#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 673 of 407
I thought self teaching galois theory would kinda be like self teaching representation theory but turns out the former is much harder
idk representation theory is just "oohhh use the inner product on the charaters funny direct sum wheeee"
my mind still dazed about z^5-2
im convinced this thing is irreducible but it apparently isnt 🤔

huh were we not doing Q
It is 
Eisenstein
And Gauss
It is Einstein... 🤓
and common sense
Nope 
Eisenstein and gauss sitting in a tree...
120 degree extenstion no way
120?
you want to find the splitting field or what?
Yes
im thinking what we need to adjoin
Galois group
not all 5 apparently
ive only just done splitting fields

hold on a moment
Q(2^(1/5)) doesnt have roots of unity
but adding just one complex one is enough
yeah but as I've learnt that doesn't mean the degree is 5
it is?
huh i thought u said adding one complex one is enough
oh yeah if you add complex one then you will have the splitting field but the degree won't be 5 over Q
im uh...
Ok ima have to think about this carefully after we do this section
guess it was too early for me - but enlightens what i didnt know
thanks
Okay so do you see why Q(2^1/5, w) is a splitting field?
yeah its not
Is there a result that says if you divide two polynomials that are relatively prime, the remainder is a unit?
By which I mean gcd 1
have you tried looking at char>0?
Quick question: If I have a function f:S_3 → Z_2, how do I identify the kernel and it's cosets? In the problem I'm solving, we are using tables. And I have the identity of S being ε and the identity of Z being 0.
kernel is the set of all permutations which get mapped to zero by f. and do you mean the cosets of S_3/ker(f) ?
i’m assuming K is the kernel of f
Yes
also is f a homomorphism or just a function?
Just says f: S_3 → Z_2
🤔
if you wanna see
Oh so you are given f
Is there any extra info
From previous questions
like what those 6 greek letters are
Oh yes
yh... I think all of this missing info is needed
Let me find the chapter and shows it's chart
Well that aside - tell us what the kernel is, as in the definition
K = {g in G: f(g) = e in H}
G would be S_3 and H would be Z_2
The identity in Z_2 is 0
K = {g in S_3: f(g) = 0 in Z_2}
So we have this.
So you are looking for this set K
everything in S_3 which f maps to 0
Does that make sense?
Oh it does
Utilise this
Which is epsilon, beta, delta
Left coset: aH = {ah:h in H}
Right coset: Ha = {ha: h in H}
(In this def, you have a subgroup H and group G)
a is an element in G
Both left and right?
uhhhhhhhhhhhhhh
Since the question doesn't specify, I suppose so.
So from the definition alone
Since there are 6 elements in G
It sounds like there are 6 left cosets
and 6 right cosets
But you should know some of these will be the same (there will be less)
I'm no sure how to find these cosets
Just utilise the definition
So go through each possible a
starting with epsilon, say.
eH = {eh : h in H}
Identify what this set is. (list its members)
And then do the same for the rest.
It looks like a lot of work, but its less than you think.
I'm just trying to think of it all
Write it down, do it step by step
eH = {eh : h in H}
oh wait a second, I wasn't paying attention
👀
Z_2?
Oh K
For a in G
Left coset of H: aH = {ah:h in H}
Right coset of H: Ha = {ha: h in H}
===
To clarify your definition above.
So for the first a
we chose e
eK = {eh : h in K}
ok?
Mhm
So you should hopefully notice eK = K
because we are left multiplying everything in K by e
which does nothing
To give yourself an easier time, did you prove somewhere that the Kernel of any homomorphism always forms a subgroup of the domain?
Maybe not which is fine also.
Utilise this table to give yourself an easier time finding the cosets
Wait so say I'm doing aplhaK = {alpha h : h in K}. What exactly am I doing here?
use the cayley table
{ak1, ak2, ak3}
There are 3 elements in K, I will just call them k123
This is what aK is right?
Next figure out what each of those are from the table
Which is epsilon, beta, delta
^ you said this was K
So
aK = {ae, ab, ad}
Hi, does anyone know why "G acts on this set by permutation"? I understand that galois group permutes the roots of an irreducible polynomial, but here we don't know if it's galois yet and we don't have a ground field... I would appreciate some explanation 
Is it a fact that if gcd(n,k)=1, then r is a unit in $\mathbb{Z}\mod k$, where $n=qk+r?$
seth.delacroix
yes. if gcd(n,k)=1, then by bezout's lemma, there are integers a and b so that an+bk=1. taking that equation mod k, an=1 so n is a unit mod k. since n=r mod k, r is also a unit
Woahh thanks
I was trying to proveF[x] where F is a field, if p(x) is irreducible then <p(x)> is a maximal ideal. So I wanted to know
for $\sigma\in G$, the action of $G$ on the set should be $\sigma\cdot(\sigma_i(\alpha))=(\sigma\circ\sigma_i)(\alpha)$ where $\circ$ is composition of automorphisms. $(\sigma\circ\sigma_i)(\alpha)$ will equal one of the other $\sigma_j(\alpha)$ because if it wasn't, then you've found another conjugate of $\alpha$ that is not in that set.
there's an easier way to do this that doesn't rely on it being a Euclidean domain btw
ohh I see. Thank you!
What is it if ya don't mind me askin
$numbers$
use the fact that it's a PID and so if a divides b if and only if (a) contains (b)
How tf you prove it’s a a PID without showing it’s a Euclidean Domain?
it's more that this method works for a general PID
and they've assumed it's an ED anyway so you can assume it's a PID
for the second statement, when it uses the notation $\alpha^n$, ima used to that meaning $\alpha\cdot \alpha\cdot \cdots \cdot \alpha,$ where there are $n$ $\alpha$s. However, if $M_{\alpha}$ is an additive monoid, does that mean that $\alpha^n = \alpha+\alpha+\cdots +\alpha,$ where there are $n$ $\alpha$s? aka. is $\alpha^n=n\alpha$?
JustKeepRunning
can someone help me on this? idk what exactly i need to read in the book for this problem
i read direct products
and im kinda ehhh on correspondence theorem
this question isn't even algebra
it should be a review of basic facts about functions
that's where you'll want to read
This seems to be an unusual problem for "homework 7" on (presumably) an abstract algebra class. This is basic set theory, #proofs-and-logic or #discrete-math are better suited.
something-jective
I agree it's definitely the wrong channel but I think it would be a good refresher for students to put such a problem on a hw especially to build intuition for something that uses the same logic, like the correspondence theorem which was mentioned
so personally I don't think it's too unusual :P
you can write out columns based on how T sends basis vectors
Can someone explain to me why the product group of two mod groups have to be coprime in order for it to be cyclic?
I must be misunderstanding how to generate cyclic groups, because in my mind you can generate the entire product group with the action +1 for both groups
@hybrid island yes
Bijective is what i thought
How would i prove a fill in the blank question
Should i just draw a diagram?
Like domain codomain
T’ etc
You consider the smith normal form of diag{a,b} when a and b are not coprime
I'm a noob
?
I dont know what a smith normal form of diag{a,b} is
Anyways
I somewhat figured it out
[[0,1,0],[0,0,1]
you can figure out the last column
one is injective the other is surjective it's 50/50
just write normal proofs
you think you can walk me through parta then i can try to do part b myself?
maybe do contradiction and conjure up a counter example
well let's say f(S) is not all of T
take T' in T\f(S)
what do you get
write out what can be in f(f^(-1)(T'))
i think we have the same answer, urs is in terms of columns and mine is in terms of rows
isnt it just f(S)
what's the preimage
like f^-1(T') is is just f(S)
where is f(S)
in T
im so confused lol
okay
lets go step by step
on the left side
isnt that just f(f(s))
f^(-1)(T') = {x in S| f(x) in T'}
yeah
meanwhile T' in T\f(S)
so what is f^(-1)(T')
is there anything in S that maps to something in T'
there can be
what is T\f(S)
everytihng in T after f(S) is removed
ok the entire image has been removed
we're picking T' from what's left
is there anything in S that maps to something in T'
not everything because assumed f is not onto
because we removed f(s)
f(f^(-1)(T')) is f(empty set) which is nothing
so it has to be surjective?
it proves one direction
-> direction
so go ahead and prove surjective leads to f(f^(-1)(T'))=T'
can you write how we proved -> in one line
i cant really see how you did that
we kinda just
i didnt get this part tbh
suppose not surjective, then statement is not true
so if statement is true it must be surjective
T' is any nonempty subset of T removing f(S)
the statement has to hold for any subset of T
since f not surjective, f(S) is not all of T, so T\f(S) contains something other than empty set, and we can take T' nonempty
then f(f^(-1)(T')) = f(empty set) = empty set != T'
so this is a proof by contradiction
and we are supposing that the function f is not surjective
more like contrapositive
how is T' any nonempty subset of T removing f(S)
just take any
or are we letting that happen
so we first suppose f is not surjective. Let T' be any nonempty subset of T removing f(s)
yeah i get what onto is
basically we are saying not all of codomain has something in the domain that maps to it
yes
gimme a moment let me write down the t-> direction
and see if understand it clearlt
since f not surjective, f(S) is not all of T, so T\f(S) contains something other than empty set, and we can take T' nonempty " in this sentence isnt T\f(S) same thing as T'
might be if there's only one element in T\f(S)
no it's we can take T' nonempty
then why did we take it empty in the first placE?
we didn't
we're only justifying that we can take it nonempty
because otherwise if T' must be empty then f(f^(-1)(T')) = f(empty set) = empty set = T'
we're not proving anything
yes this finishes ->
imi dont understand the last line
it seems extra
idk how the f(empty set) takes play
it shows the statement is false
we basically said in the thing above it that T' is not empty
that f(f^(-1)(T')) != T'
that's the point
T' is nonempty but f(f^(-1)(T')) is empty
they can't be equal
this proves contrapositive for ->
i didnt even talk about the empty set
right here
so first thing equals f(empty set)
i didnt even say that in my proof
yeah
take T' nonempty in T\f(S)
so i wouuld state that in my proof right?
yes
yes
it makes ense
so basicallty
this is what is happening
since we removed f(S)
and we put T' in T/f(S)
it is extra
pf: obvious
the takeaway is that T’=T/f(s) contradicts the hypothesis since f^-1(T’) is empty
the otherway is definition of surjection, right inverses, or you can use another definition and show its equivalent
@lavish nexus now i would do <=
assume surjective
I'm trying to come up with a quadratic form that is compatible with the dual numbers over R, that respects multiplication if at all possible. Is such a thing possible? I'd rather not just use the vacuous q(a+b\eps)=\lambda a^2, but If thats all I have to work with thats fine
I don’t understand what you mean by saying “dual numbers over R”, anyway, any quadratic form of R^n over R has the form x|—> x^tAx where A is a real symmetric matrix.
=Σx_k^2 (k from 1 to p) -Σx_k^2 (k from p+1 to p+q) after applying a linear isomorphism on R^n
Dual numbers are R[x]/(x^2)
im kinda stuck on the <=
I see, thanks. And what does compatible mean?
Thats a fair question. I'm trying to think of what I mean myself. My initial thought was "it respects multiplication in R[x]/(x^2)", but I'm really not sure if that would be of any use, or even possible
I'm trying to draw a parallel between complex/hypercomplex and dual numbers, and work with it geometrically
But I need a quadratic form, because one thing I want to explore is if I can do anything like geometric algebra using clifford algebras over R[x]/(x^2)
I don’t even know you are considering quadratic form on what… on a k-vector space? What field k?
Never mind.I barely know anything about Clifford algebras or other stuffs anyway
The R-algebra R^2, with bilinear operator ((a,b) X (c,d)) = (ac,ad+bc)
I see, a quadratic form on R-linear space R[x]/(x^2)
Exactly
All possible forms are Q(a+bx)=a^2
And zero
Since Q doesn’t equal zero and you want it to satisfy Q(a+bx)Q(c+dx)=Q((a+bx)(c+dx)),then Q(1)=1 Q(x)=0, Q(1+x)=1
I figured it would be something along the lines of thi
shameless plug: hi can anybody help me in #help-9? i have an abstract algebra question and i dont wanna interrupt the conversation
oh okay
here goes
can anybody check my proof (polynomial ring over field is PID)
(integral domain: trivial)
call the field and the polynomial ring F and F[x]
first i'll prove that in F, multiplication is a bijective map.
then, i'll prove that the ideal generated by elements ax^n, bx^m(n<m) contains all polynomials with the last n-th terms = 0.
then, i'll prove that gcd(ax^n, bx^m) = zx^n (still, n<m) where z is an element in F
and concluded that (gcd(ax^n, bx^m)) = (ax^n, bx^m).
i've heard that this proof requires bezout's lemma, so i'm pretty skeptical about my attempt. can anybody tell me if this is correct?
What do you mean bijective? Any b, a|—> ab is bijective you mean?
it’s only injective
I believe the standard proof is proving it’s an E.D
shouldn't it be surjective as well? for the map x->ax with nonzero x, for every value n you have nx^-1x=n
If b has positive degree
Then ab has clearly higher degree than a
for example b=x clearly not all polynomials can be divided by x
it's bijective in F though, right?
yeah
Non-zero also
i think the point of this in the proof is only to reduce the case ax^n in the ideal to x^n in the ideal
yeah, it makes the rest much easier
anyways, you probably implicitly already use that F[x] is an euclidean domain when computing the gcd
the thing i would be worried about is how what you have shows its PID
do you want to inductively reduce the generators of an ideal?
then you need to show noetherian as well
arent fields always noetherian?
well, yes
so is F[x]
but you need this
and then this works i think
you implicitly use heavier tools though when computing the gcd
this proof sketch also gives you the "correct" idea
you show that you can ignore higher degree terms in an ideal in some sense
so pick an element in the ideal with lowest degree
Then he returns to the standard proof actually 😂
yes
the gcd computation in your proof should more or less have all the meat already
(this is where you use the fact that F[x] is an euclidean domain)
hmmm
does the standard proof require this step?
yes
you can do it implicitly without stating it
but its what makes this thing easy to show
its also what lets you compute the gcd of two polynomials easily
got it, thanks
I'll talk here
Some more algebraic groups stuff
So take the subgroups U(n) and B of GL(n)
Think of them as stabilizers for natural actions of GL(n)
Let's find something
So GL(n) acts on A^n, A^n - {0}, P^{n-1}, Gr(n,k)
I guess we want GL(n) to act on "the space of inner products"
But I wanna think of that linear algebraically because I want to think of it as a scheme
I'll worry about details later
GL(n,C), which I guess we think of as a real group for now
Acts on the space of Hermitian inner products
g.(x,y) = (gx,gy)
And stabilizer of the usual one is U(n)
As for B, I guess we think of GL(n) as acting on the space of flags
In some way
I mean the way you expect probably
And then B is the stabilizer of the flag {0, {e_1}, {e_1,e_2},...}
No need to view it as a scheme, it is a group scheme, I believe it’s discussed in detail in that AMS book which I didn’t read
Representation of algebraic groups
Hi, I am so frustrated with finite fields.. Does anyone know why F has characteristic p if F is the set of all the roots of x^p^n - x over F_p? (I know F has to be a field) 
F_p < F
Char p would mean that 1 + 1 + … + 1 p-times is 0
But 1 as an element of F lives inside F_p
Set of all roots of a polynomial over F_p is kinda weird to say though
And you know that p•1 = 0 inside F_0
I read this from dummit. What's the better way?
by F_0, do you mean F?
Why F_p < F? sorry I am so confused...
You should specify what the ambient space is when you say set of all roots. If you take the set of all the roots in F_p, you get just F_p itself. If you take set of all roots inside some ring, you can get a lot more roots then you want
F_p
Is satisfied by every element of F_p
It's like "take a union of ℝ and F_p" and if you say this without context anyone's gonna be confused about where this union is happening
I see. yeah I dont quite understand why element in F_p satisfy x^p - x but I can look it up
I see. Thank you chmon and moldi 
✓
Yesterday I was shown we need to adjoin 2^(1/5) and a 5th root of unity to split z^5-2, so the degree of the extension is 20.
I am convinced this is definitely sufficient to split the polynomial.
Shuri2060
I am currently consider the same but for z^6-2, and am stuck for this reason
typo, missing i in the exponent of e. So
$$2^{1/5}e^\frac{2\pi i}{5}$$
Shuri2060
Are you convinced that adjoining 2^(1/5) is not enough?
yes
Try proving that adjoining 2^(1/5) or the element you said, both give isomorphic fields
In general, an element behaves exactly like any of its conjugates
Yes
ie. for roots of unity, 1 doesnt count
Yes
Conjugate always means roots of minimal polynomial
This is only true of extensions when you view them as sitting inside their algebraic closure though
For example, in ℝ, √2 and -√2 can be algebraically distinguished
Since one has a square root and the other doesn't
But over ℂ, these are indistinguishable
Algebraically
In the sense that there is an automorphism of ℂ
That maps one to the other
uhhh dont we always talk about splitting fields within algebraic closures
otherwise you cant always split
So splitting fields can be broadened to this
So a splitting field of Q in R doesnt have to split to linear factors
but just as much as possible??
You can view adjoining of roots as an abstract process
In which case you don't need a larger ambient field at all
If you have a field F, and an irreducible polynomial p(x), then adjoining a root of p(x) is taking the field F[x]/(p(x))
Then p(x) factors in this larger field, but now you instead write p(y) for a new variable y since you've added this element x to your field anyway
Ok that might be a very confusing way to phrase it
You have p(y) a polynomial with coefficients in F, then F[x]/(p(x)) has a root of p(y)
But not necessarily all roots, so you do this process on the new irreducible factors of p(y)
Yeah
But F embeds into this larger field
So there's a natural way to view p(y) as a polynomial with coefficients in this larger field
Maybe take some simple example and work it out, it should make things clear
Like p(y) = y² - 2 or y³ - 2
You construct the splitting field by adjoining one root at a time like this
And this construction is then isomorphic to say the splitting field as a subfield of ℂ
You can prove that all splitting fields of p(y) over F are isomorphic
Did any of that make sense
Cool
Other roots may have come along, but there's only one root that it attempts to adjoin
Ok ill figure this out first then i think everything else will make sense
ty
A question !! Splitting fields are defined as the smallest field extension over which the poly. can be reduced into linear factors?
so say, Q(w) and Q(w²) are both splitting fields of p(x) = x^3 - 1 because they're both roots of the same minimal polynomial? [w is cube root of unity]
kind of makes sense that the splitting fields must be isomorphic
Q(w, ww) = Q(w) = Q(ww) uwu
its when p(x) = x^3 - 2 when crazy things start to happen 
Schuris Lemma
oh btw shuri, your explanation the other day is what was discussed today in class 👀
what explanation
the proposition was: For any field F, there exists an algebraically closed field K over F.
And the construction went exactly how you explained the other day
considering F/(f) and the maximal ideal argument
How did you construct algebraic closure without adjoining 1 root 
the argument was K = U (K_1, K_2, ..., K_n)
I didnt explain it, my notes did
I like Probability, Graph Theory, Applied Computational Methods and stuff But this...
but I still fail to understand what's supposed to be very trivial
why does F/(f) contain the root of "f"
._.
so do i. z^5-2 is very strange
Appl*ed mathematician 
I think you're probably overthinking this one 
i can show you my notes later
look at f + x
lol why censor??
Try to find it 
if moldi doesnt give some wonderful explanation
Maybe with explicit example
ah thats beautiful

we dont say the a word here
Why would I write bad words
only a words we allow are abstract and algebra
you just used "are" as well 
what's the sort of process of finding symmetry groups of more complex objects. Like objects with infinite symmetries or higher dimensional polyhedra?
I don't think that is 'easy' for the general case
I read this recently
and i believe this is relevant to your Q
he uses group actions to explore the symmetries of the cube
And I think he implies he is doing this because this isnt easy to do otherwise
thanks
Holy cow, your suggestions help me fix a problem I've been stuck on for two weeks! Many thanks!!!!!
I know we use $\leq$ and $\trianglelefteq$ for subgroup and normal. Is there anything analogous for subring and ideal?
Spamakin🎷
I think the same 2 things
Hm ok I've never seen those used in that context but I guess that makes sense
invent your own notation $I \catthink R$ be ideal
is there a field of study where one looks at a given function or a given set of functions and then determines what type of binary operations they are the morphisms of? kind of the opposite of what one usually does, usually we have the binary operations given, addition, multiplication, compostion in the given structures (group, ring, etc.) then figure out what the morphisms look like.

Perhaps take the set of all binary operations that they preserve 
In the algebraic closure of F, p(x) is reducible to linear factors where p(x) in F(x)
I was serious about this btw
This should prove that any collection of functions X → Y is exactly a collection of homomorphisms between from X to Y equipped with certain binary operations
If instead of something as random as the set of all binary operations (or I guess in this case set of all pairs of binary operations, one on X and one on Y such that the collection of set functions respects each pair) you want some nice conditions like invertibility, associativity etc, I think this would fall under model theory/universal algebras
what is the generating vector field for some η in Lie algebra
well that would be nice, not to just have any type of binary operation, but more based on the properties of f and maybe other underlying structure on X and Y, what type of binary operations, (with properties like associativity etc.) preserving f exist.
actually I'd be more interested specifically in the case where Y = X, which would reduce arbitraryness by a lot (I think)
Why restrict to binary operations 
Sounds a lot like model theory idk but I am sure ultra would know something lol
Curiosity or did this come up somewhere?
the set of all functions from X to itself is big for arbitrary sets X
same with X x X -> X
it's the infinitesimal generator of the flow (t, x) -> \exp(t\xi)x
just a general definition for lie group actions
ig it does make me wonder which X x X -> X are useful
but ppl study this
d/dt \exp(t\xi)x at t=0?
ok ty lemme write it out
well but given some functions from X to X, the set of binary operations that are being preserved by that set might not be

So I worked out some stuff
eg. f = x^2+x+1
You are now doing
h^2+h+1 === 0 (mod f)
And the solutions to this are h = x, x^2
But now I'm wondering what if f isn't minimal 🤔
For that you need to know what F is specifically
Over a general field, it need not be
If it is not minimal, then this quotient ring isn't a field
Right. Is it worth studying/looking into at all?
this equation
Or would it be completely unrelated to this
Not as far as I know
not really that it did come up anywhere relevant, but I was looking at some functions and this question kind of popped up, since they didn't preserve any structure but seemed like they could preserve some structure, and knowing what that structure could be might help studying the functions itself
Then you wouldn't be doing field theory
In model theory, we often talk about the properties that a function preserves
There we already have structures on both sets, ie binary (or n-ary) operations on both sets, and the structures are of the same kind in the sense that there are corresponding operations
And then you can talk about the properties of these operations that are being preserved by the function
For example, properties that go like "There exists x_1, ..., x_n such that [some equations]" are called positive existential properties
All structure homomorphisms preserve positive existential properties
Structure homomorphism is the obvious thing, a function that preserves all operations
For the roots of unity, we will have powers of x, x^2, ...x^(n-1) as roots.
I can see they're roots. But it isn't obvious to me there aren't more possible h that could work.
1+h+h^2+...+h^(n-1) === 0 (mod 1+x+x^2+....+x^(n-1))
Do you justify with the fundamental thm of algebra there are at most n-1 solutions to this polynomial?????
But then what about
h^5 - 2 === 0 (mod x^5 - 2) 🤔. This is supposed to only have 1 root h = x, but I wouldn't know how to justify this
In general, x in F[x]/(f(x)) is the only element guaranteed to be a root of f(h)
Agreed.
Over an integral domain, a polynomial can't have more roots than its degree
(That's the fundamental thm of algebra right?)
No, that is a lot more specific lol
This has no name?
FTA says that complex numbers are an algebraically closed field
None that I know of
👌
So for a specific example such as h^5 - 2 === 0 (mod x^5 - 2) is there some way to justify there are no more roots, or do I require another approach
For x^5 - 2, the easiest way to justify that there are non other roots in that quotient ring is to first prove the isomorphism of this with Q[2^(1/5)] as a subfield of R
seems very interesting, is this the type of area of math that tries unifying lots of proofs that are very similar, the unification of all these universal property/isomorphism theorems for rings, groups, modules etc. in one go and more?
There is a lot of stuff of that sort in model theory yes
👌 I will try a few more examples, (sry dr j stockfish) 😄
The universal property stuff is there in a lot of universal algebra study
Like you can prove that there is always a free universal algebra on any given set
Groups, rings, modules are universal algebras
While fields aren't
rip 😦
You can prove that every universal algebra is a quotient of a free one, so you can always do presentations with generators and relations
Yeah, fields are nice objects on their own, but the category of fields has very few universal constructions. No product fields, free fields, etc
While the other things do, which is because these other things are universal algebras
makes sense
Ah, so I probably want to show F[x]/(f) ~=== F(a) for any root a of f (probably in my notes, but I will try on my own)
hmmmmmmm is this necessary? 🤔
Ah yh I guess so nvm lel
otherwise what am i proving lel
Which part of it lol
the ambient field K
Oh ye like a has to be somewhere right
yh yh
but if I remember what my commalg prof said some time ago correctly, there are still good analogues one can create for fields when studying for example transcendence bases of field extensions and bases of vector spaces
Ye there are transcendence bases, but as far as I am aware those don't have any nice universal properties
You define a dependence relation and you get bases
There is some general theory about such things
Wikipedia has a page called dependence relations
this was what he mentioned
I see
Yeah he is talking more about an elementwise study sort of
Not universal properties
Like you can't specify a field homomorphism out of an extension by specifying it on the transcendence basis
well yeah I was now talking about sth slightly different here
Right
The model theory part he mentions
I guess it makes sense but I haven't studied this specific kind of thing in model theory before 
He might be talking about the dependence relation thing or maybe matroids
Idk what those are but I have heard that matroids are some generalisations of dependence and might be model theory
well if it isn't an approach that gives more insight or makes things simpler it would make sense why it isn't that common to study I guess..?
we aren't talking about the matroids used in combinatorics or are we?
I am not sure what the ones in combinatorics are
But I am guessing these are different
In combinatorics, a branch of mathematics, a matroid is a structure that abstracts and generalizes the notion of linear independence in vector spaces. There are many equivalent ways to define a matroid axiomatically, the most significant being in terms of: independent sets; bases or circuits; rank functions; closure operators; and closed sets o...
wait
What's it mean for a polynomial to be primitive
It says combinatorics lmao
gcd of coefficients is 1
Ok thanks
well that's why I was asking, because most applications I've seen of matroids so far were in combinatorics related subjects
Ye idk anything about them
Is an irreducible polynomial primitive?
Over what ring?
when someone says that smth is unique up to association that just means its unique up to multiplication by units right
Yes
is a monoid with distributive property anything
actually nvm you need two operations for distributivity to be a thing lol
is it normal for my prof to be discussing SL_n GL_n and S_n all in terms of matrices 
bc i do not like
S_n usually no, the other 2 yes
that is the one i not like 
i'll assimilate with the other two
im summarizing our material covered so far 
should i also stop thinking about D_8 as matrices
this looks fun
✓
something to do with if x^a = 1 and x^b = 1 => (x^a)^b = x^ab = 1
moldi gradually makes his way down the posts leaving a breadcrumb trail of reacts
Like its gotta be true right D:
cus Z[x]/(f) where the roots of f are the roots of unity
moldi what's your thoughts on this approach
gets u this
Idk what that means lol
trying to factor the x^ab bad boy into the smaller ones
This feels like the kind of problem where you first assume a and b are coprime
And then show that the general case reduces to the coprime case
$$1+h+h^2+\cdots+h^{n-1}\equiv 0 \pmod{1+x+x^2+\cdots+x^{n-1}}$$
Shuri2060
Well just to backtrack
yeah if they're coprime you get this implication turns into an if and only if i.e. x is a root of the numerator if and only if it's a root of the denominator
we had this before
And h(x) = x^k is always a solution for any k
Hence I make the above conclusion
ohhhhh
Otherwise that polynomial is not irreducible
he's right you know
✓
$1+x+x^2+x^3$
Shuri2060
ah 1+x^2 goes into this
(1+x)(1+x^2) my beloved
Show for $k,p\in\bN$ with $\gcd(k, p) = 1$, $p$ prime
$$\left(\frac{(1-x^{kp})(1-x)}{(1-x^k)(1-x^p)}\in \bZ[x]\right)$$
So we have this 🤔
ok now this looks rather funny, kek even
Shuri2060
Where are the arrows 
so this can only be in $\bZ[x]4 if 4(1-x^{kp})(1-x) = p(x)(1-x^k)(1-x^p)$ for some $p(x) in \bZ[x]$, right?
moldi when he sees a number 
yh . . .
$$1+h+h^2+\cdots+h^{p-1}\equiv 0 \pmod{1+x+x^2+\cdots+x^{p-1}}$$
This does follow from this right
I have no idea what that means and I choose to ignore it
quotient rings give me eye strain, especially when viewed as field extenstions 
If you have f irreducible
Me with no arrow 
That quotient adds roots to f basically
we can just look at (1-x^{kp})(1-x) = p(x)(1-x^k)(1-x^p) I'm pretty sure and get it
I know what it does I just don't like it with the mod notation, like at all
The idea of this is that you are setting f(x) = 0 when you quotient by (f(x)), so x is now a root of f(y)
yah. And the powers of x will tag along if f has prime roots of unity (how to phrase this better lul)
I'm thinking that this can only hold if p(x) is of degree 1 by examining the degrees of both sides and setting them equal, right?
trying that 👀
ye any power of a root of unity is a root of unity
I feel like you guys are forgetting something I explained to you very thoroughly a couple days ago 
For this kind of problem
You just go
@rustic crown
And it is solved

cheating
well this sure as heck doesnt look like its gonna happen
moldi I swear I'm nearly there
I'm sweepy
I... kind of agree... maybe?
Why do you wanna sweep at 1 am
what makes you say that
what did i think wrong here
$$1+h+h^2+\cdots+h^{p-1}\equiv 0 \pmod{1+x+x^2+\cdots+x^{p-1}}$$
Shuri2060
$$h(x) = x^k$$
Shuri2060
should solve tHis
both sides must be 0 when x = 1 so p(1) = 0 => p(x) = a(x-1)?
looking at this again
you wanna just do the euclidean algo until we get a zero remainder? 
_ _
ahahaha u got me good
basic polynomial multiplication has foiled me once more
I'm gonna keep thinking about it, cause we still know that p(x) must be a multiple of (x-1) regardless of it's degree
actually no, that's just wrong
we need to euclid algo this
which I cannot be bothered to do!
✓
wow I'm aktually an expert in rep theory and you assk moldi wow ok just because I don't know how exponents work wow ok I see wow ok
but yeah it's just spinning a square
L + ratio
damn
we spent sm time running circles around it
for what feels like no reason lol
no just kidding I actually visualise the semidirect product directly 
idk what that means 
$D_{2n} \cong C_n \rtimes C_2$ I hope
Yeh
Wew Lads Tbh (200 🍓) ✓
i feel like semidirects were taught to me poorly
you assume they just use an inner automorphism right?
if it's not stated
I do not know of this convention
so like
for a and b both prime you can note that this is the ab-th cyclotomic polynomial and so it has integer coefficients :D
multiplication in the direct product looks like $(g_1, h_1) \cdot (g_2, h_2) = (g_1\phi_{h_1}(g_2), h_1h_2)$ for some automorphism $\phi$
Wew Lads Tbh (200 🍓) ✓
and if the automorphism is not given you just assume it's conjugation by h_1 iirc
I think it's an inner/outer product type situation
I haven't learned it in a course properly 
I only know internal semi direct which is always inner aut I think
lemme wikipedia it 
cheating
yup it's always inner
I mean ok fine
nice
the definitions of inner and outer semi direct products produce the same object so if you use an inner auto for the inner product you must also have to use one for the outer
there, no cheating required
Ye
That's what I said
No external cheating required yes
Internal cheating product
sorry we got a bit off track

abstract chillgebra

Haha putting all the pieces together
semidirect product should not exist
cope
how
I thought you pushin p man
i mean its lower
its weird notation ill admit
notation is fine
i dont know why math people have completely adapted a functional notation for everything
less ambiguous
it's like, the SECOND most natural way for groups to act on each other
same thing for tensors
?

second most
im just 
natural how
some notations are bad and they are not being changed because one mathematician used them and then everyone did because they werent creative enough
ifs not natural its just generalizing how it could act in general
i want this image
it's all yours my friend!
NOOO ITS MY NFT 
guess who made it B)
cmd shift 4 on mac
I ain't got no iphonneee
anyway chat, thoughts on the symmetries of a cube?
why
cat
Isn't that the rubik's cube permutation group
yeah, the symmetries of a cube
Rather than symmetries of the cube
did I say THE cube?
Bruh if you say symmetries of a cube I would think S_4
prove that all rotations of the cube form the group S_4
and find what they permute 
Is it only rotations
yeah
oh
reflections you get something a bit weirder
No what
I swear it's just rotatoins
I think the full thing is S_4xC_2

rip
you can rotate it in 3 directions
But does that give you S_3
moldi what time do you wake up on average
And are those directions independent
you can rotate the cube in 24 different ways from its initial position
is this right
noon
dont you have classes
Lmao imagine attending
presidential day
imagine having holidays
are you trying to show that the homomorphic image of the identity is the identtiy?
moldi celebrating US
thanks obama
yes
celebrating what
in general just to understand how homomorphisms preserve structure
oh
dumb america holiday
Imagine being american
(1337 🍓 )
don't like the phi(ab) = phi(Id b) line, just write phi(b) = phi(Id b) = phi(Id) phi(b)
good thing im not 
and they preserve structure because times of thing is thing of times
america number 1
cringe
why if i may ask
moldi is the entire nation of norway
why no like
i guess thailand

