#groups-rings-fields
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R[[R[[X]]]] 
aaa
we only need it in one variable though
for the funny infinite field of char 2 investigation
ok since F_2 is a field we have so many nice facts about F_2[[X]]
number one, it's a UFD
ED right
or not
wait
not
UFD but not PID
iirc
or wait am i trying to generalise facts about R[X] incorrectly hahaha
wait uhh lets think
This notion of factorisation for starters feels questionable to me...
well I agree its an ID........
yes I think it's a PID
consider (a,b) - if these are finite degree then it's identitical to R[X]
yes.
if these are infinite degree then a+b = a-b must be in the ideal
and a-b must be of finite degree
says who
because all higher order terms either have coefficients of 0 or 1
and both are infinite degree
oh we're in F2
yes exactly
uhhhhhhh
I'm gonna have to think about this
now, if one is infinite and one is finite, that might be a tad weird
both finite and both infinite definitely reduce to a principle ideal
it definitely is
how is it wtf.
we are just subtracting sequences from each other
hmm ok
sry yes
good point
would this ideal not then just be generated by the difference?
regardless of infinite degree?
i havent got as far as you yet
thinking.
101010101010101...
1001001001001001...
So we are considering this yes
i uh ..
when u multiply these things..........
I've googled it and apparently it's a very nice PID
that's no fun though so lets try and prove it
Ill try this on paper later
thanks for the thought experiment tho
fun
Is it not an ED for sure...
the suggestion seems to be to show that the ring is local
I think it is
I need to find that big chain of ring properties
local rings aren't on there
FUCKkkk
oh wait
local rings don't even have to be integral domains 
ok no clue on the euclidean domain front
I believe so yeah
since it's char 2 the GCD memes might be especially nice
cause if you're applying bezout's you only have to consider a-b and b-a
one of these has to be the gcd I believe
nevermind
they're just negatives of eachother - the GCD is always a-b
Zorn's lemma always applies I hope 
I'm just thinking about why F[x] is a PID
maybe we can bootstrap a proof for the infinite case off of that one
(f, g) = {xf + yg}
the proof i know uses the fact it's a euclidean domain 
yeah that's the proof I know as well - I think
I wrote the proof the other day, forgot it.
oh
does this work
waiit nvm
i was proving something else
xf + yg = gcd(f, g)
(xf + yg)(a) = gcd(f, g) (a)
0 = xf(a) + yg(a) = gcd(f, g) (a)
I cant remember what i was proving
I dunno if we can use bezout's lemma btw 
but anyways, the argument should be similar to this
well yh
what does bezout apply to
ufd?
PIDs 
wait it's slightly weaker than a PID
we just need the sum of two principle ideal domains to be a principle ideal domain which I think we can do using the fact that it's a ufd
I'm aiming for this first
bezout is weaker yes
if we can show this we can use your argument here
I think
still sounds like a torture to get to
bezout + ufd will give you pid
but the correct approach is to show formal power series are DVR
this isnt too hard
and then this gives you all the nice things
a what? 
I think I-
oh local domains
yeah I think I've shown (X) is the unique maximal ideal
yes it will be local and regular and all the nice things
cause all degree 0s are units
and all degree 1 or higher are in (aX), all of which are equvialent to (X) as a^-1 exists
so it's definitely a local domain
So is this thing still a PID for a general field
F[[X]]
I think so
yes
we did it chat
ok
is it an ED?
all elements without constant term 0 are invertible
god damn I wish I knew local domain implied all this stuff it would've made everything so much easier
so the unique maximal ideal is (X)
Is there some way we can apply Zorn to the finite case to prove this stuff?
or is this nonsense
and then DVR gives you everything you can wish for
holy shit you aren't kidding
ignore the purple links OR ELSE!!!
what falls apart if you have discrete valuation but not pid
oh
the contraction of ideals
ok
contraction of prime is prime
ok so turns out F[[X]] is basically just F[X] minus maybe the Euclidean algo
we posted the ring operations before
yeah it def is
and I wouldn't think about them as sequences, they're formal power series
anyway! time to consider (1+x+x^2+x^3+...)
I get that yes
is this mofo irreducible(?!)
They are sequences tho 
but how do you gcd alg 2 infinite polynomials
Power series is the (x)-adic completion of the polynomial ring
not in F2
ye but ring structure isnt inf product
i mean F in general
Which are Cauchy sequences
yeah but it's far easier to think about actually multiplying the damn things if you think about them as infinite polynomials
Itâs a unit
1-x
minus probably
But yeah
what?
Doesnât matter
That equality is formal
what???
It holds over Z
whats its inverse?
it has multiplication inverse
1-x
1-x
Is its inverse
you can find inverse by doing divisom algorothm
oh god I'm an idiot it's a local ring it only has one maximal ideal
that makes my job easier!
Any power series with invertible constant is invertible
This is a complete classification
And thatâs why a power series ring over a local ring is local
ok so finally wrapping back to the original question, wtf is F[[X]]/(x)
lets think about this one
Itâs just F
always will be
i was about to say lmao
god damn it I thought so
yeah we'll need a new approach shuri
maybe the ring of all sequences in F_2 works
What are you trying?
construct an infinite field with char 2
Maximal ideals of this ring correspond to ultra filters
Oh yeah
That works lol o
Or just take the algebraic closure of F_2
yeah that was my "back up" idea
Or like
it would've been cool if F[[X]] worked
this one is cheating I'm afraid
why
Okay then try Frac(F[[x]])
ok NOW we're talking
I think this is formal Laurent series
what is this frac thing
But in general Frac(A[[x]]) is not (Frac(A))((x))
field of fractions
You take fractions
F((X))
Like how you make the rationals out of the integers
ok ok
ok maybe I do like ring theory
Note, you can only have finitely many non-zero negative degree terms
For formal Laurent series
is it possible to have a polynomial ring with infinite indeterminants?
Yep
Very useful counterexample
any nice examples?
I mean
when is this ever used though
le standard non-noetherian ring counter example
For theoretical purposes, Z[A LOT] is a useful ring
classic
so we cannot formalize infinite laurent that goes both ways? đ¤
what do you mean
Z alot?
As is k[A LOT] for algebraic closure
You have to take arbitrarily many generators
we cant have infinite number of negative powers
for the formal laurent
The issue is when you multiply
Simply apply compactness
Youâd have to do infinite sums

For Laurent series going in both directions
In say, R
You can make sense of this because infinite sums make sense
yes that makes sense..
Over arbitrary rings youâre screwed
Yes
Which exists
But it wonât work in general
An infinite sum of 1s canât make sense adically which is the usual way to make sense of convergence
But idk, someoneâs probably invented something
adically as in p-adically? 
đ learned a buncha new things đ
p-adics are a special case of a completion of a ring

Ooooo
chap 10 atiyah macdonald moment
a case I do NOT understand 
The I-adic stuff is defined by two things being close if their difference is in a large power of I
Completion like completion of a metric space? (Sorry im too analysis pilled rn)
completions are just that one thing I will never understand, it doesn't matter how many times I go over the defs they never make sense
it is related in that you're taking completions of topological groups but you don't have the metric space structure
The Hausdorff completion
ah, i see, idk about that 
well you define cauchy sequences in a topological way for the groups and then it's more analogous which is cute
Itâs actually literally Cauchy sequences
And you do take a legitimate completion
ohhhh yeahhhhh
if its cauchy sequences i can make sense of it
The algebraic definition for the completion is isomorphic to the Hausdorff completion

I mean wew lads have you seen the algebraic construction of the completion?
someone spoon feed me algebra and topology
yes
In terms of inverse limits
I've tried to understand it many times
The idea is that those are sequences
inverse limits are just so confusing
Because itâs an element of the product
And then you need the thing that like
the element in the n-th spot
Is the same as the (n-1)-th
After reducing mod I^n-1
This is legit just saying that
The difference lies in I^n-1
so it's a series of quotients
So a single element
Is the Cauchy sequence
And the condition about thm agreeing
Is saying that the difference lies in higher and higher powers of I
I get that elements are sequences from the construction of R from Q
that's the bit I actually get
Think about it for R[x]
And completing (x)-adically
If you look at the first like n-terms
I think I need to think about it in F_2 or something really simple first
yeah (x)^n = (x^n) right?
Yup
ok
Like the degree 0 stuff
Is just a constant
In degree 1
You have an a + bx
But you know after reducing mod (x)
Itâs the same as the first
hold on hold on, sorry boss you're going way WAY too fast
yes ok
Ind degree 2 is
I can see that
so those are the first term in the sequences we end up with?
Right
and these are the second?
ok
But they like agree mod (x)
yeah yeah
Then one above
so like
a + bx + cx^2
1+x => (1, 1, 0, 0....)
Right
But looking at this
This is defining
Sum_0^infininty a_ix^i
Each element in your sequence
Is a partial sum
Of the entire element which is the power series
But this is the same thing as
A convergent Cauchy sequence
The difference of consecutive partial sums
yeah I can see that
Lives in higher and higher powers or (x)
so eventually it'll become 0?
So in general the I-adic completion is just convergent power series
Not necessarily
cause all polynomials in R[x] are finite degree? no?
No because itâs an infinite product
The things can continue to be non-zero forever
yeah that's not in R[x] though
Weâd never get an actual power series
Yeah thatâs why we passed to this inverse limit
So we can make sense of one with infinitely many terms
see this is the part that always just feels like magic
I mean it makes sense at each finite step
And an element of the inverse limit is an infinite tuple
Where everything can be non-zero
there are no polynomials in R[x] that have infinite terms so by construction through quotienting by higher powers of (x) we must always get 0
so how can we construct sequences that do not satisfy this through this process
But thatâs why we arenât taking the same element
Weâre saying they agree after cutting out all higher degree stuff
Like going from the n+1-th to the n-th
They agree above degree n
But we can always add stuff in higher degree
And keep fuckinf with the polynomial in higher and higher degree
what are the infinite rings with char 2
I put them in discussion
thx
oh hold on
so
under this completion
p -> (p mod x, p mod x^2, ...)
NOT p -> limit n-> inf p mod x^n
(for some notion of limit)
Yeah
But not everything looks like that
What you wrote down is why (in nice situations)
A embeds into A^
how pathological a situation would you need for it not to embed?
Non-finitely generated idea I think?
sorry to post this mid-discussion, but does anyone have a good text on applying group theory to solve problems?
I stumbled upon this and I realized that I never would've connected the two together and would like to see more/try my hand at some problems maybe
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3483093/a-groups-based-solution-to-an-imo-shortlist-problem-2005
k[x1, x2, ...] my beloved
Ah, yes
So you need it to be separated
$\cap_0^\infty I^n$
Wew Lads Tbh (200 đ) â
Yeah, isn't there smth like the closure of {0} is given by the intersection of all the nbhds of 0 hence that
ah I see
Uhh
No
Closure is the intersection of all closed sets
Containing it
But like you can see the topology is Hausdorff iff thatâs 0
If it is, given any two things
x,xâ distinct
I mean this
Wtf
Not the general case of topology lol
I didnât know this
btw, ty for the explanation chmonkey that actually did help a lot
Swag
Oh ok Atiyah Macdonald answered my question lol
Which one
So yeah it's an embedding iff G is Hausdorff as you said, because of the kernel of the (candidate for the) 'embedding' being the intersection of all of those neighbourhoods of 0
Yeah
This gives you a way to like
Show if something is I-adically complete
Basically the existence of limits of Cauchy sequences
Translates to surjectiveness of the map A -> A^
And injectivity is if the topology is separated
waittt a minute you ain't gonna try and get me on that alg topology shiet are ya
So you can show something is complete
By first showing itâs separated
And then showing that like, limits of Cauchy sequences already exist
in fact if you play around with it
It suffices to show that power series exist
Where power series means like
Sum a_n where a_n in I^n
This is the limit of the partial sums
Anyway, this is helpful because if you want to show something like
âIf youâre I and J-adically complete, youâre I + J-adically completeâ
Doing it this way is the easiest
Oh cool
I was gonna ask when we actually would use I-adic topologies but considering how ubiquitous p-adics are that'd be silly xd
Unm
kinda cool tho
So itâs kind of two ways
1: complete Noetherian local rings insanely good
Cohen Structure theorem OP
You can do a lot of hard commutative algebra leaning on this
Because you often reduce to power series over very nice rings
2: in algebraic geometry it makes sense for formal stuff
If you think of like
Okay this is hard to actually motivate but
The ring R[x]/(x^2)
Is formed of stuff a + bx
Where x^2 = 0
you can think of x as an infinitesimal
I've done some basic classical alg geo if you need to use any terminology lol
And this is like â1st order differential informationâ
ye
Okay so like
You can model tangent vectors as maps from this
Or I guess into it
On the scheme side itâs maps from
But thatâs cuz itâs contravariant
Anyway
ye
You can look at 2nd order info
By modding out by x^3
And 3rdâŚ
And packaging all of it up you get power series
Sure, that's cool
Itâs kind of like⌠representing something via a umm
Maclaurin swries
Anyway but this is needed for like deformation theory
Lol yes that was mentioned in the context in which R[x]/(x^2) was mentioned to me i think
Which is like, about looking at really really small ass perturbations of stuff
Right so those correspond to first order infinitesimal deformations
So like using this sort of stuff you can show stuff like
First order infinitesimal deformations of like
Oh fuck what was it
It was like if a closed sub scheme
Correspond to tangent vectors at the point of the Hilbert scheme corresponding to the closed subscheme?
I forget but like you can start to study geometry is the point
Itâs hard to like
Describe
And I am only slightly acquainted with the stuff
Yeah I imagine it's a bit beyond me rn with the schemes stuff but ye thankss
I guess the idea is just that it gives infinitesimal info
I had it planned to learn chap 10 AMD today and now I have inadvertently learnt some whilst procrastinating on discord lol
Ye
The primes they contain are the same
So topologically
They define the same sub-thing
But with schemes they actually define different spaces
And V(I^n) is kind of like, larger
Since you know, I < J means V(J) < V(I)
ye
So itâs larger but not in any way the like
Points of the space can see
And the completion sort of packages all that up at once
I donât see how gf=1 is easy? It would show that f is injective but you said thatâs hard to show directly. Doesnât f being surjective imply that fg=1? I donât at all see how gf=1 follows
Also @terse crystal the reason Iâm asking this is for an alg top question where Iâm gluing a two cell along a loop of the form of this product
But I havenât gotten to covering spaces yet so Iâm not sure I understand how youâre approaching it
I know I could do all of these problems by brute force expanding out alpha+alpha^3+âŚ, that way, but I feel like there is some trick that Iâm missing. I also donât know what to Google as Iâm not sure what this topic would be called. If anyone can point me in the right direction Iâd really appreciate it
I think the only times you'd really ever have to expand to cos and sin stuff are the ones where cos shows up explicity, and everywhere else you can stay in the alpha world
Especially by using that the sum of all nth roots of unity is 0
Although it's still a lot of computation lol
But that's just for the initial checks, I'm guessing the problems themselves can just rely on the identities from the checks
Which makes things go a lot smoother
@spiral wolf
And of course using that alpha^17 = 1
Also you probably noticed it too but just incase, small typo at the top, should be cos(2pi/17) + i sin(2pi/17)
Yeah, that's what I meant. I could brute force expand a bunch of alphas, but knowing my professor, my gut tells me there should be some trick where I can stay in the realm of A,B,C...,L,M
Especially since he gives that chart of 10 identities
Well there's one more thing that shows up and probably helps, alpha^k + alpha^{-k} = 2 Re(alpha^k) since they're conjugates
And the exponent is all mod 17 of course since alpha is of order 17 and this is a cyclic boi
Oh lol and 2 Re(alpha) happens to be exactly L, so maybe there's something there
Oh actually yeah, every single letter is just some sum of conjugates
I am being really dumb and struggling to find what this element is
so my methodology for this is as follows
D_20 is normal in D_40
I have this result I can use
r and s generate the group
So specificying where r and s goes determines the entire automorpjism
You just have to show itâs an automorpjism
hm
And then separately that it isnât inner
i forgot definition of inner
You can just enumerate the inner auto morphisms
And show mine of them send r and s to those same things
an automorphism by conjugation
is there a smarter way to do that?
oh
Write a program to do it for you
I know i could do that
most of the conjugations look very similar tbh
yeah
I have already written said program lmao
You only have to check up to cosets of the center
Since things in the same closet generate the same inner automorphisk
So you can reduce it to a smaller number
G/Z(G) iso to Inn(G) moment
just ask

not abstract algebra
True gg
Figured this out a bit similarly
Back to the F[[X]] discussion we had a bit ago
for F[X] we can have an evaluation map
but this isnt really possible for F[[X]] is it?
Well that aside, are we able to construct a homomorphism from F[[X]] to F in general?
There is a homomorphism F[[X]] to F which sends a power series to the coefficient of X^0. I'm not sure if there is any sense in which we can have an evaluation map tho
Thats a smart homomorphism đ¤
Can someone let me know what topics should i study for this homework?
Like what topics in a textbook would i read
Looks like mostly group theory -- subgroups and quotients.
wait did i make an error?
so f sends all the letters to the corresponding cosets
and g sends the first n-1 letters to themselves and last one to the product of inverses of others.
g(f(w)) = g(wN)=w?
having a left inverse implies injectivity
And I solved it without using algebraic topology at all⌠and it seems it isnât hard enough to require any algebraic topology âŚ
Anyway Iâm not good at algebraic topology so I donât know any another solution,Just the pure proof within group theory. I only used topology to study subgroups following textbooks, but I havenât used algebraic topology to study quotient groups
Does there exist a map from O(4) (the orthogonal group) to SO(4) (the special orthogonal group) so that whenever I am given a matrix in SO(4), I can turn it to SO(4) matrices?
There's a map alright: for example, you can divide the first column of the matrix by its determinant. But this doesn't produce a group homomorphism.
(In odd dimension, on the other hand, it works to divide the entire matrix by the determinant, since the determinant of an orthogonal matrix is Âą1).
diagonalize T - \lambda Id
not sure how to show that T - lambda * I is diagonalizable
CÎťIC^-1=ÎťI
C(A+B)C^-1=CAC^-1+CBC^-1
what does ABC represent?
Another way to do it would be to use the fact that a matrix is diagonalisable iff there is an eigenbasis with respect to the corresponding linear transformation
Show that adding ÎťI to a linear transformation maps an eigenvector to an eigenvector
So any eigenbasis for one is an eigenbasis for all others
okay that makes sense thank u
so I did 9
and the 4 solutions are 1, 2^n-1 - 1, 2^n-1 + 1, 2^n - 1
and these define some homomorphisms for semi-direct products
but how do I show that these are not isomorphic
so say x is one of those 4 solutions and we have the homomorphism from C_2 -> Aut(C_2^n) defined by mapping 1 to phi such that phi(1) = x
and this is valid by problem 9
Can I abuse the fact that since cyclic groups are abelian, every automorphism is outer and since automorphisms are unique defined by the mapping of the single generator that the groups are different?
Yeah it does I was just confused at first cause you said it was ezdy right after saying showing f is injective is hard, but doesnât more time showing fg=1 which just follows from surjectivity. I did it this way too
Ah okay sorry i just assumed thatâs what you were doing: I couldnât quite understand the picture
I don't think this argument works. It seems to me that the numbers of elements x with x^2 =0 are all distinct (if I didn't make mistake)
Oh so like for one automorphism, there are some number of solutions such that x^2 = 0 but for another automorphism there's another number of solutions?
Interesting
Exactly yes
Iâm not entirely sure of what Iâm about to say but I think semidirect products are isomorphic iff the map to automorphisms are the same up to conjugation
I know the if is true but not sure about the only if
I don't think it's true...
Yea that doesn't sound right
As I know it's a much complicated problem
Something about outer or inner automorphisms is relevant but I forget the terms
Yeah no itâs not true
Itâs only an if statement
Would have been too nice
Okay there is a special case where itâs true
Namely where the twisting group is Z and the images of 1 are conjugate in outer automorphisms
Oh and you also need a hypothesis on the other group not surjecting on S
But I suppose if your semidirect product is nice enough that you have a presentation, you should be able to find some different characteristics of each group
does the first isomorphism theorem hold for rngs as well?
I feel like it's yes, because the proof for rings didn't make that much use of 1 so it should carry over
The induced map in the first isomorphism theorem always exists
It may not be an isomorphism in general
In the situation of the sticker, it will always be injective
Because you have quotiented by the kernel
It will always surject onto the image
But it is not an isomorphism in cases like topological spaces
But it is always a bijective homomorphism onto the image in the situation of the sticker, so in structures with only operators and constants, (+, *, 0) in this case, it will be an isomorphism onto the image
Quotients are defined so that this happens
yeah I was thinking you can just do the coset construction and then show it satisfies the required properties
Yes
In general the coset construction is replaced by general equivalence relations
Like you quotient sets by equivalence relations rather than cosets
The problem with cosets would be, when you have different numbers of operations then how do you know which operation's cosets to take? What if none of the operations is invertible?
Works for rngs since + is still invertible
Probably works I mean
Which part?
I send it again with the error fixed:
The core part is showing TGâ/Gâ=KGâ/Gâ since they are both kernel of G/Gââ>H/Hâ
Or is it symbol? K is the kernel of Ď:Gâ>H, x bar represents the equivalence class xGâ in G/Gâ for x from G
T is the minimal normal subgroup containing x_1âŚx_n
How does the final chain of isomorphismâs allow you to conclude Gâ n T = Gâ n K?
The former is contained in the latter
Say you have two normal subgroups H_1 and H_2 of G, H_1 is contained in H_2. Then if the canonical homomorphism G/H_1â>G/H_2 is isomorphic then H_1=H_2
đ
I was mainly confused by notation the first time around
Yeah I should mention in word that K is the kernel, I just gave the exact sequence.
Yeah I got it for K but I thought T was just a subgroup (not normal closure) and that the next sequence including T was also meant to be exact
I see
Thanks again
NP
sorry maybe you have noticed that it still need to be modified the third line from bottom, it doesnât really make any sense rightâŚđ. So It actually should be you have an isomorphism Ď: T/GânTâ>TGâ/Gâ=KGâ/Gââ>K/GânK For any x bar=x GânT from T/GânT, Ď(x GânT)=x GânK in K/GânK. So x is contained in GânT iff x bar=1 iff Ď(x bar)=x GânK=GânK=1 bar iff x is contained in GânK ⌠so GânT=GânK
So just delete the third line from bottom,The rest remains
Oh lol yeah, I didnât question the 2nd isomorphism theorem form
I didnât notice it was wrong at allđ
Me neither haha
Gladly it can be fixedđ
Hi, for a ring R, and ideal I, what does it mean to reduce R module I?
Quotient ring R/I
Does that mean it is just a surjection between R and R mod I
That is the quotient map yes
To reduce R modulo I would mean taking the quotient ring R/I
But maybe it would depend on context
No, no I donât think I will
why no #dogs
We have asked mods to at least give us a thread
and enable t!dog
even tagged mniip and metal and manan separately
đ
They just
and do nothing
lol
I hate the mods

Mod purge mod purge
we need new mods

Apply for mod moldi
modilocks?
modiji
imagine being pure mathematician 


Zased
Is he still muted
Another 24 hours 
lol what 48 hr mute by bot
bruh
Who are the rules for?! Us?! Or the people in power?!?! The proletariat must RISEEEE

Zased
Iâd start by computing the powers of each element (multiple each matrix by itself until you get the identity) - then try and combine all those powers
Just find all the different results you can get by combining those two matricies basically
you can think geometrically if you like that more...
the first matrix sends x to -y and y to x, which is a clockwise rotation by pi/2
and the second matrix fixes x, but sends y to -y, so it's reflection about an axis
once you see this, showing that the group is D4 isn't hard
Iâve got a question as well actually because I appear to be skill issuing massively
Iâm getting that the galois group of Q(sqrt(2), sqrt(3)) is S_3 but shouldnât it be C2 x C2?
Yes
I canât seem to get the Klien 4 though
Cause i seem to be able to get every different permutation of the set {sqrt(2), sqrt(3), sqrt(6)} as an automorphism
Which is why Iâm getting S_3
sqrt 2 and sqrt 3 decide sqrt 6
Yeah I know but I can still just swap them around right?
Also sqrt 2 can't go to sqrt 3
because those don't satisfy the same polynomials
Polynomial equations should remain true under homomorphisms
Iâve gotten no where near considering how these affect polynomials
I barely even understand the formal definition of a galois group tbh
Damn
That is a collection of words that, when separated, I understand
the roots can switch with their own conjugates only
xx = 2
xx = 3
are your 2 equations
What on earth do you mean by conjugate? 
Cause this book has been talking about group representations into C so do you mean complex conjugates?
So how do you compute Galois groups right now
no
I donât have a clue how, if I did I wouldnât get S_3
Conjugates of a over F are the roots of the minimal polynomial of a over F
fair enough
Oh ok so theyâre kinda similar in that they give isomorphic field extensions?
yes
Ok got that part
negative
nahhhh
Lol
Ok so we canât map sqrt 2 to sqrt 3 because reasons
because field homomorphism
Lets see if I get K4 now
conjugates are ⌠orbits through the action of the (absolute) Galois group
Two algebraic numbers x and y are conjugates if and only if they have the same minimal polynomial (over the base field)
This actually helps
Oh of course the galois group acts naturally on a field extension
You have map Q â Q(sqrt2, sqrt3). Every automorphism of this larger field will be an extension of this homomorphism. You have to count the number of extensions. This is how one usually finds Galois groups
So we can get to that extension via first extending by sqrt(2) and then sqrt(3) and then also doing it the other way around, right?
If you look at C as an algebraic extension of R, you can see that the definition are consistent, since the Galois group of C/R is just the identity and the conjugation
yes
So now you have reduced to the problem of counting extensions when adjoining 1 element đ
And trivially the galois groups of each of the intermediate extensions are just C2? I hope?
Not trivially seeing what you have and haven't proved so far
Intuitively then
Thereâs kind of only one option for the automorphism 
But yes those are C_2 and then the group for the extension turns out to be the product of the 2
I should find a book that works through more examples tbh
Cause this is just lists of theorems
Can we get most abelian groups by considering Gal Q(...)
I feel like if you have a cardinality of generators above Reals you fail
else you can
Inverse Galois problem 
What book
lol nice
im thinking about this the wrong way cus i felt they had to be abelian đ¤
just elementary error probably
hmmmmmm
Groups formed from direct product are abelian
right?
Groups rings and Galois theory by victor snaith
Itâs a literally who book I borrowed from my uni library 
Direct products of abelian groups are abelian 
You can try Milne
It good and short and examples đ
Structure theorem by beloved
ofc smhmh
Sure why nottttt
Why an I thinking the galois group is always a product of C_k
In slightly better news I have managed to prove that the identity map is the only field automorphism of R
that's not totally related to your question, but there is a hard theorem ("Knonecker-Weber theorem") which says that every abelian extension of Q is contained in the cyclotomic extension (take the subfield generated over Q by all of the roots of unity)
so every abelian Galois group Gal(K/Q) is a subgroup of the Galois group of the cyclotomic extension, which is the projective limit of the Z/nZ with n >= 2 integer
@delicate orchid 
Is galois of Q(rt2, rt3, rt5)
C2xC2xC2 ?
Yes
the identity is the only order preserving one
splitting field of x^5 - 2
No
ok no ima think carefully about this one đ
Are you talking about mapping 1 -> -1?
D10?
It is ||a semidirect product of C4 and C5|| I think 
It is also the only ring homomorphism
at least ik my intuition is off somewhat
its also the only ||insert blank||
I thought you were correcting him 
The degree of a field extension is just the dimension of the field extension taken as a vector space over the original field right?
Yes
God I wish this book had answers to these exercises
Guess what Milne has 
So weâre extending Q by some third root of unity and itâs telling me itâs a degree 2 extension
3 surely
i invoke poes law
It's correct
wut D:
But elements are clearly of the form of a+br+cr^2 so it should be 3?
How
Is it because itâs all generated by just r?
Think again 
Yes but not uniquely
oh wait is this just C
Right cause theyâre not linearly independent
Extensions of Q not R
In the field extension anyway
And why are they not 
But theyâre absolutely independent as vectors over Q surely
Argh man im too new to this stuff
Are they 
There is no rational number that maps one root of unity to another yes
Other than -1 -> 1
Yes but thereâs only 2 complex roots in this case
modulo some sign errors
Yes
This is fine
You have not identified the minimal polynomial correctly
Remember to check irreducibility 
mistype
Nope
uhhhh
ok so call the first root w
w, w^2, ..., w^4, w^5(=2)
Now I am looking for the Q-homomorphisms
I would recommend first trying to figure out the degree of the extension


We are taking the splitting field which means we need to put in all the roots of this polynomial 
I have just started what splitting fields are... but I feel like I'm not lacking the knowledge to do this right?
Just done almost no exercises
I was under the impression the splitting field is
Q(5th root of 2)
That is a subfield of R
You won't get the other roots in it
I see......
ok i will have a go at this when im more awake
why did i think all 5 roots were real....
sorry chat my phone died

right before moldi gave me the answer as well 
I did work out the geometry of the situation just so happens to give you a real value that's rational in the meantime
but cmon mfs really expecting me to notice that cos(2/3*pi) is rational like WHO?
at least it makes sense to me now đ
You could also notice that xÂł - 1 is not irreducible
connecting these ideas back to polynomials is way beyond me unless I think about it for like an hour straight
like, yeah that's the minimal polynomial of this field extension - I think
but the fact that's irreducible correlating to the degree being one lower is a connection I haven't yet made
although knowing that does make it nice and easy to generalise this to other roots of unity extenstions
so, say
the degree Q(r^5=1) is 4?
The point is that that's not the minimal polynomial 
Yes
ok so, perhance, perhaps, mayhaps, is the minimal polynomial x^2+1?
cause (x^2+1)(x-1) = x^3-1?
Nope

this entire field of study is a scam
8*4 = 10 moment
F
oh wait it's x^2+x+1
ok and since that's degree 2 we get a degree 2 extenstion?
Yes
because... they're both called degrees Q.E.D




