#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 671 of 407
my question is why does the trivial centre matter
that must have something to do with the answer
I presume it helps with showing H injects into H
or showing that the image of said injection is the kernel of the surjection from G to K
sounds... first iso-y
it does but for that i need a map
tried the canonical map?
G -> G/H by g -> gH
or I suppose in this case
K -> G/H by k -> (trivial automorphism, k)H
might work
it's just an idea
hmm ok
and some sort of injection from H to G
I'm gonna ignore this bit cause the idea of equivalence classes of automorphisms is horrifying
wait
well that's what outer automorphisms are
ye I'll try this later I guess
try playing around with the canonical map a bit more
I swear there's something there
what is the canonical map lmao
_ _
oh
wait a minute, Inn(G) are isomorphic to G/Z(G) right?
so Inn(H) is isomorphic to H
might be able to work with something there
for H->G does mapping x in H to (phi_x,1) where phi_x is conjugation by x work? theta(1)=Inn(H)=[phi_x] i think
yeah cause the centre is trivial
lemme think on this
wait I think it does, we just established that Inn(H) = H so mapping the conjugation/inner automorphisms back to their elements should give us something nice
yea I think I'll play with this and see how far it gets me
I completely forgot G/Z(G) = Inn(G)
it's a useful one
this class moves so fast that I forget these things
we've done so much group theory and now we're going over ring theory
https://faculty.math.illinois.edu/~rezk/500-sp22/lecture-notes-500-sp22-1.pdf
all this in 5 weeks
(they are very nice notes)
that's some dense material
ya
are you guys going to do modules or field/galois theory after rings too?
ye
oof

good luck bro

this reminds me of the pace of my honors intro proofs course
which went from like "what is a proof" to "we are formally constructing the integers and rationals" in a sem
easier material than this but similar pacing
Wtf I’m jealous
I’m having to self teach myself Galois theory slowly 
your prof is not good or you are learning it before you take the course?
There ISNT a course

Thanks to my uni axing stuff like that my algebra skill set is rather uhhh let’s say “concentrated” 
there almost isn't a course for that at my uni either. i think 6 people are taking it this term 
want my prof's notes?
Nah it’s fine
I'm really not sure what is meant by "a coset in the quotient C that is fixed by G"
I thought C was a G-module, not a quotient...
grist bundle
Why is it saying "a coset in the quotient C"?
I do, I have to learn this as well. I've seen the topics before but need a refresher
Does anyone have an idea as to how to solve this? I'm a bit confused
What it means by Exercise F^^
I understand that
2 and 5 are prime factors of 10
But is that all I have to say?
Or is there more? Just need clarification
2 and 5 being prime factors of 10 just means theres an element of order 2 and another of order 5 in G
by cauchy's theorem
it doesn't mean anything else
but that's only the second sentence of exercise F
you actually have to use the rest of the reasoning
note that e, a, b are all distinct elements
in fact
let a have order 2
let b have order 5
then e != a != b != ab != b^2 != ab^2 != b^3 != ab^3 != b^4 != ab^4
those all form the 10 elements of G
What's != ?
grist bundle
yeah
Thank you
How many group homomorphisms are there from Z/n to itself?
n
shouldn't it be like phi(n) or something
I have never once tried to figure out any computations on any assignments that I have graded
i doubt any graders do lol
hm interesting
That's automorphisms
^
i think this true for homomorphisms from Z to Z/n
this is endomorphisms
It's also true here
Hint
really
It's a sticker lol
high schoolers complain about letters being introduced in math, wait till they see this
lol
"it's algebra bro" "NO THAT FUCKIN ISNT"
moldi do you group cohomology
I know what group cohomology is now but nothing beyond that
I know what a group is!
I gotta read clerk's thread
You mean like every homomorphism from Z to Z/n gives unique homo from Z/n to Z/n?
Yes
but how do I know that is all?
Because you can also go back
no you go back
A map from Z/nZ gives a map from Z
problem from yesterday
ok thanks very much
I still don't get the second part
how do you prove x^p-r^p doesn't split when r is not a root of unity
(assuming p is the smallest integer s.t. r^p is in F, otherwise I don't think it is doable at all
What do the roots of x^p - r^p look like
r*\zeta?
Don't need that, since this talks about splitting, not irreducibility
Ye, and F is real
So the only case left to handle is p = 2
That should follow from the discriminant stuff
idk what its supposed to represent
i did presentation on it
I'm dum
I kept thinking about splitting into (x-1)*something
1 isn't a root
tyty
do you know how group cohomology comes to use?
also another question very simple
what do maximal ideals look like in polynomial rings
(x)
See the group cohomology thread on this channel lol
lol woops
actually wait (p,x)
@chilly ocean my only conception of its use is that it can be used to study the fixed points of G-modules
thats H0 tho
also i learned about localization today
🙂
false
i learned about its applications to alg geometry
Applications 
we worked with example looking at polynomials A^2
also correct me if im wrong
A is just k[x] for some field k?
or is it always assumed k is C
the type set A for affine space
As a variety, it is k²
yeah
hi moldi 
Hello stain 
oh wtf
i also learned weird stuff
in alg nt
like these different operators on this ring Z_p[[T]]
Z_p power series
and we just finished going over a bunch of operators on this space
the point is that we use this thing called a Mahler transform and connect it back to iwasawa algebra on Z_p
so all the operators on Z_p[[T]] corresponds to some change of a measure in iwasawa algebra
its v confusing atm for me
the last operator we covered is called a logairthmic derivative
oh last thing i learned today but confusingly was about correspondence between Lie Algebras and Lie Groups
what's Z_p[[T]]? power series with coefficients in p-adic integers?
yeah
damn 
and there is a topology on it also
Power series in power series 
afaik Z_p are just p-adica with norm <=1
but i actually dont know
i just black boxed most the proofs
Ye or they are a quotient of the power series ring over F_p
oh yeah
we went over that
oh ig the types of operators we were going over have a name
called Coleman operators
and they have a heavy relationship to this tower of number fields Q_p(u_p^n) where u_p^n are primitive p^n roots of unity
in each of these fields the unit group have inportance but i dont really remember
we focus a lot on these things called norm compatible sequences in these fields
all in all today was loaded
i wish i had a more directed courseload
JustKeepRunning
i get that they get the mapping from the jacobson density theorem (the analogy of CRT for irreps of A) but after that i get lost
and also i don't really get how the finally inequality implies the problem
what are itreps
oh
no clue what irreducible representation is
i think i know a representation is a homomorphism from group to GLnR
an irreducible representation is one that has no proper nontrivial subrepresentations
sort of but you can think of a representation as a k algebra (where k is a field) along with an algebra homomorphism to EndV
is a subrepresentation a restriction of a representation?
its a subset of the representation where mutliplication by any element of the algebra is closed
sort of like ideals in ring theory
oh
how can i think of a representation as k->End(V)?
how is k being formedd#
do you mind answering these questions
no lol its fine
its like
how for a ring
you have an additive group structure along with multiplication
like its the two parts that make it up
yeah
so you have the k-vector space V (the algebra)
along with an action (aka. a homomorphism)
if you want to think of it more intuitively
the homomorphism is basically a matrix you associate with the algebra
so i thought a representatiom of a group G is r:G->GL(n,R) a group homomorphism, but you are saying it can be viewed at a k-algebra with multiplication defined by k->End(V)
oh
are you making it more general?
no no like the two definitons mean the same thing
like wut are saying is same as wut i am saying
just like how a group action is just a homomorphism to the symmetric group
yeah
your homomoprhims is the "action" i am referring to
oh i think i see it
oh lol no clue as of now
yea rep theory has been pretty hard to learn
oh that's just direct summing
honestly ima kinda confused about that notation too
yeah but what is superscript
exactly
i think it just means it repeated in the direct sum a certain number of times?
i mean i might have idea where square term coming from?
but idk why they have to dirrect sum that too
cuz if it was just raised to the power they wouldn't need the \oplus symbol there
do u get how we get from the inequality to concluding the problem statement
cuz idk how this relates to irreps
surjection makes it believable
They get dim V² from end V
oh
could you elabroate
end(v,v) are nxn matricies
bad phrasing ig
but if u have vextorspace V
the endmorphisms are square matricies with same dim
Oh ok they're phrasing it differently
oh i sorta see
V^⊕dim V
This has (dimension V)²
This is standard more notation for repeated direct sum
wut is a repeated direct sum
seems redundant
If you remove the plus it is repeated direct product
V + V + ... + V lol
ive seen this betorw
wait but if the dim was finite then direct product and direct sum are the same right
so it wouldn't matter?
wait but here some of the dim could be unbounded
Ye
tocyem your idea about the matrices being nxn was pretty nice
is it valid for this problem
no like the thing about the size of End(v)
but if you treat everything as a vector space then it makes sense
yea it does
idk if that works here though
i feel like the inequality basicaly boils down to the fact that $(a+b+c+d)^2\geq a^2+b^2+c^2+d^2$ if you think about it intuitively
JustKeepRunning
oh wait yes u are write i am overcomplicating
like taking dimension of that surjection gives you take inequality immediately
the part that looks weird is just the notation but we understand now
also do u know why they use the two headed arrow
two headed is shorthand for surjection
lol idk shit
i have no clue what most those objects really are even though you explained
looks interesting though
i think i know a bit tho
and def want to get more invested
evan chen
ye
i remember seeing that in HS
also another cool thing i learned were how localization makes a DVR and valuation represents number of times another polynomial intersects
What is the relation between inductively ordered sets and induction? I don't think we can do the usual induction on this set, as we are only guaranteed upper bounds on each chain. So what kind of induction can we do on this set? What are some examples of proofs/applications of such kind of induction? If there is none, why are they called inductively ordered? If someone could point to a resource, that'd be helpful too.
Yours gratefully
What subgroups of Q8 correspond to the subgroups of Q/H under the Correspondence Theorem? H is {1, -1}
can u guys double check my work
i took a quick look over it and it seems correct o me
also can someone explain the notation here (what does the "opposite multiplication" thing mean?)
like division or smth?
a groups opposite has the same underlying set, but the definition of composition on the opposite group is a x b = b * a if * is the operation on the original group
Do people remember all those propositions
Does someone have some intuition or vid for cosets?
I'm having a hard time grasping what they are and connecting all the dots in relation to quotient groups
Could someone walk me through an arbitray group... (Z/m8Z, +)?
The quotient groups in this case would be the trivial groups, and what?
try looking at cosets of R^2 when viewed as an additive group, and the sub-spaces of R^2 as subgroups. you can actually draw these cosets, and its a good way to think of them in general
I haven't learned what a sub-space is yet
its just a subset of a vector space that is also a vector space
You could check out the first iso thread
there's a first iso thread 
que es un first iso thread
Quotients of compact spaces are compact, does that apply here?
well if it only was asking for compact this would be a simpler question. but I'm asking this for a friend and since I haven't had any algebraic geometry idk what a variety is
and if quotienting by such a group preserves that property
Yeah I'm not sure when a variety is called compact, but if it is when the underlying topological space is compact then yes
Since it's just a topological space with extra structure
I tried to look it up but didn't really get very far as these words in exactly this order don't seem to be used commonly
ig cuz he may have translated from french
but does that quotient operation also preserve the property of being a variety in that case?
also what I found kind of weird that this was asked in differential geometry and not some other subject, I'd expect that they would just ask this for manifolds there. maybe he means sth else idk?
arent varieties noetherian and thus always compact?

the algebro-geometric replacement is completeness
no idea if this is related to the question though 
wait what type of variety are we talking about now
the type that is studied in algebraic geometry?
wait but then what topology were you talking about, because that seemed kinda wrong for the euclidean one? or is it not?
yeah, since my friend was asking this apparently in diffgeo, I assume they talked about the euclidean one? maybe?
hm ok but wouldnt you then use the word manifold
otherwise the question itself would be worded redundantly
(and ask in #diff-geo-diff-top)
my original comment was in reply to this ^and you saying the question is translated
thinking about it in french the word variety is used both for varieties and manifolds
yes, also I asked there before and no one answered, so I thought I'd ask here today. I already mentioned this seemed kind of odd to me
OH
yeah I don't speak french lmao
yeah ok now I know why no one answered lmfao
thanks for clearing that up
I'm asked to show that SES of modules over K[G] always split if G is a finite group and K is a char 0 field
A little lost...
Is this to do with the relationship between free/projective/flat/torsion-free modules?
Maschke's theorem 😌
cool to know it works for any char 0 field and not just algebraically closed ones
i can never remember these hypothesis 😵💫
the proof was like averaging the splitting map
so yea it should work as long as char k doesn't divide |G|
I've got 2 different proofs, both 2 pages long 
had an abstract exam
complete destruction
Given ζ 25th root of unity
I got |Gal(Q(ζ)/Q)|=20
and there was a 4 cycle
But how do you know if it’s abelian
wait really
in napkin it says
Let $G$ be a finite group, and $k$ an algebraically closed field whose characteristic does not divide $|G|$. Then $k[G]$ is semisimple
JustKeepRunning
although not being algebraically closed sounds like a nightmare to work with
You prove it by taking an avg
The reason you need char 0 IIRC is just so you can divide by |G|
Which is why you can instead assume the characteristic doesn’t divide |G|
At least to my memory
wait is |Gal(Q(ζ_n)/Q|=φ(n)?
yeah
Fuck so it’s just Aut(Z_n)
uhh idk about that
I've only looked at it through the lens of representation theory so I've only ever dealt with algebraically closed cases as they make the representations SO much nicer
I was thinking about the order 5 element in that group
I wrote ζ->ζ^6 but somehow calculated it wrong and thought it wasn’t order 5
rip me
What does average mean in this context
Sum over the group and divide par |G|
Ah
we can never have that the n x n matrices over a ring R can have an identity but R itself has no identity right?
All rings have identity
Why is true that every map from a torsion group to a free group is trivial?
no?
it depends on what book you are using
for example the ring of even integers
some authros do assume all rings have identity
D&F 
and are commutative
strange
yea D&F doens't
D&F basically assume bare minimum
no commutative
no identitty
I see
is a subgroup of a divislbe group divisible ??
nah
consider the trivial subgroup
wait no
it still shouldn't be
ok consider the integers as a subgroup of the rational numbers, there we go
does divisible for multiplicative group mean every element has an nth root ??
yes
He just means that you need to determine all χ(g) to define χ, and G=S_3 is just an example that he will discuss about…
I started the course groups and rings and this week was my first week and I’m alr struggling bcs the course is in English and I’m native Dutch. Can someone give me an explanation bcs I’m stuck
What part is unclear?
Is someone able to explain the intuition behind what ideals represent, and what factor rings represent? Brushing up on my undergrad stuff and I never really understood the concept, just got bombarded with definitions and proofs
in your free time
grab paper and pen
and think of ideals in Z
think about divisiblity
prime ideals what are those
etc
you will have fun
and if you get to something just always remember that is just one way of looking at things
i think in algebraic geometry ideals represent points and etc..
Prime ideals do
AG is schizo
The idea behind a quotient is that you want to set certain things to 0. An ideal is just what ends up being spit out if you want what you end up with to still be a ring
I think it’s most instructive to look at things like quotients of polyomil rings
Like R[x]/(x^2 + 1) ≈ C
And what you’re doing here is adding a formal symbol x which at first doesn’t mean anything
But then by quotienting by x^2 + 1 you declare that x^2 +
1 = 0, or really, x^2 = -1
So now x acts like i, it’s a square root of -1, and that’s why you end up with C because the result is just R[i] which is what C is
yea
This is why the Gaussian integers is Z[x]/(x^2 + 1) as well
You can do lots of things like adjoining roots of unity to R, irrational numbers to Q, etc etc by this sort of construction
That literally just made everything click, thank you
And now I understand the logic behind the fundamental theorem as well
how many subgroups of Sn are isomorphic to Sn-1
me and my friend think that it should have n, each being V_k(k) where V_k(k) is the set of all permutations sending k to k
edge case, S_2 has only 1, not 2 subgroups isomorphic to S_1
I suspect it might be possible for it to have more than n in general though, might be some weird ways of combining elements to make it happen or something, idk, probably an easy way to see that it's not the case by going through and throwing all the standard theorems at it though
hmm.
@hidden haven I just remembered but did u end up thinking about the quotient of product thing we were talking about a while ago? It's still kinda bothering me (Ping me when u reply)
No
Sorry, I should’ve replied to the other one
But there’s (at the very least) an exotic copy of S_5 inside of S_6 not of that form
You use it to construct the outer automorphism of S_6
Try to compute the dimension of the d x d matrices of trace zero
You should get d^2 - 1, I think you can just do it grabbing the following d^2 - 1 linearly independent matrices
Start at the top left and put a 1 in the top left and a -1 in the bottom right
Or rather like
0 everywhere, and a 1 in exactly one of the spots other than the bottom right
But if you put a 1 in the diagonal, avtually put a -1 in the bottom right
Can someone explain to me, why, in very simple terms (pls or else my IQ can't handle it) that why is it that,
$$Ext_R^1(P, N) = 0 \text{ for all $R$-module M} \implies P is projective$$
Thank you!
ScarletScorch
These all have trace 0, and give d^2-1 linearly independent vectors, and clearly [A,A] isn’t everything so it can’t be d^2 dimensional, then the dimension of the quotient is d^2 - (d^2 - 1) = 1
This is almost by definition
A module is defined to be projective if Hom(P,-) is exact, which because it’s left exact means that for any surjection kernel -> M -> N that the map Hom(P,M) -> Hom(P,N) is surjective
But due to Ext’s definition, you know that given such a surjevtion, the sequence
Hom(P,M) -> Hom(P,N) -> Ext^1_R(P,kernel) is exact
By assumption the last module is 0
But then Hom(P,M) -> Hom(P,N) -> 0 exact means the map is surjective
So P is projective
This is gonna sound really stupid but
Why does the definition of Ext tell me this?
Umm…
Well I guess it depends on how you defined Ext
I take it to be a derived functor of Hom in which case it’s like definitional
If you define it as the like n-th homology of blah blah resolutions, apply Hom…
That’s how you make derived functors, but in that case it’s a bit trickier
It isn’t actually that bad but
It requires you to develop some homological algebra
Like idk, what do you know about Ext? The most important thing is the long exact sequence you get from any short exact sequence which is what we applied here
Well so our definition followed from Aluffi's book which he just drew a bunch of arrows for a lack of better word
well so his definition is that
Sure but Aluffi then states that you get a long exact sequence for any short exact sequence
if u could expand, that would be really cool. idk what outer automorphism is
The fact that this holds and well-definedness is done later
wow you are really well acquainted with the book
This is from the problem I did 2 years ago constructing the outer automorphism. I construct the faithful representation of S_5, and if you trace out what it does you’ll see it doesn’t fix any of the Sylow-5 subgroups so it doesn’t embed into S_6 as any of the distinguished S_5’s you listed
This is where I learned this material in particular from the first time hahahaha
So I’m familiar with this part of the book a lot more than the rest
Thanks so much I think I actually understood it

Let $\mathbf{M}$ be a $2^{N}\times2^{N}$ matrix with complex entries, and write $\mathbf{M}$ in block form as: $\mathbf{M}=\left[\begin{array}{cc}
\mathbf{A} & \mathbf{B}^{\dagger}\
\mathbf{B} & \mathbf{D}
\end{array}\right]$
ComplexVariable
where $\dagger$ denotes the conjugate transpose, and where all four blocks are $2^{N-1}\times2^{N-1}$. Assume that $\mathbf{M}, \mathbf{A}$, and $\mathbf{D}$ are all Hermitian. If both $\mathbf{A}$ and $\mathbf{D}$ are invertible, does it follow that $\mathbf{M}$ is invertible?
ComplexVariable
How can a 2^N x 2^N matrix be a 2x2 matrix of 2^{N-1} x 2^{N-1} blocks?
Split it into quarters?
Wait
I forgot how adding works
I thought 2^{N-1} = 2^N - 1 for a second
What is wrong with me
when you do the fast fourier transform too fast
But also idk, it suffices to ask if AD - BB^dagger is invertible I think
But idk if this is true whenever A and D are invertible
But I’m also not totally sure if the adjugate matrix thing works over a noncommutative ring
Which is how much you’d know it’s equivalent to look at this
Okay I think I have a counterexample
I’m pretty sure a 2x2 matrix with 1’s in every coordinate satisfy this
And you can scale this up to any size by taking the 2^{N-1} by 2^{N-1} identity matrix for all four blocks
Or uhh… maybe if you go past 2x2 the entire matrix isn’t Hermitian anymore
No I think you’re fine still
If it helps, I specifically need N≥2.

Quotient of product?
Can someone check if I messed something up here:\
Determine the splitting field and its degree over $\mathbb{Q}$ for $x^6-4$. \
$x^6-4=(x^3-2)(x^3+2)$, and both $x^3-2$ $x^3+2$ are degree $3$ irreducible polynomials in $\mathbb{Q}$. Hence, $\alpha=2^{1/3}$ is an element of our extension whose minimal polynomial is degree $3$. It also has complex roots of the form $\beta=\alpha\xi$ where $\xi=e^{i\pi/3}$. Notice that $\alpha$ is in the ideal generated by $\beta$ (as $\xi$ is the $6th$ root of unity in $\mathbb{C}$) and so $\mathbb{Q}(2^{1/3}e^{i\pi/3})$ is a splitting field over $\mathbb{Q}$ for $x^6-4$. $\beta$ has minimal polynomial $m_\beta(x)=x^3+2$ in $\mathbb{Q}$, and hence it is a degree $3$ extension.
Dpao
alpha being in the ideal generated by beta is kinda meaningless since the ideal is always the whole field. You have to prove that all roots are in the subfield generated by beta, that is what will allow you to conclude that Q(beta) is splitting field. In fact it is not true that all the roots are generated by beta, I think.
it definitley feels wrong that Beta would or that its degree 3
I think its prob best to go back and consider the polynomial (x^3-2) in $Q(\alpha)[x]$ which is $x^3-\alpha^3=-(\alpha-x)(\alpha^2+\alpha x +x^2)$
Dpao
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
im overcomplicating things and it really is just Q(\alpha,\beta), alpha is not in the subring of beta
since it has 6 roots, should be degree>= 6 so just that alone shows my original is wrong
is there an easy test to determine whether 2 elements of F_2 freely generate it
I'm trying to prove Out(F2)=GL2(Z) and I already have a surjective homomorphism of monoids End(F2)->(2×2 integer matrices), I just need to check that the intersection of Aut(F2) with the kernel of my map is exactly Inn(F2). this result ends up giving an easy test to determine whether a given endomorphism is an automorphism, but I was wondering if I could go the other direction with that
I should have been more clear
not the field on 2 elements
the free group on 2 letters
sorry
oh
I think this is probably undecidable if I had to gguess
I think determining when things generate groups is a very hard problem or something
and also F_2 is fucked
¯_(ツ)_/¯
well if the isomorphism holds (which I know it does) then I do have a test
provided you can look at an automorphism and determine whether it's inner or not
which you can
unless the map I already have is the wrong way to go about the isomorphism Out(F2)=GL2(Z)
but I doubt that since my function is pretty nice
hahahaha
When talking about cosets, normal groups, factor groups, I keep seeing notation like an element multiplied by a group. This basically means an element multiplied by any element in the set since we are talking about equivalency classes right?
Yes.
The idea is that gH represents the set of all elements of the form gh, where h is in H.
In additive notation, this would be g + H, the set of all elements of the form g + h.
You can think of this as the image of H under the map h —> gh
This map is called (left-)translation by g.
Thanks
No problem. 🙂
oh ok I just remembered that as exactness of product lol
I did think about it
And it is true
Or at least I have been reading some weibel and it seems that some arguments also need it
So with that I can't see it not being true
And of course I didn't see any problems with the argument you gave
Ye I remember Weibel includes this as an axiom AB4 which says that product of epis is epi
And proves that R-mod always satisfies it
AB4 :3
Is there a way to prove that any two distinct elements of order 2 of S3 form S3 besides brute force?
yeah
the subgroup they generate has to have at least 3 elements, but a group containing an element of order 2 has to have order divisible by 2
this means it's stuck at 4 or 6
by Lagrange, 4 is impossible as 4 doesn't divide 6
so you're stuck with the subgroup they generate being order 6, aka the whole thing
nice
Why do subgroups generated by two distinct elements of order two have an order >= 3?
Oh
Because of Lagrange's
if x and y are the distinct elements of order 2, then the subgroup generated by x, y will at least contain 1, x and y
I see
Good proof
Any hints for proving that if Z/Zm x Z/Zn is cyclic then gcd(m,n) = 1
If gcd isn’t 1 show there cant be a generating element would be my first intuition
Or consider a generating element and try to get to bezout
Well
I was thinking
Let the generating element be +1 for both m and n
You would still generate the entire group by carrying out the operation lcm(m,n) times
Unless I'm misinterpreting something
Compute the order of (x,y) in any product based on the order of x and y
You need an element of order nm for this group to be cyclic
From there you appeal to Bezout’s lemma
eevee
Is there uh... a more 'obvious' example?
Z[sqrt-13] isnt clearly not a UFD to me D:
okie what about Z[2i]?
Ok, its prolly cus i have to revise the meaning of UFD 😂
ah oops
I think the “canonical” choice is Z[sqrt(-5)]
This is the example I’ve always seen, but maybe because it’s in Dummit and Foote or something
here we physically removed the element i, so 2 and 2i aren't associates anymore! (as the only units are 1 and -1)
because of this 4 has two "different" factorizations
4 ~ 2 * 2 ~ (2i) * (2i)
How can you remove it physically when it doesn't physically exist?
Yeah it’s imaginary you dingus
Listen to yourself
soooo 2i becomes irreducible. And like you said we have 2i.2i = -2.2
I think I get this D:
I’m team Z[sqrt(-5)] personally
yee, only factor of 2i are like 1 + i, and 1+i is no longer an element of Z[2i]
That's why it's good
have fun trying to recall what the number in the root was when you write your next exam
D:
6 = 2•3 = (1 + sqrt(-5))(1 - sqrt(-5))
For 13, you can write 14 = 7•2 = (1 + sqrt(-3))(1 - sqrt(-3))
so like -3 and -4 are bad because they aren't integrally closed in their field of fractions... but -5 and -13 are even worse
oh u do aa-bb = (a-b)(a+b)
you can't fill in the "holes" to make it a UFD
Wut
but Z[2i] or Z[sqrt(-3)] are pretty close to UFD
How do you even quantify that
just need to add fill that missing i and (-1 + sqrt(-3))/2

In more classical language
yea this..
the class number for -3 and -4 are 1
Okay well the Picard group is the same thing as ideal class group 
What’s the class number
size of the class group
class number for -5 is 2 i think
I feel like I'm meant to know this stuff D:
Like the clas group is always non-empty and trivial iff UFD right?
No, this is algebraic number theory
Ofc you’re not
I am doing alg nt rn
Oh
like it's much more fundamental to have your ring be integrally closed in its fraction field to make it a UFD
which is why i used Z[2i] instead of Z[sqrt(-5)]
yea that's true
But if
So does this always work out? what if a^2 - b^2 = (a+b)(a-b) gives you a prime 🤔
doesn’t this mean they’re a UFD
like class group of a number field K is the ideal group thingy of O_K
and O_K is automatically integrally closed
This stuff is all useless, I don't know any of it and yet I'm perfectly happy ignoring det whenever he talks about this 
people don't care about non-integrally closed things ig 
they ask me if this blob is a UFD in the exam and im like 'wut'
D:
Was that only about integrally closed domains that the ideal class group says that
why
Prove it
it's pretty much same as the rational root theorem proof
I’m using scheme theory 🥸
Idk the class group is kinda... swagtastic
🤓
AG hard 
AG headass 🤓
I was looking at Utah’s old quals and one problem was to show C[x] is integrally closed
Lol
Like the first thing you learn when you learn what integrally closed means
Is that UFDs are integrally closed
Easy test headass 🤓
I think it’s probably easy to see using the R1 and S2 thing maybe
For Noetherian rings
what's R1 and S2 thingy
Uhh
Don’t worry about it, but if you want look up Serre’s criterion for normality
Actually it’s just
Easy
No need to bust out anything fancy lol
one more adjective for a ring 
If R is normal, then consider an element of the fraction field of R[x] integral over R[x]
Then it’s also integral over K[x], and K[x] is a UFD so it’s normal
So the coefficients of its min poly live in K
But now you can like
There’s that thing about for a normal ring R, if you have an algebraic extension L of K = frac(R)
Oh holy crap nvm this might be hard
Okay I think this is hard
🤔
I looked it up in the stacks project
At least as they present it, it’s very nontrivial
You have to do clever stuff to reduce to the Noetherian case and then use the notion of almost integral
$\bZ[\sqrt{n}]$ for $n\in\bZ$
$$(a+\sqrt n)(a-\sqrt n) = a^2-n = a^2+(-n)$$
The difference between 2 consecutive squares is odd, so an $a$ can always be found to make this factorisable in 2 different ways.
I have to then think if $(a+\sqrt n) ,(a-\sqrt n)$ may be units
Shuri2060
Is this the right approach for the basic stuff we discussed earlier? 🤔
Also, I should probably make n non-square
you would also need to check for the irreducibility of the factors, which can be hard to generalize to weird values of n
If the factors are reducible, that is fine right? It is only a problem if they are units
(I am trying to show I can find a number that can be split in 2 different ways)
yea it's fine... but you wouldn't know the two factorizations are "essentially different" unless you factorize them completely into irreducibles
ahhh I see.
and this is precisely what happens when n = -2, I suppose
yea it has to cuz Z[sqrt(-2)] is a UFD :p
(2 + a)(2 - a) = 6 = 2 * 3
where a = sqrt(-2)
both are just specializations of the factorization
a * a * (1 + a) * (1 - a)
If I quotient the free group on n generators by the product of those generators do I obtain the free group on n-1 generators?
I really need this to be true but I’m struggling to show it
I think it works right can’t I just take the first n-1 generators? They generate themselves and generate the inverse of the nth one so things should work right?
(Well this only show it’s a quotient of a free group on n-1 generators I suppose)
in think your case it's fine either ways...
we can easily define maps in both directions g : F_n/N --> F_{n-1} and f : F_{n-1} --> F_n/N
checking injectivity of f directly is hard, but you've already checked the surjectivity of f, which is enough to prove that the two compositions are identities on the respective groups.
gf = 1 is easy
and fgf = f follows, and since f is surjective fg = 1
What is the process of quotienting here 👀
We have <a1, ..., an>
Is it <a1, ..., an | any permutation of the product a1...an > ?
i think we're quotienting by a fixed product, say a1...an
and by that we mean quotienting by the smallest normal subgroup containing a1...an
Thanks, will explore this idea 👀
but in general if you wanna show something satisfies "no further relations" it's easier to act by the group on some nice object and show that any new relation won't act via identity so everything's good.
(although i've only seen one concrete example of this while showing PSL_2(Z) is isomorphic to C2 * C3)
I think it works, using subgroups of commutators in the picture, maybe you can check it for me
TG’/G’ is also the kernel because any Πa_i^s_i in the kernel, where a_i is the equivalence class of x_i, we must have that s_i=s_n for every 1<=i<=n-1 therefore all s_i are equal
What is n?
*of degree n
Also monic polynomials right?
Please adjust it
Ok
Just by removing (p-1) in your picture?
Then no, I don’t think it’s true. I calculated that number of monic irreducible polynomials of degree 3 over Z/pZ is p^3-p-C(p,3)-(p+2)C(p,2)
$p^n-{p \choose n}(p-1)$
seth.delacroix
For monic
But let me think about what youbsaid
*said
It's an exercise in my book
Cogwheels of the mind
Conjugate
Conjugate of a+bi=a-bi
wait but like wut would happen if codomain wasn't C
then would there be a more general definition that could be used
you'd use a different inner product
Don’t know, I only know that in C that bar means conjugate
it's definitely complex conjugate in this context
lemme think
I think over R and Q you'd just use the fact that $\overline{a}=a$ and just write the inner product without the bar
Wew Lads Tbh ✓
for finite fields I have no clue
You can test it, like p=2, your result will be 8, mine is 2 which is the case: x^3+x^2+1 and x^3+x+1
There is a nice theorem which is pretty useful here.
[
x^{p^n} - x = \prod_{d | n} (\text{monic irreducibles of degree }d)
]
if you take degree of both sides, you get
[
p^n = \sum_{d | n} d \cdot N(d)
]
where $N(d)$ is the number of monic irreducibles of degree d.
use mobius inversion if you want a formula for it.
det
Oh that’s brilliant… I thought I had to calculate for each n using induction or something 😂
Sorry made a mistake at the final line, G’ cup K =G’ cup T, not T cup K.
with this kinda thingy from earlier, what goes wrong with this kinda thinking ---
$$\langle a, b\mid a^2, b^4, aba^{-1}b^{-1}\rangle \cong \langle a, b\rangle / \langle a^2, b^4, aba^{-1}b^{-1}\rangle$$
Shuri2060
right, you take the smallest normal subgroup containing it
not just the smallest subgroup
But like uhhh
yea it's pretty eww to work with
How do I put my thoughts into words...
unless there are some nice actions or finiteness conditions
Like what's missing??? 😄
I have to add the forward and backward conjugates by each of the generators to this to get the smallest normal subgroup?
probably conjugates by each element and not just each generator 
but each element is made from the generators
I think you generate the forward/backward conjugates of everything
uhhh im looking at this result i saw on stack
yea but this lets you iterate the conjugation operation
a in H then gag' in H then hgag'h' in H
just a and gag' might not be enough is what i'm trying to say
only thing presentations are good to work with are constructing map from them :p
It is implied
you quotient a, b
over the smallest normal subgroup containing the relations
yea that's the definition
there are free algebras just like free groups
and construction of tensor product is like a presentation
does this go into category theory... or not that direction of thinking
presentation are different in things other than groups, like finitely presented module, it involves other stuffs like exact sequences.
at that level, category theory will be more language than any substantial theorem
and you can of course say the same in a different language
ok
. No clue what category is except a generalisation of algebra, somehow
so like a free commutative ring on n things is the polynomial ring Z[x1, ..., xn]
a presentation would be a quotient of this
It’s everywhere, like Jacobson basic algebra discusses category theory in volume 2 chapter 1
Limit and colimit aren’t defined generally though, but the rest is ok
i really like the description Aluffi gives 
Gtm 211 Lang’s algebra also has category theory I think, but I remember it appears in the last few chapters
things, and things that go from things to things
it starts getting fun when you introduce more things that go between those things which were things going from things to things
that's enlightening, thanks
For a general cayley graph
Is there an 'easy' way to visualize the right multiplication version
Like... uh...
idk how to describe it - but if you looked at just this, it's not 'obvious' what right multiplication does to an element
And so I don't find it obvious what conjugation does
IS THAT A FUCKING YONEDA LEMMA
Did someone summon me?

It's not yoneda lol
wait wait i think I have an idea vaguely, can't put it in words much
I see a square inside a square + arrows I think yoneda
So Whenever you see three objects six arrows then you think grothendieck…
If arrows are left multiplication, then right multiplication by x is all the arrows out of x
So like I treat x as e
I basically consider x^-1(G)
I think
I think I kinda got it
Nice
wasnt until recently i realised there are pictures for things u do in group theory
I don’t see the point. I draw a Cayley diagram when I want to use some algebraic topology on it not because I need to visualize anything…
arrows 
😦
idk, I feel like it's nice to visualize what these things are............
my way of seeing math
Nice
I see
They should make math 2 in which everything has a diagram calculus
Nice

Then he might enjoy diagrammatic algebra
dramatic algebra for short
Me see words : 
diaphragm algebra
We use Auto spelling… I can never spell diagrammatic myself
If anyone hasn't seen the proof of eckmann hilton by notation tricks I highly recommend doing that 
diagrammatic
This has no prereqs btw
And is a very short proof on wikipedia 😌
In what book?
Wikipedia has it, titled as 2-dimensional proof
Actually how about I just send screenshots
Oh I see,thanks
Please
wait i don't get this
wut
on the right?
wait i was thinking about conjugation
That second identity is called interchange identity
Idk maybe I don't remember what a cayley graph is lol
This is how you show that higher homotopy groups are abelian
And that 2 dimensional notation is extremely useful in category theory with some modification

if the graph is corresponding to left multiplication you could only multiply the whole graph on right to preserve all the arrows and stuff

oh i kinda see now 🙈
yea that's liek multiplying the whole graph on the right by r^-1
so it means if we multiply this new red graph on the right with r we get the old graph

So if we want to know what (r^3s)r is................... (which should be r^2s)
We look at where r^3s is now (marked in red)
Which is what r^2s is on the old graph (the answer)

So the red graph is more suitably called (G)r^-1
I see . heheh
Ok that makes total sense now 😄
The group/graph G acts on the left on r^-1 to make the red group/graph
If p(x) is irreducible then the ideal generated by p(x) is maximal. Is the best strat to show F[x] mod p(x) is a field? F is a field btw
F is field then F[x] is UFD so irreducible => prime => maximal ideal
probably easier
Thanks
R[[X]] is defined to be the infinite series in X with coeffs in R
Can we make sense of this in any way with the original defn of
R[X]
it's the completion of R[x] I believe
so it turns out we really did just let n -> infinity 
it's a superset of R[X]
the ring of formal power series over X (with coefficients in R)
what happens if we do F2[[X]]/(1+X+X²+X³+...)
I have no idea 
I'm not 100% familiar with the actual ring operations I will be honest
I know addition is term-wise but multiplication?!??!
oh ok it is like polynomials
cool
oh for gods sake 
obvsly same thing
R^N doesn't really have ring strucutre on it
and what if it's R[[X,Y]]?!?!
might get craaazzzyyy
split it into R[[X]][[Y]] like usual
it does
the functions from N to R
does have a ring structure?
You can add them times them
point is R^N doesn't tell you how many terms it's in
these are just the sequences in R
so.... yes.... cause R[[X]] is a ring

