ok let me check it out
I... have yet to see this in my course I suppose. Next section I think
damn i was really hoping to get that right, in all fairness it was so long i had like 3 minutes to do it
so if you assume this, then
you see that x^11 - 1 would factor into irreducibles with degree dividing n = 5
but the rest went very good
I see, I would not have come up with it on the spot
here's how you can do it for the F_5 case in pari gp, the second thing is just lifting it to clean it up
Thanks!
for the higher finite fields k>1 you gotta construct it a little differently
cause it's not mod 25 obviously
ok ill check it out
wait it isnt working, It open terminal but I cant type anything lol
idk can't help you there
also I should mention the pari library is part of sagemath btw
ah
so anything you can do in gp you can do in sagemath
but I kind of hate fumbling around with sagemath sometimes
alright, thanks 🙂
Anyone know the formulas for quadratic/exponential/logistic regressions to be done by hand?
Question: If G is a group (can be infinite) with an abelian subgroup A such that |G:A| = 5, how to see that G is not simple. The 5 sticks out like a sore thumb and immediately suggests that we look at the action of G on the cosets of A, so we see |G:ker| divides 5!, but what can we deduce from this?
It seems if |G| > 5!, we already see this kernel is nontrivial, so G is not simple, but the issue is if G is small
how would it generate N if it wasn't in it
you need g(x) to be in N, for the ideal generated by it to be N
Why..
ok that kinda makes me think you don't really get what "generated by" means, no offense
can you recall what it means for an ideal to be generated by some elements?
I know what generate by means..
ok then it should be trivial
<a> includes a1=a
$\langle g(x) \rangle$ is by definition the smallest ideal contaning $g(x)$, so if $N = \langle g(x) \rangle$ then $N$ contains $g(x)$ by definition
Nick
Being simple means that any kernel must be G or 0. This homomorphism from G to S_5 will have kernel G only if A is normal
so then what's your confusion?
Oh one sec, maybe what I'm saying is way too strong
Yeah it is
Because you can't act by congugation in general
I have a related question to this. If I know A is an abelian subgroup of G with order A | 4!, and 5 divides |G|, with |G:A| =5, is it true that G = C x A where C is a cyclic group of order 5?
Why can we see that the kernel is nontrivial?
What action are you using? You can't do action by congugation unless your subgroup is normal
By right action
And where does the abelian come in?
We do not need abelian when |G|>5!. We consider the action of G on the cosets of A
Let phi: G \to S_5 be right action of G on the (five) cosets of A since G:A = 5
We can consider them as right cosets. Well if we want to work with left cosets, lets just use the left action
but the idea is the same
So G/ker(phi) is isomorphic to the image which is a subgroup of S_5
if |G| >5!, this kernel >1
But why can't the kernel be G
because the kernel left action on a proper subgroup can not be all of G
np, so the only case that needs to be dealt with is if G is small, that is |G| < 5!, and I think that A abelian must play a part in this case
since we did not use it before
Certainly, we know 5 divides G, so A is an abelian subgroup of G where A | 4!
and G | 5!
Seems like some Sylow trickery is going on here
if we had unique sylow groups we are good
Okay let's do some Sylow then
Hmm, what if we loosened the statement, to G is not necessaily nonsimple, but there exists a normal subgroup (\neq 1) in G
You can just say that A is not 0 or G
To avoid that case
Which is a very reasonable assumption
Yea, lets go with that
Also this is the definition of nonsimple
Simple groups have no nontrivial normal subgroups, where nontrivial means not 1 or the whole group right?
here we allow the whole group
Well you wouldn't want that
Yes
Okay so a counting argument should work
Let's look at the factors of 4! That are 1 mod 5
Wait, just knowing a sylow 5 group is cyclic (thus abelian) is not enough to give normality right?
So you're looking at the factors of 4! mod 5 to see if this sylow 5 group is unique?
The only one that's 1 mod 5 is 6
Yeah
So if there isn't 1 Sylow 5 group there are 6 of them
yes
wait i don't following that? I know the sylow 5 groups are all isomorphic
So they are all prime cyclic
so we have 6 sylow 5 groups
So every non identity element generates
Therefore there can't be any nontrivial intersection between the Sylow 5 groups
So that means if two sylow 5 groups share a nonidentity element, those two groups must be the same
Yes
This is a pretty standard technique for Sylow arguments
So it's good to see it
Okay so we have exactly 24 elements of order 5
So none of those eleemnts can be in A, since A|4!
Yes
Okay I think A being abelian is pretty interesting actually
Let's think about that
Okay so fix an element g of order 5. Then every element in G is of the form (g^i a) for some a in A
Then let's say you have a Sylow 3 subgroup in A. Then congugating by (g^i a) will be the same as congugating by g^i
Because A is abelian
Because G:A = 5, so A, gA, g^2 A , g^3 A ..., g^5 A gives you the parition of G?
Yes
Okay so we have only 5 possible congugations of the Sylow 3 subgroup
So that's pretty interesting
I think that should give you n_3 is 1
Because 5 is not 1 mod 3
Yeah that does it
You don't need to do the counting argument
What it can happen that A does not have a sylow 3 group
What if |A| = 2* 4?
Sorry I already discounted that case
Because we know n_5 has to be 6
Because no other option is 1 mod 5
I did that in my head but didn't say it out loud lol
yes, so the abelianness of A is only used here: Then let's say you have a Sylow 3 subgroup in A. Then congugating by (g^i a) will be the same as congugating by g^i
Because A is abelian
Yes
So I see that, buthow does this imply that the Sylow 3 group in A has exactly 5 congjugatons
But if we already know that 3|A in our case, and A|4!, then the only things =1 mod 3 are 1, right, so isn't this sylow 3 group unique
So this definitely shows that there are at most 5 congugations
without any call to the abelianess of A
nvm 4 = 1 mod 3
You also need the 5
You have to look for 1 mod 3 in 5!
Because obviously there's only 1 Sylow 3 subgroup in A
But there can be other copies of A that you find by congugating A
But yeah also 4
Okay anyway so we know there are at most 5 possible congugations, and if g^i (for i not 0) fixes your Sylow 3 subgroup under congugation, then every g^i does
So therefore either every g^i fixes your Sylow 3 subgroup (ie it is normal) or there are 5 distinct ones
But that is only true if the sylow 3 subgroup of A is unique right?
Yeah but that's true because abelian
Hmm
Maybe you can do this easier
Yeah I think you can state this a lot easier than I just did
Do you get my argument though?
Oh yes, because A is abelian, every subgroup is normal in A, so sylow 3 group is normal in A, it is unique
because all sylow groups are obtained under conjugation
Why does it not immediately imply this sylow 3 group is also normal in G?
We know it is normal in A
Well my argument uses that to show that it's also normal in G
But you need to use something more than just being normal in an abelian subgroup
So you argue that g^i either fixes this sylow 3 group. then this sylow 3 is normal in G, I see this. However I still am having trouble with the 5 disticnt sylow 3 group case
I think maybe there's a theorem saying that if A a subgroup of G of index k, then n_p for G divides k times n_p for A
That would be nice
hmm perhaps. I think these ought to be a simpler elementary reason tho xD
Sure
Okay let Z/5 act on the Sylow 3 subgroups by congugation
Then you are done
Because there can't be 5 of them
And otherwise Z/5 must be the trivial action
I think this is a nicer way of saying it
Hmm, why can't there be 5 conjugates?
Because n_3 is 1 mod 3
yes this is good, i see it now
Okay cool
ty
Okay, I am trying to work on part (c), and I have no idea where to go with this. My prof says we can easily find the rest of the roots using a^3=t, but I've been trying and I am extremely stuck
...nevermind. I was trying to dig for another root, but alpha was the only root -_-
There is a homomorphism $\mathbb{I}_m \to \mathbb{Z}$ defined by $[a] \mapsto a$ - does this statement look true? i think it is but idk
since |A| = sup |Ax|/|x| then it's bigger than all x, so you can write that as an inequality |A| >= |Ax|/|x|
ignore the stupid notation I_m is just integers mod m my textbook is weird
so if you rewrite it like |Ax| <= |A| |x| that's how they apply it, twice
μ₂ (46/47 🪲)
A is an abelian subgroup , abelian subgroup is always normal
is it normal to say "cosets of a subgroup"
or should is the of a subgrp implied
It follows naturally that the cosets of any subgroup of an abelian group are also abelian.this is my sentence
damn chillgebra dead today
You should say subrgroup
But also like wdym?
A coset unless the trivial coset isn’t a group
So they can’t be abelian
All subgroups of an abelian group are normal
You can quotient by any subgroup
The resulting quotient group may or may not be abelian, prove it 
If you mean like the set of cosets (aka the quotient)
That’s different than what you said
Yeah I don’t know what a coset being abelian means
$\trianglelefteq$
Use this symbol to denote normal subgroup
oop
yeah it's mistaken i forget cosets aren't necessarily groups, it's the set of cosets i should be thinking about
i'll rephrase one sec
the set of cosets are precisely what make up the quotient group if these are cosets of a normal subgroup
Just say G/H is abelian.
isn't that kinda just restating the claim tho
huh?
Well yeah, you write that at the end of your proof
I don't get it actually
"It follows......." I do not see how it follows
it just does
or I don't know what you want to follow
proof by obviousness 👍
okok one sec
actually this should be enough right
the first equality is true bc H is a normal subgroup
ok.
If you're going to invest words in this proof, I would invest them in the reasoning behind each equality
not in that introductory paragraph.
Let G abelian. Let H =< G.
Then H is abelian, so H =<| G.Since G abelian, H =<| G. Then forall x, y in G ...
You can write proper sentences unlike me, but you can cut down on a lot of words there
Technically, for that exact claim
You don't need to start with an arbritrary subgroup H
You should instead start with G abelian, G/H a quotient group with H normal.
You shouldn’t say “so” here
Because H being normal doesn’t follow from H being abelian, it follows from G being abelian
there's also $\forall$ which actually looks so cool
valley
the symbol deserves to be used tho
noo it flows so much better than "forall"
It is universally considered bad form to use the symbolic for all and there exists
Unless you’re writing a first order sentence
Or like doing logic
kek
I know.
But in my opinion, bad use of english leads to ambiguity
It's slightly harder to use those symbols incorrectly (but it can happen, ig)
Replacing the word “for all” in a sentence with a symbol doesn’t change that at all
fetishizing mathematical symbols is cringe don't do it
That is true.
If you write an entire statement symbolically for a logic course
Then it is appropriate
But if your sentence was ambiguous with the word “for all” it’s ambiguous with \forall
But I see people writing statement forall ....
ie. they put the quantifier at the end
then somewhere along the lines they write
quantifier statement quantifier
$\varpi$
Brofibration
(probably referring to epsilon delta statements)
and I go wtf does this even mean
How do I put it - it isn't clear in words this is problematic. Gramatically it might make sense.
In symbols, at least for me, I was taught to put the quantifiers at the start . . .
Yh like I have seen this appear in my notes and I think it is terrible. How to phrase statements unambiguously... or how to use symbols properly... either of these things need to be enforced, and to me, the 2nd seems more natural to teach.
given f*:Spec B_q -> Spec A_p is f*(Spec(B_q))=V(B-q) = B-V(q)?
im trying to do atiyah macdonald chap 5 exercise 10
did you mean to write f*(Spec(B_q)) = A-V(p)?
thats more an issue of reading comprehension than an issue of whether we should use symbols over english
many times for ease of communication we state a property before quantifying the variables involved
insisting on always using symbols puts needless rigidity on communication, and is harsh on many eyes
Hmm...
Since the rank is 2, there are two linearly independent rows.
However, note that it doesn't say which two rows.
So, consider the 3x3 identity matrix I.
Let I' denote the matrix obtained by deleting the top-most 1 in I.
Let I'' denote the matrix obtained by deleting the bottom-most 1 in I.
Both I' and I'' have rank 2.
However, is the rank of a linear combination of I' and I'' necessarily 2?
Heck, there's an even simpler example:
Let M have rank 2.
If the set of all such matrices forms a vector space, it should contain a zero element.
That is, multiplying any element of the space by 0 should give the zero elements of the space.
However, 0 x M is the zero matrix.
And that has rank 0.
So, the answer is (d), none, because the set of all rank 2 matrices of dimension 3 x 3 fails to be a vector space.
yes? There are two linearly independent vectors remaining so the rank is supposed to be 2?
No.
Add them together.
But that's a non-issue.
ok questions
The simplest explanation is that the zero matrix does not have rank 2.
Thus, we don't have a vector space.
I've encountered this adding of matrices to check if its still in the right form...for instance
the solution says if we add two matrices of det 0 then it need not be a matrix with det 0
so its not a subspace
but the definition of subspace is
- w1-w2 ∈ F
- ⍺w ∈ W
or simply
⍺w1+ beta w2 ∈ W
so why are we adding to check if its still the correct one? shouldnt we subtract?
Subtraction is just addition when beta is -1
true that
it was not mentioned in my reference book :/
Well, it is technically implies by (2).
But it is usually important enough to be worth stating on its own. xD
Anyhow, that's how you solve the problem: the set of rank 2 matrices isn't closed under scalar multiplication.
Thus, it cannot be a vector space, and so it has no dimension.
Does that make sense?
it does
Excellent.
so if I add these two matrices I may get a matrix with rank 3
Yes.
interesting
A simpler example: break the identity matrix into 3 matrices, each with a single 1.
The three individual matrices all have rank 1.
But their sum has rank 3.
yes
about this
just confirming that I can use these conditions to check if the given something is a vector space or not
cuz the definition is for subspace...a subset has to be a vector space itself to be a subspace so I suppose it can?
yes as long as we're given a parent space (subsets inherit its operations)
got it...thanks guys
since vector spaces must be nonempty (contains in particular the 0 vector), there should be a 3rd condition there, W is nonempty/contains 0
okay ill add
I know that dimension of symmetric matrices is n(n+1)/2 and that of skew-symmetric matrices is n(n-1)/2
<@&286206848099549185>
if A^T=-A and the diagonal is fixed under transpose then what does that mean about the diagonal?
not sure
it should be A^T=A since its symmetric?
think about this
?
trace is always same?
?
,w sum (n-1-k) from k = 0 to n-1
then add one

noice
can you explain?
take an n by n matrix in your vector space
ok..
i’m going to construct a basis for this space.
let E(ij) be the matrix with a 1 in row i column j and a 1 in row h column i, zero everywhere else
a basis for this space is the set
{E(ij) : 1 <= i < j <= n } U {I_n}
show that this is a basis. try and understand why. then count how many basis elements there are
yeah
~~Say you have an integral domain A, a finitely generated ideal I = (f_1,...,f_n) of A[x], and a polynomial f of degree <= d. Then f in (f_1,...,f_n) iff f = g_1 f_1 +... + g_n f_n for polynomials g_i of degree <= d. Let P_k be the free A-module of polynomials of degree <= d and N the maximum degree of any f_i. Then the map T : P^n -> P_{dN} defined by T(g1,...,gn) = f1 g1 + ... + fn gn is linear, and f in (f1,...,fn) iff f in im T.
Is there a result in basic linear algebra that gives me a polynomial p in the coefficients of f (the "output vector") and the f_i (the coefficients of the matrix T) such that p = 0 iff f in im T?~~ just read my next post lol
So okay my question is actually: let A be an integral domain and say you have free modules V = A^n, W = A^m over A, a linear map T : V -> W, and a vector w in W. Is there a polynomial p in the entries of the matrix T and the coefficients of w such that p = 0 iff w in im T?
(p should be an integer coefficient polynomial depending only on the numbers n, m)
We can pass to the field of fractions of A (tensor everything with the field of fractions, im T is preserved bc tensor product right exact)
So now this is honest linear algebra
So now I'm wondering if you have vector spaces V = k^n and W = k^m, a matrix A : V -> W, and a vector w in W, is there a polynomial in the coefficients of w and A which vanishes iff w is in the image of A
Oh wait umm should it be nonvanishing? Either one is probably good
Oh wait yeah
Check if in column space
Is asking about linear dependence
Like let B be A but we adjoin w as a column
I'm trying to figure out how to use determinant here
I got it one sec
Now w in im A = columnspace of A iff B has linearly dependent columns
Er
Wait no...
That assumes the columns of B are already linearly dependent
what is B?
Oh shoot I reused the letter A
For the matrix and the ring
Oh but the ring is out of scope nvm
B is A but we add in w as a column
if A starts out with column rank r
Then w in im A iff B still has column rank r
right?
Otherwise im A + span w would increase in dimension
So
you can test a bound on the rank by polynomials
But it's only an upper bound
The rank of B is the largest s such that B has an invertible s by s submatrix
So rank B <= r iff all minors of size r vanish?
(minor = determinant of submatrix to be clear)
The issue is like umm
How exactly does this work in A?
Like r sort of depends on A once we passed to the field of fractions
and I wanted a polynomial independent on the underlying ring
like the image of a matrix might not be a free module to start out
Sorry @woven delta lmk if I'm being confusing I've been thinking about this for a whild and I'm starting to get twisted up about things
Does somebody know the proof for 8 alpha?
no this is fine
I think the associativity is kind of just a garbage computation
From what I remember
I'm just processing the situation
Like it comes down to associativity of xor of boolean a
Which you can prove by a truth table
Does what I'm saying make sense?
Every time I do it, I get awfully close to proving it.
So think of this
Wanna see what I did?
Sure
use a truth table, not symbols
,rotate
So @dreamy geyser I have a suggestion
Show this by elements
Not by set theory algebra
but theres got to be a way to do it symbolically right? 😔
There definitely is
yes but it’s gross, as you can see
Express everything in conjunctive normal form
breh
I'm just saying there's a mechanical way to check this
Bc there's a normal form for propositions
So you can just reduce both sides
I'm not saying you should do this
Truth table is better
what does conjunctive normal form mean? (im new to abstract algebra and im self learning)
Yeah no worries
If you have propositions p, q, r
Like p = "x is in A"
and you combine them using the boolean operators ¬, and, or
You can write it as a bunch of "and"s of "or"s of the propositions p, q, r, ¬p, ¬q, ¬r
So x in A * (B * C) is equivalent to (x in A or x in B*C) and not (x in A and x in B*C)
Right?
you could also convince yourself that x is in A * (B*C) iff it’s in an odd number of the sets A,B, or C (sry sham for interrupting)
I'm saying $A\ast (B\ast C) = (A \cup (B\ast C))\cap (A \cap (B\ast C)^c)$
Hom(-, Shamrock)
And then you can expand B * C the same way
You get some "boolean combination" of the sets A, B, C
using complements, intersection, and union
And then you write this as an intersection of unions of A, B, C or their complements
You do this to both A * (B * C) and (A * B) * C and you'll get the same thing up to commutativity of and and or
Np. Also I'm not endorsing the solution I'm giving, a truth table or what you said here is better
(also a truth table is implicitly giving you a disjunctive normal form)
was just about to say that lol
pick a spanning set for the image of A as a function of the coefficients of A (just the columns). for a fixed w you take rank(A)-1 many of the column vectors, throw them into a matrix with w, and take the determinant. add up all the determinants squared
for each subset of the spanning set of size r-1
What would squaring the determinants do?
Okay so it might be good for me to explain why I was this lol
to avoid negative entries in the sum
We're over an arbitrary field (or integral domain) though
oh oof
yeah that's silly
there are ways to do a similar thing with irreducible polynomials
but idk how general that is
So I have an integral domain A and a finitely generated ideal I = (f1,...,fn) and an element f of A[x] not in I. I want to find an element a in A such that for any map φ : A -> K into an algebraically close field, φ(a) ≠ 0 implies φ(f) isn't in the ideal (φ(f1),...,φ(fn))
I thought you could take a to be a polynomial dependent on that linear map I described here
And then since it's a polynomial, φ(that polynomial) = that polynomial applied to φ(f) and φ(fi)
so if I can get a polynomial that measures whether f in (f1,...,fn) I'm golden
but it needs to work both in A and K without knowing anything about K
So I can't really compute the rank
Which is awkward
Although I guess the map φ can only drop the rank the matrix whose columns are the coefficients of the fi?
That's not even true lol
I think I figured out how to state this? For fixed n, m, is there an integer polynomial p in variables x_{i, j} for 1 <= i <= n and 1 <= j <= m and y_j for 1 <= j <= m such that for every integral domain A, matrix T : A^n -> A^m, and vector w in A^m we have w in im T implies p(x_{i, j} = ijth coeff of T, y_j = jth coeff of w) = 0
I think that's a clearer statement of what I want
Now if p works for all fields A it also works for all integral domains
so it's okay to assume A is a field
but p can't depend on the rank of T
By how quantifiers work
okay if we have a irreducible polynomial $p(x)=a_nxx^n+a_{n-1}x^{n-1}+...+a_0$ and you homogenize via $F(x,y)=y^np(x/y)$ and plug in two polynomials f and g for x and y, then you get $F(f,g)$ is 0 iff both f and g are 0
Emma
that's something that may help in terms of what I was thinking of before
This is true, but the field might be algebraically closed, in which case F(x, y) = x-y
yes
yeah but it works in every other case
I'm confused about where F comes in
it's homogenizing p
Where does it come in for this problem?
Oh you want something which vanishes iff two given polynomials vanish?
yeah
Yeah this is possible iff the base field is non algebraically closed
Ultra was giving this problem out earlier
Like a couple weeks ago
yeah I know
Ah sorry
no worries
okay so sum over all minors and compute the determinant of each minor. If that determinant is nonzero and all the minors of higher dimension have determinant 0 then we have found a basis for the image. (think about how you would do this) then we take such a basis, add in w, and look at the determinants of all the minors of the size of the basis
the thing I'm designing here is very unwieldy and I'm relying on some things we may not be able to do. However hopefully I think you can find the rank of the matrix inside the polynomial to some extent
I guess if I could build logical symbols inside polynomials that would help with this approach
yeah
right
yeah I think so too
And we should allow ourselves to use the rank of the matrix in the original integral domain
(ie its rank after tensoring with the field of fractions)
Okay so
We have an integral domain A
And a linear map T : A^n -> A^m
And a vector w in A^m
okay so I think in this case my plan goes through
I want a polynomial p in A[xij, yj] such that for any field K with φ : A -> K, we have φ(f) (×) 1_K in im(T (×) id_K) iff p vanishes when we evaluate it at the coefficients of the matrix T (×) id_K : K^n -> K^m and w (×) 1_K in K^m
I think this is the appropriate level of generality
What plan?
oh lol
Sorry haha
This is a really technical commutative algebra thing for chevalley's theorem (the version for finite type maps of noetherian schemes, so you can't prove it using quantifier elimination of ACF)
So I'm still figuring out what the appropriate lemma is
yeah nevermind I was using the integral domain being fixed
and also that it isn't algebraically closed
Yeah sorry
but in that case I'll outline the plan
So like, we have a rank r of A (ie the rank after tensoring with the field of fractions of A)
Sure
so you take all the minors of the appropriate rank and take the determinant of them, which you use to indicate when you have a basis or not. Then you append w to the full column vectors from the minor, look at all the rank+1 minors and check to see if that determinant is 0
Ah yeah that makes sense
and then you use the existence of a polynomial in 2 variables that is 0 iff all of it's inputs are 0
Yeah I'm starting to think maybe it's okay to have multiple polynomials
And AND them
But I'm still a little fuzzy
Yeah it's totally fine
okay well great
So the issue with extending this to a field over A
Is whether the rank r of A changes
If it doesn't change we're fine, but I find that highly suspicious
Like 2 vanishes if we kill off 2
right so before I was trying to encode that into the polynomial
because I wanted to say that if you aren't of the highest rank so that every minor of higher rank has determinant 0 you should be 0
but maybe I don't need to do that
we in lattice mode
(because we have and and or but not negation)
lol
could someone help me parse this problem? isnt <(1,1)> ={(1, 1), (2, 0), (3, 1), (4, 0)...}?
Right so take A = Z and T the matrix with columns [1 2] and [1 0]. Let K = F2. Then the rank of T drops from 2 to 1 as we push it under φ
Don't forget (-n, n mod 2) also
Do you know what a coset is?
I do but I find them really hard lol
havent really grasped the concept fully if I am being honest
okay let's work some more on encoding the rank
is there a polynomial that can never be 1 and is 0 at 0?
oh right
fundamental theorem of algebra

So the question is saying we have a subgroup H = <(1,1)>, let's look at all the sets x + H for Z in Z×Z/2Z
Sometimes we'll have x + H = y + H but x ≠ y, eg x = (1,1) and y = (2,0)
so find a set of x-es such that x + H is never equal to any other x' + H (for x' in your chosen set not equal to x) but for any y in Z×Z/2Z there's an x with x + H = y + H
Does that make sense @chilly ocean ?
okay no I got it
hype
take x^2+x and x. Then x^2+x=x only when x=0 no matter what field you live in
x is in Z I assume?
No, x is in Z×Z/2Z
so you can use this to detect when something is nonzero
I'm not sure what you mean
same
omg I am an idiot lol, I forgot that ZxZ/2Z also has (1,1) and (1,0) so it makes sense
Okay so
Here's my original hint from Hartshorne:
Show that for any (noetherian) integral domain A and ideal I = (f1,...,fn) of A[x], for any polynomial f(x) not in I there's an element a in A such that for each map φ : A -> K into an algebraically closed field K with φ(a) ≠ 0 there's an element c of K such that φ(fi)(c) = 0 for all i but φ(f)(c) ≠ 0
So we can actually have a finite number of a's
Because we can take their product
a1...an ≠ 0 if ai ≠ 0 for all i
So start with all the nonzero minors of the matrix T
Know we can assume T still has rank r over K!
So we can a to be the product of all the nonzero minors of the matrix you get by adjoining the coefficients of f as a column vector to the matrix of the map T(g1,..,gn) = f1 g1 +... + fn gn from (polynomials of degree <= deg f) to (polynomials of degree <= (deg f)*(max_x deg fi))
Then if φ(a) is nonzero
We know the map T will still not have f in its image
Because if it did then the rank of the matrix where you adjoin f as a column vector would have to drop in rank after applying φ

so I guess going back to the original setting is good
Yeah sorry
because that let you disregard the rank issue
Yeah
and we weren't doing anything special to fields
Right
Well I kind of am
I'm thinking of things happening in the field of fractions of A to justify the rank -> nonvanishing minor thing
And the codomain is a field
from (polynomials of degree <= deg f)
why is that the upper bound?
oh I think I see
You mean why does f in (f1,...,fn) imply f = g1 f1 +... + gn fn for polynomials gi of degree <= deg f?
no actually I don't
Thinking
Yeah I thought I had an argument but it relied on all the gi fi having different degrees or something
hmm
okay I'm going to sleep
okay cool
I just need a bound on the deg gi
have a good night
@latent anvil would x = (0, 1)?
You're going to need more than one x
you want a set S such that for every y in Z×Z/2Z, there's a unique(!) x in S with y + H = x + H
Where H = <(1,1)>
So if you took S to be just {(0,1)} we would be able to find an x for y = (1,1)
Does that make sense?
but doesnt <(1,1)> already give us half of ZxZ/2Z?
Well that suggests it should be in your set S, right?
so are you saying (1,1) + H = H and (0,1) + H are all the costs, and that they're distinct from eachother?
wait
(1,1) + H != H
hmm
our goal is to construct ZxZ/2Z with the coset reps right?
yeah but I still dont see how (0,0)+<(1,1)> and (0,1)+<(1,1)> dont give us ZxZ/2Z, what would be missing?
I think you're right, they do give you Z×Z/2Z
This wasn't supposed to imply it's wrong, I just wanted to make sure it's what you were saying
Can you prove it though?
You do
Problems in higher math by default include "and prove your answer correct"
So what can you say about an element of Z×Z/2Z?
What does it look like?
sure, so (n, x) for n in Z and x in {0,1}
Can you come up with a nice way to say when (n, x) is in (1,1) + H? What about when it's in (1,0) + H?
Something that makes it clear why these are the only two possibilities?
It might help to compare examples of elements in H and in (1,0) + H
It's close, and if you can figure out how to say it exactly it should become clear
thanks for the help btw, its starting to make sense
This looks kinda cool. Is there a corresponding cool example(s) :D
is that the mother frunkin 2nd iso theorem
I see intersections, a product, and an iso symbol.... there's only one suspect that satisfies all of them...
it prolly looks like isomorphism cus of what i said here, no?
Let L/M/K galois tower of extensions (L/M, L/K, M/K all galois)
Then
Gal(L/K)/Gal(L/M) = Gal(M/K)
I feel moldi is hiding something from us

that looks like third iso 
@hidden haven what's your thoughts on this one
yeah I dunno what shuri meant by that lol
the diagram looks like the one I keep in my head for 2nd iso as well
Maybe they do and I just don't know 
im interested
can u show
T!cat
i dont have diagram in my head for 2nd
I will draw it in mspaint
ty ty
Gal is some isomorphism of categories, so the lattice of subgroups and lattice of intermediate fields are related
maybe you can make some abstract statement about lattices even
can't remember which way the arrows went so I didn't draw them 
is ok, looks beautiful. Will slowly think
this is just part of the subgroup lattice, right?
I think so
and so you have to find this again in the intermediate fields just mirrored
as Gal is contravariant
category theory.... useful?!?!
i wouldnt go that far

I think you can formulate that lattice as some wack set of exact sequences
I can't remember how though
I think it's like this? and another one with H in the middle
and then you do magic (def of exact sequence) and the 2nd iso theorem plops out
it has to be, moldi

the ol N intersect H is trivial, N normal, etc.
Are you assuming G = N semidir H
I don't think so?
NH = G
N ∩ H = 0
N normal
These 3 imply semidirect product
F
W actually, for I have learnt something today
I too have learned something today. The 2nd isomorphism theorem 
Consider D6 acting on {1, 2, 3} in the 2 possible ways:
- label the locations in R^2 space 1,2,3 (where equilateral triangle vertices live)
- label vertices of equilateral triangle 1,2,3
Which is 'active', which is 'passive'?
This is what these 2 terms distinguish, right (i confuse which is which)?
I believe the first is passive with respect to the triangle
The 2nd is active wrt the triangle
But I am not 100% sure
What is the biggest order of a permutation in S7?
I reasoned that any permutation in S7 can be factored into either 7 1-cycles or 1 7-cycle which means the number I'm looking for is 7, but I'm not really sure If that's true because there might be some permutation which is not a product of disjoint cycles with a bigger order, can this happen?
take every partition of 7 then take the one with the highest lcm
(123)(4567) has order 12 = lcm(3, 4) - for instance, I don't know why you think they can be factored into 1 7-cycle because that definitely isn't true
hmm I see, I think I was confusing things, thx!
the lcm thing only hold for disjoint cycles, btw
but if they're not disjoint you can just multiply them together and simplify it down
are all (finite (?)) field extensions generated by a quotient of the polynomial ring of the subfield?
i couldn't seem to Google it well enough to give anything clear
Yes
Suppose that K is a finite field extension, then there exists elements a_1,…,a_n which generate K as an extension of k
So K = k(a_1,…,a_n)
This means there’s a surjection k[x_1,…,x_n] -> K sending x_i to a_i
Now apply the first isomorphism theorem
@fallow plume
Actually, any field extension regardless of the size is a quotient of a polynomial ring
You do this same process, the only difference is that the number of generators might be infinite, so you might need to take a huge number of the a_i, which in turn gives a huge number of the variables x_i
Oh I guess also you need to note that you have to do generation as an algebra, so you take k[a_i] not k(a_i). In the case the extension is algebraic these are the same (so in particular for finite field extensions)
is this just a matter of pointing out that {1} is obv normal and then first iso?
can we elaborate on this btw moldi




